-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
What amount of corticosteroid cream should be recommended for a teenager with eczema on both legs for a two-week treatment with once daily application?
Your Answer: 50 g
Correct Answer: 100 g
Explanation:Proper Application of Topical Corticosteroids
Topical corticosteroids are effective in treating skin conditions, but it is important to apply them correctly. The cream or ointment should be spread thinly on the affected area, but enough should be used to cover it completely. To determine the appropriate amount, the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube can be measured in terms of a fingertip unit (ftu). One ftu is approximately 0.5 g and is enough to cover an area twice the size of an adult hand.
For example, treating both legs for two weeks requires 14 ftus or 7 g per daily dose. This means that a prescription for 100 g is needed. It is important to know the correct quantity of cream to be prescribed and the volumes used for various parts of the body, as these have been tested in past examinations. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that they are using topical corticosteroids safely and effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A mother brings in her six month-old daughter with constipation. Which of the following in the history and examination would require a referral to Paediatrics?
Your Answer: Passed meconium at 24 hours of age
Correct Answer: Large naevus over the sacral area
Explanation:When assessing a child’s constipation history and conducting an examination, certain red flags should be taken into consideration. If the child has been constipated since birth or within the first few weeks of life, or if there was a delay of more than 48 hours before passing meconium, it could indicate underlying conditions such as Hirschsprung’s disease or cystic fibrosis.
Additionally, the presence of multiple anal fissures or new neurological symptoms in the lower limbs should be cause for concern. If a large naevus is present over the sacral area, further investigation is necessary to rule out the possibility of spina bifida.
Understanding Constipation in Children
Constipation is a common problem in children, and its frequency varies with age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and symptoms associated with defecation. The vast majority of children have no identifiable cause, but other causes include dehydration, low-fiber diet, medications, anal fissure, over-enthusiastic potty training, hypothyroidism, Hirschsprung’s disease, hypercalcemia, and learning disabilities.
After making a diagnosis of constipation, NICE suggests excluding secondary causes. If no red or amber flags are present, a diagnosis of idiopathic constipation can be made. Prior to starting treatment, the child needs to be assessed for fecal impaction. NICE guidelines recommend using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes as the first-line treatment for faecal impaction. Maintenance therapy is also recommended, with adjustments to the starting dose.
It is important to note that dietary interventions alone should not be used as first-line treatment. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants not yet weaned, gentle abdominal massage and bicycling the infant’s legs can be helpful. For weaned infants, extra water, diluted fruit juice, and fruits can be offered, and lactulose can be added if necessary.
In conclusion, constipation in children can be effectively managed with proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child. Parents can also seek support from Health Visitors or Paediatric Continence Advisors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 65 year-old-gentleman with varicose veins has tried conservative management options, but these have led to little improvement. Other than aching in his legs, he is otherwise well. An ABPI was measured at 0.7.
Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer: Refer to vascular team
Correct Answer: Class 2 compression stockings
Explanation:Understanding ABPI and Compression Stockings
When a patient is found to have an ABPI of 0.7, it is likely that they have other symptoms of arterial insufficiency. An ABPI less than 0.8 indicates severe arterial insufficiency, while an ABPI greater than 1.3 may be due to calcified and incompressible arteries. It is important to note that compression stockings are contraindicated in patients with ABPIs less than 0.8 or greater than 1.3.
The class of stocking used is not based on the ABPI, but rather the condition being treated. Closed toe stockings are generally used, but open toe stockings may be necessary if the patient has arthritic or clawed toes, has a fungal infection, prefers to wear a sock over the compression stocking, or has a long foot size compared with their calf size. Understanding ABPI and the appropriate use of compression stockings can help improve patient outcomes and prevent potential complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 20-year-old woman has had three witnessed episodes when she looked blank, fiddled with her hands and opened and closed her mouth repetitively. She has no recollection of these events but did feel tired for a while afterwards. On direct questioning, she reports what sounds like déjà vu feelings associated with abdominal discomfort occurring over three years, which she had ignored. There is a history of two febrile convulsions in infancy.
Which class of seizure has this patient most likely experienced?
Your Answer: Focal impaired awareness
Explanation:Types of Seizures and Their Characteristics
Seizures can be classified into different types based on their characteristics. Here are some common types of seizures and their descriptions:
1. Focal Impaired Awareness Seizures: These seizures originate from one part of the brain and can affect a larger area than focal aware seizures. The patient’s consciousness is impaired, and they may look blank, have no recollection of the event, and feel tired afterwards.
