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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old woman presents with blistering lesions on her leg and is suspected...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with blistering lesions on her leg and is suspected to have bullous pemphigoid. What would be the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Trial of topical corticosteroids and review in 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bullous Pemphigoid

      Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering of the skin due to the development of antibodies against hemidesmosomal proteins BP180 and BP230. This condition is more common in elderly patients and is characterized by itchy, tense blisters that typically appear around flexures. However, the blisters usually heal without scarring, and there is usually no mucosal involvement.

      To diagnose bullous pemphigoid, a skin biopsy is necessary, and immunofluorescence shows IgG and C3 at the dermoepidermal junction. Treatment for this condition involves referral to a dermatologist for biopsy and confirmation of diagnosis, as well as the use of oral corticosteroids as the mainstay of treatment. Topical corticosteroids, immunosuppressants, and antibiotics may also be used.

      It is worth noting that while mucosal involvement is seen in some patients, it is not a classic feature of bullous pemphigoid and is therefore not always mentioned in exam questions. Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of bullous pemphigoid is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old patient was discovered to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient was discovered to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm during a routine medical check-up. The patient is currently receiving treatment for hypertension and high cholesterol but is otherwise healthy and medically capable. The aneurysm was infra-renal and had a diameter of 4.9 cm.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound scan every two years

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan every three months

      Explanation:

      Screening and Management of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are screened for initially by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. Men are invited for an initial ultrasound during the year of their 65th birthday, while women are not routinely screened as AAA is predominantly found in men.

      If the initial scan shows an AAA of less than 3 cm, patients are discharged. If it is between 3 and 4.4 cm, they are invited back for yearly screening. If it is between 4.5 and 5.4 cm, patients receive an ultrasound scan every three months. If the aneurysm is above 5.5 cm, patients are referred to a vascular surgeon for consideration for repair.

      Elective surgery is recommended for aneurysms larger than 5.5 cm in diameter or those that are growing rapidly, as clinical trials have shown that the risk of rupture is increased when the aneurysm is larger than 5.5 cm. Immediate surgery is only performed on those aneurysms that are leaking or ruptured.

      Surveillance is required to ensure the aneurysm remains below 5.5 cm. Patients with an aneurysm over 4.5 cm require an ultrasound scan every three months. Once the aneurysm reaches 5.5 cm, patients are referred for consideration of elective surgery.

      Managing Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms: Screening and Treatment Guidelines

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are a serious health concern that require careful management. This article outlines the screening and treatment guidelines for AAAs.

      Screening for AAAs is done initially by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. Men are invited for an initial ultrasound during the year of their 65th birthday, while women are not routinely screened. Patients with an AAA less than 3 cm are discharged, while those with an AAA between 3 and 4.4 cm are invited back for yearly screening. Patients with an AAA between 4.5 and 5.4 cm require an ultrasound scan every three months, while those with an AAA over 5.5 cm are referred to a vascular surgeon for consideration of elective surgery.

      Elective surgery is recommended for aneurysms larger than 5.5 cm in diameter or those that are growing rapidly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 75-year-old man presents to his GP with persistent itch that has been...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presents to his GP with persistent itch that has been bothering him for several months. The itch is widespread, affecting his torso and back, and he has not noticed any changes in his skin or overall health. Despite having an extensive medical history, there have been no recent changes to his medications. Upon examination, there are no focal skin changes other than widespread excoriation marks. The GP suspects that a systemic condition may be the underlying cause of the patient's itch. Based on his medical history, which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Chronic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Pruritus is a symptom of chronic kidney disease, which can cause severe itching and distress for patients. Even in the early stages of the disease, hyperuricemia can lead to intense itchiness.

      Causes of Pruritus and their Characteristics

      Pruritus, commonly known as itching, can be caused by various underlying conditions. Liver disease, often associated with a history of alcohol excess, can present with stigmata of chronic liver disease such as spider naevi, bruising, palmar erythema, and gynaecomastia. Iron deficiency anaemia can cause pallor and other signs such as koilonychia, atrophic glossitis, post-cricoid webs, and angular stomatitis. Pruritus in polycythaemia is particularly noticeable after a warm bath and is accompanied by a ruddy complexion. Chronic kidney disease can present with lethargy, pallor, oedema, weight gain, hypertension, and fatigue. Lymphoma can cause night sweats, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, and fatigue. Other causes of pruritus include hyper- and hypothyroidism, diabetes, pregnancy, senile pruritus, urticaria, and skin disorders such as eczema, scabies, psoriasis, and pityriasis rosea. It is important to identify the underlying cause of pruritus to provide appropriate treatment and alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old woman is referred with fatigue. Her primary care physician observes that...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman is referred with fatigue. Her primary care physician observes that she has jaundice and suspects liver disease. She also presents with angular cheilitis. She has a history of taking steroid inhalers for asthma, but no other significant medical history. A blood smear shows signs of megaloblastic anemia, and her serum bilirubin level is elevated, but her other laboratory results are normal. There are no indications of gastrointestinal (GI) issues.
      What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Anaemia: Understanding the Causes

      Anaemia is a common condition that can be caused by a variety of factors. Here, we will discuss some of the possible causes of anaemia and their corresponding laboratory findings.

      Pernicious Anaemia: This type of anaemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 due to impaired intrinsic factor (IF) production. It is usually seen in adults aged 40-70 years and is characterized by megaloblastic changes in rapidly dividing cells. Anti-parietal cell antibodies are present in 90% of patients with pernicious anaemia. The Schilling test is useful in confirming the absence of IF. Treatment involves parenteral administration of cyanocobalamin or hydroxycobalamin.

      Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia: CML is a myeloproliferative disorder that results in increased proliferation of granulocytic cells. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, and hepatosplenomegaly. Mild to moderate anaemia is usually normochromic and normocytic. Diagnosis is based on histopathological findings in the peripheral blood and Philadelphia chromosome in bone marrow cells.

      Iron Deficiency Anaemia: This type of anaemia is primarily a laboratory diagnosis and is characterized by microcytic and hypochromic erythropoiesis. It is caused by chronic iron deficiency and can be due to multiple causes, including chronic inflammation, iron malabsorption, chronic blood loss, and malabsorption of vitamin B12 or folate.

      Crohn’s Disease: This chronic inflammatory process can affect any part of the GI tract and can cause anaemia due to chronic inflammation, iron malabsorption, chronic blood loss, and malabsorption of vitamin B12 or folate. However, the lack of GI symptoms in the clinical scenario provided is not consistent with a history of inflammatory bowel disease.

      Autoimmune Hepatitis: This chronic disease is characterized by continuing hepatocellular inflammation and necrosis, with a tendency to progress to cirrhosis. Elevated serum aminotransferase levels are present in 100% of patients at initial presentation. Anaemia, if present, is usually normochromic. However, this clinical picture and laboratory findings are not consistent with the scenario given.

      In conclusion, understanding the different causes of anaemia and their corresponding laboratory findings is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman with Addison's disease is seen for a follow-up appointment. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with Addison's disease is seen for a follow-up appointment. She reports a productive cough and feeling feverish for the past three days. Upon examination, her chest is clear, pulse is 84 beats per minute, and temperature is 37.7ºC. Due to her medical history, an antibiotic is prescribed.

      What advice should be given regarding her adrenal replacement therapy?

      Your Answer: Double both the hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone dose

      Correct Answer: Double the hydrocortisone dose, keep the same fludrocortisone dose

      Explanation:

      In the case of a patient with Addison’s disease who develops an additional illness, it is recommended to increase the dose of glucocorticoids while maintaining the same dose of fludrocortisone.

      Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.

