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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of swelling in his ankles and fluid-filled blisters around his feet that burst easily. He has a history of Crohn's disease that has been bothering him for a long time. Upon examination, he appears normal except for a urinalysis that shows 2+ protein. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer: Congestive cardiac failure
Correct Answer: Amyloidosis
Explanation:Medical Conditions Associated with Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can lead to various medical conditions. One of these conditions is amyloidosis, which occurs when extracellular protein deposits disrupt normal organ function. This can result in nephrotic syndrome, characterized by protein in the urine and edema. While cardiac disease is uncommon in Crohn’s disease, it can occur and may present as congestive heart failure. Cirrhosis of the liver is also a potential complication, particularly in cases of primary sclerosing cholangitis. However, there is no indication of liver failure in the presented case. Nephritic syndrome, which involves protein and blood in the urine, is not the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms. While cutaneous manifestations such as blisters can occur in Crohn’s disease, pemphigus is a rare association and is not the likely cause of the patient’s edema and proteinuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Correct
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You encounter a client who is worried about having coeliac disease. They have recently reintroduced gluten in their diet. How long should the client be consuming gluten before NICE suggests testing for coeliac disease?
Your Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Coeliac Disease Testing
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), individuals who are being tested for coeliac disease should have consumed gluten-containing foods equivalent to at least 4 slices of bread over the previous 6 weeks. Additionally, they should be consuming these foods at least twice per day during this time. This is important because consuming gluten is necessary to trigger the immune response that leads to the production of antibodies, which are used to diagnose coeliac disease. Therefore, it is essential that individuals do not follow a gluten-free diet before being tested for coeliac disease. Following these guidelines can help ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment for individuals with coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old traveler comes back from a year of backpacking in a remote area of India. He has been experiencing diarrhea for two weeks and the laboratory confirms that he has giardiasis.
What is true about giardiasis?Your Answer: Metronidazole is used in the treatment of this condition
Correct Answer: Diagnosis is made by culture of stool
Explanation:Giardiasis: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis
Giardiasis is a parasitic infection caused by Giardia lamblia. The incubation period for this infection is typically 1-2 weeks. Symptoms include diarrhea, but it is not bloody like in dysentery. The organism attaches to the small bowel but doesn’t invade it. Metronidazole and tinidazole are commonly used in treatment.
To diagnose giardiasis, stool samples are examined microscopically for cysts, not cultures. It may be necessary to collect several samples to confirm the diagnosis as cysts may not be present in every stool. Infection can be contracted from any contaminated water, whether it is still or running. It is important to practice good hygiene and avoid drinking untreated water to prevent giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Correct
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You encounter a 35-year-old male patient with ulcerative colitis. His previous colonoscopies have revealed widespread disease affecting his entire colon. He reports passing approximately 5 bloody stools per day for the past 3 days.
Upon examination, his heart rate is 82 beats per minute, blood pressure is 129/62 mmHg, and temperature is 36.9ºC. His abdomen is soft and non-tender.
What would be the most suitable course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Rectal mesalazine and oral sulfasalazine
Explanation:When a patient experiences a mild-moderate flare of ulcerative colitis that extends beyond the left-sided colon, it is recommended to add oral aminosalicylates to rectal aminosalicylates. This is because enemas can only reach a certain point and the addition of an oral medication ensures proper treatment. In this case, the patient’s colonoscopy showed extensive disease, making the use of an oral aminosalicylate necessary. Therefore, this is the correct option and using rectal mesalazine alone is not sufficient.
Using oral steroids like prednisolone and dexamethasone as a first-line treatment is not recommended.
Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial infections, but there is no indication of such an infection in this case.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of recurrent central abdominal pain that she has been experiencing for a long time. The pain usually subsides when she has a bowel movement. She has an irregular bowel pattern, with instances of both constipation and diarrhea. She has never observed any blood in her feces, and her weight has remained constant.
Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of the probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Central abdominal pain
Explanation:Understanding Irritable Bowel Syndrome: Symptoms and Red Flags
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a group of symptoms that affect the intestinal motility, causing central or lower abdominal pain, bloating, alternating constipation and diarrhea, rectal mucous, and tenesmus. However, it is important to note that IBS doesn’t cause rectal bleeding or unintentional weight loss.
While a high-fiber diet may not necessarily relieve symptoms of IBS, nocturnal diarrhea may indicate an underlying organic disease and should prompt further investigation. It is crucial to recognize these red flag symptoms and seek medical attention to determine the underlying cause.
Understanding the symptoms and red flags of IBS can help individuals manage their condition and seek appropriate medical care when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with a known diagnosis of ulcerative colitis presents with a 5 day history of worsening symptoms. He has been having six episodes of uncomfortable bloody stools per day which is an increase compared to his regular bowel habits. Observations in clinic are stable but he is concerned that oral mesalazine is not controlling his disease.
What would be an appropriate medication to add in order to gain better control of his symptoms?Your Answer: Intravenous hydrocortisone
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone
Explanation:If a patient with mild-moderate ulcerative colitis doesn’t respond to topical or oral aminosalicylates, the next step is to add oral corticosteroids. In this case, the patient is experiencing 5 bloody stools per day and is already taking mesalazine. Therefore, oral steroids are recommended for flare-ups, but they are not used for maintaining remission.
Anti-motility drugs like loperamide should not be used as they may increase the risk of toxic megacolon. Metronidazole is not necessary as there is no indication of an infection.
Intravenous hydrocortisone is not needed as the patient’s condition is stable and hospitalization is not required at this time. Severe exacerbation is typically defined as passing more than 6-8 episodes of bloody stools per day.
Although it is important to manage the patient’s discomfort, oral NSAIDs should be avoided as they can worsen colitis symptoms. Paracetamol is the preferred first-line treatment.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old woman presents to you for a medication review. She underwent H. pylori eradication treatment a year ago, but her symptoms of epigastric burning returned within a few months. She has been taking omeprazole 20 mg/day since then. She reports that her symptoms are worsening again and asks if further treatment for Helicobacter pylori would be beneficial. She has lost more than 7 lbs in weight. You urgently refer her for an upper GI endoscopy.
What advice would you give her while waiting for the investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase her omeprazole to 40 mg daily
Explanation:Importance of Stopping Acid Suppression Medication Prior to Endoscopy
In urgent cases where endoscopy is required, it is recommended to stop acid suppression medication for at least two weeks before the procedure. This is because acid suppression medication can hide serious underlying conditions that need to be addressed. However, there may be situations where stopping the medication is difficult due to symptoms, and clinical judgement must be used.