2. Unknown-Onset Motor Seizures: These seizures involve physical movements but occur during sleep or are unwitnessed, making it difficult to determine whether they have a focal or generalized onset.
3. Focal Aware Seizures: These seizures begin and affect one part of the brain, but the patient remains conscious and alert throughout the seizure and has full recollection of the event afterwards. Déjà vu feelings are an example of focal aware seizures.
4. Generalized Motor Seizures: These seizures affect both sides of the brain simultaneously and involve physical movements, such as tonic-clonic or myoclonic seizures.
5. Generalized Non-Motor Seizures: These seizures also affect both sides of the brain but do not involve physical movements. The patient appears blank and unresponsive during the seizure, but repetitive movements may be present.
Understanding the different types of seizures and their characteristics can help in their diagnosis and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of a lump in his throat and increasing hoarseness that has been present for the past 3 weeks. He reports having a cold 4 weeks ago but denies experiencing heartburn, weight loss, nausea and vomiting, or difficulty swallowing. He is a non-smoker and drinks 12 units of alcohol per week. There is no significant medical history to note.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Vocal cord dysfunction
Correct Answer: Laryngopharyngeal reflux
Explanation:Laryngopharyngeal reflux may be the cause of globus and hoarseness in the absence of any red flags. This condition is often referred to as ‘silent’ reflux. While globus hystericus is a symptom of anxiety, it is unlikely to persist without other autonomic symptoms. Gastro-oesophageal reflux, on the other hand, is characterized by retrosternal burning and regurgitation that worsens when lying down or leaning forward and is relieved by antacids. Post-nasal drip, which is commonly triggered by colds and flu, typically presents with an intractable cough or throat clearing that is worse at night.
Understanding Laryngopharyngeal Reflux
Laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) is a condition that occurs when stomach acid flows back into the throat, causing inflammation in the larynx and hypopharynx mucosa. It is a common diagnosis, accounting for approximately 10% of ear, nose, and throat referrals. Symptoms of LPR include a sensation of a lump in the throat, hoarseness, chronic cough, dysphagia, heartburn, and sore throat. The external examination of the neck should be normal, with no masses, and the posterior pharynx may appear erythematous.
Diagnosis of LPR can be made without further investigations in the absence of red flags. However, the NICE cancer referral guidelines should be reviewed for red flags such as persistent, unilateral throat discomfort, dysphagia, and persistent hoarseness. Lifestyle measures such as avoiding fatty foods, caffeine, chocolate, and alcohol can help manage LPR. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors and sodium alginate liquids like Gaviscon can also be used to manage symptoms.
In summary, Laryngopharyngeal reflux is a common condition that can cause discomfort and inflammation in the throat. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if red flags are present. Lifestyle measures and medication can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
For individuals with Trisomy 21, what is the most prevalent congenital heart defect?
Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect
Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect
Explanation:Congenital Heart Disease in Trisomy 21
Congenital heart disease is a common condition among individuals born with Trisomy 21. Approximately 50% of people with this genetic disorder have some form of heart defect. The most frequent defects are atrioventricular septal defect, ventricular septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus, tetralogy of Fallot, and atrial septal defect.
Atrioventricular septal defect is the most common type of heart defect in Trisomy 21, followed by ventricular septal defect and patent ductus arteriosus. Tetralogy of Fallot and atrial septal defect are less common but still occur in a significant number of cases. It is important for individuals with Trisomy 21 to receive regular cardiac evaluations and monitoring to ensure early detection and treatment of any heart defects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
An 80-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of lower back pain and right hip pain. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results are obtained:
Calcium 2.20 mmol/l
Phosphate 0.8 mmol/l
ALP 890 u/L
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Paget's disease
Explanation:Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting around 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities.
Several factors can predispose an individual to Paget’s disease, including increasing age, male sex, living in northern latitudes, and having a family history of the condition. Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. In untreated cases, patients may experience bowing of the tibia or bossing of the skull.
To diagnose Paget’s disease, doctors may perform blood tests to check for elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), a marker of bone turnover. Other markers of bone turnover, such as procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP), serum C-telopeptide (CTx), urinary N-telopeptide (NTx), and urinary hydroxyproline, may also be measured. X-rays and bone scintigraphy can help identify areas of active bone lesions.