      During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old woman complains of a gritty sensation in her eyes and a...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman complains of a gritty sensation in her eyes and a dry mouth of several months’ duration. She has vague joint pains in her knees and ankles. Her husband mentions that she is also dyspnoeic on exertion and cannot keep up with him during their hikes.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sjögren syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sjögren syndrome is a condition characterized by dry eyes (keratoconjunctivitis sicca) and dryness in other areas such as the mouth, skin, or vagina. Enlargement of the salivary or parotid glands may also be present. Primary Sjögren syndrome occurs without any other autoimmune disease and is associated with HLA-B8/DR3 in about 50% of cases. Secondary Sjögren syndrome occurs in the presence of other autoimmune disorders, commonly rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Other symptoms may include arthralgia, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, vasculitis, polyneuropathy, and pulmonary diffusion defects and fibrosis. Diagnosis is based on the Schirmer tear test, Rose Bengal staining, and lab tests showing raised immunoglobulin levels, circulating immune complexes, and autoantibodies. Treatment is symptomatic with artificial tear and saliva replacement solutions, hydroxychloroquine, and corticosteroids if needed. Polymyositis, polyarteritis nodosa (PAN), mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD), and rheumatoid arthritis are other conditions that may present with similar symptoms but do not fit the clinical picture in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, vomiting and...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, vomiting and lethargy. His mother informs you he first developed 'flu-like symptoms' around four days ago. The patient has a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes. He is on a basal-bolus regimen but has not been taking his insulin regularly since he became unwell.

      On examination, he is confused and is hyperventilating. His blood glucose is 22 mmol/L (<11.1 mmol/L) and his blood ketone level is 4.0 mmol/L (<0.6 mmol/L). You request an arterial blood gas (ABG).

      pH 7.19 (7.35-7.45)
      pO2 14.0 kPa (10-14 kPa)
      pCO2 3.6 kPa (4.5-6.0 kPa)
      Bicarbonate 12 mmol/L (22-28 mmol/L)

      Given the results, you start the patient on IV resuscitation fluids. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

      Your Answer: Fixed-rate IV insulin infusion (0.1 units/kg/hour) AND continue injectable short-acting and long-acting insulin

      Correct Answer: Fixed-rate IV insulin infusion (0.1 units/kg/hour) AND continue injectable long-acting insulin only

      Explanation:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      82.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that started about...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that started about 30 minutes ago. He mentions having a stressful day at work, but there doesn't seem to be any other obvious trigger. He denies experiencing any chest pain or difficulty breathing. Upon conducting an ECG, a regular tachycardia of 180 bpm with a QRS duration of 0.10s is observed. His blood pressure is 106/70 mmHg, and his oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Despite performing the Valsalva manoeuvre, there is no effect on the rhythm. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Intravenous adenosine

      Explanation:

      In cases of haemodynamically stable patients with SVT who do not respond to vagal manoeuvres, the recommended course of action is to administer adenosine.

      Understanding Supraventricular Tachycardia

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachycardia that originates above the ventricles. It is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT, which is characterized by sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, usually an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.

      When it comes to acute management, vagal maneuvers such as the Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage can be used. Intravenous adenosine is also an option, with a rapid IV bolus of 6mg given initially, followed by 12mg and then 18mg if necessary. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatics, and verapamil may be a better option for them. Electrical cardioversion is another option.

      To prevent episodes of SVT, beta-blockers can be used. Radio-frequency ablation is also an option. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.

      Overall, understanding SVT and its management options can help individuals with this condition better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      50.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain that...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain that started two hours ago. He has a history of lung cancer with bony metastases and has recently started treatment with erlotinib.

      His vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.2ºC; oxygen saturation 92% on room air; respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute; heart rate 98 beats per minute; blood pressure 140/86 mmHg.

      A chest X-ray is performed, which shows no abnormalities. He is started on supplemental oxygen therapy, and a CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is ordered.

      While waiting for the CTPA results, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Commence rivaroxaban

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial management for patients with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) is to ensure they are haemodynamically stable before starting anticoagulation. According to the latest NICE Guidelines (2020), a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban or rivaroxaban should be started unless there are contraindications. In this case, the patient is stable and can be started on rivaroxaban. It is important to note that starting prophylactic dose LMWH is not appropriate for suspected PE, and commencing warfarin at loading dose is also not recommended due to its delayed anticoagulant effects. Thrombolytic agents such as alteplase are only appropriate for haemodynamically unstable patients. Dabigatran is an alternative option for patients who cannot take apixaban or rivaroxaban, but it too requires a bridging dose of LMWH.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.

      Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      43.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 21-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with cough, fever and rash....

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with cough, fever and rash. She is tachycardic, tachypnoeic and has a blanching erythematous rash on her face, trunk and arms with scattered white/grey papular lesions on the buccal mucosa. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Correct Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      Measles is a highly contagious disease that can affect people of all ages, although it is commonly associated with childhood. The disease is characterized by the appearance of Koplik spots, which are white-grey specks that develop on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molars about 1-2 days before the rash. The rash typically appears 14 days after exposure and consists of erythematous macules and papules that start on the face and spread to the trunk and extremities, including the palms and soles. The rash lasts for 5-7 days before fading into hyperpigmented patches that eventually desquamate.

      Meningococcaemia is a condition where meningococci (Neisseria meningitidis) spread into the bloodstream. Patients with acute meningococcaemia may present with or without meningitis and typically have a non-blanching petechial rash that spreads rapidly and may develop into purpura. However, the rash described in this case is not typical for meningococcaemia.

      Rubella is a communicable disease that is usually benign, with nearly half of infected individuals being asymptomatic. The disease can have teratogenic effects on pregnant women. The rash associated with rubella is a rose-pink maculopapular rash that may be pruritic in adults. The Forchheimer sign may be present on the soft palate, but the buccal lesions described in this case are typical of Koplik spots, which are pathognomonic for measles.

      Parvovirus B19 infection typically occurs in young children and is characterized by a bright red macular exanthema that appears on the cheeks (known as slapped cheek) and may be associated with circumoral pallor. However, the buccal lesions described in this case are typical of Koplik spots, which are not a feature of parvovirus B19 infection.

      Secondary syphilis usually presents with a cutaneous eruption within 2-10 weeks after the primary chancre and is most florid 3-4 months after infection. The rash is typically rough red or red/brown papules or plaques on the trunk, palms, and soles. While there may be red patches on mucosal surfaces, the white patches described in this case are typical of Koplik spots.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      73.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. He...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. He had been diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia by his doctor and treated with antibiotics at home. However, his condition suddenly worsened, and he now has a heart rate of 120/min, respiratory rate of 22/min, oxygen saturation of 77%, and a temperature of 38°C. The patient has a medical history of COPD and is a carbon dioxide retainer. What is the best course of action to address his low oxygen saturation?

      Your Answer: 28% Venturi mask at 4 litres/min

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Emergency Oxygen Therapy

      The British Thoracic Society has updated its guidelines for emergency oxygen therapy in 2017. The guidelines recommend that in critically ill patients, such as those experiencing anaphylaxis or shock, oxygen should be administered via a reservoir mask at 15 l/min. However, certain conditions, such as stable myocardial infarction, are excluded from this recommendation.

      The guidelines also provide specific oxygen saturation targets for different patient groups. Acutely ill patients should aim for a saturation range of 94-98%, while patients at risk of hypercapnia, such as those with COPD, should aim for a lower range of 88-92%. Oxygen therapy should be reduced in stable patients with satisfactory oxygen saturation.

      For COPD patients, a 28% Venturi mask at 4 l/min should be used prior to availability of blood gases. The target oxygen saturation range for these patients should be 88-92% if they have risk factors for hypercapnia but no prior history of respiratory acidosis. If the pCO2 is normal, the target range can be adjusted to 94-98%.

      The guidelines also highlight situations where oxygen therapy should not be used routinely if there is no evidence of hypoxia. These include myocardial infarction and acute coronary syndromes, stroke, obstetric emergencies, and anxiety-related hyperventilation.

