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  • Question 1 - An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with fatigue, lethargy, weight...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with fatigue, lethargy, weight loss and night sweats for the past six weeks. Clinical examination is unremarkable. His past medical history includes ischaemic heart disease and hypertension. His GP orders a set of blood tests. The full blood count results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 135 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White Blood Cells 21.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 2.8 ×109/l 2.5–7.58 ×109/l
      Lymphocytes 18.2 × 109/l 1.5–3.5× 109/l
      Platelets 160 g/l 150–400× 109/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for lymphocytosis in an elderly patient with vague symptoms

      Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is the most likely cause of lymphocytosis in an elderly patient who presents with vague symptoms such as weight loss, night sweats and fatigue for six weeks. CLL is one of the most common types of leukaemia in adults, typically occurring during or after middle age and rarely in children.

      Other possible diagnoses can be ruled out based on additional clinical features. Patients with HIV tend to have lymphopenia, not lymphocytosis. Lymphomas usually present with an enlargement of a lymph node, which is not reported in this case. Patients with polymyalgia rheumatica tend to have a normal leukocyte count, with some cases having increased estimated sedimentation rate and/or C-reactive protein. A transient viral illness would be an unlikely cause of lymphocytosis in an elderly person with persistent symptoms.

      Therefore, CLL should be considered as the most likely diagnosis in this case, and further tests such as flow cytometry and bone marrow biopsy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the stage of the disease. Treatment options for CLL depend on the stage and other factors such as age and overall health, and may include watchful waiting, chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or targeted therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are requested to assess a premature infant born at 34 weeks, 48...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess a premature infant born at 34 weeks, 48 hours after delivery without any complications. During the examination, you observe a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur and a left subclavicular thrill. Additionally, you notice a bounding pulse and a widened pulse pressure. There are no indications of cyanosis or crackles on auscultation. The mother confirms that there were no complications during pregnancy, and antenatal scans and screening did not reveal any abnormalities. There is no family history of significant illnesses. What would be the most appropriate management option for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Give indomethacin to the neonate

      Explanation:

      To promote closure of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), indomethacin or ibuprofen is administered to the neonate. This is the correct course of action based on the examination findings. The ductus arteriosus typically closes naturally with the first breaths, but if it remains open, prostaglandin synthesis can be inhibited with medication. Administering indomethacin to the mother would not be effective. Prostaglandin would have the opposite effect and maintain the PDA’s patency, which is not desirable in this scenario. Involving surgeons or monitoring the baby without treatment would also not be appropriate. If left untreated, PDA can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary hypertension or Eisenmenger’s syndrome.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old man has a known psychiatric disorder. His condition causes him to...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man has a known psychiatric disorder. His condition causes him to have persecutory delusions and poor organisation of thoughts. He is easily distracted and struggles to maintain good eye contact during conversations. What is a factor that is linked to a negative prognosis in this disorder?

      Your Answer: Low IQ

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying prognoses depending on certain factors. Some indicators associated with a poor prognosis include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant. These factors can contribute to a more severe and chronic course of the illness, making it more difficult to manage and treat. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia and their loved ones to be aware of these indicators and seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 26-year-old female contact lens wearer arrives at the emergency department complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female contact lens wearer arrives at the emergency department complaining of eye pain. She reports experiencing severe pain, watery eyes, and sensitivity to light in her left eye. Upon examination, her left eye appears red, but her pupil seems normal. After applying fluorescein dye, you observe a distinct area of green fluorescence under a blue light. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Corneal ulcer

      Explanation:

      If there is corneal uptake of fluorescein, along with symptoms of ocular pain, tearing, and photophobia, it is likely that the individual has a corneal ulcer. Fluorescein, an orange dye, is applied to the surface of the eye and will appear green/yellow under a blue light if it is taken up by the corneal epithelium. While dry eye can also cause fluorescence, it typically appears as a diffuse, speckled pattern known as superficial punctate staining.

      Understanding Corneal Ulcers

      A corneal ulcer is a condition that occurs when there is a defect in the cornea, which is usually caused by an infection. It is important to note that corneal abrasions, on the other hand, are typically caused by physical trauma. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing a corneal ulcer, including contact lens use and vitamin A deficiency, which is particularly common in developing countries.

      The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can vary depending on the underlying cause. Bacterial, fungal, and viral infections can all lead to the development of a corneal ulcer. In some cases, contact lens use can also be associated with a type of infection called Acanthamoeba keratitis.

