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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old man with known permanent AF (atrial fibrillation) on warfarin has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with known permanent AF (atrial fibrillation) on warfarin has a fast, irregularly irregular pulse. He has no other past medical history. The ECG confirms AF with a rate of 132 beats/min. He is haemodynamically stable and well. He denies any history of palpitations, shortness of breath or syncope.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?

      Your Answer: DC cardioversion

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation: A Comprehensive Guide

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt and appropriate management to prevent complications. Here are some treatment options for AF:

      Rate Control: This is recommended for patients who have had AF for more than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are the first-line treatment unless there is a contraindication such as asthma. Calcium channel blockers can also be used.

      Digoxin: This drug can be used as rate control if the patient cannot have beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers. However, it should only be used as a third-line treatment or as an adjunct because it has been shown to increase mortality. It is also only effective in sedentary patients.

      DC Cardioversion: This can be used to treat new-onset AF if the patient has had it for less than 48 hours. It can also be considered in patients who have had it for longer than that, once they have been on stable anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks.

      Flecainide: This is a class Ic antiarrhythmic drug that can be used as chemical cardioversion in new AF (<48 hours) or if a patient has been anticoagulated for >3 weeks.

      Rhythm Control: Nice guidelines advise that rhythm control can be used if AF onset was <48 hours ago, but should be avoided if longer ago because it can increase the risk of stroke from an atrial thrombus. In longer cases, rate control should be used, which is with beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. Digoxin can be used third line or as an adjunct. In conclusion, the appropriate treatment for AF depends on the duration of the arrhythmia, the patient’s comorbidities, and other factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 62-year-old woman complains of blood in her stool and unintentional weight loss....

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman complains of blood in her stool and unintentional weight loss. During rectal examination, you notice a suspicious lesion below the pectinate line, which raises concern for cancer. You proceed to check for any signs of lymphadenopathy.
      Where would you anticipate discovering enlarged lymph nodes?

      Your Answer: Inguinal

      Explanation:

      Lymph Node Drainage in the Pelvic Region

      The lymphatic drainage in the pelvic region is an important aspect of the body’s immune system. There are several lymph nodes in this area that drain different parts of the body. Here is a breakdown of the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region:

      1. Inguinal: The inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal inferior to the pectinate line. These nodes then drain into the lateral pelvic nodes.

      2. External iliac: The external iliac nodes drain the adductor region of the upper thigh, glans, clitoris, cervix, and upper bladder.

      3. Inferior mesenteric: The inferior mesenteric nodes drain the sigmoid, upper rectum, and descending colon.

      4. Internal iliac: The internal iliac nodes drain the rectum and the part of the anal canal superior to the pectinate line.

      5. Superior mesenteric: The superior mesenteric nodes drain parts of the upper gastrointestinal tract, specifically the duodenum and jejunum.

      Understanding the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region is important for diagnosing and treating certain conditions. By knowing which lymph nodes drain which parts of the body, healthcare professionals can better identify the source of an infection or cancer and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - During a routine medication review, you observe your patient, a 50 year-old male,...

    Correct

    • During a routine medication review, you observe your patient, a 50 year-old male, displaying some skin changes. The knuckles of both hands have purplish plaques, and the patient's eyelids also appear purple. There is no history of skin problems in the patient's medical records. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is a connective tissue disease that presents with skin changes such as plaques on the knuckles and eyelids, scaling of the scalp, and changes to the nail beds and cuticles. It is often accompanied by inflammation of the proximal muscles causing weakness. It can be an autoimmune condition or a paraneoplastic syndrome and is treated with immunosuppressants.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilatation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man presents to you with right wrist discomfort three weeks after...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to you with right wrist discomfort three weeks after falling off his bike and landing on his outstretched hand. He went to the emergency department on the same day and had wrist x-rays, which were reported as normal. He was given pain relief and discharged without any follow-up.

      Currently, he is experiencing persistent pain that has not improved. On examination, the wrist appears normal, with no significant swelling or redness. The wrist's range of motion is slightly limited, likely due to pain. He is tender over the anatomical snuff box. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to hospital for urgent orthopaedic/emergency department review

      Explanation:

      The presentation and examination strongly suggest a scaphoid fracture, making conservative treatment with splinting, pain relief, and physiotherapy unsuitable due to the risk of avascular necrosis caused by the scaphoid bone’s blood supply. While an outpatient x-ray is an option, some scaphoid fractures may not be visible on x-rays and may require a CT scan or MRI. As a result, the patient should be referred to an orthopaedic clinic, either directly or through the local emergency department.

      Anatomy of the Scaphoid Bone

      The scaphoid bone is a small bone located in the wrist. It has several important features that allow it to articulate with other bones in the wrist and hand. The bone has a concave surface that articulates with the head of the capitate and a crescentic surface that corresponds with the lunate. Proximally, it has a wide convex surface that articulates with the radius. Distally, it has a tubercle that can be felt and an articular surface that faces laterally and is associated with the trapezium and trapezoid bones.

      The narrow strip between the radial and trapezial surfaces and the tubercle gives rise to the radial collateral carpal ligament. The tubercle also receives part of the flexor retinaculum, which is the only part of the scaphoid bone that allows for the entry of blood vessels. However, this area is commonly fractured and can lead to avascular necrosis. It is important to understand the anatomy of the scaphoid bone in order to properly diagnose and treat injuries to the wrist and hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother....