      Overall, these guidelines provide clear recommendations for the administration of emergency oxygen therapy in different patient groups and situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old patient presents to you with an itchy rash on both elbows...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents to you with an itchy rash on both elbows that has been getting worse over the past week. Upon examination, you observe multiple flat-topped papular lesions that are polygonal and measure 5mm in diameter on the flexural surface of her elbows bilaterally. There are no other rashes on the rest of her body. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eczema

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 47-year-old man visits the GP clinic complaining of sudden vertigo, nausea, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man visits the GP clinic complaining of sudden vertigo, nausea, and vomiting that started this morning. He also mentions experiencing reduced hearing in his left ear. He has been recovering from a cold for the past week and has no other symptoms. During the examination, otoscopy shows no abnormalities. However, there is a spontaneous, uni-directional, and horizontal nystagmus. The head impulse test is impaired, and Rinne's and Weber's tests reveal a sensorineural hearing loss on the left side.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vestibular neuritis

      Correct Answer: Viral labyrinthitis

      Explanation:

      Acute viral labyrinthitis presents with sudden horizontal nystagmus, hearing issues, nausea, vomiting, and vertigo. It is typically preceded by a viral infection and can cause hearing loss. Unlike BPPV, it is not associated with hearing loss. A central cause such as a stroke is less likely as the nystagmus is unidirectional and the head impulse test is impaired. Vestibular neuritis has similar symptoms to viral labyrinthitis but does not result in hearing loss.

      Labyrinthitis is a condition that involves inflammation of the membranous labyrinth, which affects both the vestibular and cochlear end organs. This disorder can be caused by a viral, bacterial, or systemic disease, with viral labyrinthitis being the most common form. It is important to distinguish labyrinthitis from vestibular neuritis, as the latter only affects the vestibular nerve and does not result in hearing impairment. Labyrinthitis, on the other hand, affects both the vestibular nerve and the labyrinth, leading to vertigo and hearing loss.

      The typical age range for presentation of labyrinthitis is between 40-70 years old. Patients usually experience an acute onset of symptoms, including vertigo that is not triggered by movement but worsened by it, nausea and vomiting, hearing loss (which can be unilateral or bilateral), tinnitus, and preceding or concurrent upper respiratory tract infection symptoms. Signs of labyrinthitis include spontaneous unidirectional horizontal nystagmus towards the unaffected side, sensorineural hearing loss, an abnormal head impulse test, and gait disturbance that may cause the patient to fall towards the affected side.

      Diagnosis of labyrinthitis is primarily based on the patient’s history and physical examination. While episodes of labyrinthitis are typically self-limiting, medications such as prochlorperazine or antihistamines may help reduce the sensation of dizziness. Overall, it is important to accurately diagnose and manage labyrinthitis to prevent complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 4-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with stridor and drooling. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with stridor and drooling. He is sitting forward and appears to be struggling to breathe. The clinician suspects acute epiglottitis. What is the causative organism of this condition?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae type A

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae type B

      Explanation:

      Haemophilus influenzae type B is the cause of acute epiglottitis. Fortunately, this disease is now rare due to the inclusion of Hib in the childhood vaccination program since 1992. Hib can also lead to other severe infections like meningitis and septicaemia. Haemophilus influenzae type A is an uncommon illness. Staphylococcus aureus is known for causing skin infections like abscesses, respiratory infections such as sinusitis, and food poisoning. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bronchitis, otitis media, and sinusitis.

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.

      Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 6-year-old girl attends surgery with a rash on her legs and buttocks....

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl attends surgery with a rash on her legs and buttocks. She has been unwell with a cough and cold for one week. The rash is purpuric, macular and symmetrical to both buttocks and legs, and is non-blanching.
      Which of the following is the likely cause?
      Select the SINGLE cause from the list below.

      Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schönlein Purpura: A Common Childhood Vasculitis

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a common vasculitis of childhood that affects small vessels. It typically occurs in children, with 50% of cases in under-5s. The exact cause of the immune-mediated vasculitis is unknown, but it commonly follows a viral or streptococcal upper respiratory tract infection (URTI). Classic features include a non-blanching rash (palpable purpura, usually of the lower limbs), abdominal pain, arthralgia, and renal involvement/glomerulonephritis.

      Possible complications of HSP include glomerulonephritis and renal failure, gastrointestinal bleed/intussusception, and pulmonary hemorrhage. Treatment is usually supportive, and the condition is self-limiting in most patients.

      Other conditions, such as intertrigo, meningococcal disease, slapped cheek disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), may present with similar symptoms but have distinct differences. For example, intertrigo affects skinfolds, meningococcal disease presents with red flags such as fever and headache, slapped cheek disease has a facial rash that precedes a rash on the limbs, and SLE typically has vague and insidious systemic symptoms before skin changes.

      Investigations for HSP include bloods, blood pressure monitoring, and urinalysis. Treatment usually involves observation and monitoring, with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs used for pain relief and sometimes corticosteroids given.

      In summary, HSP is a common childhood vasculitis that presents with a non-blanching rash, abdominal pain, arthralgia, and renal involvement. It often follows a recent illness such as an upper respiratory tract infection and is usually self-limiting. Other conditions may present with similar symptoms but have distinct differences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman comes in for her 42-week antenatal check-up. It was...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman comes in for her 42-week antenatal check-up. It was previously agreed that she would be induced at 42 weeks if she did not go into labour naturally. She reports normal foetal movements and denies any recent illnesses. She has no relevant medical history and this is her first pregnancy. During the examination, her abdomen is soft with a palpable uterus and a fundal height of 40cm. What is the most crucial aspect to evaluate in this woman?

      Your Answer: Bishop score

      Explanation:

      Induction of Labour: Reasons, Methods, and Complications

      Induction of labour is a medical process that involves starting labour artificially. It is necessary in about 20% of pregnancies due to various reasons such as prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, diabetes, pre-eclampsia, and rhesus incompatibility. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is required, which takes into account cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates that the cervix is ripe and there is a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.

      There are several methods of induction of labour, including membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. Membrane sweeping involves separating the chorionic membrane from the decidua by rotating the examining finger against the wall of the uterus. Vaginal prostaglandin E2 is the preferred method of induction of labour, unless there are specific clinical reasons for not using it. Uterine hyperstimulation is the main complication of induction of labour, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can cause fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. In rare cases, uterine rupture may occur, which requires removing the vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and tocolysis with terbutaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      29.4
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  • Question 17 - As a young medical practitioner in the emergency department, you encounter a patient...

    Incorrect

    • As a young medical practitioner in the emergency department, you encounter a patient who has been in a severe road accident. The patient has suffered significant head injuries and is now reliant on mechanical ventilation, with no signs of responsiveness. You and your senior colleagues suspect that the patient may have experienced brain death. What is the process for confirming this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: By one doctor and one legal professional

      Correct Answer: By a minimum of two doctors on separate occasions

      Explanation:

      To minimize the risk of errors, brain death testing must be conducted by two experienced doctors on different occasions. The testing involves evaluating the patient’s history, pupil reactions, reflexes, pain response, and respiratory effort. Once brain death is confirmed, life support can be discontinued, and the patient may be considered for organ donation, which can take place before the withdrawal of life support.

      Criteria and Testing for Brain Stem Death

      Brain death occurs when the brain and brain stem cease to function, resulting in irreversible loss of consciousness and vital functions. To determine brain stem death, certain criteria must be met and specific tests must be performed. The patient must be in a deep coma of known cause, with reversible causes excluded and no sedation. Electrolyte levels must be normal.

      The testing for brain stem death involves several assessments. The pupils must be fixed and unresponsive to changes in light intensity. The corneal reflex must be absent, and there should be no response to supraorbital pressure. The oculo-vestibular reflexes must be absent, which is tested by injecting ice-cold water into each ear. There should be no cough reflex to bronchial stimulation or gagging response to pharyngeal stimulation. Finally, there should be no observed respiratory effort in response to disconnection from the ventilator for at least five minutes, with adequate oxygenation ensured.