      Symptoms of a corneal ulcer typically include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and excessive tearing. Additionally, a focal fluorescein staining of the cornea may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old female with no significant medical history is started on carbamazepine for...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female with no significant medical history is started on carbamazepine for focal impaired awareness seizures. She drinks alcohol moderately. After three months, she experiences a series of seizures and her carbamazepine levels are found to be subtherapeutic. Despite being fully compliant, a pill-count reveals this. What is the probable cause?

      Your Answer: Auto-induction of liver enzymes

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine induces the P450 enzyme system, leading to increased metabolism of carbamazepine through auto-induction.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 85-year-old woman with hypercholesterolaemia, ischaemic heart disease and hypertension complains to her...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman with hypercholesterolaemia, ischaemic heart disease and hypertension complains to her General Practitioner of tingling and numbness in both feet that has been worsening over a period of six months.
      Examination reveals that she has an altered pinprick sensation over both feet and absent ankle reflexes. Her urea and electrolyte levels are normal. Her blood glucose is normal and there is no history of alcohol ingestion. She is, however, taking a number of medications for the secondary presentation of her vascular problems.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused her symptoms?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate medication from the list below.

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      Medication Analysis for Peripheral Neuropathy: Simvastatin, Bendroflumethiazide, Clopidogrel, Ramipril, and Spironolactone

      Peripheral neuropathy is a condition characterized by numbness and tingling in the extremities, often accompanied by a loss of ankle reflexes. Statins, such as simvastatin, are a known risk factor for peripheral neuropathy, with onset ranging from the first dose to years of use. Bendroflumethiazide, on the other hand, is not associated with neuropathy but can cause electrolyte imbalances leading to central neurological disturbances. Clopidogrel, an anti-platelet medication, is unlikely to contribute to peripheral neuropathy. Ramipril, a blood-pressure-lowering medication, can cause cough and dizziness but would not lead to peripheral neuropathy. Spironolactone, a diuretic, can cause hyperkalemia but would not lead to peripheral neuropathy. It is important to consider medication use when evaluating patients with peripheral neuropathy symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old man of black African-Caribbean origin with a history of eczema visits...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man of black African-Caribbean origin with a history of eczema visits his GP complaining of red, itchy, dry skin behind his knees. The GP prescribes a course of betamethasone and advises the patient to use emollients as well. The patient is warned to follow the instructions carefully and not to apply the betamethasone for more than one week. What is the most probable adverse effect that the patient may experience from this treatment?

      Your Answer: Skin depigmentation

      Explanation:

      Topical corticosteroids can lead to patchy depigmentation in patients with darker skin, which is a potential adverse effect. These medications are commonly used to reduce inflammation in skin conditions like psoriasis and eczema. However, if used for an extended period or in high doses, they can cause local side effects such as skin thinning, excessive hair growth, and depigmentation. Therefore, the correct answer is depigmentation. Dry skin is not a typical side effect of topical steroid use, but it can occur with other topical preparations like benzoyl peroxide and topical retinoids. While systemic side effects like weight gain, hyperglycemia, hypertension, and mood changes are possible with corticosteroids, they are rare with topical use. Hyperglycemia is therefore an incorrect answer. Reduced hair growth at the application site is also incorrect, as corticosteroids can actually increase hair growth and may be used to treat alopecia.

      Topical Steroids for Eczema Treatment

      Eczema is a common skin condition that causes red, itchy, and inflamed skin. Topical steroids are often used to treat eczema, but it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls the patient’s symptoms.

      To determine the appropriate amount of topical steroid to use, the finger tip rule can be used. One finger tip unit (FTU) is equivalent to 0.5 g and is sufficient to treat an area of skin about twice the size of an adult hand.
      The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends specific quantities of topical steroids to be prescribed for a single daily application for two weeks. These recommendations vary depending on the area of the body being treated. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure safe and effective use of topical steroids for eczema treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old woman has delivered a baby boy at 40 + 2 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman has delivered a baby boy at 40 + 2 weeks gestation. She is now 3 weeks postpartum and is exclusively breastfeeding with plans to continue for at least 6 months. What contraceptive method should she avoid due to absolute contraindication?

      Your Answer: Combined contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview

      Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).

      Barrier methods, such as condoms, physically block sperm from reaching the egg. While they can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people.

      Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation, and the progesterone-only pill, which thickens cervical mucus. However, the combined pill increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and breast and cervical cancer.

      LARCs include implantable contraceptives and injectable contraceptives, which both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. The implantable contraceptive lasts for three years, while the injectable contraceptive lasts for 12 weeks. The intrauterine system (IUS) and intrauterine device (IUD) are also LARCs, with the IUS preventing endometrial proliferation and thickening cervical mucus, and the IUD decreasing sperm motility and survival.

