00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit with acute appendicitis. You...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit with acute appendicitis. You are evaluating his suitability for surgery.
      He has no relevant medical history, his blood pressure is being monitored by his GP but he has not yet been prescribed any medication for it. He does not smoke and drinks a couple of beers with his meals on Fridays and Saturdays.
      The nursing staff have recorded his vital signs, height, and weight. His heart rate is 98 /min, respiratory rate is 17 /min, temperature is 37.8ºC, blood pressure is 148/93 mmHg, and saturations are 99% on room air. He is 178 cm tall, weighs 132 kg, and has a BMI of 41.6 kg/m².
      An anaesthetist evaluates his American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) grade before surgery.
      What ASA grade would you assign to this man based on the information provided?

      Your Answer: ASA II - patient with mild systemic disease

      Correct Answer: ASA III - patient with severe systemic disease

      Explanation:

      Patients who have a BMI that falls under the morbidly obese category (greater than 40) are classified as ASA III. ASA grades are utilized by anaesthetists to evaluate the risk of anaesthesia for a patient. These grades are determined before surgery to determine the appropriate anaesthetic agents to use and to identify patients who may not be suitable for surgery or may not survive anaesthesia. When calculating a patient’s ASA, their medical history and social history are both taken into account. Current smoking and social alcohol consumption automatically classify a patient as ASA grade II. Morbid obesity is considered a severe disease and is therefore classified as ASA grade III.

      The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).

      ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.

      ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 4-week old baby is seen by the GP. The baby was born...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week old baby is seen by the GP. The baby was born in breech position at 38+4 weeks gestation without any complications during delivery. However, two days after birth, the baby developed jaundice and was treated with phototherapy. The newborn physical examination was normal. The mother has a medical history of anaemia, asthma, and coeliac disease. The baby is currently thriving and is on the 45th centile. What investigations should the GP consider referring the baby for based on their medical history?

      Your Answer: Serum bilirubin levels

      Correct Answer: Ultrasounds of pelvis

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old man presents to the outpatient department with complaints of lower back...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the outpatient department with complaints of lower back pain. He used to be an active soccer player but has had to give up due to the pain.

      During the examination, there is no skin rash or history of gastrointestinal or genitourinary symptoms. The patient reports difficulty standing straight and walking in a stooped position for hours each morning before being able to stand up straight. Additionally, there is redness and pain around the right heel, and Schober's test is positive.

      What abnormalities may be found on the patient's ECG?

      Your Answer: A-V dissociation, deep S in V1 and tall R in V5

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing Spondylitis and Cardiac Manifestations

      Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a systemic disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. One of the extra-articular manifestations of AS is cardiac involvement, which can lead to heart block and aortic regurgitation. Chronic aortic regurgitation can cause left ventricular hypertrophy, resulting in deep S in V1 and tall R in V5. A-V dissociation is the ECG manifestation of heart block. Mortality rates are higher in patients with AS, with circulatory disease being the most common cause of death.

      P-pulmonale is not a typical manifestation of AS, but it can occur in cases of pulmonary hypertension when the right atrium is enlarged. Pulmonary fibrosis, which can occur in AS, can theoretically lead to pulmonary hypertension and p-pulmonale. Right bundle branch block is a non-specific ECG finding that can occur without any heart disease or in conditions such as atrial septal defect, ischemic heart disease, or pulmonary embolism.

      In conclusion, AS is a systemic disorder that can affect multiple systems in the body, including the heart. Cardiac involvement can lead to heart block and aortic regurgitation, which can cause left ventricular hypertrophy. Mortality rates are higher in patients with AS, with circulatory disease being the most common cause of death. While p-pulmonale is not a typical manifestation of AS, it can occur in cases of pulmonary hypertension. Right bundle branch block is a non-specific ECG finding that can occur in various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are asked to review a 32-year-old woman, who is breastfeeding on day...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to review a 32-year-old woman, who is breastfeeding on day two post-emergency Caesarean section, because her wound is tender. On examination, you notice that the skin surrounding the wound is erythematosus, with a small amount of yellow discharge. There is no wound dehiscence. The area is tender on examination. Observations are stable, and the patient is apyrexial. You send a swab from the wound for culture. She has an allergy to penicillin.
      Which of the following is the best next step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Oral flucloxacillin

      Correct Answer: Oral erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Cellulitis in Post-Caesarean Section Patient

      Cellulitis around the Caesarean wound site requires prompt treatment to prevent the development of sepsis, especially in postpartum women. The initial steps include wound swab for culture and sensitivities, marking the area of cellulitis, and analgesia. Flucloxacillin is the first-line antibiotic for cellulitis, but oral erythromycin is recommended for patients with penicillin allergy. The dose of erythromycin is 500 mg four times a day orally for five to seven days, and it is safe during breastfeeding. Topical treatment is not as effective as systemic treatment, and analgesia is necessary to manage pain. Antibiotics should not be delayed until culture sensitivities are available, and intravenous antibiotics are not indicated unless the patient’s condition deteriorates. Close monitoring of symptoms, observations, and inflammatory markers should guide treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      56.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of back pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of back pain. He reports experiencing a sharp, burning pain in the middle of his back over the past few days. The pain is severe enough to wake him up at night and he has found little relief with paracetamol. He is requesting a stronger medication. He denies any leg weakness, urinary incontinence, or numbness.

