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  • Question 1 - A 56-year-old male with no previous medical history presents with a sprained ankle...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male with no previous medical history presents with a sprained ankle and is incidentally found to be in atrial fibrillation. He denies any symptoms of palpitations or shortness of breath. Despite discussing treatment options, he declines cardioversion. Cardiovascular examination is otherwise normal, with a blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg. As per the most recent NICE guidelines, what is the recommended treatment for this patient if he remains in chronic atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: No treatment

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF. The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls. DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      279
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 47-year-old man presents to the clinic with concerns about his risk of...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man presents to the clinic with concerns about his risk of coronary heart disease after a friend recently had a heart attack. He has a history of anxiety but is not currently taking any medication. He is a smoker, consuming around 20 cigarettes a day. On examination, his cardiovascular system appears normal, with a BMI of 26 kg/m² and blood pressure of 126/82 mmHg.

      As his healthcare provider, you strongly advise him to quit smoking. What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Arrange a lipid profile then calculate his QRISK2 score

      Explanation:

      The 2014 NICE guidelines recommend using the QRISK2 tool to identify patients over 40 years old who are at high risk of CVD, with a 10-year risk of 10% or greater. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and atorvastatin 20mg should be offered first-line. Lifestyle modifications include a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, limiting alcohol intake, and smoking cessation. Follow-up should occur at 3 months, with consideration of increasing the dose of atorvastatin up to 80 mg if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 59 year old man with a history of aortic stenosis presents to...

    Correct

    • A 59 year old man with a history of aortic stenosis presents to his cardiology clinic with complaints of worsening shortness of breath and fainting episodes. His recent ECHO reveals a mean gradient of 45 mmHg and mild aortic regurgitation, while his ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy, left bundle branch block, and a prolonged PR interval. What factor is most indicative of the need for valve replacement surgery?

      Your Answer: Presence of symptoms

      Explanation:

      Aortic valve replacement is typically recommended for patients with severe aortic stenosis who are experiencing symptoms such as dyspnea, chest pain, and syncope. Without treatment, these symptoms can lead to a mortality rate of 2-3 years. However, the decision to perform valve replacement on asymptomatic patients is a topic of debate.

      Aortic Stenosis: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope, and a characteristic ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can also cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The most common causes of aortic stenosis are degenerative calcification in older patients and bicuspid aortic valve in younger patients.

      If a patient is asymptomatic, observation is usually recommended. However, if the patient is symptomatic or has a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg with features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, valve replacement is necessary. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.

      In summary, aortic stenosis is a condition that can cause various symptoms and requires prompt management to prevent complications. The causes of aortic stenosis vary, and treatment options depend on the patient’s age, operative risk, and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      100.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man is admitted to Resus with a suspected anterior myocardial infarction....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is admitted to Resus with a suspected anterior myocardial infarction. An ECG on arrival confirms the diagnosis and thrombolysis is prepared. The patient is stable and his pain is well controlled with intravenous morphine. Clinical examination shows a blood pressure of 140/84 mmHg, pulse 90 bpm and oxygen saturations on room air of 97%. What is the most appropriate management with regards to oxygen therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      There are now specific guidelines regarding the use of oxygen during emergency situations. Please refer to the provided link for more information.

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following treatments has not been demonstrated to enhance survival in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following treatments has not been demonstrated to enhance survival in individuals with persistent heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Although furosemide is effective in treating the symptoms of both acute and chronic heart failure, it does not provide any predictive advantages.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Samantha, a 56-year-old teacher, visits you for a check-up regarding her angina. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 56-year-old teacher, visits you for a check-up regarding her angina. Despite taking the highest dosage of bisoprolol, she experiences chest pain during physical activity, which hinders her daily routine as she frequently needs to take breaks and rest after walking short distances. Her pain never occurs while at rest, and she has no known allergies or drug sensitivities. What is the recommended course of action for managing Samantha's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add amlodipine

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines (2019), if a beta-blocker is not effectively controlling angina, a long-acting dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker (CCB) like amlodipine should be added. It is important to ensure that the patient is taking the highest tolerated dose of their current medications before adding new ones.

      Ramipril is not the best treatment option for this patient as there is no evidence of hypertension in their medical history. While ACE inhibitors like ramipril can be effective in preventing myocardial infarction and stroke in patients with angina and hypertension, they are not indicated in this case.