Treatment for Paget’s disease is typically reserved for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fractures, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, such as oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are commonly used to manage the condition. Calcitonin may also be used in some cases. Complications of Paget’s disease can include deafness, bone sarcoma, fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 20-year-old female patient visits the GP with a complaint of a painful ulcer in her genital area. She has recently returned from her gap year in Thailand where she engaged in unprotected sexual activities with multiple partners. During the examination, the GP observes a sharp undermined border around the ulcer and painful lymph node enlargement in her left inguinal area.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Chancroid
Explanation:Chancroid should be considered as a possible cause of genital ulcers if the patient has a history of foreign travel, especially if accompanied by painful swelling of the inguinal lymph nodes on one side.
Chancroid is a disease commonly found in tropical regions that causes painful ulcers in the genital area with a distinct, jagged border. It is often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin on one side.
Behcet’s disease is a condition that affects multiple systems in the body and is characterized by oral and genital ulcers, as well as anterior uveitis. It can also cause thrombophlebitis, deep vein thrombosis, arthritis, neurological symptoms such as aseptic meningitis, and abdominal pain, diarrhea, and colitis.
Primary genital herpes typically presents with multiple painful ulcers and fever. Subsequent outbreaks are usually less severe and localized to one area.
It is important to consider non-infectious causes such as psoriasis, which can cause a sore, itchy, and red plaque in the genital area. On examination, the area will appear shiny, flat, and smooth, and psoriatic scales are not typically present in the genital area.
Understanding Chancroid
Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful ulcers in the genital area, which are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area on one side of the body. The ulcers are typically defined by a sharp, ragged border that appears to be undermined.
Chancroid is a sexually transmitted disease that can be easily spread through sexual contact with an infected person. Treatment typically involves a course of antibiotics, which can help to clear up the infection and prevent further spread of the disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of ataxia and bilateral gynaecomastia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Long term treatment with high dose inhaled steroids
Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome
Explanation:Gynaecomastia and Ataxia: Indicators of Lung Cancer
Gynaecomastia and ataxia are both symptoms that can indicate the presence of lung cancer. While Klinefelter’s syndrome can cause gynaecomastia and cerebellar stroke can cause ataxia, the combination of the two makes it more likely to be lung cancer. Gynaecomastia is a non-metastatic paraneoplastic syndrome that is often associated with non-small cell lung cancer. It can be painful and may also be accompanied by testicular atrophy. Ataxia, on the other hand, can occur as a result of paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration associated with the malignancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A mother is worried about the white reflection in her 11-month-old son's eye. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE test to detect retinoblastoma in a child? Choose ONE option only.
Your Answer: Red reflex test
Explanation:Pediatric Eye Examinations: Tests and Their Significance
Pediatric eye examinations are crucial for detecting eye diseases and disorders in children. Here are some common tests and their significance:
Red Reflex Test: This test involves shining a light source from an ophthalmoscope about 50 cm away from the child’s eyes. A bright and equal red reflex should be seen from each pupil. An abnormal red reflex could indicate serious eye diseases such as cataract or retinoblastoma.
Cover Test: This test is used to detect squint. The child focuses on a near object while a cover is placed briefly over one eye and then removed. The squinting eye will deviate inwards or outwards.
Corneal Light Reflex Test: This test involves the reflection of a light source off the cornea. In people with normal fixation, its position will be symmetrical in each eye. It is used in an examination for squint.
Eye Movements: Eye movement testing is used to assess ocular motor function, particularly cranial nerve palsies.
Visual Acuity: In babies, the ability to follow objects is a guide to visual acuity. In a child with retinoblastoma, visual acuity in the affected eye(s) may be reduced. However, there are other reasons for reduced vision.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 62-year-old woman has been immobilised by a ruptured Achilles tendon. She is known to abuse alcohol. She requests a home visit because she is feeling unwell.
Which of the following findings is NOT typically a feature of alcohol withdrawal?
Your Answer: Abdominal pain
Explanation:Understanding Alcohol Withdrawal: Symptoms and Timeline
Alcohol withdrawal is a range of symptoms that can occur when someone stops drinking alcohol. The severity of symptoms can vary greatly and typically appear about eight hours after the last drink. Symptoms peak on day two and usually improve by day four or five.
Minor symptoms may appear within 6-12 hours and include cravings, anxiety, restlessness, depression, insomnia, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, tremors, headache, sweating, and palpitations. Hallucinations can occur 12-24 hours after the last drink, while tonic-clonic seizures may occur after 24-48 hours.
