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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is a recognised cause of hypokalaemia associated with hypertension:
Your Answer: Bartter's syndrome
Correct Answer: Liddle's syndrome
Explanation:Liddle’s Syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder that presents with hypertension usually in young patients, that do not respond to anti-hypertensive therapy and is later associated with hypokalaemia, low renin plasma, and low aldosterone levels as well. The other conditions listed do not present with hypertension and associated hypokalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 49 year old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in her left elbow that is localized to the left lateral epicondyle. She has spent the weekend painting her house. A diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis is suspected. The pain would characteristically worsen on which of the following movements?
Your Answer: Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended
Explanation:Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles, thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which results in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man presents with a swollen, red, and painful left calf. He does not have a history of any recent surgery or a long-haul flight. He is generally fit and well and takes no regular medication other than propranolol for migraine prophylaxis. There is also no history of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in his family. The patient is referred to the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) clinic where he is diagnosed with a proximal DVT in his left calf. Following the diagnosis, he is started on low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) whilst awaiting review by the warfarin clinic. Other than commencing warfarin, what further action, if any, is required?
Your Answer: Check anti-phospholipid antibodies + hereditary thrombophilia screening
Correct Answer: Investigate for underlying malignancy + check antiphospholipid antibodies
Explanation:CXR, blood, and urine tests should be carried out initially to exclude an underlying malignancy. If these are normal, a CT scan of abdomen and pelvis should be arranged as the patient’s age is >40 years. Antiphospholipid antibodies should also be checked for the first unprovoked DVT/PE. There is no history, however, to support an inherited thrombophilia.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2012 for the investigation and management of DVT. If a patient is suspected of having DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be used:
DVT likely: 2 points or more
DVT unlikely: 1 point or lessThis system of points is based on the following clinical features:
1. Active cancer (treatment ongoing, within six months, or palliative)—1
2. Paralysis, paresis, or recent plaster immobilisation of the lower extremities—1
3. Recently bedridden for three days or more, or major surgery within 12 weeks requiring general or regional anaesthesia—1
4. Localised tenderness along the distribution of the deep venous system—1
5. Entire leg swollen—1
6. Calf swelling at least three cms larger than the asymptomatic side—1
7. Pitting oedema confined to the symptomatic leg—1
8. Collateral superficial veins (non-varicose)—1
9. Previously documented DVT—1
10. An alternative diagnosis is at least as likely as DVT—2If two points or more—DVT is ‘likely’
If one point or less—DVT is ‘unlikely’Management
1. LMWH or fondaparinux should be given initially after a DVT is diagnosed.
2. A vitamin K antagonist such as warfarin should be given within 24 hours of the diagnosis.
3. LMWH or fondaparinux should be continued for at least five days or until the international normalised ratio (INR) is 2.0 or above for at least 24 hours. LMWH or fondaparinux is given at the same time as warfarin until the INR is in the therapeutic range.
4. Warfarin should be continued for at least three months. At three months, clinicians should assess the risks and benefits of extending the treatment.
5. Consider extending warfarin beyond three months for patients with unprovoked proximal DVT if their risk of VTE recurrence is high and there is no additional risk of major bleeding. This essentially means that if there is no obvious cause or provoking factor (surgery, trauma, significant immobility, etc.), it may be implied that the patient has a tendency to thrombose and should be given treatment longer than the normal of three months. In practice, most clinicians give six months of warfarin for patients with an unprovoked DVT/PE.
6. For patients with active cancer, LMWH should be used for six months.As both malignancy and thrombophilia are obvious risk factors for DVT, therefore, all patients with unprovoked DVT/PE who are not already known to have cancer should undergo the following investigations:
1. Physical examination (guided by the patient’s full history)
2. Chest X-ray
3. Blood tests (full blood count, serum calcium, and liver function tests) and urinalysis
4. Testing for antiphospholipid antibodies
5. Testing for hereditary thrombophilia in patients who have had unprovoked DVT/PE and have a first-degree relative who has a history of DVT/PE. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 60 yr. old man presented with difficulty in breathing. On examination he was severely dyspnoeic and tachycardic. What is the clinical sign that would favour the diagnosis of cardiac tamponade over constrictive pericarditis?