For instance, if a patient experiences unintentional weight loss, it is a red flag symptom for upper GI malignancy, and urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. In such cases, the benefits of stopping acid suppression medication should be weighed against the potential risks of continuing it. Ultimately, the decision should be made based on the patient’s individual circumstances and the urgency of the situation. Proper evaluation and management can help ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with a four week history of retrosternal burning particularly after large meals. He also complains of episodes of epigastric discomfort usually during the night. He has no nausea or vomiting, has had no black stools and his weight has been steady for the last few years.
He smokes five cigarettes per day and drinks up to 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination of the abdomen he has mild epigastric tenderness with no masses palpable. He has been buying antacid tablets which give short periods of relief of his symptoms only.
What is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a routine upper GI endoscopy
Explanation:Management of Dyspepsia in a Patient Under 55 Years Old
Until recently, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommended referral for all new onset dyspepsia in patients over 55 years old. However, current guidelines state that referral is only necessary if other symptoms are present. In the case of a patient under 55 years old with no alarm symptoms, treatment to relieve symptoms should be offered.
According to NICE guidance, a four-week course of a full dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) such as omeprazole is recommended. It is also advisable to check the patient’s Helicobacter pylori status and haemoglobin level. If the patient is found to have iron deficiency anaemia, further investigation would be necessary.
In summary, the management of dyspepsia in a patient under 55 years old involves offering treatment to relieve symptoms and checking for Helicobacter pylori status and haemoglobin level. Referral is only necessary if other symptoms are present or if iron deficiency anaemia is detected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a 75-year-old man who has come to see you for the result of his recent colonoscopy. The report states:
Good bowel preparation, optimal views, no intraluminal mass seen appearances consistent with melanosis coli and confirmed on biopsy.
What is the cause of this gentleman's colonoscopy findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inflammatory colitis
Explanation:Melanosis Coli: A Benign Condition Caused by Laxative Use
Many gastroenterology departments now offer rapid access for endoscopy directly from primary care. Consequently, GPs increasingly have endoscopy reports sent back to them for patients who can be managed in primary care and do not need any further hospital input.
In this case, the endoscopy report identified melanosis coli, a benign condition that causes pigmentation of the colon wall. This condition is typically caused by long-term use of anthraquinone laxatives such as senna. The lesions are not due to melanin but rather a brown pigment called lipofuscin, which is deposited in macrophages in the colonic mucosa.
It is important to note that melanosis coli is not a feature of inflammatory colitis or diverticular disease. Colonic lesions are often biopsied, and as in this case, the biopsy confirms the clinical diagnosis and doesn’t suggest the presence of carcinoma.
Peutz-Jegher syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition that causes gastrointestinal polyps. Patients with this condition can display mucocutaneous pigmentation and perioral freckling. Polyps may undergo malignant transformation, and sufferers of this condition have a 12-fold increased risk of carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner in her 28th week of pregnancy. After an uneventful first and second trimester to date, she has developed widespread itching over the last three weeks and she now has mild jaundice. Her bilirubin is 80 μmol/l (normal <21 μmol/l), alanine aminotransferase (ALT) at 82 IU/l (normal <40 IU/l), and the alkaline phosphatase is markedly raised.
Which of the following is the diagnosis that fits best with this clinical picture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
Explanation:Liver Disorders in Pregnancy: Differential Diagnosis
During pregnancy, various liver disorders can occur, leading to abnormal liver function tests. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is the most common pregnancy-related liver disorder, affecting 0.1-1.5% of pregnancies. It typically presents in the late second or early third trimester with generalized itching, starting on the palms and soles. An elevated alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is a more sensitive marker than aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and a fasting serum bile acid concentration of greater than 10 mmol/l is the key diagnostic test. Primary biliary cholangitis and acute fatty liver of pregnancy are less likely diagnoses, while cholelithiasis and hyperemesis gravidarum have different clinical presentations. Early diagnosis and management of liver disorders in pregnancy are crucial to prevent adverse outcomes such as prematurity and stillbirth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with a history of epigastric pain typical of dyspepsia which had been present for three months, together with weight loss of 2 stone over the same period.
He had been treated with a proton pump inhibitor but had not benefited from this therapy. More recently he had noticed a difficulty when trying to eat solids and frequently vomited after meals.
On examination he had a palpable mass in the epigastrium and his full blood count revealed a haemoglobin of 85 g/L (130-180).
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoma of stomach
Explanation:Alarm Symptoms of Foregut Malignancy
The presence of alarm symptoms in patients over 55 years old, such as weight loss, bleeding, dysphagia, vomiting, blood loss, and a mass, are indicative of a malignancy of the foregut. It is crucial to refer these patients for urgent endoscopy, especially if dysphagia is a new onset symptom.
However, it is unfortunate that patients with alarm symptoms are often treated with PPIs instead of being referred for further evaluation. Although PPIs may provide temporary relief, they only delay the diagnosis of the underlying tumor. Therefore, it is important to recognize the significance of alarm symptoms and promptly refer patients for appropriate diagnostic testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. She reports having 'IBS' and experiencing occasional episodes of abdominal pain, bloating, and loose stools for the past two years. However, her symptoms have significantly worsened over the past two weeks. She is now having 3-4 watery, grey, 'frothy' stools per day, along with increased abdominal bloating, cramps, and flatulence. She also feels that she has lost weight based on the fit of her clothes. The following blood tests are ordered:
Hb 10.9 g/dl
Platelets 199 * 109/l
WBC 7.2 * 109/l
Ferritin 15 ng/ml
Vitamin B12 225 ng/l
Folate 2.1 nmol/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:The key indicators in this case suggest that the patient may have coeliac disease, as evidenced by her anaemia and low levels of ferritin and folate. While her description of diarrhoea is typical, some patients may have more visibly fatty stools.
It is unlikely that the patient has irritable bowel syndrome, as her blood test results would not be consistent with this diagnosis. While menorrhagia may explain her anaemia and low ferritin levels, it would not account for the low folate.
Coeliac disease is much more common than Crohn’s disease, and exams typically provide more clues to suggest a diagnosis of Crohn’s (such as mouth ulcers).
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old White woman presents to her General Practitioner with right upper quadrant pain, a liver mass, weight loss and anaemia. She describes no symptoms prior to this episode and is not on any regular medications.
She drinks around ten units of alcohol per week and was previously an intravenous (IV) drug user, although she has not done this for many years. She has no significant family history.
She is diagnosed with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC).
What is the most likely predisposing factor for this diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis C
Explanation:Understanding the Possible Causes of Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC)
Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a type of liver cancer that can be caused by various factors. In this case, the patient’s history of intravenous (IV) drug use puts her at risk of hepatitis B and C, which are the most common causes of HCC in Europe. Chronic hepatitis B or C infection can increase the risk of developing HCC by 3-5% per year, and having both infections can further increase the risk.