The most severe form of alcohol withdrawal is delirium tremens, which can occur after 48-72 hours. It is important to seek medical attention if experiencing alcohol withdrawal symptoms, especially if they are severe. Understanding the timeline and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Which of the non-pharmacological non-invasive therapies is the only one approved in current guidelines for the management of persistent nonspecific knee pain?
Your Answer: Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
Correct Answer: Manual therapy
Explanation:Effective Manual Therapy for Low Back Pain
Manual therapy is a highly effective treatment option for low back pain. It involves spinal manipulation, spinal mobilisation, and massage. Spinal manipulation is a low-amplitude, high-velocity movement that takes a joint beyond the range of passive movement. Mobilisation, on the other hand, is joint movement within the normal range of movement. Both techniques have the approval of the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence.
Manual therapy can be provided by chiropractors or osteopaths, as well as doctors and physiotherapists who have had special training in spinal manipulation. It is a safe and non-invasive treatment option that can provide significant relief from low back pain.
However, it is important to note that belts or corsets for managing low back pain do not have approval. Similarly, therapeutic ultrasound is not recommended, and traction should not be offered. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) is also not recommended for managing low back pain with or without sciatica.
In conclusion, manual therapy is an effective and safe treatment option for low back pain. It is important to consult with a qualified healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for your specific condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman is brought by her partner because she has threatened suicide. She has come home suddenly from work because she feels abandoned by her colleagues (who she was previously very close with), having made a mistake in a project. She has been going out regularly to bars drinking and has been quite promiscuous, behaving in a risky way with little care for her own safety and her money. She admits to being intermittently depressed.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Borderline Personality Disorder: Symptoms and Criteria
Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) is a mental health condition that is characterized by a pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and emotions. To be diagnosed with BPD, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following symptoms:
1. Frantic efforts to avoid abandonment.
2. Unstable and intense interpersonal relationships.
3. Markedly and persistently unstable self-image.
4. Impulsivity in at least two areas that are risky, such as sex, substance abuse or reckless driving.
5. Recurrent threats of suicide or self-harm.
6. Mood instability.
7. Feelings of emptiness.
8. Inappropriate and intense anger.
9. Transient paranoia or dissociation (detachment).It is important to note that these symptoms must be persistent and pervasive, causing significant distress and impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning. If you or someone you know is experiencing these symptoms, it is important to seek professional help.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 42-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of ear pain. He had visited the emergency department 3 days ago but was only given advice. He has been experiencing ear pain for 5 days now.
During the examination, his temperature is recorded at 38.5ºC, and his right eardrum appears red and bulging. What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Start amoxicillin
Explanation:To improve treatment without antibiotics, guidelines suggest waiting 2-3 days before considering treatment if symptoms do not improve. This is especially important when a patient has a fever, indicating systemic involvement. Therefore, recommending regular paracetamol is not appropriate in this case.
While erythromycin is a useful alternative for patients with a penicillin allergy, it should not be the first choice for those who can take penicillin. It is particularly useful as a syrup for children due to its lower cost compared to other alternatives.
Penicillin V is the preferred antibiotic for tonsillitis, as amoxicillin can cause a rash in cases of glandular fever. However, it is not typically used for otitis media.
For otitis media, amoxicillin is the recommended first-line medication at a dosage of 500mg three times a day for seven days.
Co-amoxiclav is only used as a second-line option if amoxicillin is ineffective and is not typically used as a first-line treatment according to current guidelines.
References: NICE Guidelines, Clinical Knowledge Summaries
Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old heroin addict begins methadone treatment. What is the proper protocol for notification?
Your Answer: Notify National Drug Treatment Monitoring System without informing patient
Correct Answer: Notify National Drug Treatment Monitoring System if patient consent obtained
Explanation:Reporting Drug Misuse Cases
Doctors are required to notify their local or national drug misuse center about patients who are struggling with drug misuse, particularly with opioids, benzodiazepines, and CNS stimulants. The contact details of these centers can be found in the BNF. The National Drug Treatment Monitoring System (NDTMS) collects data that helps in planning drug services and evaluating the efficiency and effectiveness of drug treatment provision.
However, before sending patient data to the NDTMS, doctors must obtain consent from the patient. This is to ensure that patient confidentiality is maintained and that their privacy is respected. By reporting drug misuse cases, doctors can help in the provision of better drug treatment services and contribute to the overall improvement of public health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
You are contemplating recommending ulipristal (EllaOne) for a female who has come in seeking emergency contraception. What is the timeframe for using ulipristal after unprotected sexual intercourse?