Your Answer: Raised JVP
Correct Answer: Pulsus paradoxus
Explanation:Pulsus paradoxus is defined as the exaggerated fall in systolic blood pressure during inspiration by greater than 10 mmHg. Cardiac tamponade is the classic cause of pulsus paradoxus. Kussmaul’s sign (a rise in the jugular venous pressure on inspiration) is mostly seen in constrictive pericarditis. Hypotension, muffled heart sounds and raised JVP can be seen in both conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 27-year-old female visited the OPD with a complaint of visual disturbance, eye pain, pain in the knee and hands, and a rash on her face. On examination, the rash was the shape of a butterfly, and the joints were mildly swollen. The eyes of the patient were found to be red with irregular pupils. Where do you think the problem lies?
Your Answer: Iris
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are suggestive of ankylosing spondylitis which is often accompanied by iritis, the cause of this patient’s red eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 60 yr. old previously well male patient was admitted with acute severe central chest pain associated with excessive sweating and nausea for the past 45 minutes. On examination he was found to have xanthelasma. His blood pressure was 170/100 mmHg and pulse rate was 104 bpm. His ECG showed ST elevation more than 2mm in leads II, III and aVF. His troponin T was 120 ng/ml. His FBC and renal functions were normal. He was given aspirin, clopidogrel, morphine and IV 5mg of atenolol. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Transfer to coronary care unit for closer monitoring
Correct Answer: Immediate referral to cardiologist for primary angioplasty
Explanation:The diagnosis is acute inferior ST elevation myocardial infarction so the most appropriate management is primary angioplasty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed, outside a nightclub. The ER team found an empty bottle of amyl nitrate in his pocket. The patient is hypoxic with an O2 saturation of 84% and is confused. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Intubation
Correct Answer: Methylene blue
Explanation:The best treatment for the patient in question would be methylene blue.
The most probable diagnosis in this patient is methemoglobinemia due to the ingestion of amyl nitrate.Amyl nitrate promotes the formation of methaemoglobin, which avidly conserves oxygen and leads to decreased tissue oxygen saturations.
Treatment of choice includes methylene blue and vitamin C.
Adverse effects:
Benign side effects include green or blue discoloration of urine and patients should be forewarned.
Significant side effects are based on methylene blue, itself, being an oxidizing agent and an inhibitor of monoamine oxidase A (MAO-A).
As an oxidizing agent, methylene blue can actually precipitate methemoglobinemia or haemolysis in high doses or when ineffectively reduced.
Methylene blue administration in a patient taking a serotonergic agents may predispose to serotonin syndrome.Note: Although methylene blue administration is controversial in the setting of G6PD-deficiency due to reduced levels of NADPH, it is not contraindicated and should be administered cautiously and judiciously.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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In a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which of the following is most specific to the disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies
Explanation:Hashimoto thyroiditis is part of the spectrum of autoimmune thyroid diseases (AITDs) and is characterized by the destruction of thyroid cells by various cell- and antibody mediated immune processes. It usually presents with hypothyroidism, insidious in onset, with signs and symptoms slowly progressing over months to years.