      Verapamil is a CCB that can be used to manage angina, but it should not be used in combination with a beta-blocker as this can increase the risk of severe bradycardia and heart failure.

      As the patient is not displaying any signs of unstable angina, such as pain at rest or rapidly progressing symptoms, admission to the emergency department is not necessary.

      If there is evidence of extensive ischaemia on an electrocardiograph (ECG) or the patient is not responding well to an optimised drug treatment, referral to cardiology for angioplasty may be necessary.

      Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was diagnosed with angina pectoris and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was diagnosed with angina pectoris and is currently prescribed aspirin 75mg once daily, simvastatin 40 mg once daily, and atenolol 100 mg once daily. If his angina symptoms are not adequately managed with this regimen, what would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add a long-acting dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker

      Explanation:

      When beta-blockers fail to control angina, it is recommended to supplement with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that has a longer duration of action.

      Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 83-year-old man who resides in a nursing home arrives at the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old man who resides in a nursing home arrives at the Emergency Department with symptoms of diarrhoea and vomiting. He has been experiencing 8 watery bowel movements per day for the past 3 days and seems disoriented and dehydrated. The patient has a medical history of atrial fibrillation, type II diabetes, and dementia. His heart rate is elevated at 110/min, and his electrocardiogram displays noticeable U waves. What is the probable reason for his ECG alterations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The ECG changes observed in this scenario are most likely due to hypokalaemia. The patient’s electrolyte balance has been disrupted by vomiting and loose stools, resulting in a depletion of potassium that should be rectified through intravenous replacement. While hypocalcaemia and hypothermia can also cause U waves, they are less probable in this case. Non-ischaemic ST elevation changes may be caused by hyponatraemia. QT prolongation is a common effect of tricyclic antidepressant toxicity.

      ECG Features of Hypokalaemia

      Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. This condition can be detected through an electrocardiogram (ECG) which shows specific features. The ECG features of hypokalaemia include U waves, small or absent T waves, prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and long QT. The U waves are particularly noticeable and are accompanied by a borderline PR interval.

      To remember these features, one registered user suggests the following rhyme: In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT. It is important to detect hypokalaemia early as it can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and even cardiac arrest. Therefore, regular monitoring of potassium levels and ECGs is crucial for individuals at risk of hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man presents to you with recent blood test results showing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to you with recent blood test results showing a total cholesterol of 6.2 mmol/L. You schedule an appointment to discuss this further and calculate his Qrisk score to be 23%. He has a 20-year history of smoking 10 cigarettes a day and his father died of a heart attack at age 50. He also has a past medical history of asthma. Which medication would you recommend he start taking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 20mg

      Explanation:

      To prevent cardiovascular disease, it is recommended to start taking Atorvastatin 20mg, which is a high-intensity statin. Atorvastatin 80 mg is used for secondary prevention. Simvastatin 10mg and 20mg are considered low-intensity statins. It is important to combine statin treatment with lifestyle changes such as increasing physical activity, reducing alcohol consumption, and adopting a heart-healthy diet.

      The 2014 NICE guidelines recommend using the QRISK2 tool to identify patients over 40 years old who are at high risk of CVD, with a 10-year risk of 10% or greater. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and atorvastatin 20mg should be offered first-line. Lifestyle modifications include a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, limiting alcohol intake, and smoking cessation. Follow-up should occur at 3 months, with consideration of increasing the dose of atorvastatin up to 80 mg if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 81-year-old woman presents to the cardiology clinic for a routine follow-up appointment....

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old woman presents to the cardiology clinic for a routine follow-up appointment. She has a history of ischaemic heart disease after experiencing a myocardial infarction 3 years ago. Although she denies chest pain, she reports an increase in shortness of breath during physical activity. Upon examination, her vital signs are normal, but there is mild pitting edema up to the knees bilaterally. An echocardiogram reveals mild left ventricular impairment with an estimated ejection fraction of 45%. What is the initial treatment plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol and ramipril

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for patients with heart failure with reduced LVEF is a combination of a beta blocker and an ACE inhibitor. In this case, bisoprolol and ramipril are the appropriate medications to prescribe. The patient’s symptoms, medical history, and reduced left ventricular ejection fraction support this treatment plan. Amlodipine and ramipril, bisoprolol and amlodipine, and bisoprolol and furosemide are not recommended as initial treatments for heart failure with reduced LVEF.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (2/3) 67%
Passmed