Alcohol abuse is also a risk factor for HCC, but in this patient’s case, her drinking is not excessive. Hereditary hemochromatosis, a condition that causes the body to absorb too much iron, can also increase the risk of HCC, but it is less common than chronic hepatitis. However, this patient’s lack of previous symptoms and family history make it unlikely that hemochromatosis is the underlying cause of her HCC.
Another possible predisposing factor for HCC is primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), an autoimmune disease that affects the liver’s bile ducts. PBC is more common in women and may present with fatigue and pruritus, but this patient’s symptoms do not fit this clinical picture.
In summary, understanding the possible causes of HCC can help in identifying the underlying factors and developing appropriate treatment plans. In this patient’s case, chronic hepatitis B or C infection is the most likely cause of her HCC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of jaundice and weight loss. He reports having pale coloured stool and dark urine. He denies experiencing any abdominal pain or fever. He has no significant medical or family history.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Diagnosing Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma: Understanding the Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. One of the key symptoms of this condition is painless jaundice, which is often accompanied by weight loss. This is due to the obstructive jaundice that occurs when the tumor is located at the head of the pancreas. Other symptoms may include pale stools and dark urine.
It is important to note that patients may present with these symptoms before experiencing abdominal pain. This is why it is crucial to refer any patient aged 40 years and over with jaundice for suspected pancreatic cancer, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance.
When considering a differential diagnosis, gallstone obstruction and cholecystitis can be ruled out due to the absence of severe abdominal pain. Chronic pancreatitis is also unlikely due to the lack of abdominal pain and the rarity of jaundice as a symptom. Hepatitis A may present with similar symptoms, but abdominal pain occurs in only 40% of patients.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of pancreatic adenocarcinoma is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment. Any patient with jaundice should be referred for suspected pancreatic cancer, regardless of other symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male presents with problems with constipation.
He has a history of ischaemic heart disease for which he is receiving medication.
Which of the following agents is most likely to be responsible for his presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Verapamil and its Side Effects
Verapamil is a medication that is commonly known to cause constipation. In addition to this, it is also associated with other side effects such as oedema and headaches. Oedema is the swelling of body tissues, usually in the legs and feet, while headaches can range from mild to severe. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when taking verapamil and to speak with a healthcare provider if they become bothersome or persistent. Proper monitoring and management can help to alleviate these symptoms and ensure the safe and effective use of verapamil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine review. He denies alcohol excess and has a body mass index of 36 kg/m2. He is also noted to be a diet-controlled type II diabetic and smokes 10 cigarettes per day.
Investigations Results Normal value
Cholesterol 7.7 mmol/l <5 mmol/l
Fasting triglyceride 2.5 mmol/l <1.7 mmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 150 IU/l <40 IU/l
Which of the following is the single most likely explanation regarding the significance of his raised liver enzyme?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Probably has non alcoholic steatohepatitis, which can include fibrosis
Explanation:Understanding Liver Function Test Results in a Patient with Metabolic Risk Factors
Liver function tests are an important tool for assessing liver health. In a patient with metabolic risk factors such as obesity, dyslipidaemia, and abnormal glucose tolerance, elevated liver transaminases may indicate non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), a condition that can lead to fibrosis and eventually cirrhosis if left untreated. Weight loss and control of comorbidities are the mainstay of management for NASH. While autoimmune hepatitis is a rarer possibility, it may be considered if the patient has a history of other autoimmune disorders and a normal body mass index and lipid profile. Regardless of the specific diagnosis, abnormal liver function test results in a patient with metabolic risk factors require further investigation and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 16-month-old boy recently treated for constipation is seen for review.
Six weeks ago, his parents brought him in and he was diagnosed with constipation. He was prescribed Movicol® Paediatric Plain sachets and given dietary advice. Following this, the child was able to open his bowels regularly with soft, well-formed stools.
Two weeks ago, the parents stopped the laxative and the child has once again developed problems. On further questioning, he is opening his bowels maximum twice a week and the stools are described as hard balls.
What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Restart the Movicol® Paediatric Plain but continue treatment for a longer period before slowly tapering
Explanation:Importance of Continuing Laxative Treatment for Children with Constipation
Early and abrupt cessation of treatment is the most common cause of relapse in children with constipation. Once a regular pattern of bowel habit is established, maintenance laxative should be continued for several weeks and gradually tapered off over a period of months based on stool consistency and frequency. It may take up to six months of maintenance treatment to retrain the bowel, and some children may require laxative treatment for several years.
The use of Movicol® Paediatric Plain sachets has been effective in establishing regular soft stools, but discontinuing the treatment has caused the problem to resurface. It is not recommended to switch to an alternative laxative or combine Movicol® Paediatric Plain with a stimulant laxative. The best approach is to restart the same laxative and continue its use for a longer period before tapering cautiously.
At this point, there is no need for referral to a pediatrician or blood tests. However, it is important to emphasize the importance of continuing laxative treatment as prescribed to prevent relapse and maintain regular bowel habits in children with constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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When managing women of any age and non-menstruating men who present with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia, what is the threshold haemoglobin level that should prompt urgent referral?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 120 g/L for men and women
Explanation:Iron Deficiency Anaemia and its Possible Causes
Iron deficiency anaemia is a condition that can be diagnosed through a low serum ferritin, red cell microcytosis, and hypochromia. It is often caused by gastrointestinal issues such as colonic cancer, gastric cancer, and coeliac disease. To determine the underlying cause, patients should undergo a PR examination, urine testing, and coeliac screen.
In some cases, unexplained iron deficiency anaemia can be an early indication of an underlying malignancy. Menorrhagia may also cause iron deficiency in women of childbearing age, but a detailed history should be taken to rule out other possible causes. Any man or non-menstruating woman presenting with anaemia should be referred for urgent investigation. It is important to understand the appropriate referral thresholds and look out for additional red flags that may warrant referral.
It is important to note that while occult bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract is a common cause of iron deficiency anaemia, blood loss may also occur through other means, such as urological cancers. Therefore, it is crucial to consider all possible causes and conduct thorough investigations to determine the underlying issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman with squamous cell lung cancer presents with confusion.
Her family reports that she has become slowly more confused over the last two weeks. She is also complaining of generalised aches and pains, lethargy and thirst. Further enquiry reveals that she has been having increasing problems with constipation.
What is the underlying cause of this presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ectopic parathyroid hormone production
Explanation:Paraneoplastic Syndromes Associated with Lung Cancer
Lung cancer can be associated with various paraneoplastic syndromes, which are caused by substances produced by the tumor that affect other parts of the body. One such syndrome is hypercalcemia, which can cause confusion, lethargy, aches and pains, thirst, and constipation. Squamous cell lung carcinoma is particularly associated with ectopic parathyroid hormone production, leading to increased calcium levels.