      The patient has no other medical conditions, but he recalls being informed of an irregular prostate during his last visit with his primary care physician six months ago. He received letters for further testing but did not attend the appointments.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat digital rectal exam and send an up-to-date prostate-specific antigen

      Correct Answer: Immediately refer him to the hospital for urgent assessment

      Explanation:

      When patients present with back pain, thoracic pain should be considered a warning sign. In this particular case, the patient’s back pain has several red-flag features, including its location in the middle of the back, sudden onset and progression, night pain, and recent prostate exam results. These symptoms are highly indicative of metastatic prostate cancer with spinal cord compression, which is a medical emergency. Immediate hospital assessment is necessary, along with a whole-body MRI and treatment such as high dose dexamethasone, radiotherapy, and surgery if needed. Any response that fails to recognize the urgency of this situation is incorrect.

      Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      66.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old patient complains of back pain that extends to the left leg....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient complains of back pain that extends to the left leg. The patient reports decreased sensation on the lateral aspect of the left calf and lateral foot. Which nerve roots are likely to be affected in this case?

      Your Answer: S1-S2

      Correct Answer: L5-S1

      Explanation:

      L5 and S1 Radiculopathy

      L5 radiculopathy is the most common type of radiculopathy that affects the lumbosacral spine. It is characterized by back pain that radiates down the lateral aspect of the leg and into the foot. On the other hand, S1 radiculopathy is identified by pain that radiates down the posterior aspect of the leg and into the foot from the back.

      When examining a patient with S1 radiculopathy, there may be a reduction in leg extension (gluteus maximus), foot eversion, plantar flexion, and toe flexion. Sensation is also generally reduced on the posterior aspect of the leg and the lateral foot.

      It is important to note that both L5 and S1 radiculopathy can cause significant discomfort and affect a patient’s quality of life. Proper diagnosis and management are crucial in addressing these conditions. Patients are advised to seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms related to radiculopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 38-year-old man is admitted to a psychiatric unit with an acute episode...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man is admitted to a psychiatric unit with an acute episode of psychosis. After assessment, he is diagnosed with schizophrenia. He has no medical history and is not taking any regular medications. The consultant psychiatrist plans to initiate pimozide 2 mg daily. What baseline investigation and regular monitoring are required for this medication?

      Your Answer: Electrocardiography

      Explanation:

      Pimozide: An Effective Antipsychotic with Cardiac Risks

      Pimozide is a potent antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and psychosis. It works by blocking multiple neurotransmitter receptors, including dopamine D2 receptors, serotonin receptors, and acetylcholine receptors. However, its significant dopamine antagonistic properties can cause severe extrapyramidal side effects such as tardive dyskinesia and akathisia. Pimozide is also associated with the development of cardiac arrhythmias, including prolongation of the QT interval and supraventricular tachycardias. This can lead to sudden deterioration into ventricular tachycardia, torsades de pointes, and even ventricular fibrillation, which can be fatal. Therefore, baseline recording of the ECG and monthly review are mandatory while taking the drug, and any change in the QT interval duration should prompt discontinuation or reduction of the drug. Patients with pre-existing prolongation, concurrent use of other drugs that prolong the QT interval, or congenitally extended QT durations should not be started on this drug.

      Pregnancy is not a contraindication for the use of antipsychotic drugs, but women taking dopamine antagonists in the third trimester may deliver babies displaying transient extrapyramidal side effects. Most antipsychotic drugs do not affect renal function significantly, but pre-existing renal failure necessitates dose reduction. Pimozide is not known to be toxic to the lungs, and baseline chest x-ray is not required. While pimozide is an effective antipsychotic medication, its cardiac risks must be carefully monitored to prevent potentially fatal arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old woman reports experiencing recurring, distressing thoughts that have been invading her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman reports experiencing recurring, distressing thoughts that have been invading her mind for the past six months. She believes that her hands are contaminated and frequently cleans them with disinfectants and alcohol to alleviate her anxiety. The doctor prescribes fluvoxamine as a treatment.

      What is the primary mechanism of action and main side effect of fluvoxamine?

      Your Answer: Selective inhibition of serotonin reuptake – weight gain

      Correct Answer: Selective inhibition of serotonin reuptake – anorgasmia

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Mechanisms and Side-Effects of Fluvoxamine and Other Antidepressants

      Fluvoxamine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used to manage depressive illness and obsessive-compulsive disorder. By inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin, it increases the level of serotonin available in the synaptic cleft to bind the post-synaptic neuron. However, it can also cause side-effects such as tachycardia, postural hypotension, confusion, ataxia, anorexia with weight loss, and sexual dysfunction (anorgasmia, erectile dysfunction, diminished libido).