      It is important to note that each method of contraception has its own set of benefits and risks, and it is essential to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best option for individual needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old presents to his General Practitioner with a 2-month history of pain...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old presents to his General Practitioner with a 2-month history of pain in his right elbow. His GP suspects that the patient has lateral epicondylitis.
      What examination findings would confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pain worse on resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended

      Explanation:

      Common Elbow Pain Symptoms and Their Features

      Elbow pain can be caused by various conditions, each with its own set of symptoms. Here are some common elbow pain symptoms and their features:

      1. Lateral Epicondylitis (Tennis Elbow)
      – Pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle
      – Pain worsens on resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended
      – Episodes typically last between six months and two years; patients tend to have acute pain for 6-12 weeks
      – Pain aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation

      2. Medial Epicondylitis (Golfer’s Elbow)
      – Pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle
      – Pain aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation
      – Symptoms may be accompanied by numbness/tingling in the fourth and fifth fingers due to ulnar-nerve involvement

      3. Cubital Tunnel Syndrome
      – Initially intermittent tingling in the fourth and fifth fingers
      – Pain worsens when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods
      – Later numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers with associated weakness

      4. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
      – Pain worsens when the wrists are in complete flexion for at least 30 seconds
      – The Phalen test is done to investigate its presence

      5. Olecranon Bursitis
      – Swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow with associated pain, warmth, and erythema
      – Typically affects middle-aged male patients

      Understanding Common Symptoms of Elbow Pain

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old man presents with lower back pain. He has a medical history...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents with lower back pain. He has a medical history of prostate cancer, asthma, diabetes, and hypertension. The pain is radiating down his right leg and he is experiencing reduced power in that leg. Additionally, he has a decreased anal tone. Although the lumbar spine x-ray shows no apparent fracture, what would be the most appropriate next investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: MRI lumbosacral spine

      Explanation:

      Lower back pain accompanied by lower limb pain, limb weakness, numbness or tingling, and decreased perianal tone are red flags that suggest spinal cord compression. In this case, the patient has a history of prostate cancer, which further raises suspicion. Urgent MRI is necessary to rule out spinal cord compression, and the results should be discussed with the on-call neurosurgical team. Additional x-rays or ultrasound would not be helpful, as MRI is the preferred diagnostic tool.

      Neoplastic Spinal Cord Compression: An Oncological Emergency

      Neoplastic spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that affects around 5% of cancer patients. The majority of cases are due to vertebral body metastases, resulting in extradural compression. This condition is more common in patients with lung, breast, and prostate cancer.

      The earliest and most common symptom of neoplastic spinal cord compression is back pain, which may worsen when lying down or coughing. Other symptoms include lower limb weakness and sensory changes such as numbness and sensory loss. The neurological signs depend on the level of the lesion, with lesions above L1 resulting in upper motor neuron signs in the legs and a sensory level. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neuron signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes tend to be increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

      An urgent MRI is recommended within 24 hours of presentation, according to the 2019 NICE guidelines. High-dose oral dexamethasone is used for management, and urgent oncological assessment is necessary for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery.

      In summary, neoplastic spinal cord compression is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to prevent further neurological damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old non-smoker with hypertension and diabetes has been diagnosed with bilateral renal...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old non-smoker with hypertension and diabetes has been diagnosed with bilateral renal artery stenosis. Blood tests reveal that he has normal renal function. He has undergone percutaneous angioplasty to both renal arteries, which was unsuccessful.
      Which medication should this patient be started on?

      Your Answer: Start angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Medical Management of Renal Artery Stenosis

      Renal artery stenosis is a condition that requires medical management to control hypertension. Even if the arteries are treated successfully with angioplasty, antihypertensive therapy should be initiated. The ideal agent for this purpose is one that blocks the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, such as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs). Warfarin is not indicated in patients with renal artery stenosis, but may be used for prophylaxis of embolisation in other conditions. Clopidogrel is not indicated for hypertension management in renal artery stenosis. Statins may be used for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease if cholesterol levels are raised, but controlling blood pressure is the primary consideration in renal artery stenosis. Spironolactone should not be used in patients with renal compromise. Control of blood pressure should ideally be achieved using ACE inhibitors or ARBs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 9-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a one-month history of unusual...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a one-month history of unusual facial movements noticed by her father. Her father reports that he first noticed her having twitching of left eye and face as well as drooling of saliva. This happens about twice a week, always at night. Each episode lasts for 1-2 minutes and after each episode, the girl is unable to speak properly for around 5 minutes. The girl is aware of these occurrences but reports unable to control them. The father reports that his daughter is otherwise normal with normal development.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Benign rolandic epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Benign rolandic epilepsy is identified by the occurrence of partial seizures during the night.