The diagnosis of Hashimoto thyroiditis relies on the demonstration of circulating antibodies to thyroid antigens (mainly thyroperoxidase and thyroglobulin) and reduced echogenicity on thyroid sonogram in a patient with proper clinical features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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If a patient has HIV what is the most likely cause of persistent watery diarrhoea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium
Explanation:When you have a patient with HIV and diarrhoea on the exam, think Cryptosporidium. In those who are immunocompetent this organism doesn’t usually cause symptoms, but in immunocompromised people like those with HIV, it causes infection and diarrhoea. Typically those with CD4 counts of <100 cells/µL1 have the greatest risk for prolonged, severe, or extraintestinal cryptosporidiosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old gentleman with a history of alcohol excess presents to hospital with progressive abdominal distension. He now complains of early satiety and abdominal discomfort as a result of the distension. Examination reveals a significantly distended abdomen with shifting dullness. A diagnostic ascitic tap is performed and the fluid sent for analysis. What is the most appropriate first line treatment for his ascites?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracentesis
Explanation:The first line treatment for ascites that is symptomatic is paracentesis. If it is not symptomatic, treatment could be with salt and fluid restriction as well as spironolactone. If spironolactone maximum dosage is reached, you can use furosemide additionally. Amiloride is not a diuretic that is recommended in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 14 year old girl presented with complaints of acne vulgaris over her face. The acne is exacerbated during her menstrual period. The most appropriate treatment option would be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical benzoyl peroxide
Explanation:Topical benzoyl peroxide is used for the treatment of mild to moderate acne vulgaris. It is actually a peeling agent and it clears the pores and reduces the bacterial cell count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is true regarding Escherichia coli infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: E coli is an important cause of neonatal meningitis
Explanation:Escherichia coli (also known as E. coli) is a gram-negative, facultatively anaerobic, rod-shaped bacterium commonly found in the lower intestine of warm-blooded organisms. Most E. coli strains are harmless, but some serotypes can cause serious food poisoning in their hosts, and are occasionally responsible for product recalls due to food contamination. The harmless strains are part of the normal flora of the gut, and can benefit their hosts by producing vitamin K2, and preventing colonization of the intestine with pathogenic bacteria. Virulent strains can cause gastroenteritis, urinary tract infections, and neonatal meningitis.
The most common causes of neonatal meningitis is bacterial infection of the blood, known as bacteremia (specifically Group B Streptococci (GBS; Streptococcus agalactiae), Escherichia coli, and Listeria monocytogenes). Although there is a low mortality rate in developed countries, there is a 50% prevalence rate of neurodevelopmental disabilities in E. coli and GBS meningitis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old professor presents with visual problems. He has had very poor vision in the dark for a long time but is now worried as he is developing 'tunnel vision'. He states his grandfather had a similar problem and went blind in his 50's. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa
Explanation:Retinitis pigmentosa primarily affects the peripheral retina resulting in tunnel vision. Night blindness is often the initial sign. Tunnel vision occurs due to loss of the peripheral retina (occasionally referred to as funnel vision).
Fundoscopy exam reveals black bone spicule-shaped pigmentation in the peripheral retina, and mottling of the retinal pigment epithelium. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old non-smoker is diagnosed as having emphysema. Further tests reveal that he has alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. What is the main role of alpha-1 antitrypsin in the body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Protease inhibitor
Explanation:Alpha-1-antitrypsin (AAT) is a member of the serine proteinase inhibitor (serpin) family of proteins with a broad spectrum of biological functions including inhibition of proteases, immune modulatory functions, and the transport of hormones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 29 year-old new mother presented with a headache that was first noticed as she was picking up her 5 week-old baby. On admission, she was unable to tolerate the lights and complained of feeling sick. Fundoscopy showed bilateral papilledema, and she was complaining that she was unable to see on her left side. CT head showed a small right occipital bleed. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heparin
Explanation:This patient has developed a venous sinus thrombosis peri-partum, resulting in her symptoms. Anticoagulation therapy including Heparin improves outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for review. His HbA1c is elevated at 64 mmol/mol despite taking 1g of metformin BD. On examination, his blood pressure is 142/88 mmHg, his pulse is 82 beats per minute and regular. His BMI is 33 kg/m². A decision is made to start him on dapagliflozin. Which of the following would you expect on starting therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased total cholesterol
Explanation:Dapagliflozin works by inhibiting sodium glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) and blocking resorption of glucose in the kidney, leading to an increase in urinary glucose excretion and lowering of both plasma glucose levels and body weight.
