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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are having a conversation with a patient who is 60 years old and has a PSA level of 10.2 ng/ml. What would be the next course of action that the urologist is likely to suggest?
Your Answer: Prostatectomy
Correct Answer: Multiparametric MRI
Explanation:The first-line investigation for suspected prostate cancer has been replaced by multiparametric MRI, replacing TRUS biopsy. This change was made in the 2019 NICE guidelines for investigating suspected prostate cancer in secondary care.
Investigation for Prostate Cancer
Prostate cancer is a common type of cancer that affects men. The traditional investigation for suspected prostate cancer was a transrectal ultrasound-guided (TRUS) biopsy. However, recent guidelines from NICE have now recommended the increasing use of multiparametric MRI as a first-line investigation. This is because TRUS biopsy can lead to complications such as sepsis, pain, fever, haematuria, and rectal bleeding.
Multiparametric MRI is now the first-line investigation for people with suspected clinically localised prostate cancer. The results of the MRI are reported using a 5-point Likert scale. If the Likert scale is 3 or higher, a multiparametric MRI-influenced prostate biopsy is offered. If the Likert scale is 1-2, then NICE recommends discussing with the patient the pros and cons of having a biopsy. This approach helps to reduce the risk of complications associated with TRUS biopsy and ensures that patients receive the most appropriate investigation for their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes in with complaints of nocturia, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. During prostate examination, a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus is found. Blood tests reveal a PSA level of 1.3 ng/ml.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer: Urgent referral to urology
Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist
Explanation:First-line treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia involves the use of alpha-1 antagonists.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.
Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to your GP clinic with concerns of a possible urinary tract infection. He reports experiencing burning sensations during urination for the past two weeks, particularly in the morning. Additionally, he has noticed some itching around his penis. The patient has no significant medical history. During the examination, you observe that his abdomen is soft and nontender. Upon performing a urine dip, you find that it is positive for leukocytes. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Urethritis due to a sexually transmitted infection
Explanation:The BASH guidelines for Sexually Transmitted Infections in Primary Care state that in young men, urethritis is typically caused by an STI. Men under the age of 35 rarely experience urine infections, so any sexually active man experiencing dysuria should be screened for STIs. The presence of leukocytes in the urine indicates the presence of pus cells, which are a result of an STI. Chlamydia is the most prevalent STI in the UK.
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.
Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.
Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman complains of urine leakage issues for the past six months. She reports frequent urination and difficulty reaching the toilet in time. She denies experiencing urine loss during coughing or sneezing. What is the best initial treatment option?
Your Answer: Trial of oxybutynin
Correct Answer: Bladder retraining
Explanation:The initial treatment for urinary incontinence differs depending on the type. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining is the recommended first-line approach. On the other hand, for stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training is the preferred initial treatment.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a high stoma output from his ileostomy. He had a colectomy 8 years ago due to severe ulcerative colitis. He complains of leg cramps and occasional palpitations, and feels weak. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft with slight tenderness throughout. His blood work reveals a sodium level of 138 mmol/l, potassium level of 2.2 mmol/l, urea level of 13.3 mmol/l, and creatinine level of 150 µmol/l. An ECG shows flattened T waves and U waves. He is admitted to the medical admission unit. How should his electrolyte imbalance be managed?
Your Answer: 3 x 1litre bags of 0.9% saline with 20mmol KCL per bag over 24 hours
Correct Answer: Transfer to high care area with cardiac monitoring, 3 x 1litre bags of 0.9% saline with 40mmol KCL per bag over 24 hours.
Explanation:Understanding Hypokalaemia and its Features
Hypokalaemia is a medical condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. It can lead to various symptoms, including muscle weakness and hypotonia. Patients with hypokalaemia who are also taking diuretics should be monitored closely for digoxin toxicity.
One of the most significant concerns with hypokalaemia is its impact on the heart. ECG features associated with hypokalaemia include U waves, small or absent T waves, prolonged PR interval, and ST depression. These changes can increase the risk of arrhythmias and other cardiac complications.
It is essential to recognize the signs and symptoms of hypokalaemia promptly. Treatment may involve potassium supplements or addressing the underlying cause of the condition. With proper management, patients with hypokalaemia can avoid complications and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary frequency and dysuria that has been present for 2 days. Upon urine dip, she tests positive for blood, leucocytes, nitrites, and protein. Her medical history includes rheumatoid arthritis treated with methotrexate and hypertension treated with ramipril. She has no known allergies. The patient is worried because she has been cautioned about an antibiotic that she should avoid due to her current medications.