Other paraneoplastic syndromes associated with lung cancer include Cushing’s syndrome, which can occur with small cell lung cancer due to ectopic ACTH production; Horner’s syndrome, which can occur with apical lung tumors that invade sympathetic nerve fibers, causing ptosis, miosis, and anhydrosis; and Lambert-Eaton syndrome, an autoimmune process associated with small cell lung cancer that causes muscle weakness and hyporeflexia.
Another condition associated with lung cancer is SIADH, which causes hyponatremia and can lead to confusion, seizures, cardiac failure, edema, and muscle weakness. Causes of SIADH include small cell lung cancer, as well as other malignancies, stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, vasculitis, TB, and certain drugs like opiates. Understanding these paraneoplastic syndromes can help clinicians identify and manage symptoms in patients with lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may be at an increased risk of developing colon cancer. His father died at the age of 56 from a sigmoid colon adenocarcinoma. His brother, aged 61, has just undergone a colectomy for a caecal carcinoma.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for one-off colonoscopy aged 55
Explanation:Screening Recommendations for Patients with Family History of Colorectal Cancer
Patients with a family history of colorectal cancer may be at an increased risk of developing the disease. The British Society of Gastroenterology and the Association of Coloproctology for Great Britain and Ireland have produced screening guidelines for patients with family history profiles that place them in a moderate-risk category.
Colonoscopy is recommended for patients with a family history of two first-degree relatives with a mean age of less than 60 years with colorectal cancer, starting at the age of 55. Abdominal ultrasound examination doesn’t have a role in screening for or diagnosing colorectal cancer.
Patients with an increased risk should not be advised that they have no increased risk. Instead, they should be screened appropriately. Faecal immunochemical tests (FIT) are used to detect blood in the stool and are used in the national bowel cancer screening programme. However, patients with a higher risk, given their family history, should be offered earlier screening with colonoscopy rather than waiting until they are eligible for the national screening programme. False positives and negatives are possible with FIT, making colonoscopy a more reliable screening option for high-risk patients.
Therefore, it is important for patients with a family history of colorectal cancer to be aware of the screening recommendations and to discuss their individual risk and screening options with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner complaining of painful swelling on the side of his anus that has been present for 10 days. Upon perianal examination, there is an inflamed, tender swelling that extends 12 cm lateral to the anus. Due to pain, a digital rectal examination was not performed. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischiorectal abscess
Explanation:Differentiating Anorectal Conditions: Ischiorectal Abscess, Rectocele, Inflamed Anal Skin Tag, Perianal Abscess, and Pilonidal Abscess
An ischiorectal abscess is a deeper and larger abscess that is further from the anus. It presents as a deep, tender swelling and may not have external signs until late. When it discharges, it does so through an external opening that is typically more than 5 cm from the anus.
A rectocele is a prolapse of the wall between the rectum and the vagina and is not usually painful. It is not present in male patients.
An anal skin tag is a fibro-epithelial polyp that hangs off the skin around the outside of the anus. It may become infected and inflamed, but it would not extend 12 cm from the anus.
A perianal abscess is a simple anorectal abscess that arises from glandular crypts in the anus or rectum. It presents as a red, tender swelling close to the anus.
A pilonidal abscess presents as a painful, tender lump in the natal cleft, which may be fluctuant and have a purulent discharge. It may also have accompanying cellulitis. However, the location described here is not consistent with a pilonidal abscess.
In summary, understanding the characteristics and locations of different anorectal conditions can aid in their differentiation and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 9-year-old son who has been vomiting for the last day. He reports that since he was 4 years old he has had vomiting episodes 6 to 10 times a year every 4 to 8 weeks. The episodes last for around a day and no clear trigger has been found. He is a well and happy child who is able to eat, drink and gain weight appropriately between these episodes.
He has been thoroughly investigated previously and he has been diagnosed with cyclical vomiting syndrome (CVS).
He has now developed a new symptom associated with his attacks where he complains of abdominal pain, headache, and a sensitivity to light and noise.
What is the most likely cause of this new set of symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Migraine
Explanation:Patients who have cyclical vomiting syndrome have a high probability of developing migraines. The diagnosis of cyclical vomiting syndrome, along with the presence of migraine symptoms such as abdominal pain (which can occur in children), makes migraine the most likely diagnosis. Meningitis is unlikely due to normal examination findings, and meningioma is rare in children and less common than migraine. Gastroenteritis cannot explain the headache or sensitivity to light and noise. There is no indication in the patient’s history of drug overdose.
Understanding Cyclical Vomiting Syndrome
Cyclical vomiting syndrome is a rare condition that is more commonly seen in children than adults. Females are slightly more affected than males. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it has been observed that 80% of children and 25% of adults who develop CVS also have migraines.
The symptoms of CVS include severe nausea and sudden vomiting that can last for hours to days. Patients may also experience intense sweating and nausea before an episode. However, they may feel well in between episodes. Other symptoms that may be present include weight loss, reduced appetite, abdominal pain, diarrhea, dizziness, photophobia, and headache.
To diagnose CVS, doctors may perform routine blood tests to exclude any underlying conditions. A pregnancy test may also be considered in women. Treatment for CVS involves avoiding triggers and using prophylactic medications such as amitriptyline, propranolol, and topiramate. During acute episodes, medications such as ondansetron, prochlorperazine, and triptans may be used.
In summary, cyclical vomiting syndrome is a rare condition that can be challenging to diagnose and manage. However, with proper treatment and avoidance of triggers, patients can experience relief from their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man is a frequent visitor to surgery complaining of pruritus ani.
You have examined him previously and excluded organic causes. He has a love of Indian cuisine. In an attempt to help him cope with the problem, you offer advice.
Which of the following is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Briefs are preferable to boxer shorts
Explanation:Tips for Managing Pruritus Ani
Pruritus ani, or anal itching, can be a bothersome and embarrassing condition. However, there are several ways to manage it. First, it is recommended to wear cotton underwear and looser clothing to prevent irritation. Topical capsaicin in very dilute form has shown to be beneficial, but more concentrated creams may worsen the situation. Certain foods such as tomatoes, citrus fruit, and spicy foods may also exacerbate the condition. Keeping the area dry is crucial, and using a hair dryer can be an efficient way to do so. It is important to note that medication can cause a more generalized pruritus, but products such as colchicine and evening primrose oil have been linked to pruritus ani. By following these tips, individuals can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of acute severe pain in his upper abdomen, which radiates to his back. He experiences severe nausea and vomiting and finds that sitting forwards is the only way to alleviate the pain. His medical history includes hypertension and gallstones, which were incidentally discovered during an ultrasound scan. What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Acute Upper Abdominal Pain
Acute upper abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some possible diagnoses based on the given symptoms:
1. Acute pancreatitis: This condition is often caused by gallstones or alcohol consumption and presents with severe upper abdominal pain. Blood tests show elevated amylase levels, and immediate hospital admission is necessary.