      It is important that the testing is performed by two experienced doctors on two separate occasions, with at least one being a consultant. Neither doctor can be a member of the transplant team if organ donation is being considered. These criteria and tests are crucial in determining brain stem death and ensuring that the patient is beyond recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.1
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  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old man has been admitted to the geriatric ward for the past...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man has been admitted to the geriatric ward for the past 2 weeks. He has recently been diagnosed with metastatic lung cancer. During the morning ward round, he expresses dissatisfaction with his pain management. He is currently taking oral morphine sulphate 20 mg four times a day, codeine 30mg four times a day, and regular ibuprofen. What is the appropriate dose of oral morphine for breakthrough pain in this patient?

      Your Answer: Morphine 15mg

      Explanation:

      To calculate the breakthrough dose, we need to first convert oral codeine to oral morphine by dividing by 10. For example, 10mg of oral codeine is equivalent to 1mg of oral morphine.

      If a person takes 30mg of oral codeine four times a day, this equals 12mg of oral morphine. If they also take 20mg of oral morphine four times a day, the total daily dose of morphine is 92mg (12mg + 80 mg).

      To determine the breakthrough dose, we divide the total daily dose of morphine by 6. In this case, the breakthrough dose would be 15mg of morphine.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      51.5
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of decreased hearing and ringing...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of decreased hearing and ringing in his right ear, which feels congested, and he experiences frequent bouts of vertigo lasting up to a few hours at a time. There are no abnormalities found during the neurological examination.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Correct Answer: Ménière’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Vertigo Conditions: Ménière’s Disease, Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo, Central Vertigo, Labyrinthitis, and Vestibular Neuronitis

      Vertigo is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions. Ménière’s disease, for instance, is characterized by fluctuant hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus, and aural fullness. Patients are advised to undergo vestibular rehabilitation and avoid risky activities. Prochlorperazine is recommended for acute attacks, while betahistine is used for preventive treatment. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, on the other hand, presents with brief episodes of vertigo triggered by movement, without tinnitus, hearing loss, or ear fullness. Central vertigo has a sudden onset, constant symptoms, and possible neurological abnormalities, requiring urgent hospital admission. Labyrinthitis causes acute vertigo and hearing loss, but the presence of ear fullness suggests Ménière’s disease. Vestibular neuronitis, caused by viral infection, results in isolated and prolonged episodes of vertigo without tinnitus or ear fullness. Accurate diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial in addressing vertigo and its underlying conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      58
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Helicobacter pylori infection is most commonly associated with which disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • Helicobacter pylori infection is most commonly associated with which disorder?

      Your Answer: Reflux oesophagitis

      Correct Answer: Gastric lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Association between H. pylori Infection and Gastric Diseases

      H. pylori infection is a common bacterial infection that affects approximately 50% of the global population. While it is primarily associated with peptic ulcer disease, it can also lead to other gastric diseases. Gastric malignancies, for instance, are often caused by chronic inflammation of MALT from H. pylori infection. MALTomas, which are extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphomas, are the most common type of gastric lymphoma and are associated with H. pylori infection in over 90% of cases.

      However, not all gastric diseases are associated with H. pylori infection. Coeliac disease, for example, is an autoimmune disorder related to gluten sensitivity. Non-ulcer dyspepsia, a group of upper gastrointestinal symptoms, is not generally associated with H. pylori infection. Reflux oesophagitis, a condition caused by the failure of relaxation of the lower end of the oesophagus, is also not associated with H. pylori infection.

      It is important to note that the development of gastric malignancies from H. pylori infection is a slow process that may stop at any step. The disease process starts with chronic gastritis, followed by atrophic gastritis, intestinal metaplasia, dysplasia, and eventually gastric malignancy (Correa’s cascade). However, other factors are also required for gastric cancers to develop, not just H. pylori infection.

      In conclusion, understanding the association between H. pylori infection and gastric diseases is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of these conditions. While H. pylori infection is a common cause of gastric malignancies, it is not associated with all gastric diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      9.1
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  • Question 21 - A 46-year-old woman presents with recurring thrush and fatigue. She is concerned that...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old woman presents with recurring thrush and fatigue. She is concerned that it may be caused by a sexually transmitted infection, but her recent sexual health screening came back negative for syphilis, HIV, Chlamydia, and Gonorrhoea. Her urine test shows ketones and glucose. A random glucose test reveals a reading of 13. What is the most suitable medication for the ongoing treatment of this condition?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying symptoms of type 2 diabetes, with a random blood glucose level exceeding 11.1 and experiencing related symptoms. As per protocol, the first line of treatment for type 2 diabetes is metformin, which should be prescribed to the patient. It is important to note that insulin is the primary treatment for type 1 diabetes, while gliclazide, pioglitazone, and glibenclamide are secondary medications used in the management of type 2 diabetes, but are not typically prescribed as first line treatments.

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

      In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.

      There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).

      Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      22.5
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman and her husband are informed at the 20-week antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman and her husband are informed at the 20-week antenatal scan of the presence of echogenic bowel in the male fetus. They had been trying to conceive unsuccessfully for three years until investigations revealed oligospermia and this pregnancy was a result of intrauterine insemination. Both parents are aged 35 years old. The father has had several episodes of upper respiratory tract infections that have required antibiotics and he has been admitted to hospital in the past with acute gastritis. The mother is fit and well without any significant past medical history.
      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next investigation?

      Your Answer: Sweat test in both parents

      Correct Answer: Testing for the CFTR gene mutation in both parents

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic condition that requires two copies of a faulty CFTR gene, one from each parent. If symptoms are present, it is important to confirm the diagnosis in the father and determine if the mother is a carrier of the faulty gene before pursuing further testing. While a sweat test can diagnose CF in the father, it cannot determine carrier status in the mother. Invasive procedures such as amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling should only be performed if there is strong suspicion of a chromosomal or genetic abnormality, and less invasive genetic testing of both parents should be considered first. Karyotyping is not a useful diagnostic tool for CF, as it only detects chromosomal abnormalities and not genetic ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      25.9
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  • Question 23 - An 80-year-old woman is admitted with acute confusion caused by a urinary tract...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman is admitted with acute confusion caused by a urinary tract infection. Despite treatment with antibiotics, environmental changes, and reassurance, she continues to be agitated. You are contemplating prescribing haloperidol. What is one condition that may be significantly exacerbated by the use of haloperidol?

      Your Answer: Parkinson's disease

      Explanation:

      If possible, antipsychotics should be avoided as they can exacerbate Parkinson’s disease symptoms. Instead, a low dose of oral lorazepam may be considered as an alternative.

      Acute confusional state, also known as delirium or acute organic brain syndrome, is a condition that affects up to 30% of elderly patients admitted to hospital. It is more common in patients over the age of 65, those with a background of dementia, significant injury, frailty or multimorbidity, and those taking multiple medications. The condition is often triggered by a combination of factors, such as infection, metabolic imbalances, change of environment, and underlying medical conditions.

      The symptoms of acute confusional state can vary widely, but may include memory disturbances, agitation or withdrawal, disorientation, mood changes, visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep, and poor attention. Treatment involves identifying and addressing the underlying cause, modifying the patient’s environment, and using sedatives such as haloperidol or olanzapine. However, managing the condition can be challenging in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can worsen Parkinsonian symptoms. In such cases, careful reduction of Parkinson medication may be helpful, and atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine and clozapine may be preferred for urgent treatment.

      Overall, acute confusional state is a complex condition that requires careful management and individualized treatment. By addressing the underlying causes and providing appropriate sedation, healthcare professionals can help patients recover from this condition and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.8
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  • Question 24 - A 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of a 'rash' on...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of a 'rash' on their left shin. The rash has increased in size over the last two days and is now a painful, hot, red area on their anterior left shin that spreads around to the back of the leg. The patient is feeling well overall, and it is decided that oral treatment is the best course of action. The patient has a history of penicillin allergy. What is the best antibiotic to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues caused by bacterial infection, usually Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylcoccus aureus. It commonly occurs on the shins and is accompanied by symptoms such as erythema, pain, and swelling. In some cases, patients may also experience systemic upset, including fever.

