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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of depression and lumbar spinal stenosis presents with a swollen and painful left calf. He is evaluated in the DVT clinic and a raised D-dimer is detected. A Doppler scan reveals a proximal deep vein thrombosis. Despite being active and feeling well, the patient has not undergone any recent surgeries or been immobile for an extended period. As a result, he is initiated on a direct oral anticoagulant. What is the optimal duration of treatment?
Your Answer: 3 months
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:For provoked cases of venous thromboembolism, such as those following recent surgery, warfarin treatment is typically recommended for a duration of three months. However, for unprovoked cases, where the cause is unknown, a longer duration of six months is typically recommended.
NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman complains of urine leakage when laughing or jumping. She has no other urinary symptoms, and her urine dipstick test is negative.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?Your Answer: Pelvic floor exercises
Explanation:Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Types and Treatment Options
Urinary incontinence is a common problem that affects people of all ages, but is more prevalent in elderly individuals and females. It is important to classify the type of urinary incontinence to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
Functional incontinence occurs due to reasons other than lower urinary tract dysfunction, such as delirium, psychiatric disorders, urinary infection, or impaired mobility. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause.
Mixed incontinence is a combination of stress incontinence and urge incontinence, characterized by mild-to-moderate urine loss with physical activities and acute urine loss without warning, respectively. Urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia are also present.
Overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder is overdistended and urine overflows despite the absence of detrusor contraction. Symptoms may mimic those of mixed incontinence and may suggest a cause of bladder outlet obstruction or neurological dysfunction.
Stress incontinence is triggered by increased intra-abdominal pressure and is characterized by involuntary urine loss during coughing, laughing, and sneezing. Irritative voiding symptoms are typically absent.
Urge incontinence is associated with an overactive bladder and is characterized by uncontrolled urine loss associated with a strong desire to void, which occurs suddenly and without warning. Patients are unable to hold back urine and experience urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia.
Treatment options include pelvic floor muscle training, anticholinergic medications such as oxybutynin and solifenacin, bladder retraining, and topical estrogen for postmenopausal women with vaginal atrophy. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause of urinary incontinence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient complains of sudden hearing loss in her left ear, accompanied by dizziness and a sensation of pressure in the affected ear. What results would you anticipate from the Rinne and Weber tests?
Your Answer: Weber: louder in the left ear: Rinne bone conduction louder than air in the right ear
Correct Answer: Weber: louder in the right ear: Rinne air conduction louder than bone in the left ear
Explanation:To diagnose sensorineural hearing loss, Rinne and Weber tests can be used. In this type of hearing loss, air conduction will be louder than bone on Rinne test and Weber test will lateralise away from the affected ear. However, before making a diagnosis, it is important to correctly identify the symptoms. For example, sudden hearing loss accompanied by dizziness and pressure in the ear may indicate Meniere’s disease, which causes sensorineural hearing loss in the affected ear. If the symptoms suggest sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear, the results of the tests should show air conduction louder than bone on Rinne test and Weber test lateralising away from the left ear. If the results show different patterns, they may suggest conductive or mixed hearing loss in one or both ears.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.
On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 7-day history of flu-like symptoms, including spiking fevers, headache, rigors, vomiting and diarrhoea.
On examination, he looks unwell, is febrile and jaundiced. His abdomen is soft, with mild, generalised tenderness and hepatosplenomegaly. He returned from Nigeria six months ago after a 8-week stay with a charity mission. He had all the appropriate travel vaccinations and took mefloquine prophylaxis.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Enteric fever
Correct Answer: Malaria
Explanation:Travel-Related Illnesses: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Malaria, Yellow Fever, Enteric Fever, Hepatitis A, and Schistosomiasis are some of the common travel-related illnesses that can affect people visiting certain parts of the world.
Malaria is a potentially life-threatening illness caused by a parasite transmitted by mosquitoes. Symptoms include headache, cough, fatigue, fever with rigors, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Diagnosis is made through thick and thin blood films, and treatment should be guided by an infectious disease specialist.
Yellow fever is an insect-borne tropical disease with symptoms that may include a flu-like illness, jaundice, and abnormal bleeding. It has a short incubation period of 3-6 days and is transmitted by mosquitoes. Vaccination is recommended for travelers to high-risk areas.
Enteric fever is caused by salmonella typhoid or paratyphoid and is transmitted orally via contaminated food or drink. Symptoms include severe flu-like symptoms, especially diarrhea and fever. Diagnosis is made through blood cultures, and treatment is with antibiotics.
Hepatitis A is a viral infection transmitted via contaminated food or water. Symptoms include a flu-like illness, jaundice, and tender hepatomegaly. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, and treatment is supportive.
Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection spread by flatworms that live in freshwater. Symptoms can include fever, rash, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Chronic infection may present as rectal bleeding, hematuria, anemia, or cystitis. Diagnosis is made through blood and stool tests, and treatment is with antiparasitic medication.
In conclusion, travelers to certain parts of the world should be aware of the risk of these illnesses and take appropriate precautions, including vaccination, prophylaxis, and avoiding contaminated food and water. If symptoms develop, prompt medical attention should be sought.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man was diagnosed with angina after experiencing chest pain during physical activity. He underwent an exercise test at the cardiology clinic and was prescribed aspirin, bisoprolol, atorvastatin, and a glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray.
After six months, he returned with an increase in the frequency of anginal episodes, which were relieved by GTN spray and did not occur at rest.