2. Budd-Chiari syndrome: This rare condition involves the blockage of the hepatic vein and can cause right upper abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, and ascites.
3. Acute cholecystitis: This condition is characterized by localized pain in the upper right abdomen and a positive Murphy’s sign (pain worsened by deep breathing).
4. Perforated duodenal ulcer: This condition can cause sudden upper abdominal pain, but it is usually associated with a history of dyspepsia or NSAID use.
5. Renal colic: This condition causes severe pain in the loin-to-groin area and is often accompanied by urinary symptoms and hematuria.
In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the underlying cause of acute upper abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 27 year old woman presents with intermittent abdominal bloating, pain and diarrhea for the past 3 months. She denies any rectal bleeding, weight loss or family history of bowel disease. On examination, her abdomen appears normal. Along with a full blood count (FBC), urea & electrolytes (U&E), coeliac screen, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP), what initial investigation would be most helpful in differentiating between irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) in a primary care setting?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Faecal calprotectin
Explanation:NICE recommends the use of faecal calprotectin in primary care to distinguish between IBS and IBD. This protein is released in the bowel during inflammation and can be detected in a stool sample. Its use can reduce the need for invasive diagnostic testing and referral of patients with typical IBS symptoms. However, a positive result doesn’t confirm IBD and patients should be referred to secondary care for further investigation.
NICE has also provided guidance on the diagnostic criteria for IBS and the necessary investigations. They suggest conducting FBC, ESR, CRP, and coeliac screen (TTG). However, they advise against performing ultrasound, sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy, barium study, thyroid function test, stool microscopy and culture, and faecal occult blood and hydrogen breath test.
Understanding Diarrhoea: Causes and Characteristics
Diarrhoea is defined as having more than three loose or watery stools per day. It can be classified as acute if it lasts for less than 14 days and chronic if it persists for more than 14 days. Gastroenteritis, diverticulitis, and antibiotic therapy are common causes of acute diarrhoea. On the other hand, irritable bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, colorectal cancer, and coeliac disease are some of the conditions that can cause chronic diarrhoea.
Symptoms of gastroenteritis may include abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diverticulitis is characterized by left lower quadrant pain, diarrhoea, and fever. Antibiotic therapy, especially with broad-spectrum antibiotics, can also cause diarrhoea, including Clostridioides difficile infection. Chronic diarrhoea may be caused by irritable bowel syndrome, which is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Ulcerative colitis may cause bloody diarrhoea, crampy abdominal pain, and weight loss. Crohn’s disease may cause crampy abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and malabsorption. Colorectal cancer may cause diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia, and weight loss. Coeliac disease may cause diarrhoea, abdominal distension, lethargy, and weight loss.
Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis. It is important to seek medical attention if diarrhoea persists for more than a few days or is accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, severe abdominal pain, or blood in the stool.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with hepatitis C visits your clinic as she is considering starting a family. She has no other medical issues. She inquires about the likelihood of her baby contracting hepatitis C.
What is the probability of the virus being passed from mother to child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 75-100%
Explanation:Transmission Rates of Hepatitis B and C from Mother to Child
The transmission rate of hepatitis B virus from mother to child can be as high as 90%, while the transmission rate of hepatitis C virus is only about 6%. This is because the neonatal immune system is not yet mature enough to fight off the hepatitis B virus, but it is able to fight off the hepatitis C virus to some extent. However, if the mother is also HIV positive, the transmission rate of hepatitis C virus can be higher. It is important to take time to understand this information before making any decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman with a history of Crohn's disease is seeking advice regarding her desire to start a family with her partner. She is currently taking methotrexate and wants to know if it is safe to conceive.
What would be the best course of action to recommend?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should wait at least 6 months after stopping treatment
Explanation:Men and women who are undergoing methotrexate treatment must use reliable contraception throughout the duration of the treatment and for a minimum of 6 months after it has ended.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) detected during routine screening. He is asymptomatic and shows no signs of liver disease upon examination. Further blood tests reveal a positive hepatitis B envelope-antigen (HBeAg) result.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Current active hepatitis B infection
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B and Related Tests
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are different stages of the disease, and various tests can help diagnose and monitor it.
Active Hepatitis B Infection:
The presence of HBeAg in the blood indicates ongoing viral replication and is associated with large quantities of HBV DNA. Patients who have not developed anti-HBeAb are highly infectious and at greater risk of progressing to chronic liver disease.Chronic Hepatitis B in an Inactive State:
Patients in the inactive carrier state have cleared HBeAg and have low levels of HBV DNA. However, they will still test positive for surface antigen.Cirrhosis of the Liver:
Hepatitis B patients are at risk of developing cirrhosis, which is diagnosed clinically, on ultrasound, and with liver biopsy.Hepatitis E:
Hepatitis E is a different viral infection spread via the faecal-oral route and is tested for with hepatitis E antibodies.Previous Hepatitis B Vaccination:
Patients who have been vaccinated against hepatitis B will show antibodies to the surface antibody (anti-HBsAb) only. This doesn’t account for deranged LFTs.Understanding Hepatitis B and Related Tests
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman is admitted to your intermediate care unit with a significant medical history of chronic alcoholism. She sustained a brain injury six weeks ago after falling down the stairs at home and is currently bedridden. She was transferred for further rehabilitation and is being fed through a percutaneous gastrostomy, which was inserted three days ago after an initial period of nasogastric tube feeding. The nursing staff reports that she has become increasingly unwell over the past 24 hours, with lethargy and confusion. Upon examination, she appears to be short of breath, and there is evidence of peripheral and pulmonary edema. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia
Explanation:Refeeding Syndrome in Malnourished Patients
Refeeding malnourished patients through enteral feeding requires careful monitoring of electrolytes and minerals. This is because refeeding can trigger a significant anabolic response that affects the levels of electrolytes and minerals essential to cellular function. Unfortunately, refeeding syndrome is often under-recognized and under-diagnosed. The metabolic changes that occur during refeeding can lead to marked hypophosphatemia and shifts in potassium, magnesium, glucose, and thiamine levels.
Refeeding syndrome is primarily caused by hypophosphatemia and can result in severe cardiorespiratory failure, edema, confusion, convulsions, coma, and even death. Therefore, it is crucial to closely monitor patients undergoing refeeding to prevent and manage refeeding syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male presents with central abdominal pain that radiates to the back and vomiting. His amylase level is 1,245 u/dl. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 35 year old woman has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). She has previously visited the gastroenterology clinic and all tests, including colonoscopy, were normal. Her main concerns are abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. Despite taking antispasmodics, regular movicol, and following a dietician advice, she still experiences symptoms. She has tried other laxatives before, but with little improvement. What would be the most suitable next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Linaclotide
Explanation:The diagnosis and management of IBS have been addressed by NICE in their guidance. The first line of pharmacological treatment includes antispasmodics such as Hyoscine or mebeverine, loperamide for diarrhea, and laxatives for constipation. Lactulose should be avoided. If the above treatments have not helped, second-line options include tricyclic antidepressants such as up to 30 mg amitriptyline. Third-line options include serotonin selective reuptake inhibitors. Linaclotide can be considered if the patient has had constipation for at least 12 months and has not benefited from different laxatives. Other management options include dietary advice and psychological treatments. However, acupuncture and reflexology are not recommended for managing IBS.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting an increase in breast size over the past few years. He has alcoholic cirrhosis and continues to consume one bottle of vodka daily. He is prescribed furosemide for oedema but takes no other medications.