      The diagnosis of cellulitis is typically made based on clinical presentation, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, blood tests and cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted to the hospital and sepsis is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, healthcare providers may use the Eron classification system. Patients with Eron Class III or IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, or certain risk factors such as immunocompromisation or significant lymphoedema should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if appropriate facilities and expertise are available in the community to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild to moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline may be used in patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management of this common bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 25 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and difficulty passing stools. Upon conducting a set of initial blood tests, the following results are obtained:
      Calcium 3.2 mmol/l
      Albumin 38 g/l
      What is the most effective diagnostic test to identify the underlying reason for his elevated calcium levels?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone levels serve as a valuable tool in identifying the underlying causes of hypercalcaemia, with malignancy and primary hyperparathyroidism being the most prevalent culprits. If the parathyroid hormone levels are normal or elevated, it indicates the presence of primary hyperparathyroidism.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. In most cases, two conditions account for 90% of hypercalcaemia cases. The first is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients. The second is malignancy, which is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. For this reason, measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial when investigating patients with hypercalcaemia.

      Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. It is important to note that hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization in patients with Paget’s disease of the bone, although this condition is usually normal.

      In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is essential in investigating patients with hypercalcaemia. Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You are advising a 26-year-old woman who has recently discovered she is expecting...

    Incorrect

    • You are advising a 26-year-old woman who has recently discovered she is expecting a baby. She is a smoker and consumes 20 cigarettes per day. What is the primary risk factor linked to smoking while pregnant?

      Your Answer: Microcephaly

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of pre-term labour

      Explanation:

      Risks of Smoking, Alcohol, and Illegal Drugs During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, drug use can have serious consequences for both the mother and the developing fetus. Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of miscarriage, pre-term labor, stillbirth, and sudden unexpected death in infancy. Alcohol consumption can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which can cause learning difficulties, characteristic facial features, and growth restrictions. Binge drinking is a major risk factor for fetal alcohol syndrome. Cannabis use poses similar risks to smoking due to the tobacco content. Cocaine use can lead to hypertension in pregnancy, including pre-eclampsia, and placental abruption. Fetal risks include prematurity and neonatal abstinence syndrome. Heroin use can result in neonatal abstinence syndrome. It is important for pregnant women to avoid drug use to ensure the health and well-being of both themselves and their unborn child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old man is seen on a home visit by his General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is seen on a home visit by his General Practitioner as his wife is concerned about an ulcer on his lower leg, which has been present for a couple of weeks. It is starting to leak clear fluid. He has a history of chronic congestive cardiac failure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. A diagnosis of a venous ulcer is suspected.
      Which of the following examination findings would best support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hairless and pale skin on the lower legs

      Correct Answer: Atrophie blanche

      Explanation:

      Signs and Symptoms of Leg Ulcers: Differentiating Arterial, Venous, and Inflammatory Causes

      Leg ulcers can have various causes, including arterial, venous, and inflammatory conditions. Here are some signs and symptoms that can help differentiate between these causes:

      Atrophie Blanche: This is a white atrophic scar surrounded by areas of hyperpigmentation, which is a sign of severe venous insufficiency.

      Ankle Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) of 0.4: ABPI is the ratio of systolic blood pressure in the ankle compared with the arm. An ABPI < 0.5 indicates severe arterial disease, suggesting that the ulcer is most likely arterial, rather than venous, in nature. Hairless and Pale Skin on the Lower Legs: Pallor of the skin and a lack of hair growth on the lower legs is a sign of arterial disease, pointing towards a diagnosis of an arterial ulcer rather than a venous ulcer. Necrobiosis Lipoidica: This is a rare granulomatous condition that usually affects people with insulin-dependent diabetes. Plaques are present on the shins, often with telangiectasia in the center and may ulcerate. The cause for the leg ulcer is, therefore, inflammatory rather than venous in origin. Reduced Light-Touch Sensation in Both Feet: Reduced sensation in the feet could be neuropathic in nature (diabetes, multiple sclerosis) or the result of severe arterial disease. Venous insufficiency does not usually affect sensation, so this finding on examination would support a diagnosis of arterial or neuropathic ulcer. By recognizing these signs and symptoms, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat leg ulcers based on their underlying causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      34.7
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  • Question 28 - A 70-year-old retired ship-builder has a 6-month history of increasing shortness of breath,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old retired ship-builder has a 6-month history of increasing shortness of breath, dull right-sided chest pain, loss of appetite and sweats. He is a non-smoker. Examination of his lungs reveals dullness to percussion and reduced air entry at the right base.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Small-cell lung cancer

      Correct Answer: Malignant mesothelioma

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Mesothelioma from Other Lung Diseases

      Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the pleura and peritoneum, and is almost always caused by exposure to asbestos. Symptoms include chest pain, shortness of breath, cough, fever, weight loss, and fatigue. A pleural effusion is also common in mesothelioma cases.

      Small-cell lung cancer, on the other hand, is highly aggressive and life expectancy is only weeks without treatment. Smoking is the major risk factor, although asbestos can also cause this type of lung cancer. Symptoms are similar to mesothelioma, but lack of smoking history and longer onset of symptoms point more towards mesothelioma.

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is usually caused by smoking and presents with progressive shortness of breath, productive cough, frequent chest infections, and wheeze. Examination could reveal cyanosis, barrel chest, hyperresonance on percussion, poor air entry, and wheeze or coarse crackles. However, this presentation does not fit with COPD.

      Chronic thromoboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CPTH) can develop months or years after a large pulmonary embolism (PE) or after several episodes. Symptoms include shortness of breath, chest pain on exertion, and fatigue. The patient can go on to develop right heart failure, but this diagnosis would not explain the weight loss and sweats.

      Tuberculosis usually presents with a persistent productive cough, weight loss, night sweats, fevers, lymphadenopathy, and general malaise. In this patient, the symptoms, along with history of asbestos exposure, are highly suggestive of mesothelioma rather than tuberculosis.

      In summary, distinguishing mesothelioma from other lung diseases requires careful consideration of symptoms, risk factors, and examination findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      40.3
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  • Question 29 - A 42-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is more severe in the morning and accompanied by an itchy feeling. He states that he has not experienced any changes in his vision.
      During the eyelid examination, the doctor observes crusting at the eyelid margins, which are inflamed and red. The conjunctivae seem normal, and the pupils react equally to light.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Blepharitis: This condition presents with crusting of both eyelids, redness, swelling, and itching. It can be treated with eyelid hygiene and warm compress. If necessary, chloramphenicol ointment can be used.

      Conjunctivitis: Patients with conjunctivitis have watery/discharging eyes, a gritty sensation, and conjunctival erythema. Most cases resolve on their own, but some may require topical antibiotics.

      Chalazion: A painless swelling or lump on the eyelid caused by a blocked gland. Patients report a red, swollen, and painless area on the eyelid that settles within a few days but leaves behind a firm, painless swelling. Warm compresses and gentle massaging can help with drainage.

      Entropion: The margin of the eyelid turns inwards towards the surface of the eye, causing irritation. It is more common in elderly patients and requires surgical treatment.

      Hordeolum: An acute-onset localised swelling of the eyelid margin that is painful. It is usually localised around an eyelash follicle, and plucking the affected eyelash can aid drainage. Styes are usually self-limiting, but eyelid hygiene and warm compress can help with resolution.

      Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      48.7
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  • Question 30 - In a 16-year-old girl with severe weight loss, which of the following would...

    Correct

    • In a 16-year-old girl with severe weight loss, which of the following would be a common finding in association with anorexia nervosa (AN)?

      Your Answer: Increased excessive physical activity

      Explanation:

      Features and Diagnostic Criteria of Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia Nervosa (AN) is a serious eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. Here are some features and diagnostic criteria of AN:

      Increased excessive physical activity: Patients with AN tend to exercise excessively to lose weight.

      Low plasma cortisol levels: AN patients have low levels of cortisol, a hormone that helps regulate metabolism and stress response.

      Buccal pigmentation: This is not a typical feature of AN.

      Raised gonadotrophin levels: Gonadotrophin levels are usually reduced in AN, leading to amenorrhoea in women and loss of sexual interest in men.