      The child displays typical indications of benign rolandic epilepsy, which is distinguished by partial seizures that occur during the night. Reflex anoxic seizures are caused by anoxia and typically manifest as syncope and subsequent convulsions in very young children. Panayiotopoulos syndrome is characterised by seizures, often prolonged, with predominantly autonomic symptoms such as nausea and retching. Idiopathic childhood occipital epilepsy of Gastaut is mainly characterised by visual hallucinations. Night terrors are a sleep disorder that causes feelings of dread or terror, typically during REM sleep.

      Benign rolandic epilepsy is a type of epilepsy that usually affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. This condition is characterized by seizures that typically occur at night and are often partial, causing sensations in the face. However, these seizures may also progress to involve the entire body. Despite these symptoms, children with benign rolandic epilepsy are otherwise healthy and normal.

      Diagnosis of benign rolandic epilepsy is typically confirmed through an electroencephalogram (EEG), which shows characteristic centrotemporal spikes. Fortunately, the prognosis for this condition is excellent, with seizures typically ceasing by adolescence. While the symptoms of benign rolandic epilepsy can be concerning for parents and caregivers, it is important to remember that this condition is generally not associated with any long-term complications or developmental delays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A senior patient presents with congestive heart failure.
    Which of the following drugs may...

    Correct

    • A senior patient presents with congestive heart failure.
      Which of the following drugs may be effective in reducing mortality?

      Your Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Medications for Heart Failure Management

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve outcomes. Two drugs that have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure are angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and beta blockers. Aspirin, on the other hand, is used to reduce the risk of mortality and further cardiovascular events following myocardial infarction and stroke, but it has no role in heart failure alone.

      Digoxin can be used for short-term rate control for atrial fibrillation, but long-term use should be approached with caution as it may lead to increased mortality. Furosemide is useful in managing symptoms and edema in heart failure, but it has not been shown to have a mortality benefit.

      Lidocaine and other antiarrhythmic agents are only useful when there is arrhythmia associated with heart failure and should only be used with specialist support for ventricular arrhythmias in an unstable patient. Standard drugs such as digitalis and diuretics have not been shown to improve survival rates.

      Studies have shown that reducing left ventricular afterload prolongs survival rates in congestive heart failure. Vasodilators such as ACE inhibitors are effective in inhibiting the formation of angiotensin II, affecting coronary artery tone and arterial wall hyperplasia. There is also evidence for the use of beta blockers in heart failure management.

      In conclusion, proper medication management is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with heart failure. ACE inhibitors, beta blockers, and vasodilators have been shown to reduce mortality rates, while other drugs such as aspirin, digoxin, and furosemide have specific roles in managing symptoms and associated conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 15-year-old student presents with low back pain that radiates to the back...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old student presents with low back pain that radiates to the back of their legs. They have an elevated ESR and negative serum rheumatoid factor. A spine radiograph reveals anterior squaring of the vertebrae.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis (AS)

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a type of arthritis that is characterized by morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes, improvement of back pain with exercise but not rest, awakening due to back pain during the second half of the night, and alternating buttock pain. It is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy, meaning that the rheumatoid factor will be negative. Radiographically, sacroiliitis is often the first abnormality seen. ESR and CRP are usually raised, and HLA-B27 testing may provide supporting evidence. Lumbar disc prolapse with sciatica, rheumatoid arthritis, spinal stenosis, and Paget’s disease of bone are other conditions that may cause similar symptoms but have different characteristics and diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are called to attend a premature delivery. The neonate is born at...

    Correct

    • You are called to attend a premature delivery. The neonate is born at 34 weeks gestation via emergency Caesarean section. The neonate is having trouble starting to breathe and needs resuscitation. They are dyspnoeic and tachypnoeic at a rate of 85 breaths/min. Upon listening to the chest, there is decreased breath sounds on both sides. Heart sounds are displaced towards the middle. The abdominal wall looks sunken. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

      Explanation:

      The appearance of a scaphoid abdomen is a common presentation of congenital diaphragmatic hernia, which occurs when abdominal contents protrude into the chest cavity. This condition can cause breathing difficulties and rapid breathing in newborns. The characteristic auscultation findings are caused by underdeveloped lungs and compression due to the presence of abdominal organs in the chest. Immediate medical attention and respiratory support are necessary. It is important to note that this specific concave abdominal appearance is not seen in any other conditions mentioned.