What is the probable reason for this patient's gynaecomastia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Altered oestrogen metabolism
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Gynaecomastia in Cirrhosis
Gynaecomastia in cirrhosis is a complex condition with various potential causes. One of the most likely culprits is the disordered metabolism of sex steroids, which can result in excess levels of oestrogens. As liver function decreases, plasma testosterone concentrations also decrease, often leading to associated symptoms such as testicular atrophy and loss of body hair.
While furosemide is not typically associated with gynaecomastia, spironolactone therapy used in cirrhosis treatment can be a contributing factor. Excess energy intake from alcohol is also a common issue in alcohol-related cirrhosis, as patients may substitute alcohol for food and suffer from nutritional deficiencies.
Although bodybuilders taking anabolic steroids may report gynaecomastia, there is no indication in the patient’s history to suggest this as a cause. Additionally, it is important to note that low testosterone levels, rather than excess levels, are typically associated with gynaecomastia. By understanding the various potential causes of this condition, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat gynaecomastia in cirrhosis patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and lack of energy. His recent blood test showed macrocytosis and a low haemoglobin level, indicating a folic acid deficiency. He requests dietary recommendations from the physician to address this issue.
What is the most suitable food item to suggest?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinach
Explanation:Folate Content in Common Foods
Folate, also known as vitamin B9, is an essential nutrient that is important for cell growth and development. While it is found naturally in many foods, it is also added to processed foods and supplements in the form of folic acid. Here is a breakdown of the folate content in some common foods:
Spinach: With 194 μg of folic acid per 100g, spinach is the richest source of folate on this list.
Egg: While eggs contain 47 μg of folic acid per 100g, they only provide around a quarter of the folate per 100g that is found in spinach.
Carrot: Carrots contain about 21 μg of folic acid per 100g, less than half the amount of folate found in eggs and only around 11% of the amount provided by spinach.
Milk: Cow’s milk contains 5-7 μg of folic acid per 100g, making it the second-lowest source of folate in this range of options.
Apple: Apples provide the lowest source of folate in this range of options, with only about 3 μg of folic acid per 100g.
It is important to note that women who are pregnant or breastfeeding require more folate and should take a daily supplement of 400 micrograms. While many food manufacturers fortify their products with folic acid, wholegrain products already contain natural folate. Folate deficiency can occur due to poor intake, excessive alcohol consumption, or malnutrition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 44-year-old woman who presented to you last month with a 6 week history of upper abdominal pain, heartburn and occasional reflux. Her medical history is unremarkable and you agreed on a plan for a 1 month trial of omeprazole 20 mg daily.
Sarah returns for a follow-up appointment after completing a month of omeprazole. Her symptoms have only slightly improved and they are still bothering her.
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Test for Helicobacter pylori infection in 2 weeks and treat if positive
Explanation:If initial treatment for dyspepsia with either a PPI or ‘test and treat’ approach fails, the alternative strategy should be tried next. In Mark’s case, he has completed 1 month of a full-dose PPI and should now be tested for H. pylori infection. Referral for routine upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is not necessary at this stage.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.
For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.
Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with complaints of 'heartburn'. She has a medical history of angina and type 2 diabetes. Her current medications include clopidogrel 75 mg OD, bisoprolol 5 mg OD, ramipril 7.5 mg OD, atorvastatin 20 mg ON, and metformin 500 mg TDS. She quit smoking five years ago when her angina was diagnosed and doesn't consume alcohol.
The patient reports experiencing retrosternal burning that worsens after meals and occasionally causes a 'sickly' feeling in the back of her mouth. She has been experiencing symptoms predominantly during the day but occasionally at night as well. She denies any dysphagia or odynophagia and her weight is stable. She has not experienced any vomiting and her bowel habits are normal with no rectal bleeding or black stools.
The patient reports having similar symptoms on and off for many years and saw a colleague about three to four months ago with the same symptoms. She tried an over-the-counter alginate antacid PRN, which provided slight relief. She has been using the alginate preparation once or twice a day on average. Over the last three to four months, she has experienced symptoms every day. Her colleague had conducted some investigations, which showed a normal full blood count and negative Helicobacter pylori stool antigen testing.
Given her history of angina, the differential diagnosis includes this condition, but the patient's anginal pains are clearly different. The most likely diagnosis is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD). General and abdominal examination today are normal.
What is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently under the 2 week wait referral system
Explanation:Treatment of GORD with PPIs and Antacids
When managing GORD patients, mild symptoms occurring less than once a week can be treated with antacids as needed. However, for patients with more frequent symptoms, especially those experiencing daily discomfort, a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is recommended. Referral for endoscopy is usually unnecessary unless there are alarm features such as unintentional weight loss, dysphagia, GI bleeding, persistent vomiting, or signs of anemia.
Initial treatment for GORD involves a high dose PPI for eight weeks (for endoscopically proven oesophagitis) or four weeks for uninvestigated reflux. The PPI should be taken once daily 30-60 minutes before the first meal of the day. Lansoprazole is an example of a suitable PPI that doesn’t interact with other medications. If there is a partial response, the dose can be increased to twice daily, and the timing of the dose can be adjusted if nocturnal symptoms are troublesome.
If there is no response to PPI treatment, reconsideration of the diagnosis and specialist referral may be necessary. An H2 receptor antagonist can be added to a PPI for patients who have a partial response to PPI treatment. It is important to note that there have been concerns about an interaction between clopidogrel and some PPIs (such as omeprazole) due to a shared metabolic pathway. However, the BNF doesn’t suggest any issue with patients taking Lansoprasole with clopidogrel.