Your Answer: 72 hours
Correct Answer: 120 hours (5 days)
Explanation:Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman brings in her 4-year-old son. She explains that she and her husband have a history of familial hypercholesterolaemia and are worried about their son's health. She asks if he can be screened for the condition.
What would be the best course of action in this situation?Your Answer: Advise she doesn't have familial hypercholesterolaemia as she is asymptomatic
Correct Answer: Arrange an LDL cholesterol test and refer to a specialist for diagnostic testing and further management
Explanation:It is recommended by NICE guidelines that children with both parents affected by familial hypercholesterolaemia should undergo testing before the age of 5 or as soon as possible thereafter. This is because children can develop cardiovascular disease without any visible symptoms. It is important to investigate the child regardless of whether or not they display any symptoms and to refer them to a specialist if they are thought to be at risk of familial hypercholesterolaemia.
Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.
To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.
The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.
Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with macular degeneration seeks guidance on antioxidant dietary supplements. Is there any reason why such supplements should not be prescribed?
Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia
Correct Answer: Current smoker
Explanation:Antioxidant dietary supplements are not recommended for smokers due to the increased risk of lung cancer associated with beta-carotene.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old teenage girl comes to the clinic with concerns about delayed puberty as she has not yet started her menstrual cycle. She reports feeling generally well and has no significant medical history.
During the examination, it is noted that she has a slender build and underdeveloped breasts. There is no pubic hair growth. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender, but there are small lumps in her groin area on both sides.
What is the probable cause of this presentation?Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Correct Answer: Androgen insensitivity
Explanation:The classic presentation of androgen insensitivity is primary amenorrhoea, which is accompanied by groin swellings and absence of pubic hair. These symptoms suggest that the patient has undescended testes and is genetically male (46 XY) but phenotypically female due to increased oestradiol levels. Breast development is a common result of this condition, previously known as testicular feminisation syndrome.
While non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma could also cause groin swellings, it is less likely to be the cause of delayed puberty and would typically present with systemic symptoms.
Disorders of sex hormones can have various effects on the body, as shown in the table below. Primary hypogonadism, also known as Klinefelter’s syndrome, is characterized by high levels of gonadotrophins and low levels of testosterone. Patients with this condition often have small, firm testes, lack secondary sexual characteristics, and are infertile. They may also experience gynaecomastia, which increases their risk of breast cancer. Diagnosis is made through chromosomal analysis.
Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, or Kallman’s syndrome, is a cause of delayed puberty due to low levels of sex hormones. It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is caused by the failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. Patients with this condition may have hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, anosmia, and low sex hormone levels. However, their LH and FSH levels are inappropriately low or normal. They are typically of normal or above-average height, but may also have cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.
Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that causes end-organ resistance to testosterone, resulting in genotypically male children (46 XY) having a female phenotype. This condition is also known as complete androgen insensitivity syndrome or testicular feminisation syndrome. Patients with this condition may experience primary amenorrhoea, undescended testes causing groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol. Diagnosis is made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal a 46 XY genotype. Management involves counselling to raise the child as female, bilateral orchidectomy to reduce the risk of testicular cancer due to undescended testes, and oestrogen therapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 6-month-old boy presents with a history of a two-day cough. He has been brought to see the General Practitioner (GP) by his mother because he is now febrile.
Which is the following signs would be most suggestive of the need for urgent admission to hospital?Your Answer: Respiratory rate 50 breaths/min
Correct Answer: Moderate or severe chest indrawing
Explanation:When assessing respiratory symptoms in young children with a fever, moderate or severe chest indrawing is a red, high-risk sign indicating increased work of breathing. This should prompt urgent hospital admission. Nasal flaring is an intermediate-risk sign and may be managed at home if there are no other high-risk signs. Crackles in the chest may indicate lower respiratory tract infection and admission should be considered based on the overall clinical condition of the child. Oxygen saturation of 95% in air and a respiratory rate of 50 breaths/min are both amber, intermediate-risk signs and should be interpreted in the context of other signs and symptoms. A respiratory rate of > 60 breaths/min is a red, high-risk sign.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman has a diastolic murmur best heard in the upper-left 2nd intercostal space.