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother. She is concerned that he has had consistently delayed motor milestones and that he has severe behavioural difficulties. To stand up from a sitting position, he first kneels on all fours and then uses his hands to ‘walk himself up’. The GP notices that the child has hypertrophy of his calf muscles.
      Which of the following tests is useful in the diagnosis of the underlying condition?
      Select the SINGLE most useful test from the list below.

      Your Answer: Creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy and Wilson’s Disease

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and Wilson’s disease are two conditions that can present with non-specific symptoms. Here, we discuss the diagnostic tests used to identify these conditions.

      DMD is an X-linked recessive condition that predominantly affects males. Diagnosis is usually made by significantly elevated creatine kinase levels and genetic testing. Muscle biopsy may also be required. Symptoms usually present by age three and include delayed walking, muscle weakness, pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles, and learning difficulties. An MRI spine or head is not helpful in diagnosis as DMD is not caused by a central nervous system or spinal pathology.

      Wilson’s disease often presents with signs of liver failure and non-specific symptoms such as tiredness, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Neurological symptoms such as tremors, loss of motor skills, and behavioural problems are more common in teenagers and adults. Diagnosis is made by measuring serum caeruloplasmin levels and genetic testing.

      In summary, elevated creatine kinase levels and genetic testing are used to diagnose DMD, while serum caeruloplasmin levels and genetic testing are used to diagnose Wilson’s disease. MRI scans are not helpful in the diagnosis of either condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy papular rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy papular rash on her palms and forearms. The rash has white lines visible across its surface and scratching has worsened it. Additionally, she has noticed thinning of her nails with longitudinal ridges visible. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

      Your Answer: Topical calcipotriol

      Correct Answer: Potent topical steroids

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. Emollients are not effective for this condition, and oral steroids may only be necessary in severe or resistant cases. Calcipotriol, a synthetic vitamin D derivative, is used for psoriasis and not lichen planus. Fusidic acid is an antibiotic used for staphylococcal skin infections, such as impetigo, and is not indicated for lichen planus.

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 92-year-old man is brought to the hospital from a nursing home with...

    Correct

    • A 92-year-old man is brought to the hospital from a nursing home with advanced pneumonia. Despite medical intervention, his condition worsens and he passes away within 48 hours of admission. His past medical history includes a hip replacement surgery 4 years ago and advanced dementia for which he is currently under guardianship.

      What are the appropriate steps to take following his death?

      Your Answer: Refer the death to the coroner as she was detained under the mental health act at time of death

      Explanation:

      If a person dies while under the mental health act, regardless of the cause of death, it is mandatory to report their death to the coroner. In this case, as the individual was detained under the mental health act at the time of their death, it is the responsibility of the doctors in the hospital where they passed away to issue the MCCD after discussing with the coroner. It would be inappropriate to ask the GP who performed their surgery over a year ago to issue the MCCD as they may not have seen the individual within 14 days prior to their death. Additionally, the doctors at the psychiatric hospital may have seen the individual within the 14 days prior, but it is still the responsibility of the hospital doctors who were caring for them at the time of their death to issue the MCCD.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old male with a history of ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male with a history of ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department with a painful red eye, photophobia, lacrimation, and reduced visual acuity. On examination, an irregularly shaped pupil is noted. What is the most suitable approach to manage this patient's current condition?

      Your Answer: Acetazolamide and cycloplegic (mydriatic) eye drops

      Correct Answer: Steroid and cycloplegic (mydriatic) eye drops

      Explanation:

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 3-year-old boy is brought into accident and emergency by one of the...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy is brought into accident and emergency by one of the staff at the nursery that he attends. He suddenly developed facial grimacing and carpopedal spasm that morning, after a minor viral gastrointestinal infection over the past few days. On examination he also has abnormal ears, a shortened philtrum, hypertelorism, micrognathia and a heart murmur.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: DiGeorge's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Rare Genetic Disorders: DiGeorge’s Syndrome and Associated Features

      DiGeorge’s syndrome, also known as 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a rare genetic disorder that affects the development of various organs in the body. One of the primary features of this syndrome is a decreased production and function of T-cells due to an absent or poorly developed thymus, leading to susceptibility to infections. Additionally, individuals with DiGeorge’s syndrome may experience hypocalcaemic tetany due to a failure of parathyroid development, which can be exacerbated by gastrointestinal infections.

      Other features of DiGeorge’s syndrome include congenital cardiac defects, particularly those involving the great vessels, and the absence of a normal thymus. Serum immunoglobulin concentrations are often normal, but antibody responses may be impaired. T-cell levels are reduced, whereas B-cell levels are normal.

      In addition to these medical features, individuals with DiGeorge’s syndrome may have characteristic facial features such as retrognathia or micrognathia, a long face, high and broad nasal bridge, narrow palpebral fissures, small teeth, asymmetrical crying face, downturned mouth, short philtrum, low-set and malformed ears, hypertelorism, and a dimple on the tip of the nose.

      Overall, understanding the features and implications of rare genetic disorders like DiGeorge’s syndrome is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old woman experiences intense vomiting within four hours of consuming lunch at...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman experiences intense vomiting within four hours of consuming lunch at a nearby restaurant. What organism is the most probable cause of this reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis can be inferred as a result of the short incubation period and intense vomiting.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.

      There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Immunology/Allergy (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
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