Overall, the treatment of GORD involves a stepwise approach, starting with antacids and progressing to PPIs and other medications as needed. Regular monitoring and adjustment of treatment can help manage symptoms and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman has observed abdominal swelling for a few months, along with some abdominal tenderness. She has normochromic, normocytic anaemia, a decreased serum albumin level, and an elevated creatinine level of 180 μmol/l (normal 60–110 μmol/l). Her cancer antigen-125 level is elevated.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ovarian carcinoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Distension and Elevated Creatinine Level
Abdominal distension and elevated creatinine level can be indicative of various medical conditions. In the following vignette, ovarian carcinoma is the most likely diagnosis due to the presence of ascites, abnormal urea and electrolytes, elevated cancer antigen-125, normochromic, normocytic anaemia, and low albumin level. However, other conditions such as cirrhosis of the liver, diverticulitis, subacute intestinal obstruction, and uterine fibroids should also be considered and ruled out through further diagnostic testing and evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practice Surgery, as he has developed difficulty swallowing. He has a long history of ‘heartburn’, which he manages with over-the-counter antacids. He is a smoker with a 50-pack-year history and drinks around 15 units of alcohol per week. He thinks he has lost 4 kg of weight in the last few months.
Endoscopy reveals a lesion in the lower third of the oesophagus.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus
Explanation:Understanding Oesophageal Cancer and Related Conditions
Oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that can be caused by various factors. Adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus is the most common type in the UK and is associated with chronic gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and Barrett’s oesophagus. Squamous carcinoma, on the other hand, is more likely to occur in the upper two thirds of the oesophagus. Both types of cancer are often asymptomatic until late in the disease, making early detection difficult.
Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition caused by chronic GORD that can increase the risk of developing adenocarcinomas in the distal third of the oesophagus. GORD, which is the reflux of stomach acid into the oesophagus, can cause burning chest pain after eating. However, it doesn’t explain dysphagia or the presence of a lesion seen on endoscopy.
An oesophageal stricture, which is a narrowing of the oesophagus, can also cause dysphagia and may be associated with chronic GORD. However, if weight loss, smoking, and alcohol consumption are present, and a lesion is seen on endoscopy, oesophageal cancer is more likely.
In summary, understanding the risk factors and symptoms of oesophageal cancer and related conditions can aid in early detection and treatment. Regular check-ups and screenings are recommended for those at higher risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with a history of migraine experiences inadequate relief from the recommended dose of paracetamol during acute attacks. She consumes 10 units of alcohol per week and smokes 12 cigarettes per day.
What could be a contributing factor to this issue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delayed gastric emptying
Explanation:During acute migraine attacks, patients often experience delayed gastric emptying. Therefore, prokinetic agents like metoclopramide are commonly added to analgesics. Changes in P450 enzyme activity, such as those caused by smoking or drinking, are unlikely to have a significant impact on the metabolism of paracetamol.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.
For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.
For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.
It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old Polish waitress has come to see you for review. She has visited the surgery on several occasions over the preceding 12 months complaining of abdominal pain. She was initially treated with PPI, but on her most recent review one of your colleagues felt that she had IBS and gave her an antispasmodic.
Unfortunately, her pain persists and is continuous. Her appetite is poor since starting the antispasmodic and she is complaining that she is putting on weight because she is having difficulty doing up her skirt. On further questioning, she has been slightly constipated in recent months and passing urine more frequently.
Her mother and sister died of breast cancer aged 52 and 43 respectively and many family members have had renal calculi.
On examination, she appears anxious but there is no clinical evidence of anaemia or jaundice. She weighs 66 kg but there are no previous recordings for comparison. Her abdomen is soft and there are no masses. There is tenderness in the left iliac fossa and suprapubic area. Rectal examination is normal.
How would you manage this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dipstick her urine and refer for renal ultrasound if positive for blood
Explanation:Detecting Ovarian Cancer: A Challenging Diagnosis
Detecting ovarian cancer can be a challenging diagnosis as the symptoms are often vague, especially in the early stages of the disease. However, there are certain risk factors and cardinal symptoms that can help in identifying the disease. Women with a family history of breast cancer, carriers of the BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene, and Polish women are at an increased risk of ovarian cancer. Patients presenting with persistent bloating, abdominal or pelvic pain, and difficulty in eating or fullness after eating small quantities of food should be evaluated for ovarian cancer.
NICE recommends that women over the age of 50 who have one or more symptoms associated with ovarian cancer occurring more than 12 times a month or for more than a month should be offered CA125 testing. If the CA125 is 35 IU/mL or greater, an urgent ultrasound scan of the pelvis should be arranged. Therefore, performing a pelvic examination and arranging testing for CA125 is the most appropriate way forward for patients with symptoms suggestive of ovarian cancer. Early detection and prompt treatment can improve the prognosis of ovarian cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A concerned man visits your clinic as he participated in the routine bowel cancer screening program and received a positive faecal occult blood test (FOBt) result. He inquires if this indicates that he has bowel cancer. What is the estimated percentage of patients with a positive FOBt result who are subsequently diagnosed with bowel cancer during colonoscopy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10%
Explanation:Colorectal Cancer Screening with FIT Test
Overview:
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS provides home-based screening for older adults through the Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT). Although a one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England, it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was further exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. However, the trial showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used in future bowel screening programmes.Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS offers a national screening programme every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests as it only detects human haemoglobin, not animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. Although a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.Colonoscopy:
Approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of epigastric pain and waterbrash that have lasted for four months. It is not worsening, but neither is it resolving. She has been taking alendronic acid tablets for osteoporosis over a similar timeframe. There is no history of dysphagia or weight loss and an examination of her abdomen is normal. Full blood count, inflammatory markers, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests are all normal.
Which of the following is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophagitis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Epigastric Pain: A Case Study
Epigastric pain is a common complaint among adults, with up to 60% experiencing heartburn and using over-the-counter products to relieve indigestion. However, it can also be a symptom of more serious conditions such as oesophagitis, gastric carcinoma, pancreatic carcinoma, peptic ulcer disease, and oesophageal carcinoma.
In a case study, a patient presented with stable epigastric pain for four months, accompanied by waterbrash and a history of alendronate use. While gastric and pancreatic carcinomas were deemed unlikely due to the absence of red flag symptoms and deterioration in clinical condition, oesophagitis was considered the most likely diagnosis. Contributing factors such as alcohol, NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, and smoking were identified, and treatment involved eliminating these factors and using proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole.
Overall, it is important to consider various possible causes of epigastric pain and conduct a thorough evaluation to determine the appropriate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is discharged home after undergoing a loop ileostomy following an anterior resection of a rectal carcinoma. She has recovered well over the last week. She is not taking anticoagulants and is being careful to drink at least one litre of extra water a day.
What is the most likely early complication she may experience following this procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irritant dermatitis
Explanation:Complications of Ileostomy: Understanding the Risks
Ileostomy is a surgical procedure that involves creating an opening in the abdomen to allow waste to pass out of the body. While the procedure can be life-changing for patients with certain medical conditions, it is not without its risks. Here are some of the potential complications of ileostomy:
Irritant Dermatitis: The skin around the stoma can become irritated and inflamed, either due to contact with stoma equipment or leakage of feces. Hypoallergenic products and corticosteroid lotions can help manage this condition.