      Understanding Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

      Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) is a rare condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,000 newborns. It occurs when the diaphragm, a muscle that separates the chest and abdominal cavities, fails to form completely during fetal development. As a result, abdominal organs can move into the chest cavity, which can lead to underdeveloped lungs and high blood pressure in the lungs. This can cause respiratory distress shortly after birth.

      The most common type of CDH is a left-sided posterolateral Bochdalek hernia, which accounts for about 85% of cases. This type of hernia occurs when the pleuroperitoneal canal, a structure that connects the chest and abdominal cavities during fetal development, fails to close properly.

      Despite advances in medical treatment, only about 50% of newborns with CDH survive. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes. Treatment may involve surgery to repair the diaphragm and move the abdominal organs back into their proper position. In some cases, a ventilator or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) may be necessary to support breathing until the lungs can function properly. Ongoing care and monitoring are also important to manage any long-term complications that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old man with lung cancer is currently on MST 30 mg bd...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with lung cancer is currently on MST 30 mg bd for pain management. What dosage of oral morphine solution should be prescribed for his breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      The breakthrough dose should be 10 mg, which is one-sixth of the total daily morphine dose of 60 mg (30 mg taken twice a day).

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Bell's palsy. What is the current...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Bell's palsy. What is the current evidence-based approach to managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.

      If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old man attends for a truck driver medical assessment. His blood pressure...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man attends for a truck driver medical assessment. His blood pressure (BP) is noted to be 190/100 mmHg. He is a heavy drinker. He is feeling generally well in himself. You request blood tests:
      Result Normal
      Sodium (mmol/l) 138 135-145
      Potassium (mmol/l) 4.0 3.5-5.0
      Urea (mmol/l) 4.8 1.7-8.3
      Creatinine (µmol/l) 152 59-104
      You decide to perform a work-up to exclude a secondary cause for his hypertension. An ultrasound scan of the renal tract reveals a small atrophic left kidney.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Hypertension: Differential Diagnosis

      Hypertension in a young patient may indicate a secondary cause, such as renovascular disease. In this case, a small kidney on ultrasound and elevated creatinine levels suggest renal artery stenosis as a possible cause. Other potential diagnoses, such as Cushing’s syndrome, acromegaly, and phaeochromocytoma, are less likely based on the absence of corresponding symptoms and signs. Polycystic kidney disease, which can also cause hypertension, would typically present with bilateral renal enlargement rather than atrophy. A thorough differential diagnosis is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertension and guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of a severely painful headache...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of a severely painful headache mainly around his left eye, associated with left-sided eye watering. He has had several similar episodes of pain over the past few months, each lasting about 2–3 hours.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Cluster Headache from Other Headache Disorders

      Cluster headache is a severe headache disorder that primarily affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. The pain is localized around one eye and can last from a few minutes up to three hours. Lacrimation and nasal congestion may occur simultaneously, and symptoms tend to occur frequently for several weeks followed by a symptom-free period lasting months or even years. It is important to distinguish cluster headache from other headache disorders, such as brain tumors, giant cell arteritis (GCA), migraine, and tension headache. Brain tumors may present with signs of raised intracranial pressure, while GCA typically affects those over 50 years old and presents with abrupt-onset headache, scalp pain/tenderness, and jaw claudication. Migraine is characterized by recurrent episodes of headache accompanied by photophobia, phonophobia, nausea, and vomiting, while tension headache is typically bilateral and described as a band-like pain across the forehead. Associated eye watering is not a feature of tension headache.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Sue, 75, has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and type 2 diabetes mellitus....

    Correct

    • Sue, 75, has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and type 2 diabetes mellitus. She has been experiencing diarrhoea and vomiting for the past 3 days and her family have brought her to the emergency department as they are worried. History, examination and blood tests reveal Sue to be dehydrated and to have developed an acute kidney injury with an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 29 ml/min/1.73m². As per NICE guidelines, which medication should be discontinued?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      If the creatinine level is above 130 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 45 ml/min), NICE recommends that the dosage of metformin be reviewed, and if the creatinine level is above 150 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 30 ml/min), metformin should be discontinued. It is important to note that metformin is the drug that should be stopped in this situation, according to NICE guidelines for the treatment of diabetes mellitus.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.

      While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.

      There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.

      When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      2.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology/Oncology (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (3/3) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (2/2) 100%
Neurology (3/4) 75%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (2/2) 100%
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