      Contrary to popular belief, fluvoxamine is associated with anorexia and weight loss rather than weight gain. It is not a non-selective inhibitor of norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake, which is a mechanism of action of tricyclic antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants are associated with side-effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, abdominal pain, stomatitis, palpitations, and arrhythmia in overdose.

      On the other hand, amphetamine and amphetamine-like drugs such as methamphetamine and ephedrine work by neuronal norepinephrine release, which is a stimulant mechanism. These drugs can cause side-effects such as insomnia, nausea, vomiting, hypertension/hypotension, flushing, dizziness, headache, anxiety, tremor, sweating, and hypersalivation.

      In summary, understanding the pharmacological mechanisms and side-effects of antidepressants such as fluvoxamine can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions when prescribing medication for patients with mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 52-year-old woman has been referred for colposcopy after her recent cervical smear...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman has been referred for colposcopy after her recent cervical smear cytology showed high-grade (moderate) abnormalities and tested positive for high-risk (HR) human papillomavirus (HPV). She underwent a loop excision of the cervix, and the histology report revealed cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia 1 + 2. What is the next best course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: HPV test of cure in six months, if negative recall in five years

      Correct Answer: HPV test of cure in six months, if negative recall in three years

      Explanation:

      Management of Women after Treatment for Cervical Intra-epithelial Neoplasia

      After treatment for cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia (CIN) at colposcopy, women undergo a repeat smear six months later to check for any residual disease. The management plan following this test of cure depends on the results.

      HPV Test of Cure in Six Months, If Negative Recall in Three Years

      If the test is negative for dyskaryosis and high-risk HPV (HR HPV), the woman is recalled in three years, regardless of her age. If the test remains negative at the three-year mark, she can return to routine screening based on her age group.

      HPV Test of Cure in Six Months, If Negative Recall in Five Years

      Even if the patient is 54 years old, women who have a negative HPV test of cure at six months are recalled for a smear three years later. If this is negative, she will then be returned to routine recall every five years.

      HPV Test of Cure in Three Months, If Negative Recall in Five Years

      The screening test should not be repeated at three months, as this is not enough time for the cervical tissue to heal. Reactive/healing changes in the cytological sample may give a false impression of dyskaryosis. Instead, a HPV test of cure is performed at six months, and if negative, the woman is recalled for routine screening every five years.

      Refer Back to Routine Screening, Repeat in Three/Five Years

      If the HPV test of cure is positive for HPV or there is evidence of moderate/severe dyskaryosis, the woman is referred back to colposcopy for further investigation. If the test is negative, she is referred back to routine screening and recalled in three or five years, depending on the scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      55.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with chest tightness. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with chest tightness. The tightness started about a day ago, however today it is worse and associated with shortness of breath and dizziness.
      Upon examination, there is a slow rising carotid pulse and systolic murmur which radiates to carotids 3/6. Examination is otherwise unremarkable without calf tenderness. The patient does not have any significant past medical history apart from type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension which are both well controlled.
      What is the best diagnostic investigation?

      Your Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Investigations for Cardiac Conditions

      When a patient presents with signs and symptoms of a cardiac condition, various diagnostic investigations may be performed to determine the underlying cause. In the case of a patient with chest tightness, the first-line investigation is usually an electrocardiogram (ECG) to rule out acute coronary syndrome. However, if the patient is suspected of having aortic stenosis (AS), the best diagnostic investigation is an echocardiogram and Doppler to measure the size of the aortic valve. A normal aortic valve area is more than 2 cm2, while severe AS is defined as less than 1 cm2.

      Other diagnostic investigations for cardiac conditions include a coronary angiogram to assess the patency of the coronary arteries and potentially perform an angioplasty to insert a stent if any narrowing is found. Exercise tolerance tests can also be useful in monitoring patients with a cardiac history and heart failure classification. However, a D-dimer test, which is used to diagnose pulmonary embolism, would not be indicated in a patient with suspected AS unless there were additional features suggestive of a pulmonary embolism, such as calf tenderness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old man develops a wrist drop after suffering a spiral fracture of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man develops a wrist drop after suffering a spiral fracture of the humerus while playing football. As a result, he is unable to extend his wrist and his hand hangs flaccidly. Which nerve is the most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Median

      Correct Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originate from the spinal cord in the neck and supply the upper limb. Damage to these nerves can occur due to trauma or compression at various points along their course. The radial nerve, which carries fibres from C5 to C8 and a sensory component from T1, can be injured in the axilla, upper arm, elbow or wrist. A lesion at the spiral groove of the humerus can result in a wrist drop. The musculocutaneous nerve, which arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus, can be affected by damage to the shoulder and brachial plexus or compression by the biceps aponeurosis and tendon. The axillary nerve, which supplies the deltoid, teres minor and triceps brachii, can be injured in dislocations of the shoulder joint, compression of the axilla with a crutch or fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus. The median nerve, which innervates all of the flexors in the forearm except the flexor carpi ulnaris and that part of the flexor digitorum profundus that supplies the medial two digits, can be compressed in the carpal tunnel. The ulnar nerve, which supplies the little finger and the adjacent half of the ring finger, can be trapped in the cubital tunnel on the medial side of the elbow. Pinching of the ulnar nerve can cause paraesthesiae in the fourth and fifth digits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old male complains of swelling in both ankles. He reports no difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male complains of swelling in both ankles. He reports no difficulty in breathing. Upon examining his chest, no abnormalities were found. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and angina. Which medication is the most probable culprit for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is less likely to cause ankle swelling compared to dihydropyridines such as amlodipine.