      Hyperkalaemia: AN patients may have high levels of potassium in their blood.

      Diagnostic criteria: According to the ICD-10, a definite diagnosis of AN requires body weight maintained at least 15% below the expected, self-induced weight loss, body image distortion, endocrine disorder involving the hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal axis, and delayed or arrested pubertal events if onset is prepubertal.

      Understanding Anorexia Nervosa: Features and Diagnostic Criteria

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 31 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of nausea, upper...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of nausea, upper abdominal discomfort and distension. She has been taking aspirin regularly for the past 8 weeks due to a chronic back pain. She has been tested for Helicobacter pylori and was negative so the aspirin has been discontinued. A gastroscopy is performed which reveals the presence of gastritis and a benign duodenal ulcer that is not actively bleeding.
      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Start intravenous proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Gastric Ulcers

      Gastric ulcers can be caused by long-term use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and can lead to severe symptoms requiring hospitalization. Treatment options for gastric ulcers include intravenous proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) followed by long-term oral PPIs. A repeat gastroscopy is usually carried out to ensure that the ulcer has healed. In cases where the ulcer has perforated or is malignant, a partial gastrectomy may be indicated. Retesting for H. pylori may be necessary if the patient had previously tested positive. Adrenalin injection is only indicated for bleeding gastric ulcers. Placing the patient nil by mouth is not necessary for healing the ulcer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      85.4
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  • Question 32 - A 63-year-old woman with peripheral arterial disease is prescribed simvastatin. What blood test...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman with peripheral arterial disease is prescribed simvastatin. What blood test monitoring is most suitable?

      Your Answer: LFTs at baseline and every 3 months for first year

      Correct Answer: LFTs at baseline, 3 months and 12 months

      Explanation:

      To evaluate the effectiveness of treatment, a fasting lipid profile may be examined as part of the monitoring process.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.

      Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 5-year-old girl is presented to your GP clinic by her father with...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is presented to your GP clinic by her father with a complaint of erythematous sores on her face for the past 2 days. The lesions are limited to her face and have started to weep and progress to honey crusted lesions over the last 24 hours. The child is otherwise healthy. Previously, topical hydrogen peroxide was ineffective for a similar episode. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Topical fusidic acid

      Explanation:

      If hydrogen peroxide is not appropriate, topical fusidic acid can be used for impetigo.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that affects both children and adults. It is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes and can develop anywhere on the body, but lesions tend to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing. The infection can be a primary infection or a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema, scabies, or insect bites. Impetigo is highly contagious and can spread through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person or indirectly through toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment.

      The symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. The infection can be managed with limited, localized disease by using hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. However, if the disease is extensive, oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin may be prescribed. It is important to note that MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation.

      Children with impetigo should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment. It is also important to practice good hygiene, such as washing hands regularly and avoiding close contact with infected individuals, to prevent the spread of impetigo. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of impetigo, individuals can take steps to prevent and treat this common bacterial skin infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which of the following is a side-effect of lithium therapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a side-effect of lithium therapy?

      Your Answer: Abnormal liver function

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side-Effects of Lithium Maintenance Therapy

      Lithium maintenance therapy is a common treatment for bipolar disorder, but it can also cause a range of side-effects. One of the most common is hypothyroidism, which affects up to 5% of patients on lithium and requires regular thyroid function tests. Weight gain, acne, tremors, and polydipsia are also common, as well as ankle edema and a metallic taste in the mouth. Lithium can also cause renal toxicity, so regular urea and electrolyte tests are necessary. However, lithium does not cause abnormal liver function or fever, and actually causes leukocytosis rather than leucopenia. Cystitis is also not a typical side-effect of lithium. Overall, understanding the potential side-effects of lithium maintenance therapy is crucial for managing bipolar disorder effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      10.4
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  • Question 35 - A 64-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and ischaemic...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease visits his GP complaining of erectile dysfunction. What medication would make prescribing sildenafil contraindicated?

      Your Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil, a PDE 5 inhibitor, should not be taken with nitrates or nicorandil as it can enhance the vasodilating effects of these medications.

      Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors

      Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.

      Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.

      Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.

      Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      60.4
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  • Question 36 - As a second-year foundation doctor in the emergency department, you come across a...

    Correct

    • As a second-year foundation doctor in the emergency department, you come across a thirteen-year-old patient complaining of right hip pain and a limp. The patient has a mild fever, but all other observations and blood tests are normal. An X-ray also shows no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient synovitis

      Explanation:

      Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common childhood condition that presents with sudden onset pain and limping. It is diagnosed by ruling out other possible causes and typically resolves on its own within 1-2 weeks. While trauma or non-accidental injury may be a factor, this would likely be revealed in the patient’s medical history. However, doctors should remain vigilant for signs of non-accidental injury. Although septic arthritis is a possibility, it is unlikely in cases where blood tests are normal. Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis (SUFE), which causes groin pain and a waddling gait, can be ruled out based on its characteristic x-ray findings.

      Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      22.6
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  • Question 37 - A 6-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history of fever and lethargy. She has no significant medical history and is up to date with her childhood vaccinations.

      During the examination, the girl appears drowsy and has a temperature of 39.2ºC. Her heart rate is 155 beats/min and respiratory rate is 46 breaths/min. She has a maculopapular rash on her torso and upper limbs, and her lips are cracked and erythematous. Additionally, her conjunctivae are inflamed. Kernig's sign is negative.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intravenous ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      High-dose aspirin therapy is the recommended treatment for Kawasaki disease, despite it typically being contraindicated in children.

      Aspirin is the appropriate treatment for this patient’s diagnosis of Kawasaki disease, as evidenced by their persistent fever, conjunctivitis, maculopapular rash, and cracked and erythematous lips. This disease is vasculitic in nature, and current guidelines advise the use of high-dose aspirin therapy as the initial treatment.

      Intravenous aciclovir is not indicated for Kawasaki disease, as it is used to treat viral conditions such as viral meningitis or encephalitis.

      Intravenous ceftriaxone is not appropriate for the treatment of Kawasaki disease, as it is reserved for significant bacterial infections like Neisseria meningitidis. Additionally, the negative Kernig’s sign makes meningitis less likely.

      Oral phenoxymethylpenicillin is not the recommended treatment for Kawasaki disease, as the mucosal changes and conjunctivitis are more indicative of this disease rather than scarlet fever, which is treated with oral phenoxymethylpenicillin.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      58.6
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  • Question 38 - A 65-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a complaint of gradual...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a complaint of gradual vision loss. During tonometry, his intraocular pressure is found to be 26mmHg and optic disc cupping is observed on fundoscopy. Visual field examination reveals peripheral visual loss. The physician prescribes timolol eye drops to be used twice daily. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Decrease production of aqueous fluid

      Explanation:

      Timolol, a beta blocker, is effective in treating primary open-angle glaucoma by reducing the production of aqueous fluid. This condition is characterized by increased intraocular pressure due to inefficient drainage of fluid in the eye’s trabecular meshwork. Symptoms include gradual loss of vision, particularly in the peripheral fields. Brimonidine, an alpha-adrenergic agonist, also reduces aqueous fluid production and increases uveoscleral outflow. However, drugs that decrease uveoscleral outflow or increase aqueous fluid production would worsen the patient’s condition. Glucocorticoids can cause reduced drainage of aqueous humour and are implicated in causing open-angle glaucoma. Latanoprost, a prostaglandin analogue, increases uveoscleral outflow.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      28
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  • Question 39 - A 47-year-old woman visits her GP and reports experiencing night sweats, hot flashes,...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman visits her GP and reports experiencing night sweats, hot flashes, and painful sexual intercourse due to vaginal dryness. The GP suspects that she may be going through menopause and orders a set of blood tests to check her hormonal levels.
      What hormonal changes are probable in this patient?

      Your Answer: Cessation of FSH production

      Correct Answer: Cessation of oestradiol and progesterone production

      Explanation:

      The cessation of oestradiol and progesterone production in the ovaries, which can be caused naturally or by medical intervention, leads to menopause. This decrease in hormone production often results in elevated levels of FSH and LH.

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. On average, women in the UK experience menopause at the age of 51. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      22.1
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  • Question 40 - A 3-year-old boy is taken to his pediatrician by his father due to...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy is taken to his pediatrician by his father due to constant scratching of his bottom at night. The father reports observing some unusual white particles when cleaning his son's bottom after a bowel movement. What would be the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a single dose of mebendazole for the whole household and issue hygiene advice.

      Explanation:

      Threadworm Infestation in Children

      Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      19.4
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  • Question 41 - You see a 56-year-old man with a 5-year history of back pain following...

    Correct

    • You see a 56-year-old man with a 5-year history of back pain following a work-related injury. He has presented to the clinic due to poor control of his pain. He is experiencing shooting pains down his legs with an associated burning sensation.

      Despite intensive physiotherapy, his pain is still poorly controlled and requiring full dose codeine and paracetamol which is failing to control the pain.

      His MRI was normal and he has been discharged by the spinal team due to no operable cause identified for his pain.

      You're asked to review him due to ongoing pain. The nursing team has asked if he can have morphine sulfate prescribed as required to help with this. He was started by his general practitioner 3 months previously on amitriptyline which he hasn't found of any benefit.

      You decide rather than just prescribing morphine that you can try to adjust his chronic pain management as well.

      Which of the following options would be best for the management of his chronic pain?

      Your Answer: Stop amitriptyline and start duloxetine

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing chronic pain, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used alone. If they are not effective, it is recommended to switch to a different drug rather than adding another one. This question may also bring attention to poorly controlled acute pain, but it is important to note that morphine sulfate is not ideal for chronic pain management due to its potential side effects, dependence, and worsening of chronic pain. Tramadol is a better option for managing breakthrough pain in neuropathic pain patients, but it does not change the overall management of chronic pain. The recommended drugs for neuropathic pain include duloxetine, gabapentinoids, and amitriptyline (a tricyclic antidepressant).

      Understanding Neuropathic Pain and its Management

      Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and does not respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.

      To manage neuropathic pain, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance in 2013. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment does not work, patients may try one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, patients should switch to a different drug rather than adding another one.

      Tramadol may be used as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that for some specific conditions, such as trigeminal neuralgia, the guidance may vary, and carbamazepine may be used as a first-line treatment. Overall, understanding neuropathic pain and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients suffering from this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      62.5
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  • Question 42 - A 67-year-old man presents to the memory clinic with a history of cognitive...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the memory clinic with a history of cognitive decline over the past 10 months. His wife reports that he is struggling with basic tasks and becoming increasingly forgetful and confused. She has also noticed a change in his personality, including more frequent swearing and inappropriate behavior such as answering the door naked. Interestingly, his mother had a similar reputation in her later years. The patient reports smoking 20 cigarettes per day and drinking one glass of wine each evening. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from frontotemporal dementia, which is also known as Pick’s disease. This type of dementia is characterized by a change in personality and social disinhibition, and it often has a positive family history. In contrast, Alzheimer’s disease typically presents with a decline in episodic memory and visuospatial awareness, while Lewy body dementia is characterized by fluctuating confusion and hallucinations. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare condition that causes rapid neurodegeneration and may present with cognitive decline and personality changes, as well as additional symptoms such as abnormal movements and loss of coordination.

      Understanding Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

      Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a type of cortical dementia that is the third most common after Alzheimer’s and Lewy body dementia. There are three recognized types of FTLD: Frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Progressive non-fluent aphasia (chronic progressive aphasia, CPA), and Semantic dementia. Common features of frontotemporal lobar dementias include onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems.

      Pick’s disease is the most common type of FTLD and is characterized by personality change and impaired social conduct. Other common features include hyperorality, disinhibition, increased appetite, and perseveration behaviors. Focal gyral atrophy with a knife-blade appearance is characteristic of Pick’s disease. Macroscopic changes seen in Pick’s disease include atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. Microscopic changes include Pick bodies, spherical aggregations of tau protein (silver-staining), gliosis, neurofibrillary tangles, and senile plaques.

      In contrast, CPA is characterized by non-fluent speech, with short utterances that are agrammatic. Comprehension is relatively preserved. Semantic dementia, on the other hand, is characterized by fluent progressive aphasia. The speech is fluent but empty and conveys little meaning. Unlike in Alzheimer’s, memory is better for recent rather than remote events.

      In terms of management, NICE does not recommend the use of AChE inhibitors or memantine in people with frontotemporal dementia. Understanding the different types of FTLD and their characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 43 - A 32-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of feeling unwell for...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of feeling unwell for the past 2 days. She reports weakness in her legs and increasing shortness of breath. The patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis and hypothyroidism and is currently taking methotrexate and levothyroxine. She recently received treatment for a urinary tract infection from her GP. The patient's blood results are as follows: Hb 108 g/L (female normal range: 115-160 g/L), platelets 97 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L), WBC 1.9 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L), Na+ 139 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145 mmol/L), K+ 4.1 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/L), urea 5.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0 mmol/L), and creatinine 87 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120 µmol/L). What is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      If methotrexate and trimethoprim-containing antibiotics are used together, it may lead to severe or fatal pancytopenia and bone marrow suppression. This patient, who takes methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis, has presented with pancytopenia and feeling unwell. Myelosuppression is a known adverse effect of methotrexate, which can be exacerbated by renal impairment and certain medications.

      Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.

      The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.

      When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.

      In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 44 - A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. He has a medical history of COPD and is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day. Upon arrival, his vital signs are as follows: temperature of 37ºC, heart rate of 128/min, respiratory rate of 27/min, blood pressure of 80/43 mmHg, and GCS of 15. Physical examination reveals tenderness and bruising on the right side of his chest, but chest movements are equal. His neck veins are distended but do not change with breathing, and his trachea is central with distant and quiet heart sounds. Additionally, he has cuts and grazes on his hands and legs.

      What is the appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: CT scan of the chest

      Correct Answer: Pericardial needle aspiration

      Explanation:

      If a patient with chest wall trauma presents with elevated JVP, persistent hypotension, and tachycardia despite fluid resuscitation, cardiac tamponade should be considered. In such cases, pericardial needle aspiration is the correct course of action. Beck’s triad, which includes hypotension, muffled (distant) heart sounds, and elevated JVP, is a characteristic feature of cardiac tamponade. Urgent aspiration of the pericardium is necessary to prevent further haemodynamic compromise and save the patient’s life. Although the patient may have associated rib fractures, managing the cardiac tamponade should take priority as it poses the greatest threat in this scenario. CT scan of the chest, chest drain insertion into the triangle of safety, and needle decompression 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line are not appropriate management options in this case.

      Cardiac tamponade is a condition where there is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac, which puts pressure on the heart. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including hypotension, raised JVP, muffled heart sounds, dyspnoea, tachycardia, and pulsus paradoxus. One of the key features of cardiac tamponade is the absence of a Y descent on the JVP, which is due to limited right ventricular filling. Other diagnostic criteria include Kussmaul’s sign and electrical alternans on an ECG. Constrictive pericarditis is a similar condition, but it can be distinguished from cardiac tamponade by the presence of an X and Y descent on the JVP, the absence of pulsus paradoxus, and the presence of pericardial calcification on a chest X-ray. The management of cardiac tamponade involves urgent pericardiocentesis to relieve the pressure on the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 45 - A 10-year-old boy presents to the paediatric clinic with his mother. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presents to the paediatric clinic with his mother. She reports that her son has been experiencing pain in his left hip and groin, accompanied by a limp over the past week. There is no history of any injury. The patient's medical history includes eczema, and he completed a course of antibiotics for tonsillitis 4 weeks ago.

      During the examination, there is palpable tenderness in the left groin, hip, and knee. The patient experiences extreme pain, leading to a loss of internal rotation of left hip flexion. He is in the 90th percentile of weight for his age.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      A possible diagnosis for an obese boy experiencing pain in the groin, thigh, and knee could be slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE). This condition is rare and typically affects boys between the ages of 10-15 who are overweight. It causes the femoral head epiphysis to displace posteroinferiorly, resulting in pain in the hip, groin, and medial thigh, as well as limited internal rotation of the leg when flexed.

      Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is an incorrect diagnosis in this case, as it is characterized by joint inflammation lasting at least six weeks in children under 16 years old. The patient’s relatively short history of hip pain and being overweight make SUFE a more likely diagnosis.

      Legg-Calvé-Perthe’s disease is also an incorrect diagnosis, as it involves necrosis of the femoral head and is typically seen in young boys aged 4-8 years. The patient’s painful hip movements and age make SUFE a more probable diagnosis.

      Septic arthritis is another possible differential diagnosis, but it would be more likely if the patient presented with a fever and symptoms of systemic upset.

      Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.

      The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.

      The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.

      In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 46 - A 68-year-old man is admitted to the gastroenterology ward with a 9-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is admitted to the gastroenterology ward with a 9-day history of cramping abdominal pain, fever and diarrhoea, opening his bowels up to 7 times per day. He has a past medical history of COPD and reports to have completed 2 courses of antibiotics to treat an exacerbation within the last 2 weeks.

      After being diagnosed with a likely infection, the patient is started on oral vancomycin but shows little improvement. The treatment is then switched to fidaxomicin, but he still reports ongoing pain and diarrhoea even after completing the course.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Intravenous vancomycin and intravenous metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Oral vancomycin and intravenous metronidazole

      Explanation:

      If the initial treatment of C. difficile with vancomycin or fidaxomicin is ineffective, the next step should be to administer oral vancomycin with or without intravenous metronidazole.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      54.4
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  • Question 47 - A 24-year-old woman presents urgently to the hospital. She is 35 weeks pregnant...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman presents urgently to the hospital. She is 35 weeks pregnant and reports sudden onset of right-sided numbness and dysphasia. Initially, she experienced tingling in the right side of her face, which then spread to her right hand over a few minutes. Shortly after, she noticed difficulty finding words and her right arm felt clumsy. The entire episode resolved completely within 20-30 minutes. Upon arrival at the hospital, her neurological exam was normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient ischaemic attack secondary to left hemisphere small-vessel disease

      Correct Answer: Migraine aura without headache

      Explanation:

      Migraine aura without headache is a condition where a person experiences the typical symptoms of a migraine aura, but without the accompanying headache. In some cases, a person may have multiple attacks with only an aura, while in rare cases, they may only experience the aura without a headache. To diagnose this condition, the International Headache Society requires the presence of one or more fully reversible aura symptoms, such as visual, sensory, speech and/or language, motor, brain stem, or retinal symptoms, along with at least two of the following characteristics: gradual spread of symptoms over more than 5 minutes, each symptom lasting between 5-60 minutes, and at least one symptom being unilateral. It can be difficult to distinguish an aura from a transient ischemic attack (TIA) in patients without a history of migraines, but the characteristic slow progression of symptoms is suggestive of migraine aura without headache. This condition is more commonly seen in patients with a previous history of migraines or a positive family history of migraines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 48 - A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever, fatigue, and a tingling sensation in the lateral aspect of his left thigh. The tingling was initially tolerable but has become increasingly painful over the past 24 hours. Upon examination, the area described is erythematous with a macular rash appearing. The patient has a history of HIV and is currently taking antiretroviral therapy with an undetectable viral load. He denies any cough, coryzal symptoms, focal neurological signs, or trauma to the site.

      What is the appropriate management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis? Choose from the options provided.

      Your Answer: Aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Patients suspected of having shingles should receive antiviral treatment within 72 hours of symptom onset, as this can help reduce the risk of post-herpetic complications. In the case of this patient, who is experiencing symptoms of shingles within the 72-hour window and has an immunosuppressive condition, antivirals such as aciclovir should be prescribed. Amitriptyline, which is used to manage post-herpetic neuralgia, would not be appropriate at this stage. Chlorphenamine is typically used to manage itching associated with chickenpox, but as this patient is only experiencing symptoms in one dermatome, it is more likely to be shingles. Flucloxacillin, an antibiotic used to treat bacterial skin infections, would not be appropriate in this case as the patient’s symptoms are consistent with herpes zoster infection.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 49 - A 65-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with severe abdominal pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with severe abdominal pain that is typically worst shortly after eating a meal. He admits to regularly drinking at least 30 units of alcohol per week for the last 35 years and has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus by his GP. An abdominal CT scan shows calcification of his pancreas.
      What tests can be used to assess the exocrine function of the pancreas, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum lipase

      Correct Answer: Faecal elastase

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate test to assess exocrine function in chronic pancreatitis is faecal elastase. This is particularly relevant for a patient who has a history of long-term alcohol consumption and has recently been diagnosed with diabetes, which are both common complications of chronic pancreatitis. Faecal calprotectin is not relevant in this context as it is used to diagnose inflammatory bowel diseases. Serum amylase may not be useful in chronic pancreatitis as patients may have normal levels despite loss of pancreatic function. Serum calcium is not used to assess pancreatic function in chronic pancreatitis, but is part of the Glasgow score for acute pancreatitis. Lipase is not typically used to assess exocrine function, but deficiency in this enzyme can lead to steatorrhoea in patients with chronic pancreatitis.

      Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities like pancreas divisum and annular pancreas.

      Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays can show pancreatic calcification in 30% of cases, while CT scans are more sensitive at detecting calcification with a sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 85%. Functional tests like faecal elastase may be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.

      Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants, although the evidence base for the latter is limited. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and management of chronic pancreatitis to effectively manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 50 - A 32-year-old patient who is 30 weeks' pregnant with her first baby is...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient who is 30 weeks' pregnant with her first baby is urgently referred by her GP to the Obstetric/Endocrine Joint Clinic with newly diagnosed symptomatic hyperthyroidism.
      Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of maternal thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy with carbimazole or propylthiouracil?

      Your Answer: Block-and-replace therapy with carbimazole and thyroxine is appropriate maternal management.

      Correct Answer: Propylthiouracil crosses the placenta

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Management During Pregnancy: Considerations and Recommendations

      Pregnancy can have a significant impact on thyroid function, and thyroid dysfunction can occur in many pregnant women due to pathological processes. Anti-thyroid drugs such as propylthiouracil and carbimazole can cross the placenta, potentially causing fetal goitre and hypothyroidism. It is recommended to keep the dose of these drugs as low as possible to maintain euthyroidism during pregnancy. Neonatal goitre and hypothyroidism can occur even with low-dose anti-thyroid drugs, and the neonatal goitre is permanent if it occurs.

      Block-and-replace therapy with carbimazole and thyroxine is appropriate maternal management only in the treatment of isolated fetal hyperthyroidism caused by maternal TSH receptor antibody production in a mother who previously received ablative therapy for Graves’ disease. The neonatal goitre and hypothyroidism normalise in a few days’ time, and the confirmatory tests will come back normal even if the TSH is high on screening.

      Specialist assessment is needed to differentiate between Graves’ hyperthyroidism and gestational hyperthyroidism. Women treated with anti-thyroid drugs may need to have the drug or dose amended by a specialist at the diagnosis of pregnancy, because these drugs cross the placenta. Women with current or previous Graves’ disease should have their TSH receptor antibody levels measured by the specialist. Carbimazole and propylthiouracil are present in breast milk, but this does not preclude breastfeeding as long as neonatal development is closely monitored and the lowest effective dose is used.

      In summary, thyroid management during pregnancy requires careful consideration and monitoring to ensure the health of both the mother and the fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      53.9
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (3/6) 50%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
Haematology/Oncology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (2/4) 50%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Respiratory Medicine (2/4) 50%
Infectious Diseases (0/3) 0%
ENT (0/2) 0%
Paediatrics (3/6) 50%
Reproductive Medicine (1/3) 33%
Neurology (3/5) 60%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/3) 33%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (2/2) 100%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (1/2) 50%
Passmed