What single condition would be part of the differential diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation
Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs: Characteristics and Causes
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during the cardiac cycle. They can be caused by a variety of conditions, including valve abnormalities, septal defects, and physiological factors. Here are some characteristics and causes of common heart murmurs:
Aortic Regurgitation: This produces a low-intensity early diastolic decrescendo murmur, best heard in the aortic area. The backflow of blood across the aortic valve causes the murmur.
Aortic Stenosis: This produces a mid-systolic ejection murmur in the aortic area. It radiates into the neck over the two carotid arteries. The most common cause is calcified aortic valves due to ageing, followed by congenital bicuspid aortic valves.
Mitral Regurgitation: This murmur is best heard at the apex. In the presence of incompetent mitral valve, the pressure in the left ventricle becomes greater than that in the left atrium at the start of isovolumic contraction, which corresponds to the closing of the mitral valve (S1).
Physiological Murmur: This is a low-intensity murmur that mainly occurs in children. It can occur in adults particularly if there is anaemia or a fever. It is caused by increased blood flow through the aortic valves.
Ventricular Septal Defect: This produces a pansystolic murmur that starts at S1 and extends up to S2. In a VSD the murmur is usually best heard over the left lower sternal border (tricuspid area) with radiation to the right lower sternal border. This is the area overlying the VSD.
Understanding the characteristics and causes of different heart murmurs can aid in their diagnosis and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism currently treated with thyroxine replacement presents with gradually progressive weakness over the past few months. She now finds it difficult to get out of a chair and to climb the stairs at home. Medication includes thyroxine and ramipril.
On examination, her BP is 138/88 mmHg, heart rate is 75 bpm and regular. She has fatigable ptosis and proximal myopathy affecting both the upper and lower limbs. There is no muscle wasting or fasciculation.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Understanding Myasthenia Gravis
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a possible diagnosis for a patient with slowly progressive proximal myopathy and a history of autoimmunity. The main symptoms are proximal muscle weakness and ptosis, without muscle wasting or fasciculation. Sensation is unimpaired, and tendon reflexes are normal. Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies are found in 85% of patients with generalised myasthenia. Treatment involves acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and oral corticosteroids.
Other conditions, such as Lambert-Eaton syndrome, myotonic dystrophy, motor neurone disease, and Guillain-Barré syndrome, have different presentations and are unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. It is important to consider all possible diagnoses and conduct appropriate tests to ensure an accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 75-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her son who is worried about her memory. A mini-mental state examination (scored out of 30) is conducted. What is the appropriate threshold to indicate the presence of dementia?
Your Answer: 24 or less
Explanation:Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.
In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A medical research team is comparing the existing diagnostic scanning method for breast cancer with a new type of scan. This research has taken place over a number of years. Currently, patients are scanned once symptoms develop and the mean survival time is 2 years from the point of diagnosis. The new scan allows for the detection of breast cancer by screening high-risk patients before symptoms develop. With this new scan, breast cancer is diagnosed 2 years before symptoms develop and overall survival time from diagnosis is 3 years.
What bias is this an example of?Your Answer: Recall bias
Correct Answer: Lead-time bias
Explanation:The scenario described above exemplifies lead-time bias, which occurs when two tests for a disease are compared and the newer test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no actual effect on the outcome of the disease. In this case, regardless of the test used, patients survive for a year after the emergence of symptoms. It is important to note that this is distinct from the Hawthorne effect, which refers to a group changing its behavior due to being studied, and late-look bias, which involves gathering information at an inappropriate time. Additionally, publication bias, which involves the failure to publish results from valid studies, is not relevant to the scenario described.
Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
You diagnose a left-sided sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) in a normally fit and well 36-year-old woman who has come to see you in your GP clinic. She developed her symptoms over a few hours yesterday and now can not hear at all through her left ear. Her examination shows no obvious external or middle ear causes.
What is your next step?Your Answer: Refer her to be seen within 2 weeks by a neurologist
Correct Answer: Refer her for assessment within 24 hours by an ENT specialist
Explanation:Immediate referral to an ENT specialist or emergency department is necessary for individuals experiencing acute sensorineural hearing loss. This is considered an emergency and requires urgent audiology assessment and a brain MRI. According to NICE CKS guidelines, individuals with sudden onset hearing loss (unilateral or bilateral) within the past 30 days, without any external or middle ear causes, should be referred within 24 hours. Additionally, those with unilateral hearing loss accompanied by focal neurology, head or neck injury, or severe infections such as necrotising otitis externa or Ramsay Hunt syndrome should also be referred urgently. Referral to a specialist other than ENT or non-urgent referral options are incorrect.