      Ankle swelling is a known side effect of amlodipine, which belongs to the dihydropyridine class of calcium channel blockers. On the other hand, verapamil is less likely to cause this side effect.

      Metformin and empagliflozin, commonly used in diabetes management, are not associated with ankle oedema. However, thiazolidinediones like pioglitazone are known to cause fluid retention.

      Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is often prescribed to treat ankle oedema caused by fluid overload.

      Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers

      Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 6-year-old girl presents to the hospital with a 3 days history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presents to the hospital with a 3 days history of painful swelling in the right eye.

      On examination, the girl appears agitated and is crying continuously. Her temperature is 38.5°C and other vital signs are within normal limits. On examination of the affected eye, the eyelid is swollen and red. Proptosis of the right eye is observed, and there seems to be limited ocular movement as well. The globe is unaffected, and the other eye is normal. There are no signs of systemic involvement.

      What imaging modality should be performed to confirm the most probable diagnosis and assess for potential complications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contrast enhanced-CT scan of the orbits, sinuses and brain

      Explanation:

      If there is suspicion of orbital cellulitis, a CT scan with contrast should be conducted to evaluate the potential spread of infection to the posterior region. The presence of symptoms such as limited ocular movement and proptosis indicates a higher likelihood of orbital cellulitis rather than periorbital cellulitis. In cases where orbital cellulitis is suspected, a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the sinuses, brain, and orbits should be considered to confirm the diagnosis and identify any potential complications, such as abscesses that may require surgical drainage. Plain skull X-rays are typically used to detect facial bone fractures or metallic foreign bodies in trauma cases. Optical coherence tomography (OCT) is not relevant in this scenario as it is a non-invasive imaging test used to take cross-sectional images of the retina. Ultrasound scans of the eye and orbit are commonly used in cases of eye area injury or trauma. CT venography is performed when cavernous sinus thrombosis is suspected.

      Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.

      Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.

      To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.

      Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 16-year-old girl takes 45 of her stepfather’s aspirin tablets, following an argument...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl takes 45 of her stepfather’s aspirin tablets, following an argument with her boyfriend. 12 hours into her admission, the following arterial blood gas (ABG) and biochemistry tests were performed.
      pH 7.27, PCO2 3.0 kPa, PO2 14.3 kPa, HCO3− 16.2 mmol/l, base excess −7.4 mmol/l
      Na+ 143 mmol/l, K+ 4.5 mmol/l, Cl− 107 mmol/l, urea 12.4 mmol/l, creatinine 87 μmol/l
      What is the patient’s anion gap?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24.3 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anion Gap and Its Significance in Metabolic Acidosis

      Anion gap is a crucial parameter used to diagnose metabolic acidosis, a condition where the body produces excess acid or loses too much base. It is calculated by subtracting the main anions (bicarbonate and chloride) from the main cations (sodium and potassium) in the plasma. The normal range for anion gap is 10-20 mmol/l.

      An increased anion gap indicates the presence of an exogenous acid or acids that are not usually measured in small quantities. This can be caused by drug poisoning, lactic acidosis, renal failure, or ketoacidosis. On the other hand, a low anion gap is less common and can be seen in conditions such as albuminaemia, lithium toxicity, and multiple myeloma.

      Understanding anion gap is essential in determining the cause of metabolic acidosis and guiding appropriate treatment. In cases of deliberate aspirin overdose, metabolic acidosis occurs due to altered metabolism and uncoupling of normal oxidative phosphorylation. Therefore, measuring anion gap can help diagnose and manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for her regular prenatal check-up at 16 weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for her regular prenatal check-up at 16 weeks. This is her first pregnancy and she is feeling fine, but is worried because her sister was recently diagnosed with diabetes. She has no other complaints and her uterus is consistent with her gestational age. Blood pressure is within normal limits and urinalysis reveals negative nitrites, negative leukocytes, and negative protein. What is your next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange oral glucose tolerance test for the 24-28 weeks stage

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Oral Glucose Tolerance Test for Pregnant Women

      Pregnant women with risk factors for gestational diabetes should undergo an oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. Risk factors include a BMI over 30, previous macrosomia, high-risk ethnicity, and family history of diabetes. Women without risk factors do not require the test, while those with one risk factor should undergo the test. If a woman has previously had gestational diabetes, she can monitor her glucose levels or undergo an oral glucose tolerance test as soon as possible after her booking appointment and another test at 24-28 weeks if the first one is normal. HbA1c is not recommended for assessing the risk of gestational diabetes, and fasting blood glucose and random blood glucose tests are not indicated. While a healthy diet is important for all pregnant women, it is insufficient for preventing the development of gestational diabetes. A glucose tolerance test is necessary for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The ward doctor is requested to assess a 24-hour-old neonate, born at 35...