Parastomal Hernia: This occurs when a bulge or protrusion develops around the stoma site. While conservative management is often possible, surgery may be necessary in some cases.
Dehydration: High output from the ileostomy can lead to dehydration, making it important for patients to maintain a good fluid intake.
Pernicious Anemia: As vitamin B12 is absorbed in the terminal ileum, patients may develop pernicious anemia over time. Supplements can help manage this condition.
Severe Stomal Hemorrhage: While some bleeding is common after bag changes, severe bleeding is more likely in patients taking antiplatelet drugs.
Understanding these potential complications can help patients and healthcare providers monitor for early signs and manage them effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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You receive a positive faecal immunochemical test (FIT) result following investigation of an elderly patient's unexplained abdominal pain.
What would be the most appropriate next step in your management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer using a suspected lower gastrointestinal cancer pathway
Explanation:Faecal Occult Blood Tests for Colorectal Cancer
Faecal occult blood tests are recommended by NICE for patients who show symptoms that may suggest colorectal cancer but are unlikely to have the disease. If the test result is positive, patients should be referred through the suspected cancer pathway. However, a positive result may also indicate other conditions such as colorectal polyps or inflammatory bowel disease.
It is important to note that there is no need to repeat the FIT or order further investigations before referral. This test is a simple and effective way to detect early signs of colorectal cancer and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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You suspect a patient you have seen on a home visit who is elderly and was previously treated with antibiotics has now developed Clostridium difficile (C. difficile) infection.
Which of the following is most likely to have caused this infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Antibiotics and C. difficile Infection
Antibiotics are known to increase the risk of patients developing C. difficile infection. However, certain antibiotics are more frequently associated with this infection than others. These include clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins.
If a patient does develop C. difficile infection, there are treatments available. Metronidazole and vancomycin are commonly used to treat this infection. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the risks associated with antibiotics and to use them judiciously to prevent the development of C. difficile infection. By doing so, patients can receive the necessary treatment without experiencing unnecessary complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents having recently noticed a lump in his right groin which disappears when he is recumbent. It is accompanied by some discomfort. He has a chronic cough due to smoking and has had an appendicectomy previously. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inguinal hernia
Explanation:Inguinal hernia is the most probable reason for a lump in the right groin of a patient in this age group. This type of hernia occurs when a part of the intestine protrudes through the external inguinal ring. It may go unnoticed for a while, cause discomfort or pain, and resolve when lying flat. Femoral hernias are more common in females, while an epigastric hernia or an incisional hernia following appendicectomy would be unlikely in this anatomical site.
This patient’s persistent cough due to smoking puts him at a higher risk of developing hernias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a known complication of coeliac disease in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersplenism
Explanation:Coeliac disease is associated with hypo-, rather than hypersplenism.
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer at endoscopy. He is not taking any medication that might have caused this. Testing for Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) returns positive.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PPI, clarithromycin, metronidazole
Explanation:Comparison of Treatment Options for H. Pylori Infection
When treating a patient with a positive H. Pylori test, it is important to choose the appropriate eradication therapy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends a 7-day course of PPI twice daily, amoxicillin 1 g twice daily, and either clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily or metronidazole 400 mg twice daily. If the patient is allergic to penicillin, then a PPI with clarithromycin and metronidazole should be prescribed. If the infection is associated with NSAID use, two months of PPI should be prescribed before eradication therapy.
It is important to note that H2-receptor antagonists should not be used as first-line treatment for H. Pylori. Instead, a PPI should be used. The recommended PPIs are lansoprazole, omeprazole, esomeprazole, pantoprazole, or rabeprazole.
While antacids and dietary advice can be helpful in managing dyspepsia, they are not sufficient for treating H. Pylori. Eradication therapy with appropriate antibiotics is necessary.
If the patient has an ulcer associated with NSAID use and a positive H. Pylori test, NICE recommends using a full-dose PPI for two months before prescribing eradication therapy. However, if the patient is not taking any medication, this step is not necessary.
Sucralfate can protect the mucosa from acid, but it is not part of NICE guidance for H. Pylori treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with a history of hypertension and smoking presents to the clinic with severe abdominal pain. He appears pale, sweaty, and reports that the pain is radiating to his back. He also mentions that he has lost sensation in his feet. Upon examination, he has a tachycardia and a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg while lying down.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ruptured aortic aneurysm
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for Abdominal Pain and Shock with Neurological Symptoms
Abdominal pain and shock with neurological symptoms can be indicative of several medical conditions. One possible diagnosis is a ruptured aortic aneurysm, which may cause a pulsatile mass in the abdomen and involve the spinal arteries. Acute pancreatitis may also cause abdominal pain and shock, but it would not typically produce neurological symptoms. Biliary colic, on the other hand, may cause pain in the epigastrium or right upper quadrant that radiates to the back, but it usually resolves within 24 hours. Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is another emergency presentation that may produce abdominal pain and shock, but it would also involve chest or jaw pain/heaviness and ECG changes. Finally, a perforated duodenal ulcer may cause abdominal pain and shock, but it would also involve marked tenderness and rigidity. Therefore, a ruptured aortic aneurysm is the most likely diagnosis in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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You assess a 24 year old female with irritable bowel syndrome who expresses frustration with the lack of relief from loperamide and antispasmodic medication. After re-evaluating her history and conducting a thorough examination, you find no new developments or concerning symptoms. What course of action do you suggest for further treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant
Explanation:According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines on the diagnosis and management of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) in primary care, tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) should be considered as a second-line treatment for individuals with IBS if laxatives, antispasmodics, or loperamide have not been effective. The decision to prescribe medication should be based on the severity and nature of symptoms, and the choice of medication or combination of medications should be determined by the predominant symptom(s). Antispasmodic agents should be considered for individuals with IBS, along with dietary and lifestyle advice. Laxatives may be used for constipation, but lactulose should be avoided. Linaclotide may be considered for individuals with constipation who have not responded to other laxatives, and loperamide is the first choice for diarrhea. Individuals with IBS should be advised on how to adjust their medication doses to achieve a soft, well-formed stool. TCAs may be considered if other medications have not been effective, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may be considered if TCAs are not effective. Healthcare professionals should monitor individuals taking TCAs or SSRIs for side effects and adjust the dosage as necessary.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male presents two weeks following a knee replacement with severe diarrhea. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile
Explanation:The probable reason for the patient’s condition is Clostridium difficile, which could have been caused by the administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics during the operation. According to NICE guidelines, patients undergoing clean surgery with prosthesis or implant placement, clean-contaminated surgery, contaminated surgery, or surgery on a dirty or infected wound should receive antibiotics to prevent surgical site infections. In cases of contaminated or infected wounds, prophylaxis should be accompanied by antibiotic treatment.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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