What medication has she been warned about from the list provided?Your Answer: Ciclosporin
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Understanding Trimethoprim: Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Use in Pregnancy
Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Its mechanism of action involves interfering with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. This can potentially interact with methotrexate, which also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. However, the use of trimethoprim can also lead to adverse effects such as myelosuppression and a transient rise in creatinine. The drug can competitively inhibit the tubular secretion of creatinine, resulting in a temporary increase that reverses upon stopping the drug. Additionally, trimethoprim can block the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a hyperkalaemic distal RTA (type 4). It can also inhibit creatinine secretion, often leading to an increase in creatinine by around 40 points, but not necessarily causing AKI.
When it comes to the use of trimethoprim in pregnancy, caution is advised. The British National Formulary (BNF) warns of a teratogenic risk in the first trimester due to its folate antagonist properties. As such, manufacturers advise avoiding the use of trimethoprim during pregnancy. It is important to understand the potential risks and benefits of using this antibiotic and to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 62-year-old retired construction worker is found to have haematuria during a routine check-up. He has a past history of hypertension, for which he takes medication. An abdominal X-ray shows no signs of renal stones. Blood tests reveal elevated plasma viscosity and mild anaemia, with a haemoglobin level of 110 g/l (reference range 120–160 g/l) and a slightly low ferritin level.
What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Bladder cancer
Explanation:Bladder cancer is a prevalent type of urologic cancer that has a high recurrence rate. The most common type is transitional cell carcinoma, which is associated with environmental exposure, particularly smoking and certain occupations. Symptoms include painless gross hematuria, irritative bladder symptoms, and pelvic pain. Diagnosis is made through cystoscopy, which allows for biopsy and resection of papillary tumors. Treatment for non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer involves transurethral resection of the bladder tumor, followed by intravesical chemotherapy, intravesical BCG vaccine, and repeat resection and/or cystectomy in persistent or recurrent high-risk disease. Muscle-invasive bladder cancer is treated surgically, possibly with neoadjuvant chemotherapy.
Chronic urinary tract infections typically present as dysuria or irritative voiding symptoms and are most commonly caused by infection with the original bacterial isolate in young, otherwise healthy women. Women with recurrent symptomatic UTIs can be treated with continuous or post-coital prophylactic antibiotics.
Interstitial cystitis is an ongoing inflammation of the lower urinary tract that is not caused by pathogenic organisms. It affects mainly women over the age of 40 and presents as severe lower abdominal pain and polyuria. It is generally a diagnosis of exclusion.
Analgesic nephropathy is characterized by kidney injury caused by excessive use of analgesic medications such as aspirin and other NSAIDs and paracetamol. This leads to renal papillary necrosis and chronic interstitial nephritis. Most healthy kidneys contain enough physiologic reserve to compensate for this NSAID-induced decrease in blood flow.
Acute interstitial nephritis is a type of hypersensitivity nephropathy that is often drug-associated. Patients present with an abrupt onset of renal dysfunction, fever, and occasionally a rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 10-year-old child with a history of infective diarrhoea presents with fever, hypertension, haematuria and bloody stools two weeks later. What could be a potential diagnosis?
Your Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Explanation:Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition that causes progressive kidney failure and is associated with microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia. There are two main types of HUS, one of which is associated with Shiga-like toxin (Stx) and is commonly seen in children who have had diarrhoea. The classic form of Stx-HUS is often caused by E. coli O157:H7 and is characterized by a history of gastroenteritis, fever, bloody diarrhoea, oedema, and hypertension. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is an acute disorder that affects small blood vessels in various parts of the body, including the skin, gastrointestinal tract, kidneys, and joints. It is characterized by a rash with bullae and ulcers, which typically appears in crops. Post-infectious glomerulonephritis is a condition that occurs after a streptococcal infection and is characterized by haematuria, proteinuria, red blood cell casts in the urine, oedema, and hypertension. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is a rare cause of chronic nephritis that occurs primarily in children and young adults and may be idiopathic or secondary in aetiology. Acute interstitial nephritis is a condition that causes sudden kidney dysfunction, fever, and occasionally a rash, and is often associated with drug use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 25-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over the past year. An abdominal ultrasound is performed and the results indicate normal size kidneys and no abnormalities in the urinary tract. The liver, spleen, and pancreas are also normal. The right ovary and uterus appear normal, but a 4 cm simple ovarian cyst is noted on the left ovary. What would be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Repeat ultrasound in 12 weeks
Explanation:Consider referral if the cyst remains after 12 weeks.
Ovarian enlargement is typically diagnosed through ultrasound imaging, which can determine whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and symptoms. Younger women may be treated conservatively if the cyst is small and simple, with a repeat ultrasound scheduled in 8-12 weeks. Postmenopausal women, however, should always be referred to a gynecologist for assessment, as physiological cysts are unlikely in this population. It’s important to note that ovarian cancer can present with vague symptoms, leading to delayed diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Department with a 7-day history of lower abdominal pain. She describes the pain as all over the lower abdomen. On further questioning, she reports having noticed a small amount of odorous vaginal discharge, urinary frequency and pain on urination. Her basic observations include heart rate 98 beats/minute, respiratory rate 18 breaths/minute, blood pressure 110/65 mmHg, temperature 38.5 °C. On examination, there is diffuse tenderness of the suprapubic region, right iliac fossa and bilateral lower back.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cystitis
Correct Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease
Explanation:Understanding Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that occurs when the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. The most common cause of PID is an ascending infection from the endocervix, often caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Other causative organisms include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.
To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea. However, these tests are often negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves a combination of antibiotics, such as oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.
Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis. PID can also lead to infertility, with the risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode, chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but recent guidelines suggest that removal of the IUD should be considered for better short-term clinical outcomes. Understanding PID and its potential complications is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with rapidly worsening testicular pain, redness, and swelling. Upon initial assessment, his vital signs are as follows: temperature of 38.1ºC, heart rate of 104 bpm, respiratory rate of 16/min, oxygen saturations of 97% on room air, and a blood pressure of 106/91 mmHg. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, heart failure, osteoarthritis, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which medication is most likely responsible for his current presentation?
Your Answer: Tamsulosin
Correct Answer: Dapagliflozin
Explanation:SGLT-2 inhibitors, such as dapaglifozin, have been linked to a severe and rapidly progressing infection called necrotising fasciitis of the genitalia or perineum, also known as Fournier’s gangrene. This condition is caused by bacterial flora and is more common in diabetic and immunocompromised patients. It can lead to multiple organ failure and sepsis, making early surgical debridement and antibiotics crucial for management. It is important to note that Fournier’s gangrene is a serious adverse effect of SGLT-2 inhibitors, while the other options presented in the question are not associated with this condition.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the action of a protein called sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT-2) in the kidneys. This results in a decrease in the amount of glucose that is reabsorbed by the body and an increase in the amount of glucose that is excreted in the urine. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
While SGLT-2 inhibitors can be effective in treating type 2 diabetes mellitus, they can also have some important adverse effects. One of the most common side effects is an increased risk of urinary and genital infections, which can occur due to the increased amount of glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported in some cases.
Another potential complication of SGLT-2 inhibitors is normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition in which the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. This can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition if left untreated. Additionally, there is an increased risk of lower-limb amputation in patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors, so it is important to closely monitor the feet for any signs of injury or infection.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have some positive effects on overall health. Many patients taking these medications experience weight loss, which can be beneficial in managing type 2 diabetes mellitus. As with any medication, it is important to discuss the potential benefits and risks of SGLT-2 inhibitors with a healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy has been treated for a first urinary tract infection. There was no evidence of pyelonephritis. Urine culture demonstrated growth of Escherichia coli. He was given a course of trimethoprim and recovered well.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate next step from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Micturating cystourethrogram
Correct Answer: No imaging required
Explanation:Imaging Guidelines for Urinary Tract Infections in Children
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in children and can be divided into upper and lower UTIs. Current guidelines recommend different imaging investigations based on the type of UTI and the child’s age. For infants and children aged ≥6 months with a first-time UTI that responds to treatment, routine ultrasonography is not recommended unless the child has an atypical UTI. Micturating cystourethrography (MCUG) is indicated if renal and bladder ultrasonography reveals hydronephrosis, scarring, or other findings that suggest high-grade vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) or obstructive uropathy. Ultrasonography of the urinary tract is the imaging study of choice in children with a UTI, and it is useful in excluding obstructive uropathy and identifying renal damage caused by pyelonephritis. Technectium-99m-labelled dimercaptosuccinic acid (99mTc-DMSA) is a scintigraphic agent that can be used to assess acute pyelonephritis, renal cortical scarring, and the identification of a malpositioned kidney. However, no imaging is required for a typical, non-recurrent UTI in a child aged ≥3 years. Atypical UTI features include being seriously ill, having poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to treatment with suitable antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 26-year-old man undergoes a routine medical examination and is found to have 3+ haematuria. This is confirmed on microscopy and on a second urinalysis 9 months later. He recalls experiencing two episodes of red urine in the past year, both of which occurred during upper respiratory tract infections. There is no family history of renal disease. He has no oedema but his blood pressure is 150/100 mmHg. His plasma creatinine level is 65 μmol/l (reference range 53–106 μmol/l). What is the most likely finding on a renal biopsy?
Your Answer: Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy
Explanation:Common Kidney Diseases and Their Clinical Features
Immunoglobulin A (IgA) Nephropathy, Kimmelstiel Wilson Lesions, Cast Nephropathy, Minimal Change Disease, and Thin Basement Membranes are some of the common kidney diseases that affect people. Each of these diseases has unique clinical features that help in their diagnosis.
IgA Nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It is characterized by predominant IgA deposition in the glomerular mesangium. Clinical features range from asymptomatic haematuria to rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.
Kimmelstiel–Wilson Lesions, also known as nodular glomerulosclerosis, is a complication of diabetes mellitus. It is characterized by the formation of nodules of hyaline material in regions of glomerular capillary loops in the glomerulus.
Cast Nephropathy, also known as myeloma cast nephropathy, is the formation of urinary casts in the renal tubules from free immunoglobulin light chains, causing intratubular obstruction and damage, which leads to renal failure in the context of multiple myeloma.
Minimal Change Disease, also known as lipoid nephrosis or nil disease, arises from a histopathologic lesion in the glomerulus and is characterized by intense proteinuria leading to oedema and intravascular volume depletion.
Thin Basement Membranes is a group of inherited heterogeneous disorders involving the basement membranes of the kidney and frequently affecting the cochlea and eye as well. It is characterized by splitting and lamellation of the glomerular basement membrane.
In conclusion, understanding the clinical features of these common kidney diseases is crucial in their diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the clinic with a history of fever with chills, vomiting, abdominal discomfort and loose stools for the past three days. Urine examination reveals the presence of white blood cells.
What is a notable characteristic of urinary tract infections (UTIs) in young children?Your Answer: They are associated with anatomical abnormalities in more than half of the cases
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea can be a presenting feature
Explanation:Understanding Urinary Tract Infections in Children
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in children and can present with a variety of symptoms. In older children, diarrhoea with or without mucus may be a presenting symptom, especially with E. coli infection. While amoxicillin is a commonly used antibiotic, current guidelines recommend trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for lower UTIs and co-amoxiclav for upper UTIs.
Anatomical abnormalities of the urinary tract increase a child’s susceptibility to UTIs, but they are not present in the majority of cases. Imaging studies are not necessary for infants and children with a first episode of cystitis or a first febrile UTI who respond well to treatment and have a normal voiding pattern. Ultrasonography is the preferred imaging study for children with UTIs.
Escherichia coli is the most common organism isolated in paediatric UTIs, but other organisms such as fungi and viruses can also cause infection. Poor containment of infection is more common in infants younger than 2 months, and UTIs can spread to the kidneys and bloodstream if left untreated.
Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for UTIs in children is important for prompt diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with hypertension which fails to fall into the normal range after three successive measurements at the practice nurse. These were 155/92 mmHg, 158/96 mmHg and 154/94 mmHg. He has a past history of some urinary tract infections as a child. The GP arranges some routine blood tests.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 187 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Ultrasound scan (USS) Left kidney 8.4 cm and appears scarred.
Right kidney 10.3 cm
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Correct Answer: Chronic reflux nephropathy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a 25-Year-Old Man with Renal Issues
Upon reviewing the history and test results of a 25-year-old man with renal issues, several potential diagnoses can be considered. Chronic reflux nephropathy appears to be the most likely diagnosis, given the patient’s history of urinary tract infections as a child, ultrasound scan results, and elevated creatinine levels. Further testing, such as renal tract computed tomography and a voiding cystourethrogram, can confirm this diagnosis.
Essential hypertension, while a risk factor for reno-vascular disease, is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. It would not lead to a rise in creatinine or asymmetrical kidneys in a young patient.
IgA nephropathy is another potential diagnosis, but the patient’s lack of haematuria or history of recent illness does not support this diagnosis. The history of urinary tract infections also does not align with IgA nephropathy.
Renal artery stenosis is relatively rare in young patients and would lead to a unilaterally reduced kidney size, which does not fit with the patient’s symptoms.
White coat hypertension, while a possibility, would not explain the rise in creatinine or the reduced size and scarring of the left kidney. A 24-hour blood pressure monitor may be needed to differentiate between persistent hypertension and white coat hypertension.
In conclusion, chronic reflux nephropathy is the most likely diagnosis for this patient, but further testing may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other potential causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 16
Correct
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Among the ethnic groups listed, which one has the highest likelihood of developing prostate cancer?
Your Answer: African-Caribbean
Explanation:Prostate Cancer and Ethnicity: Understanding the Differences
Prostate cancer is a disease that affects men of all ethnicities, but the prevalence and mortality rates vary significantly among different racial groups. African-Caribbean men have the highest incidence and mortality rates, while Chinese and Indian men tend to have lower rates. White men have an intermediate risk, with the highest rates in certain regions. However, the role of genetics versus environmental factors is still unclear, and access to healthcare and socioeconomic status may also play a role. Understanding these differences is crucial for improving prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of prostate cancer in all populations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of urine leakage when she coughs, sneezes, or laughs. She has been experiencing this for the past year intermittently, but it has become more severe over the last two months. She has no dysuria or haematuria and is in good health with no abdominal symptoms. All three of her children were delivered vaginally. A urine dip and culture test came back negative. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Detrusor instability
Correct Answer: Stress incontinence
Explanation:The most probable cause of urinary incontinence while coughing is stress incontinence. This occurs when the bladder neck drops below the levator ani sling, which can happen when there is increased intra-abdominal pressure, such as when coughing, laughing, or sneezing. Stress incontinence is characterized by leakage of urine during these activities. Neurogenic bladder, on the other hand, typically presents with overflow incontinence or retention, which is not limited to increased intra-abdominal pressure. Detrusor instability is associated with urgency and increased urinary frequency. Urinary tract infections and pyelonephritis are characterized by increased frequency, dysuria, pyrexia, and loin pain. In this case, the negative urine dip makes infection an unlikely cause.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man undergoes evaluation for hypertension and is discovered to have blood + on a urine dipstick from a recently voided sample. What could be the possible cause of this result?
Your Answer: Eating red meat the previous day
Correct Answer: Exercise
Explanation:Managing Haematuria: Causes, Testing, and Referral Guidelines
The management of haematuria can be challenging due to the lack of widely followed guidelines. Haematuria is classified as either visible or non-visible, with the latter being found in approximately 2.5% of the population. Transient or spurious non-visible haematuria can be caused by factors such as urinary tract infections, menstruation, vigorous exercise, or sexual intercourse. Persistent non-visible haematuria, on the other hand, may be indicative of underlying conditions such as cancer, stones, benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urethritis, or renal causes like IgA nephropathy or thin basement membrane disease.
Current evidence does not support routine screening for haematuria, but patients taking aspirin or warfarin should still be investigated. Urine dipstick is the preferred test for detecting haematuria, and persistent non-visible haematuria is defined as blood being present in 2 out of 3 samples tested 2-3 weeks apart. Renal function, albumin:creatinine (ACR) or protein:creatinine ratio (PCR), and blood pressure should also be checked. NICE urgent cancer referral guidelines recommend urgent referral for patients aged 45 years or older with unexplained visible haematuria or aged 60 years or older with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test. Patients under 40 years of age with normal renal function, no proteinuria, and normotension may be managed in primary care.
In conclusion, managing haematuria requires careful consideration of the underlying causes and appropriate testing. Referral guidelines can help guide healthcare professionals in determining which patients require urgent or non-urgent referral for further investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with haematuria and severe left flank pain. He is agitated and unable to find a position that relieves the pain. On examination, his abdomen is soft with tenderness over the left lumbar region. He has no fever.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Correct Answer: Renal calculi
Explanation:Common Renal Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics
Renal tract calculi, autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD), acute pyelonephritis, renal cell carcinoma (RCC), and acute glomerulonephritis (GN) are common renal conditions that can cause various symptoms and have distinct characteristics.
Renal Calculi: Sudden onset of severe pain in the flank, nausea, vomiting, and costovertebral angle tenderness.
ADPKD: Pain in the abdomen, flank or back, hypertension, and palpable, bilateral flank masses.
Acute Pyelonephritis: Fever, costovertebral angle pain, nausea, vomiting, and gross haematuria.
RCC: Usually mild flank pain, haematuria, palpable flank mass, and hypercalcaemia manifestations.
Acute GN: Sudden onset of haematuria, proteinuria, red blood cell casts in the urine, hypertension, and oedema.
Timely diagnosis and management are crucial for these conditions to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 29-year-old man presents with a complaint of swelling in his left testicle. He denies any pain or urinary symptoms and is in good health. On examination, you note that the left testicle is significantly larger than the right testicle. There is no pain or tenderness on palpation. The patient denies any recent testicular trauma. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: 2 week wait referral for suspected testicular cancer
Explanation:According to the 2015 NICE recommendation, suspicion of testicular cancer should arise if there is a painless increase in size or alteration in shape or texture of the testis. Referring to the emergency department is not a suitable route for referral, and all other choices would result in a delay in identifying a potentially severe condition.
Understanding Testicular Cancer
Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that commonly affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. Germ-cell tumors are the most common type of testicular cancer, accounting for around 95% of cases. These tumors can be divided into seminomas and non-seminomas, which include embryonal, yolk sac, teratoma, and choriocarcinoma. Other types of testicular cancer include Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis.
The most common symptom of testicular cancer is a painless lump, although some men may experience pain. Other symptoms may include hydrocele and gynaecomastia, which occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. Tumor markers such as hCG, AFP, and beta-hCG may be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool for testicular cancer.
Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis for testicular cancer is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for seminomas and 85% for teratomas if caught at Stage I. It is important for men to perform regular self-examinations and seek medical attention if they notice any changes or abnormalities in their testicles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient with hypertension is brought to his general practitioner by his daughter because of haematuria. While taking the history, it becomes apparent that he has had blood in his urine for the past two months and it has gotten progressively worse. Now he also has left flank pain. He has lost 8 lb in the past month without trying. He denies dysuria, fever, nausea and chills. His family history is significant only for ‘diabetes’ in both parents. He has a 40-pack-year history, drinks an occasional glass of wine and denies any history of illicit drug use.
On examination, he is afebrile and his vital signs are stable. On deep palpation of his left upper quadrant, there is a firm, non-mobile mass.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder
Correct Answer: Renal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Haematuria, Flank Pain, and Palpable Mass
The patient in question presents with haematuria, flank pain, and a palpable mass, which are indicative of renal cell carcinoma. This triad of symptoms is only seen in a small percentage of patients and is often referred to as the too late triad because it indicates a poor prognosis. Renal cell carcinoma arises from the epithelial lining of the proximal convoluted tubule and has a tendency to metastasize haematogenously.
Other potential diagnoses include chronic pyelonephritis with abscess formation, which is typically seen in patients with anatomical defects in the genitourinary tract. A partially obstructive renal calculus can also cause haematuria, but it is not associated with a palpable mass, and the history of insidious onset and unintentional weight loss are suggestive of malignancy.
Prostate cancer with retroperitoneal metastases is another potential diagnosis, but it does not typically cause haematuria. Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder is a possibility, given the patient’s smoking history and haematuria, but the flank pain and abdominal mass make renal cell carcinoma the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 72-year-old man is admitted after a fall and a period of time on the floor. He has a long history of chronic illness and immobility, with medications for hypertension, cardiac failure and chronic chest disease.
On examination, he is obese, with a blood pressure of 110/75 mmHg, a pulse of 100 beats per minute and a temperature of 38.5°C. Respiratory examination reveals evidence of right lower lobe consolidation. He has no signs of traumatic bone injury.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Chest X-ray Right lower lobe pneumonia
Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 15.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 312 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 15.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 312 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Creatine kinase (CK) 1524 IU/l 23–175 IU/l
Catheter specimen of urine: Red/brown in colour.
+++ for blood.
No red cells on microscopy
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Rhabdomyolysis
Explanation:The patient’s elevated CK levels and urine test indicating blood without cells strongly suggest rhabdomyolysis as the cause of their kidney failure, likely due to their fall and prolonged time on the floor. Treatment should focus on managing hyperkalemia and ensuring proper hydration. While acute myocardial infarction cannot be ruled out entirely, the absence of discolored urine and other symptoms make rhabdomyolysis a more likely diagnosis. Acute tubular necrosis is also unlikely, as there are no epithelial cells present on urinalysis. While sepsis should be considered, the presence of red-colored urine and a history of a fall make rhabdomyolysis the most probable cause. Polymyositis, a type of inflammatory myopathy, typically presents with proximal myopathy and is more commonly seen in middle-aged women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with hypertension controlled with lisinopril undergoes blood testing for fatigue. The results show an eGFR >90 ml/min/1.73 m2 (reference range >90 ml/min/1.73 m2) and normal U&Es, and urinalysis is normal. He had a previous USS of the renal tract two years ago which was reported as normal.
Which class of CKD does he belong to?Your Answer: No CKD
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease Stages and GFR Categories
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition characterized by a gradual loss of kidney function over time. To assess the severity of CKD, healthcare professionals use a staging system based on the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which measures how well the kidneys are filtering waste from the blood.
A GFR of >90 without other evidence of kidney disease indicates normal renal function. However, if the GFR falls below this level, the patient may be classified into one of the following stages:
– CKD stage 2: GFR 60-89 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly decreased)
– CKD stage 3a: GFR 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly to moderately decreased)
– CKD stage 3b: GFR 30-44 ml/min/1.73 m2 (moderately to severely decreased)
– CKD stage 4: GFR 15-29 ml/min/1.73 m2 (severely decreased)
– CKD stage 5: GFR <15 ml/min/1.73 m2 (kidney failure) To further assess the risk of adverse outcomes, the 2008 NICE guideline on CKD recommends subdividing stage 3 into 3a and 3b and adding the suffix P to denote significant proteinuria at any stage. Significant proteinuria is defined as a urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 30 mg/mmol or higher. Understanding the GFR categories and CKD stages can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage CKD, as well as educate patients on their kidney function and potential risks. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old female patient who visits your clinic regularly presents after routine blood tests following the initiation of ramipril for her hypertension. Her clinic BP was 145/98 mmHg before starting ramipril, and her baseline creatinine was 100 umol/L. During her recent visit, her clinic BP was well controlled at 132/84 mmHg, but her creatinine level had increased to 125 umol/L. What is the best course of action for managing her hypertension?
Your Answer: Reduce dose of ramipril
Correct Answer: Continue current dose of ramipril
Explanation:The patient’s renal function is satisfactory, with a GFR of 60 mL/min/1.73m² or higher. The results indicate that the current dose of ramipril has been effective. Therefore, it is recommended to maintain the current dosage of ramipril and follow the standard protocol for monitoring renal function.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.
ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.
Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes is found to have an elevated plasma creatinine of 150 μmol/l (reference range 62–106 μmol/l). Her blood pressure is 170/95 mmHg, and fundoscopy reveals mild hypertensive changes and background diabetic retinopathy. She has a neuroischaemic ulcer on her left foot and no palpable pedal pulses. Urine dipstick is negative, and renal ultrasound shows a 8.5-cm left kidney and a 6.2-cm right kidney, with reduced cortical thickness.
What is the most likely cause of the renal impairment?Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Common Causes of Renal Dysfunction and Their Clinical Features
Renal dysfunction can have various causes, and identifying the underlying condition is crucial for appropriate management. Here are some common causes of renal dysfunction and their clinical features:
Renal artery stenosis (RAS): RAS can lead to renovascular hypertension and renal impairment, especially in older individuals with atherosclerosis or diabetes mellitus. Symptoms may include sudden worsening of hypertension or renal function, and ultrasonography may show kidney size asymmetry. Treatment options include pharmacologic control of hypertension and serum cholesterol levels, as well as surgical or percutaneous revascularisation in selected cases.
Membranous nephropathy: This is a type of nephrotic syndrome that often presents with oedema and significant proteinuria (>3.5 g/24 h). It is more common in adults and may be asymptomatic in some cases.
Cholesterol emboli syndrome: This condition may occur after an invasive arterial procedure and is characterised by renal dysfunction, hypertension, and distal ischaemia due to small-vessel occlusion. Livedo reticularis and blue toe syndrome may also be present.
Diabetic glomerulosclerosis: This is a complication of diabetes mellitus that can cause persistent albuminuria, declining glomerular filtration rate, and elevated blood pressure. Physical findings associated with long-term diabetes may also be present.
Reflux nephropathy: This condition is caused by the backflow of urine from the bladder to the kidneys and can lead to renal scarring. It is more common in children with urinary tract abnormalities but can also occur in adults with bladder outlet obstruction or neurogenic bladder. Symptoms may include nephrotic syndrome and urinary tract infection.
In summary, renal dysfunction can have diverse causes and presentations, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to establish the diagnosis and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting bladder retraining, her symptoms persist. The decision is made to prescribe a muscarinic antagonist. Can you identify an example of a medication that falls under this category?
Your Answer: Tamsulosin
Correct Answer: Tolterodine
Explanation:Oxybutynin and solifenacin are other examples of muscarinic antagonists used for urinary incontinence. Muscarinic antagonists used for different conditions include ipratropium for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and procyclidine for Parkinson’s disease.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents with facial and ankle swelling that has been gradually developing over the past week. He reports passing 'frothy' urine during the review of systems. A urine dipstick reveals protein +++ and a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome is confirmed after a 24-hour urine sample. What is the probable cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Minimal change disease
Explanation:Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, around 10-20% have a known cause, such as certain drugs, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and reduced electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin. The disease is characterized by nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, with only intermediate-sized proteins such as albumin and transferrin leaking through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, but electron microscopy reveals fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.
Management of minimal change disease typically involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Approximately one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is seen in the diabetes clinic. Her blood tests from three months ago showed:
K+ 4.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 116 µmol/l
eGFR 47 ml/min
She was started on lisinopril to manage hypertension and protect her kidneys. The medication was titrated up to the treatment dose. Her current blood results are:
K+ 4.9 mmol/l
Creatinine 123 µmol/l
eGFR 44 ml/min
What is the most appropriate action to take in this situation?Your Answer: Stop lisinopril and arrange investigations to exclude renal artery stenosis
Correct Answer: No action
Explanation:The slight alterations in creatinine and eGFR are within acceptable limits and do not warrant discontinuation of ACE inhibitors.
Hypertension Management in Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are particularly effective in proteinuric renal disease such as diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs may cause a small decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and a rise in creatinine. According to NICE guidelines, a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes such as NSAIDs. A rise greater than this may indicate underlying renovascular disease.
Furosemide is a useful antihypertensive drug in CKD patients, especially when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient becomes dehydrated due to conditions such as gastroenteritis, the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min. Overall, hypertension management in CKD patients requires careful monitoring and individualized treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with flank pain and a 48-hour history of dysuria. Her past medical history includes polycystic ovary syndrome. She is not sexually active at present. There is haematuria on urine dipstick testing. Examination reveals a pyrexia of 38.1 °C and flank pain.
What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease
Correct Answer: Pyelonephritis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Abdominal Pain: Overview of Common Conditions
Abdominal pain is a common presenting symptom in clinical practice. It can be caused by a wide range of conditions, including gastrointestinal, genitourinary, gynecological, and systemic disorders. Here, we provide an overview of some of the most common conditions that can cause abdominal pain and their characteristic features.
Pyelonephritis: This is a potentially life-threatening infection that affects the renal parenchyma. It typically presents with fever, unilateral costovertebral angle pain, and nausea/vomiting. Antibiotic therapy is essential, and empirical therapy should be tailored to the infecting pathogen.
Ovarian cyst pain: Ovarian cysts are usually asymptomatic, but severe pain can occur if there is torsion or rupture. The pain is sudden, sharp, and unilateral, and can be associated with trauma, exercise, or coitus.
Nephrolithiasis: This refers to the presence of calculi in the kidneys and/or ureters. The classic presentation is sudden onset of severe flank pain that radiates anteriorly and inferiorly, often accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Fever is not a typical feature.
Pelvic inflammatory disease: PID is an infectious and inflammatory disorder of the upper female genital tract. It typically presents with lower abdominal pain and abnormal vaginal discharge.
Acute glomerulonephritis: This is a specific set of renal diseases that can result in damage to the glomerular tissue. Acute nephritic syndrome is the most serious form, but it typically presents with haematuria, proteinuria, and red blood cell casts in the urine, often accompanied by hypertension and oedema.
In summary, the differential diagnosis of abdominal pain is broad and includes a range of conditions that can affect different organ systems. A careful history and physical examination, along with appropriate investigations, can help to narrow down the possible causes and guide management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 39-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of intense, stabbing pain in her right flank that spreads to her groin. The pain comes and goes but is excruciating, reaching a severity of 10/10 at its peak. A pregnancy test yields negative results, while a urine dip shows positive for nitrites, leukocytes, and blood.
What test should be conducted to properly diagnose the condition?Your Answer: Non-contrast CTKUB
Explanation:When a patient presents with symptoms of renal colic, such as severe pain that radiates from the loin to the groin, a non-contrast CT-KUB is the preferred imaging test to detect any renal calculi and ensure there is no obstruction caused by them. In cases where an infected, obstructing stone is suspected, urgent nephrostomy may be necessary. Abdominal x-rays are not reliable for detecting calculi and should not be used as an indication for this type of investigation. A CT abdomen and pelvis is unnecessary and may expose the patient to unnecessary radiation. A CTKUB with contrast is also not recommended as it may mask the appearance of calculi. While ultrasound can be used to detect renal calculi, CT is more accurate and is now recommended as the first-line investigation. In cases where infection is suspected, CT is superior in assessing the anatomy and identifying any potential obstruction or collection that may require invasive intervention, such as nephrostomy insertion.
The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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