    Incorrect

    • The ward doctor is requested to assess a 24-hour-old neonate, born at 35 weeks gestation to a healthy mother via an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. Upon examination, the neonate appears comfortable. Auscultation of the heart reveals a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur and a left-sided thrill. The apex beat is palpable and appears to be heaving. A widened pulse pressure is observed, but there is no visible cyanosis. An echocardiogram is performed and confirms the diagnosis while ruling out other cardiac issues.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for management at this stage, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indomethacin given to the neonate

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis based on the findings is patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). To prompt duct closure in the majority of cases, the appropriate action is to administer indomethacin to the neonate in the postnatal period, not to the mother during the antenatal period. If another defect was present, prostaglandin E1 may be preferred to keep the duct open until after surgical repair. Referral for surgery is not necessary at this time. While percutaneous closure may be an option for older children, it is not suitable for neonates.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of weakness and difficulty moving...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of weakness and difficulty moving around. During the examination, it is observed that he has a slow gait with reduced arm movement and a tremor in his right arm. What is the usual frequency of the resting tremor in Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 Hz

      Explanation:

      the Tremor of Parkinson’s Disease

      The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is a type of rest tremor that typically has a frequency of 3 to 6 HZ. It usually starts on one side of the body and becomes more severe as the disease progresses. Eventually, the tremor becomes bilateral, affecting both sides of the body.

      While the tremor is initially a rest tremor, it may develop into an action tremor over time. Additionally, the severity of the tremor may increase with the use of levodopa. the characteristics of the tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is important for both patients and healthcare providers in managing the symptoms of the disease. By recognizing the progression of the tremor, appropriate treatment options can be explored to improve quality of life for those living with Parkinson’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of palpitations, tremors, sweating, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of palpitations, tremors, sweating, and diarrhoea. She has a medical history of gestational hypertension and type 1 diabetes, which is managed with insulin. The patient gave birth to her first child 8 weeks ago without any complications.

      Upon examination, the patient is alert and oriented. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 109 bpm, respiratory rate of 19 breaths/minute, temperature of 37.7ºC, oxygen saturation of 98%, blood pressure of 129/88 mmHg, and blood glucose of 4 mmol/L.

      What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for the thyrotoxicosis phase of postpartum thyroiditis is typically propranolol alone. This is because the condition is usually temporary and self-resolving, with thyroid function returning to normal within a year after childbirth. Carbimazole is not necessary as it is typically reserved for more severe cases of hyperthyroidism. Dexamethasone is not appropriate as it is used to treat thyroid storm, a complication of thyrotoxicosis that is not present in this case. Levothyroxine is also not indicated as it is used to treat hypothyroidism, which is the opposite of the patient’s current condition.

      Understanding Postpartum Thyroiditis: Stages and Management

      Postpartum thyroiditis is a condition that affects some women after giving birth. It is characterized by three stages: thyrotoxicosis, hypothyroidism, and normal thyroid function. During the thyrotoxicosis phase, the thyroid gland becomes overactive, leading to symptoms such as anxiety, palpitations, and weight loss. In the hypothyroidism phase, the thyroid gland becomes underactive, causing symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and depression. However, in the final stage, the thyroid gland returns to normal function, although there is a high recurrence rate in future pregnancies.

      Thyroid peroxidase antibodies are found in 90% of patients with postpartum thyroiditis, which suggests an autoimmune component to the condition. Management of postpartum thyroiditis depends on the stage of the condition. During the thyrotoxic phase, symptom control is the main focus, and propranolol is typically used. Antithyroid drugs are not usually used as the thyroid gland is not overactive. In the hypothyroid phase, treatment with thyroxine is usually necessary to restore normal thyroid function.

      It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in a Venn diagram. Therefore, it is crucial to properly diagnose and manage postpartum thyroiditis to ensure the best possible outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An older woman presents with an intermittent frontal headache associated with pain around...

    Incorrect

    • An older woman presents with an intermittent frontal headache associated with pain around her right eye which looks slightly red. She describes episodes occurring while she watches television in the evening, during which she sees halos around lights in the room. On examination, there is no tenderness around her temporal artery and her eye appears normal. She has normal visual acuity.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Closed angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Painful Red Eye with Headache and Visual Symptoms

      When a patient presents with a painful red eye, headache, and visual symptoms, several conditions should be considered. One possible diagnosis is primary closed angle glaucoma, which can present as latent, subacute, or acute. Subacute closed angle glaucoma causes intermittent attacks with blurring of vision and halos around light sources, while acute glaucoma is more severe and requires urgent reduction in intraocular pressure. Another possible diagnosis is anterior uveitis, which presents with a persistent painful red eye and photophobia but does not cause headaches or halos in the vision.