What medication would be the most suitable addition to his current treatment?Your Answer: Verapamil
Correct Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:If a beta-blocker is not effective in controlling angina, it is recommended to add a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine. Diltiazem and verapamil should not be used in combination with a beta-blocker due to the risk of life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure. Ivabradine and nicorandil can be used as alternatives if a dihydropyridine CCB is not suitable, but should only be initiated under specialist advice.
Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman comes in for her routine medical check-up before starting her new job as a soccer player. She reports feeling healthy and has no notable medical history in her family.
During the physical examination, her lungs sound clear and her heart has a normal rhythm. Her pulse rate is 62 beats per minute. However, her ECG reveals sinus rhythm with a prolonged PR interval of 215ms.
What is the appropriate course of action for managing her ECG results?Your Answer: No referral is needed however advise the patient to stop playing football
Correct Answer: No intervention needed
Explanation:First-degree heart block is a common occurrence in athletes and does not require any intervention. This patient’s ECG shows a prolonged PR interval, which is the defining characteristic of first-degree heart block. As it is a normal variant, there is no need for any referral or further investigations. The patient can continue to play football without any concerns.
Normal Variants in Athlete ECGs
Athletes may exhibit certain ECG changes that are considered normal variants. These include sinus bradycardia, junctional rhythm, first degree heart block, and Mobitz type 1 (Wenckebach phenomenon). Sinus bradycardia refers to a slower than normal heart rate originating from the sinus node, which is the natural pacemaker of the heart. Junctional rhythm occurs when the heart’s electrical impulses originate from the junction between the atria and ventricles, rather than the sinus node. First degree heart block is a delay in the electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles, resulting in a prolonged PR interval on the ECG. Mobitz type 1, also known as Wenckebach phenomenon, is a type of heart block where there is a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped. These ECG changes are considered normal in athletes and do not necessarily indicate any underlying cardiac pathology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 7
Correct
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What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia?
Your Answer: The pain is commonly triggered by touching the skin
Explanation:Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia
Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.
Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.
The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 45-year-old man has a 3-month history of weight loss, fatigue and difficulty breathing with a 20-pack-year smoking history. A chest X-ray reveals multiple rounded nodules of different sizes spread throughout both lungs.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Pulmonary metastases
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of lung nodules on chest radiograph
Pulmonary metastases is a likely diagnosis for lung nodules on a chest radiograph, especially in patients with a history of cancer. Other possible causes of lung nodules include infections, such as lung abscesses or tuberculosis, occupational lung diseases, such as silicosis, and traumatic injuries, such as rib fractures. However, the clinical presentation and radiological features of these conditions differ from those of pulmonary metastases. Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements best describes bladder cancer?
Your Answer: Superficial tumours, if effectively treated by endoscopic resection and diathermy, seldom become invasive.
Correct Answer: Survival correlates well with TNM staging at diagnosis.
Explanation:Bladder Cancer: Prognostic Factors, Staging, and Treatment Options
Bladder cancer is a common malignancy that affects the urinary system. Survival rates are closely linked to the TNM staging at diagnosis, with non-muscle invasive bladder cancer having a good prognosis and decreasing survival rates with increasing stage. The most significant prognostic factors for bladder cancer are grade, depth of invasion, and the presence of carcinoma in situ. Chemotherapy for metastatic disease is seldom used and has limited effectiveness. Cisplatin-based chemotherapy regimens are the standard treatment for metastatic bladder cancer, with a median overall patient survival of 13-15 months and a 2-year survival rate of 15-20%. Careful follow-up is necessary for non-muscle invasive bladder cancer due to the high rate of disease recurrence and progression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is discovered in cardiac arrest and her blood test shows:
Sodium 130 mmol/l (135-145)
Potassium 7.3mmol/l (3.5-5.0)
Urea 9.1mmol/l (2.5-7.0)
Creatinine 167 mmol/l (60-110)
To begin with, she is administered IV calcium gluconate.
What effect does this medication have on the electrolyte levels?Your Answer: Lowers potassium and raises sodium
Correct Answer: No change
Explanation:To stabilize the cardiac membrane in cases of hyperkalemia with ECG changes, IV calcium gluconate is administered. This is done to prevent further increase in potassium levels. The removal of potassium from the extracellular space to the intracellular space is achieved through a combination of insulin and dextrose or nebulized salbutamol. Calcium resonium is then used to excrete potassium from the body.
Managing Hyperkalaemia
Hyperkalaemia, if left untreated, can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. It is important to address any precipitating factors, such as acute kidney injury, and stop any aggravating drugs, such as ACE inhibitors. The management of hyperkalaemia can be categorised by the aims of treatment, which include stabilising the cardiac membrane, shifting potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments, and removing potassium from the body.
The severity of hyperkalaemia can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, with the latter being defined as a serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L or higher. It is important to note that the presence of ECG changes is crucial in determining the appropriate management. ECG changes associated with hyperkalaemia include peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves, loss of P waves, broad QRS complexes, and a sinusoidal wave pattern.
The principles of treatment modalities for hyperkalaemia involve stabilising the cardiac membrane with IV calcium gluconate, shifting potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments with a combined insulin/dextrose infusion or nebulised salbutamol, and removing potassium from the body with calcium resonium, loop diuretics, or dialysis. In practical treatment, all patients with severe hyperkalaemia or ECG changes should receive emergency treatment with IV calcium gluconate, insulin/dextrose infusion, and other temporary measures to lower serum potassium levels. Further management involves stopping exacerbating drugs, treating any underlying cause, and lowering total body potassium with calcium resonium, loop diuretics, or dialysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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