All studies with SGLT2 inhibitors have found significant reductions in BP, with greater reductions seen in systolic (1.66 to 6.9mmHg) than diastolic (0.88 to 3.5mmHg) BP.
While some trials have shown no change in lipid parameters, others have shown a modest but statistically significant increase in both HDL and LDL cholesterol with no effect on triglycerides or the LDL/HDL ratio. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient presents with massive haemorrhage. After grouping, her blood sample comes out to be B RhD negative. You work in the hospital's blood bank and are asked to prepare two units each of red blood cells (RBCs) and fresh frozen plasma (FFP). You manage to obtain the RBCs but not the Group B FFP as it is unavailable. Therefore, out of the following, FFP from a donor of which blood group would be best to transfuse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: AB RhD negative
Explanation:Group AB donors are the universal donors of FFP. This is because they produce neither anti-A nor anti-B antigens in their plasma and are, therefore, compatible with all ABO groups.
The aforementioned patient’s blood group is B meaning, thereby, she naturally produces anti-A antigens in her plasma and would need to receive plasma that does not have anti-B antigens in it. Hence, she can only receive FFP from donors of group B or AB. Moreover, as she is of childbearing age, she must receive RhD negative blood in order to avoid problems with future pregnancies if her foetus would be RhD positive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman was referred for endoscopy and found to have a duodenal ulcer and a positive urease test. She was given lansoprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for 7 days. Which of the following is the most appropriate way of determining the successful eradication of H. pylori?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urea breath test
Explanation:Urea breath test is the most sensitive test to determine if there has been RESOLUTION/ERADICATION of the infection with H. pylori. The best test for initial diagnosis would be EGD with biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old teacher with multiple sclerosis complains that her vision becomes blurred during a hot bath. Which of the following explain this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uhthoff's phenomenon
Explanation:Uhthoff’s phenomenon is worsening of vision following a rise in body temperature.
Lhermitte’s sign describes paraesthesia in the limbs on neck flexion.
Oppenheim’s sign is seen when scratching of the inner side of leg leads to extension of the toes. It is a sign of cerebral irritation and is not related to multiple sclerosis.
Werdnig-Hoffman’s disease is also known as spinal muscular atrophy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old athlete presented with a 7-month history of difficulty gripping things. He complained of finding it particularly difficult in cold weather. He remembered his father having similar problems. Upon examination, he had a bilateral ptosis with weakness of the facial muscles. He also had difficulty opening his eyes quickly. Limb examination revealed distal weakness in both hands with difficulty opening and closing both hands quickly. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myotonic dystrophy
Explanation:Myotonic dystrophy is the most likely diagnosis here.
It is a multisystem disorder causing cognitive impairment, cataracts, cardiac problems and testicular atrophy, as well as affecting the muscles. Patients have muscle weakness, normally worse distally, and/or myotonia (which is worse in cold weather).
On examination, patients may also have frontal balding, a myopathic facies, bilateral ptosis, an ophthalmoplegia and wasting of facial muscles and other limb muscles. Myotonic dystrophy is associated with diabetes mellitus and pituitary dysfunction.
Diagnosis is normally based on clinical features with a characteristic electromyogram (EMG) of myotonic discharges. Creatine kinase is generally normal and muscle biopsy is non-specific. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man, originally from Pakistan, was admitted with ascites and weight loss. The protein level on ascitic tap was 9 g/l. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatic cirrhosis
Explanation:This is a low protein level, indicating the fluid is transudative. The only answer choice that is a transudative fluid is in hepatic cirrhosis. Exudative fluid would be seen in tuberculous peritonitis, peritoneal lymphoma, with liver mets, and with intra-abdominal malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A young woman is concerned that she has put on weight since she was a medical student, as she now no longer finds time to exercise. She decides to try various weight loss tablets temporarily. After 2 months, she is successfully losing weight but also has trouble with increased stool frequency, difficulty in climbing stairs and getting up out of chairs. However, she has no problems walking on the flat. She also has difficulty in sleeping at the moment but puts that down to the increased frequency of headaches for the past 2 months. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her weakness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She is abusing thyroxine tablets
Explanation:Exogenous thyroid hormone use has been associated with episodes of thyroid storm as well as thyrotoxic periodic paralysis.
It presents with marked proximal muscle weakness in both upper and lower limbs, hypokalaemia and signs of hyperthyroidism.
Hyperthyroidism generally presents with tachycardia, hypertension, hyperthermia, and cardiac arrhythmiasLaxatives and diuretics can result in electrolyte abnormalities.
Medical complications associated with laxatives include chronic diarrhoea which disrupts the normal stool electrolyte concentrations that then leads to serum electrolyte shifts; acutely, hypokalaemia is most typically seen. The large intestine suffers nerve damage from the chronic laxative use that renders it unable to function properly. The normal peristalsis and conduction are affected; the disorder is thought to be secondary to a degeneration of Auerbach’s Plexi. However, it does not cause muscle weakness.Insulin tends to cause weight gain, not weight loss.
Metformin does not cause muscle weakness but can cause headaches. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is referred by his GP to the neurology clinic with abnormal movements. His mother noticed that for the last year, the boy has been falling over more and more frequently. He has also been having increasingly slurred speech. These have been getting progressively worse. He has had recurrent chest infections in his childhood. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ataxic telangiectasia
Explanation:Ataxic telangiectasia is an inherited combined immunodeficiency disorder that is characterised by cerebellar ataxia and telangiectasia as seen in this child, as well as frequent infections as noted in this child’s history. The other differentials would not present with this clinical picture:
Friedreich’s ataxia and Infantile-onset spinocerebellar ataxia do not present with immune problems, whereas Cerebral palsy and Di-George Syndrome do not present with ataxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Through which foramen does the maxillary nerve pass through?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foramen rotundum
Explanation:The foramen rotundum is one of the several circular apertures (the foramina) located in the base of the skull, in the anterior and medial part of the sphenoid bone. The maxillary branch (V2) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) passes through and exits the skull via the pterygopalatine fossa and the foramen rotundum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old surgeon presents with a progressive paraesthesia and numbness in both feet, which have deteriorated over the last six months. He has a 10 year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and had cervical spondylosis, for which he underwent surgery eight years ago. He also confessed to drinking approximately 40 units of alcohol weekly. On examination he had mild bilateral weakness of foot dorsiflexion and both ankle reflexes were absent. There was absent sensation to light touch to mid-shin level with loss of joint position sensation in the toes and absent vibration sensation below the hips. He had a marked sensory ataxia and pseudoathetosis of the upper limbs. He had no evidence of a retinopathy and urinalysis was normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B 12 deficiency
Explanation:Diabetic peripheral neuropathy usually goes in parallel with retinopathy and nephropathy. It is also slowly progressive and affects mainly the spinothalamic pathway.
Alcohol induced peripheral neuropathy is also slowly progressive and affects mainly the spinothalamic pathway.
Vitamin B 12 deficiency usually causes a more rapidly progressive neuropathy with dorsal column involvement (joint position and vibration involvement with sensory ataxia and pseudoathetosis of upper limbs). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old woman referred by her GP because of increasing weight loss, early satiety and increasing anorexia. She admits to 2 or 3 episodes of vomiting blood. The GP feels an epigastric mass. There is both a microcytic anaemia and abnormal liver enzymes. Her past history, which may be of importance, includes excess consumption of sherry and spirits, and a 30 pack-year smoking history. Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric carcinoma
Explanation:With a clinical history of weight loss, smoking, drinking alcohol, and hematemesis, the most likely answer is gastric carcinoma (also a mass). Based on symptomatology alone this is more likely than gastric lymphoma, as she has many risk factors for adenocarcinoma and/or squamous cell carcinoma. Helicobacter gastritis would not likely present with the severity of symptoms, neither would benign gastric ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 60 yr. old male patient with hypertension presented with acute onset retrosternal chest pain for 3 hours. On examination his pulse rate was 68 bpm, BP was 100/60 mmHg and JVP was seen 3mm from the sternal notch. Respiratory examination was normal. His ECG showed narrow QRS complexes, ST segment elevation of 2mm in leads II, III and aVF and a complete heart block. What is the most immediate treatment from the following answers?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chewable aspirin 300 mg
Explanation:The diagnosis is inferior ST elevation myocardial infarction. As the right coronary artery supplies the SA and AV nodes and bundle of His, conduction abnormalities are more common with inferior MIs. The most immediate drug management is high dose Aspirin. Definite treatment is urgent cardiac revascularization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, currently under treatment with simvastatin 10mg was found to have persistently high cholesterol levels. Previous attempts to increase the dose of simvastatin have resulted in myalgia. Given this history, which one of the following lipid-regulating drugs should definitely be avoided?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bezafibrate
Explanation:Both fibrates and nicotinic acid have been associated with myositis, especially when combined with a statin. However, the Committee on Safety of Medicines has produced guidance which specifically warns about the concomitant prescription of fibrates with statins concerning muscle toxicity.
Bezafibrate: It is a fibric acid derivative (fibrate) that has been used as a class of agents known to decrease triglyceride levels while substantially increasing HDL-C levels.
Pharmacological effects:
– Increases VLDL catabolism by increasing lipoprotein and hepatic triglyceride lipase.
– Decreases triglyceride synthesis by inhibiting acetyl-CoA reductase.
– Decreases cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase.Side effects:
– Hypersensitivity
– Primary biliary cirrhosis
– Pre-existing gallbladder disease
– Concurrent use with HMG-CoA inhibitors (statins) can produce myopathy
– Hepatic/renal impairment in a patient warrants dose adjustment as this drug is primarily excreted via the renal mechanism.Contraindications: Concurrent use of MAO inhibitors, hypersensitivity, pre-existing cholestasis, and pregnancy.
Use: It can be used to treat Barth syndrome (characterized by dilated cardiomyopathy, neutropenia (presenting with recurrent infections), skeletal myopathy and short stature)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a rapid urine screening test developed to detect Chlamydia. The total number of people involved in the study were 200. The study compared the new test to the already existing NAAT techniques. The new test was positive in 20 patients that were Chlamydia positive and in 3 patients that were Chlamydia negative. For 5 patients that were Chlamydia positive and 172 patients that were Chlamydia negative the test turned out to be negative. Choose the correct value regarding the negative predictive value of the new test:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 172/177
Explanation:The definition of negative predictive value is the probability that the individuals with truly negative screening test don’t have Chlamydia. The equation is the following: Negative predictive value = Truly negative/(truly negative + false negative) = 172 / (172 + 5) = 172 / 177
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old technician with no past medical history presents to the neurology clinic complaining of muscle pain. He describes severe bilateral cramping calf pain on minimal exercise. This has been present since his late teens and as such he has avoided exercise. Recently, he has attended the local gym to try and lose weight, but attempts at exercise have been dampened by the pain. He does note that if he perseveres with exercise, the pain settles. He has noticed passing dark urine in the evenings following a prolonged bout of exercise. Which of the following clinical tests would be most useful in aiding the diagnosis in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Muscle biopsy
Explanation:The differential diagnosis of bilateral exercise-induced pain would include metabolic muscle disease, lumbar canal stenosis and intermittent claudication. The patient’s age, history and lack of other risk factors make the latter two options unlikely.
The syndrome described is in fact McArdle’s disease (myophosphorylase deficiency). This is a disorder of carbohydrate metabolism. Clinical features of pain and fatigue are precipitated in early exercise, as carbohydrates cannot be mobilized to provide an energy substrate to the muscle. With prolonged exercise, fatty acid metabolism provides energy, and symptoms lessen. The dark urine described is likely to represent myoglobinuria following rhabdomyolysis. Definitive diagnosis of most metabolic muscle diseases relies on muscle biopsy and enzyme analysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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