      Migraine is also an important differential, as its symptoms can be mistaken for acute glaucoma. Tension headaches are less likely, as they are not associated with visual symptoms. Finally, giant cell arthritis should be considered, especially if the patient has symptoms of claudication such as temporal headache and jaw pain when chewing food, as well as scalp tenderness and pulseless beaded temporal arteries on examination.

      In summary, a painful red eye with headache and visual symptoms can have several possible causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Sophie is a 16-year-old who has been brought to the emergency department by...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 16-year-old who has been brought to the emergency department by her father after a fall. An X-ray of her left ankle shows a Weber A fracture. What is the most suitable course of action for treating this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Remain weight bearing as tolerated in a CAM boot for 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Patients with minimally displaced and stable Weber A fractures may bear weight as tolerated while wearing a CAM boot. These fractures occur below the ankle syndesmosis and are considered stable, requiring immobilization in a CAM boot for six weeks. Pain relief is necessary but not the primary management for this injury. A below-knee cast is not required as the fracture is stable. Open reduction and external fixation are only necessary for unstable injuries such as Weber C fractures.

      Ankle Fractures and their Classification

      Ankle fractures are a common reason for emergency department visits. To minimize the unnecessary use of x-rays, the Ottawa ankle rules are used to aid in clinical examination. These rules state that x-rays are only necessary if there is pain in the malleolar zone and an inability to weight bear for four steps, tenderness over the distal tibia, or bone tenderness over the distal fibula. There are several classification systems for describing ankle fractures, including the Potts, Weber, and AO systems. The Weber system is the simplest and is based on the level of the fibular fracture. Type A is below the syndesmosis, type B fractures start at the level of the tibial plafond and may extend proximally to involve the syndesmosis, and type C is above the syndesmosis, which may itself be damaged. A subtype known as a Maisonneuve fracture may occur with a spiral fibular fracture that leads to disruption of the syndesmosis with widening of the ankle joint, requiring surgery.

      Management of Ankle Fractures

      The management of ankle fractures depends on the stability of the ankle joint and patient co-morbidities. Prompt reduction of all ankle fractures is necessary to relieve pressure on the overlying skin and prevent necrosis. Young patients with unstable, high velocity, or proximal injuries will usually require surgical repair, often using a compression plate. Elderly patients, even with potentially unstable injuries, usually fare better with attempts at conservative management as their thin bone does not hold metalwork well. It is important to consider the patient’s overall health and any other medical conditions when deciding on the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old G3P2 woman at 32 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old G3P2 woman at 32 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department with sudden and severe lower abdominal pain that started 45 minutes ago. She reports a small amount of vaginal bleeding but her baby is still active, although movements are slightly reduced. She has had regular antenatal care and her medical history is unremarkable, except for a 10 pack-year smoking history. Her two previous children were born vaginally and are healthy at ages 4 and 6.

      The patient is alert and oriented but in significant pain. Her vital signs are within normal limits except for a blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg and a heart rate of 120 beats per minute. A cardiotocograph shows a normal baseline fetal heart rate with appropriate accelerations and no decelerations.

      What is the most likely diagnosis and what is the next appropriate step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit the mother and administer steroids

      Explanation:

      It is likely that the patient is experiencing placental abruption, which is a medical emergency. The severity of the abruption and the risks to both the mother and the baby determine the management approach. This patient has risk factors such as chronic hypertension and smoking. Steroids should be administered to assist in fetal lung development if the fetus is alive, less than 36 weeks, and not in distress. The patient’s vital signs are stable, but the volume of vaginal bleeding may not accurately reflect the severity of the bleed. The fetal status is assessed using a cardiotocograph, which indicates whether the fetus is receiving adequate blood and nutrients from the placenta. Expectant management is not appropriate, and intervention is necessary to increase the chances of a positive outcome. Immediate caesarean section is only necessary if the fetus is in distress or if the mother is experiencing significant blood loss. Vaginal delivery is only appropriate if the fetus has died in utero, which is not the case here.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Management, and Complications

      Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal haemorrhage. The severity of the condition depends on the extent of the separation and the gestational age of the fetus. Management of placental abruption is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.

      If the fetus is alive and less than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, close observation, administration of steroids, and no tocolysis are recommended. The decision to deliver depends on the gestational age of the fetus. If the fetus is alive and more than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, vaginal delivery is recommended. If the fetus is dead, vaginal delivery should be induced.

      Placental abruption can lead to various maternal complications, including shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, and postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). Fetal complications include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), hypoxia, and death. The condition is associated with a high perinatal mortality rate and is responsible for 15% of perinatal deaths.

      In conclusion, placental abruption is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Close monitoring and timely intervention can improve the prognosis for both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 68-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and is now taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and is now taking anastrozole to prevent recurrence after a mastectomy. She has a medical history of hypothyroidism and depression, which are managed with levothyroxine and fluoxetine. What is the most probable complication she may encounter during her breast cancer treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoporotic fracture

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis may be a potential side effect of aromatase inhibitors such as anastrozole.

      Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flashes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flashes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 72-year-old woman who has smoked her entire life presents with a complaint...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman who has smoked her entire life presents with a complaint of drooping of the left eyelid. Upon examination, there is ptosis of the left eyelid and a small pupil that responds to light but does not dilate. The right eye appears normal.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left Horner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Cranial Nerve Palsies and Horner Syndrome

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition that affects the sympathetic trunk and causes ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis. This syndrome is commonly associated with an apical lung lesion, especially in lifelong smokers. On the other hand, cranial nerve palsies affect the third, fifth, and seventh nerves, each with distinct symptoms.

      Third nerve palsy causes ptosis and mydriasis, while trigeminal nerve palsy affects sensation and mastication but leaves the pupil unaffected. Facial nerve palsy, on the other hand, results in facial paralysis and the inability to close the affected eyelid, but it does not affect the pupil.

      It is important to differentiate between these conditions as they have different underlying causes and treatments. A thorough neurological examination is necessary to determine the specific cranial nerve affected and the appropriate management plan.

      In summary, understanding the differences between Horner’s syndrome and cranial nerve palsies is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing optimal care for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You are working in a GP surgery and discussing the importance of primary...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in a GP surgery and discussing the importance of primary prevention medication for a patient who has attended for a cardiovascular health check up, including blood tests. Unfortunately, the patient's elderly mother returns 4 weeks later complaining of muscle soreness.
      Which of the following medications is the likely cause for the symptom of myalgia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      Medications for Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease

      Primary prevention of cardiovascular disease is crucial in reducing the incidence of stroke and myocardial infarction. Medications play a vital role in reducing modifiable risk factors such as blood pressure and cholesterol levels. Simvastatin is commonly used to reduce cholesterol levels, but some patients may experience myalgia. Other options include reducing the dose of statin, trying a different statin, or using other agents such as ezetimibe. Bisoprolol is a selective beta-blocker that is more commonly used in secondary prevention. Aspirin is well-tolerated in primary prevention, but patients should be aware of the slight increase in bleeding risk. Clopidogrel is used in secondary prevention, while candesartan can be used in primary prevention for hypertension management without causing myalgia. It is important to note that medication alone is not enough, and lifestyle changes such as healthy eating and regular exercise are also crucial for cardiovascular health.

      Medications for Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 31-year-old woman with epilepsy, associated with generalised tonic–clonic seizures, attends her regular...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman with epilepsy, associated with generalised tonic–clonic seizures, attends her regular Epilepsy Clinic appointment with her partner. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, but she wants to start trying for a baby. She is currently on sodium valproate and has been seizure-free for one year.
      What is the most suitable antiepileptic medication for this patient to take during the preconception period and pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop sodium valproate and commence lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic Medication Options for Women of Childbearing Age

      Introduction:
      Women of childbearing age with epilepsy require careful consideration of their antiepileptic medication options due to the potential teratogenic effects on the fetus. This article will discuss the appropriate medication options for women with epilepsy who are planning to conceive or are already pregnant.

      Antiepileptic Medication Options for Women of Childbearing Age

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Lamotrigine:
      Sodium valproate is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. Lamotrigine and carbamazepine are recommended by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) as safer alternatives. Lamotrigine is a sodium channel blocker and has fewer side effects than carbamazepine. It is present in breast milk but has not been associated with harmful effects on the infant.

      Continue Sodium Valproate:
      Sodium valproate is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. Women taking sodium valproate should be reviewed preconception to change their medication to a safer alternative. Untreated epilepsy can be a major risk factor in pregnancy, increasing maternal and fetal mortality.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Ethosuximide:
      Ethosuximide is not appropriate for this patient’s management as it is recommended for absence seizures or myoclonic seizures. Use during breastfeeding has been associated with infant hyperexcitability and sedation.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Levetiracetam:
      Levetiracetam is recommended as an adjunct medication for generalised tonic-clonic seizures that have failed to respond to first-line treatment. This patient has well-controlled seizures on first-line treatment and does not require adjunct medication. Other second-line medications include clobazam, lamotrigine, sodium valproate and topiramate.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Phenytoin:
      Phenytoin is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. It can lead to fetal hydantoin syndrome, which includes a combination of developmental abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old woman visits her physician with concerns about her pregnancy. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her physician with concerns about her pregnancy. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and has been taking folic acid for four months prior to conception. She is curious if she needs to take iron supplements like her friends did during their pregnancies. The doctor orders blood tests to determine if this is necessary.

      Hemoglobin: 112g/L (normal range: 115 - 160)
      Platelets: 326 * 10^9/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
      White blood cells: 4.2 * 10^9/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)

      What is the appropriate cut-off for hemoglobin levels to decide when to start treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin less than 110 g/L

      Explanation:

      A cut-off of 110 g/L should be used in the first trimester to determine if iron supplementation is necessary. This is because pregnancy causes a high-volume, low-pressure state which can dilute the blood and lower haemoglobin levels. Therefore, a lower cut-off is used compared to the canonical 115 g/L. In women after delivery, the cut-off is haemoglobin lower than 100 g/L, while in women during the second and third trimesters, it is haemoglobin lower than 105 g/L. Haemoglobin lower than 115 g/L is the cut-off for non-pregnant women, while haemoglobin lower than 120 g/L is never used as a cut-off for iron replacement therapy as it is within the normal range.

