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Question 1
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A 70-year-old man is seen on a home visit by his General Practitioner as his wife is concerned about an ulcer on his lower leg, which has been present for a couple of weeks. It is starting to leak clear fluid. He has a history of chronic congestive cardiac failure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. A diagnosis of a venous ulcer is suspected.
Which of the following examination findings would best support this diagnosis?Your Answer: Atrophie blanche
Explanation:Signs and Symptoms of Leg Ulcers: Differentiating Arterial, Venous, and Inflammatory Causes
Leg ulcers can have various causes, including arterial, venous, and inflammatory conditions. Here are some signs and symptoms that can help differentiate between these causes:
Atrophie Blanche: This is a white atrophic scar surrounded by areas of hyperpigmentation, which is a sign of severe venous insufficiency.
Ankle Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) of 0.4: ABPI is the ratio of systolic blood pressure in the ankle compared with the arm. An ABPI < 0.5 indicates severe arterial disease, suggesting that the ulcer is most likely arterial, rather than venous, in nature. Hairless and Pale Skin on the Lower Legs: Pallor of the skin and a lack of hair growth on the lower legs is a sign of arterial disease, pointing towards a diagnosis of an arterial ulcer rather than a venous ulcer. Necrobiosis Lipoidica: This is a rare granulomatous condition that usually affects people with insulin-dependent diabetes. Plaques are present on the shins, often with telangiectasia in the center and may ulcerate. The cause for the leg ulcer is, therefore, inflammatory rather than venous in origin. Reduced Light-Touch Sensation in Both Feet: Reduced sensation in the feet could be neuropathic in nature (diabetes, multiple sclerosis) or the result of severe arterial disease. Venous insufficiency does not usually affect sensation, so this finding on examination would support a diagnosis of arterial or neuropathic ulcer. By recognizing these signs and symptoms, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat leg ulcers based on their underlying causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is prescribed a 7-day course of erythromycin for cellulitis. She is in good health and uses the progesterone-only pill for birth control. She is concerned about the potential interaction between her antibiotic and contraceptive pill. What advice should she be given regarding her contraception?
Your Answer: Advise using additional barrier contraceptives for the duration of the antibiotic course, but continue to take the pill
Correct Answer: Reassurance that no additional precautions are needed
Explanation:It was once believed that taking antibiotics while on any form of contraceptive pill could reduce the pill’s effectiveness. However, it is now known that broad-spectrum antibiotics do not interact with the progesterone-only pill, and therefore no extra precautions are necessary. The only exception is enzyme-inducing antibiotics like rifampicin, which may affect the pill’s efficacy. Additionally, if an antibiotic causes vomiting or diarrhea, it may also affect the pill’s effectiveness, but this is true for any form of vomiting or diarrhea. Therefore, the correct advice is to reassure patients that no additional precautions are needed. Advising the use of barrier contraceptives or ceasing the pill is incorrect, as there is no evidence to support these actions.
Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill
Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.
It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.
In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 58-year-old man presents to his doctor with concerns about his chest. He feels embarrassed and believes that he is developing breast tissue. Upon examination, bilateral gynaecomastia is the only abnormal finding. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, high cholesterol, type 2 diabetes, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which medication is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Finasteride
Explanation:Gynaecomastia in males can have various underlying causes, some of which may be serious, such as endocrine disorders, liver failure, kidney failure, or malignancy. Additionally, medication-related causes should be considered, as in the case of this patient who was taking finasteride, which is known to cause gynaecomastia. Finasteride functions by inhibiting 5-alpha-reductase, which reduces dihydrotestosterone production and shrinks the prostate. However, it can also lead to side effects such as sexual dysfunction and gynaecomastia.
Understanding Finasteride: Its Uses and Side Effects
Finasteride is a medication that works by inhibiting the activity of 5 alpha-reductase, an enzyme responsible for converting testosterone into dihydrotestosterone. This drug is commonly used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and male-pattern baldness.
However, like any medication, finasteride has its own set of adverse effects. Some of the most common side effects include impotence, decreased libido, ejaculation disorders, gynaecomastia, and breast tenderness. It is important to note that finasteride can also cause decreased levels of serum prostate-specific antigen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of a fishy-smelling watery discharge from her vagina, which worsens after sexual activity. What test would be the most helpful in diagnosing her condition?
Your Answer: Blood serology testing for bacterial vaginosis (BV)
Correct Answer: Test vaginal pH
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Bacterial Vaginosis
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by a shift in the vaginal flora, resulting in a change in pH. Here are some diagnostic tests that can be used to identify BV:
1. Test vaginal pH: A vaginal pH of > 4.5 in conjunction with a fishy odour and the characteristic discharge is diagnostic of BV.
2. Blood serology testing: BV cannot be diagnosed through blood serology testing as it is not caused by a single organism.
3. High vaginal swab for sexually transmitted infections: BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but the presence of other STIs can increase the prevalence of BV.
4. Low vaginal swab: A culture of the vaginal organisms via a low vaginal swab is not a useful way to diagnose BV.
5. Urinary microscopy, sensitivity, and culture: Urinary culture is not used to diagnose BV. Diagnosis is based on characteristic findings at examination.
In conclusion, a combination of a high vaginal swab for STIs and a test for vaginal pH can be used to diagnose BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Correct
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A 19-year-old non-pregnant, asymptomatic woman with no past medical history is found to have 106 colony-forming units of Escherichia coli/ml of urine on a routine health check.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: No antibiotics are indicated
Explanation:Management of Asymptomatic Bacteriuria
Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common finding in clinical practice, but it does not require antibiotic treatment. Patients with asymptomatic bacteriuria are at increased risk for symptomatic UTI, but treatment does not decrease the frequency of symptomatic UTIs nor improve other outcomes. Therefore, screening for or treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria is not appropriate and should be discouraged.
Treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria in women should be reserved for pregnant patients, those undergoing a urological procedure that may produce mucosal bleeding, and the significantly immunosuppressed. Pregnant patients are considered immunosuppressed UTI hosts due to the physiological changes associated with pregnancy, which increase the risk for serious complications even in healthy pregnant women. However, it should not be treated in diabetic patients, elderly individuals, or those with indwelling catheters.
Antibiotic treatment is not recommended in this clinical scenario, even in symptomatic UTIs. Current UK antimicrobial guidance recommends treatment for 3-7 days, depending on the clinical case, not with a single-dose administration. Investigating the renal tract is also not necessary for a single finding of asymptomatic bacteriuria.
Intravenous antibiotic treatment is reserved for complicated UTIs, in which case the patient would present far more unwell than what is seen in this scenario. Underlying conditions that predispose patients to complicated UTIs include diabetes, renal failure, functional or anatomic abnormality of the urinary tract, renal transplantation, an indwelling catheter stent, or immunosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her 3-month old male baby to the pediatrician's office. She reports that for the past two weeks, the baby has been experiencing poor feeding, with intermittent rapid breathing, wheezing, and sweating. Additionally, the baby's weight has dropped off the initial centile. During the examination, the pediatrician discovers hepatomegaly.
What could be the probable reason for these symptoms?Your Answer: Acute liver failure
Correct Answer: Congestive heart failure
Explanation:The neonate is displaying signs of heart failure, which may be caused by structural heart disease. Symptoms of heart failure in neonates include difficulty feeding, breathing problems, and an enlarged liver. Asthma is not typically diagnosed in this age group, and acute liver failure is rare and usually presents with growth issues and blood clotting problems. Viral wheezing is uncommon in neonates, and the poor feeding and weight loss suggest heart failure as the likely cause.
How Congenital Heart Disease Presents
Congenital heart disease can manifest in various ways. One of the earliest signs may be detected during the antenatal period when imaging of the heart is performed as part of the 18-20 week fetal anomaly scan. A murmur may also be detected during the routine newborn examination. Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes, may also be present. In some cases, heart failure may occur, which can be characterized by poor feeding, shortness of breath, sweating, and hepatomegaly. It is important to be aware of these presentations in order to promptly diagnose and manage congenital heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman begins taking Microgynon 30 on the 8th day of her menstrual cycle. When will it become a dependable form of birth control?
Your Answer: 7 days
Explanation:Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
Immediate: IUD
2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)Counselling for Women Considering the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on the potential harms and benefits of the pill. The COC is highly effective if taken correctly, with a success rate of over 99%. However, there is a small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, and strokes, as well as an increased risk of breast and cervical cancer.
In addition to discussing the potential risks and benefits, women should also receive advice on how to take the pill. If the COC is started within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle, there is no need for additional contraception. However, if it is started at any other point in the cycle, alternative contraception should be used for the first 7 days. Women should take the pill at the same time every day and should be aware that intercourse during the pill-free period is only safe if the next pack is started on time.
There have been recent changes to the guidelines for taking the COC. While it was previously recommended to take the pill for 21 days and then stop for 7 days to mimic menstruation, it is now recommended to discuss tailored regimes with women. This is because there is no medical benefit to having a withdrawal bleed, and options include never having a pill-free interval or taking three 21-day packs back-to-back before having a 4 or 7 day break.
Women should also be informed of situations where the efficacy of the pill may be reduced, such as vomiting within 2 hours of taking the pill, medication that induces diarrhoea or vomiting, or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. It is also important to discuss sexually transmitted infections and precautions that should be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.
Overall, counselling for women considering the COC should cover a range of topics to ensure that they are fully informed and able to make an informed decision about their contraceptive options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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Each of the following can cause a mydriatic pupil, except for what?
Your Answer: Argyll-Robertson pupil
Explanation:The Argyll-Robertson pupil is a well-known pupillary syndrome that can be observed in cases of neurosyphilis. This condition is characterized by pupils that are able to accommodate, but do not react to light. A helpful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA). Other features of the Argyll-Robertson pupil include small and irregular pupils. The condition can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis.
Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 28-year-old individual who wears contact lenses was referred to a casualty ophthalmology clinic by their GP due to complaints about their left eye. The patient reports experiencing redness, pain, and a gritty sensation in the affected eye, as well as increased sensitivity to light. There is no discharge present. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Keratitis
Explanation:Keratitis is characterized by symptoms such as a red eye, sensitivity to light, and a feeling of grittiness in the eye.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 32-year-old male immigrant from India undergoes testing for latent TB. Results from both the Mantoux skin test and interferon release gamma assay confirm the presence of latent TB. What treatment options are available for the patient?
Your Answer: Isoniazid with pyridoxine for 6 months
Explanation:Treatment Options for Latent Tuberculosis
Latent tuberculosis is a disease that can remain dormant in the body for years without causing any symptoms. However, if left untreated, it can develop into active tuberculosis, which can be life-threatening. To prevent this from happening, NICE now offers two choices for treating latent tuberculosis.
The first option is a combination of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin for three months. This is recommended for people under the age of 35 who are concerned about the hepatotoxicity of the drugs. Before starting this treatment, a liver function test is conducted to assess the risk factors.
The second option is a six-month course of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) for people who are at risk of interactions with rifamycins. This includes individuals with HIV or those who have had a transplant. The risk factors for developing active tuberculosis include silicosis, chronic renal failure, HIV positivity, solid organ transplantation with immunosuppression, intravenous drug use, haematological malignancy, anti-TNF treatment, and previous gastrectomy.
In summary, the choice of treatment for latent tuberculosis depends on the individual’s clinical circumstances and risk factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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