When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A breastfeeding mother brings in her three-month-old infant who has been experiencing some burning pain in both nipples during feeds and for up to an hour after. She also reports some itching and sensitivity in her nipples. The baby is growing well and there are no other concerns. During examination, the mother's breasts and nipples appear normal, but the infant has white patches on their tongue. What is the recommended initial treatment?
Your Answer: Miconazole cream for the mother and nystatin suspension for the baby
Explanation:When treating nipple candidiasis during breastfeeding, it is recommended to use miconazole cream for the mother and nystatin suspension for the baby. This is likely to be nipple thrush, and it’s important to treat both mother and baby simultaneously to prevent re-infection, even if the baby shows no signs of infection. It’s worth noting that while miconazole gel can also be used for babies over 4 months, it’s not licensed for those under 4 months due to concerns about choking on the gel. Parents should be carefully informed about the risks and how to administer it safely if it’s prescribed.
Breastfeeding Problems and Management
Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.
Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.
Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.
Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.
Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements about conditions that affect the eyelids is true?
Your Answer: Ptosis is usually congenital
Correct Answer: Chlamydial infections may cause entropion
Explanation:Common Misconceptions about Eye Conditions
Entropion and Chlamydial Infections: Contrary to popular belief, entropion is not usually caused by scarring below the eye, but rather by weakness of the small muscles around the eyelid, which is more common in older individuals. Additionally, chlamydial infections may cause entropion, but it is typically associated with trachoma, not inclusion conjunctivitis.
Bell’s Palsy and Facial Nerve Palsy: Bell’s palsy doesn’t always resolve completely, and some patients may experience long-term sequelae such as facial asymmetry and drooling of saliva. Facial nerve palsy doesn’t cause an inability to open the eyes fully, but rather poor eyelid closure, which may require surgery.
Ptosis: Ptosis can be congenital or acquired, and the most common cause of congenital ptosis is myogenic, not neurogenic. Acquired ptosis is usually due to aponeurotic causes, such as involution with age or a disinsertion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 45-year-old patient presents with symptoms of allodynia, swelling, and motor dysfunction in their right foot, which developed after a severe ankle sprain four months ago. The medical team suspects a diagnosis of complex regional pain syndrome. What would be the most suitable course of action for management?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline + physiotherapy
Explanation:Understanding Complex Regional Pain Syndrome
Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that cause neurological and related symptoms following surgery or minor injury. It is more common in women, and there are two types: type I, where there is no visible nerve lesion, and type II, where there is a lesion to a major nerve.
Symptoms of CRPS include progressive and disproportionate pain to the original injury or surgery, allodynia, changes in skin color and temperature, swelling, sweating, and motor dysfunction. The Budapest Diagnostic Criteria are commonly used in the UK to diagnose CRPS.
Early physiotherapy is important in managing CRPS, along with neuropathic analgesia in line with NICE guidelines. Specialist management from a pain team is also required. Understanding CRPS and its symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents for a diabetes check-up at his GP's office. He has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and his HbA1c remains high at 56 mmol/mol despite attempts to modify his lifestyle. The GP decides to initiate drug therapy.
Which of the following medications would be inappropriate for this patient?Your Answer: Metformin
Correct Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Patients with heart failure should not take pioglitazone due to its potential to cause fluid retention.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
A 52-year-old woman complains of infrequent periods, weight loss, tremor and sweating. She feels her symptoms gradually have worsened over several months. On examination she has a normal blood pressure and resting pulse of 100.
Select the following investigation that is the most appropriate in this patient.Your Answer: TSH and T4 levels
Explanation:The patient is displaying symptoms of thyrotoxicosis, which often includes menstrual irregularity or amenorrhoea. Conn syndrome, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism, is characterized by hypertension and hypokalaemia due to disturbances in aldosterone and renin levels. Phaeochromocytoma, on the other hand, is associated with elevated urinary catecholamines and typically presents with intermittent symptoms such as headache, sweating, tremor, palpitations, and paroxysmal hypertension. Pituitary failure, which may be caused by a pituitary adenoma or pituitary apoplexy, can result in hypothyroidism as part of panhypopituitarism and is best diagnosed with MRI scanning. While anaemia (full blood count and ferritin) can cause tachycardia, it is unlikely to cause tremor and weight loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)