      During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum.

      If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 12-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain. His mother reports that the left testicle is swollen, higher than the right, and extremely tender to touch. The patient denies any urinary symptoms and is not running a fever. The pain began about 2 hours ago, and the cremasteric reflex is absent. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency surgical exploration

      Explanation:

      Testicular torsion is a serious urological emergency that typically presents with classical symptoms in young boys. It is important to note that this condition is diagnosed based on clinical examination. In this case, since the patient has been experiencing pain for only two hours, the most appropriate course of action is to immediately proceed to emergency surgery for scrotal exploration. Delaying treatment beyond 4-6 hours can result in irreversible damage to the testicle. While an ultrasound may be useful for painless testicular swelling, it is not appropriate in this scenario. Additionally, IV antibiotics may be administered for orchitis, but this is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms as they are not experiencing a fever.

      Testicular cancer is the most common malignancy in men aged 20-30 years, with germ-cell tumours being the most common type. Seminomas and non-seminomatous germ cell tumours are the two main subtypes, with different key features and tumour markers. Risk factors include cryptorchidism, infertility, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound and CT scanning, and treatment involves orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy. Benign testicular disorders include epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, and hydrocele.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 72-year-old woman, widowed for 5 years, presents with insomnia, anhedonia, frequent tearfulness...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman, widowed for 5 years, presents with insomnia, anhedonia, frequent tearfulness when discussing her late husband, and weight loss. She reports experiencing various nonspecific physical symptoms and expresses concerns about the return of breast cancer that was previously treated. She denies any substance abuse and denies having suicidal thoughts but admits that she would feel relieved if she were to pass away. What is the most suitable form of psychotherapy/treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interpersonal therapy

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Therapy for a Patient with Depression and Grief

      When a patient’s grief persists beyond the usual two years of acute distress and leads to depression, it’s important to choose the right therapy. In this case, interpersonal therapy for depression is the most likely form of treatment, as it offers a protocol specifically for resolving depression after loss and is compatible with antidepressant medication. However, if the patient were suicidal, more aggressive intervention would be necessary.

      A breast cancer support group is not an appropriate resource for this patient, as her concern about cancer is a form of depressive somatic preoccupation and should not be the main focus of her treatment. Psychoanalytic psychotherapy may be helpful if there are deep-rooted problems that do not respond well to interpersonal therapy, but it can be time-consuming and costly.

      While cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is helpful in depression, it may not be the best option when there is a key trigger such as loss that needs specific intervention. Immediate hospitalisation is not necessary in this case, as the patient is not contemplating suicide.

      Overall, choosing the right therapy for a patient with depression and grief requires careful consideration of the patient’s specific needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of fever and a painful lump near his anus. Upon examination, a 4 cm peri-anal swelling is observed, accompanied by surrounding erythema. The swelling is very tender and fluctuant.
      What is the most effective treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incision and drainage

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Incision and Drainage for Abscess Treatment

      When it comes to treating an abscess, the most appropriate course of action is always incision and drainage of the pus. This procedure can typically be done with local anesthesia and involves sending a sample of the pus to the lab for cultures and sensitivities. While severe abscesses may require additional medication like flucloxacillin after the incision and drainage, a biopsy is not necessary in most cases. It’s important to note that simply taking pain medication and waiting for the abscess to resolve is unlikely to be effective. Instead, seeking prompt medical attention for incision and drainage is crucial for successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman with uncontrolled psoriasis is returning with deteriorating symptoms. Despite using...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with uncontrolled psoriasis is returning with deteriorating symptoms. Despite using potent topical treatments, her psoriasis remains uncontrolled.

      What is the next appropriate step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add in narrow-band ultraviolet B (UVB) phototherapy

      Explanation:

      Next Steps in Psoriasis Treatment: Narrow-Band UVB Phototherapy

      When topical treatments fail to improve psoriasis symptoms, the next step in treatment is often narrow-band ultraviolet B (UVB) phototherapy. While it has a reasonable success rate, it also comes with potential complications such as an increased risk of skin cancer. Patients with a history of skin cancer may not be recommended for this treatment.

      Changing topical steroids would not be an appropriate step in the management plan. Instead, it is necessary to move onto the next step of the psoriasis treatment ladder. Biologics are not indicated at this stage and should only be considered as an end-stage treatment due to their high cost and significant side effects.

      Psoralen with local ultraviolet A (UVA) irradiation may be appropriate for patients with palmoplantar pustulosis. However, for most patients, stopping steroids is not recommended. Instead, narrow-band UVB phototherapy should be commenced without stopping steroids to optimize treatment and increase the chances of success.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed