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Question 1
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A 30-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department with a two-day history of fever, headache, vomiting, and seizures. She has no significant medical history or allergies. Upon CT head examination, hypodensity of the left temporal lobe is identified, while a lumbar puncture reveals lymphocytes at 57 cells/µL (0-5 cells/µL), protein at 92 mg/100 mL (15-60 mg/100 mL), and glucose at 66 mg/100 mL (50-80 mg/100 mL). Serum blood glucose is normal. A brain MRI is subsequently performed, revealing prominent swelling and increased signal of the left temporal lobe and insular cortex. What is the urgent medication that must be initiated in this patient?
Your Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:In cases of encephalitis caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV), urgent administration of IV aciclovir (which is effective against HSV) is necessary. Amantadine, which is used to manage influenza, is not appropriate. Cefotaxime, which is often used for suspected meningococcal disease, is also not appropriate. Fluconazole, an anti-fungal medication, is not appropriate as encephalitis is unlikely to be caused by a fungal infection.
Encephalitis: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Encephalitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the brain. It presents with symptoms such as fever, headache, psychiatric symptoms, seizures, and vomiting. Focal features such as aphasia may also be present. Peripheral lesions like cold sores are not related to the presence of HSV encephalitis. HSV-1 is responsible for 95% of cases in adults, and it typically affects the temporal and inferior frontal lobes.
To diagnose encephalitis, cerebrospinal fluid analysis is done, which shows lymphocytosis and elevated protein. PCR for HSV, VZV, and enteroviruses is also performed. Neuroimaging may reveal medial temporal and inferior frontal changes, such as petechial hemorrhages, but it is normal in one-third of patients. MRI is a better diagnostic tool. EEG may show lateralized periodic discharges at 2 Hz.
The treatment for encephalitis involves intravenous aciclovir, which should be started in all cases of suspected encephalitis. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing complications and improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a history of fainting. He reports feeling lightheaded while jogging. His father recently passed away suddenly due to a heart condition. Upon examination, he has an irregular pulse, a forceful cardiac impulse, and a mid-systolic murmur.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose the ONE best option from the list below.Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Explanation:Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a genetic disorder with autosomal dominant transmission that is the most common form of inherited cardiomyopathy. It has a prevalence of about 100 per 100,000 and can present with symptoms similar to aortic stenosis, but with a jerky pulse. Sudden death can be the first symptom, especially during or after physical activity. Risk factors for sudden death in HCM include a history of previous cardiac arrest or sustained ventricular tachycardia, recurrent syncope, adverse genotype and/or family history, exercise-induced hypotension, multiple episodes of non-sustained ventricular tachycardia on ambulatory ECG, and a marked increase in the thickness of the left ventricular wall. Dilated cardiomyopathy is the most common form of non-ischaemic cardiomyopathy, but given the patient’s family history, jerky pulse, and collapse on exercise, it is not the most likely cause. Mitral valve prolapse tends to present with palpitations, dyspnoea, low BMI, chest pain, and syncope, with a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur. Aortic stenosis can cause dizziness, syncope, and angina, but the family history makes HCM more likely than AS. Pericarditis tends to cause central chest pain that is relieved by leaning forward and worsened by coughing or straining.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 3
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A 25-year-old woman comes in with recurring headaches. During the cranial nerve examination, it is observed that her right pupil is 3 mm while the left pupil is 5 mm. The right pupil reacts to light, but the left pupil is slow to respond. The peripheral neurological examination is normal except for challenging to elicit knee and ankle reflexes. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Holmes-Adie syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Holmes-Adie Pupil
Holmes-Adie pupil is a condition that is more commonly observed in women and is considered a benign condition. It is one of the possible causes of a dilated pupil. In about 80% of cases, it affects only one eye. The main characteristic of this condition is a dilated pupil that remains small for an unusually long time after it has constricted. The pupil also reacts slowly to accommodation but poorly or not at all to light.
Holmes-Adie syndrome is a condition that is associated with Holmes-Adie pupil. It is characterized by the absence of ankle and knee reflexes. This condition is not harmful and does not require any treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 4
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A 55-year-old man presented to his GP with two instances of painless visible haematuria. He was subsequently referred to urology for biopsy and flexible cystoscopy, which revealed a transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder. What is the most significant risk factor associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Risk Factors for Bladder Cancer
Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, and there are different types of bladder cancer. The most common type is urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, and the risk factors for this type of bladder cancer include smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide. Smoking is the most important risk factor in western countries, with a hazard ratio of around 4. Exposure to aniline dyes, such as working in the printing and textile industry, can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. Rubber manufacture and cyclophosphamide are also risk factors for urothelial carcinoma.
On the other hand, squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder has different risk factors. Schistosomiasis and smoking are the main risk factors for this type of bladder cancer. Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection that can cause inflammation and damage to the bladder, which can increase the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma. Smoking is also a risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma, as it can cause changes in the cells of the bladder lining that can lead to cancer.
In summary, the risk factors for bladder cancer depend on the type of cancer. Urothelial carcinoma is mainly associated with smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide, while squamous cell carcinoma is mainly associated with schistosomiasis and smoking. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce your risk of developing bladder cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 5
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A 45-year-old man has been referred by his GP due to a history of uncontrolled hypertension. He has come in today to undergo an aldosterone: renin ratio test. The results indicate high levels of aldosterone and low levels of renin. Additionally, a CT scan has revealed bilateral adrenal gland hyperplasia.
What is the recommended management plan for this patient?Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:The patient is suffering from primary hyperaldosteronism, which is caused by bilateral adrenal gland hyperplasia. This condition leads to elevated aldosterone levels, resulting in increased sodium retention and negative feedback to renin release. The most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism is bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, which can be treated with spironolactone, an aldosterone receptor antagonist, for four weeks. Adrenalectomy is only recommended for unilateral adrenal adenoma, which is not the case for this patient. Fludrocortisone and hydrocortisone are not appropriate treatments for hyperaldosteronism as they act on mineralocorticoid receptors, exacerbating the condition. Reassurance and discharge are not recommended as untreated primary hyperaldosteronism can lead to chronic elevation of blood pressure, increasing the risk of cardiovascular disease, stroke, and kidney damage.
Understanding Primary Hyperaldosteronism
Primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that was previously believed to be caused by an adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is the cause in up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two as this determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.
The common features of primary hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Hypokalaemia can cause muscle weakness, but this is seen in only 10-40% of patients. To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone.
If the plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is high, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia. The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is treated with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone.
In summary, primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that can be caused by adrenal adenoma, bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, or adrenal carcinoma. It is characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Diagnosis involves a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio, high-resolution CT abdomen, and adrenal vein sampling. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may involve surgery or medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 6
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A 10-year-old boy presents to the paediatric clinic with his mother. She reports that her son has been experiencing pain in his left hip and groin, accompanied by a limp over the past week. There is no history of any injury. The patient's medical history includes eczema, and he completed a course of antibiotics for tonsillitis 4 weeks ago.
During the examination, there is palpable tenderness in the left groin, hip, and knee. The patient experiences extreme pain, leading to a loss of internal rotation of left hip flexion. He is in the 90th percentile of weight for his age.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Explanation:A possible diagnosis for an obese boy experiencing pain in the groin, thigh, and knee could be slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE). This condition is rare and typically affects boys between the ages of 10-15 who are overweight. It causes the femoral head epiphysis to displace posteroinferiorly, resulting in pain in the hip, groin, and medial thigh, as well as limited internal rotation of the leg when flexed.
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is an incorrect diagnosis in this case, as it is characterized by joint inflammation lasting at least six weeks in children under 16 years old. The patient’s relatively short history of hip pain and being overweight make SUFE a more likely diagnosis.
Legg-Calvé-Perthe’s disease is also an incorrect diagnosis, as it involves necrosis of the femoral head and is typically seen in young boys aged 4-8 years. The patient’s painful hip movements and age make SUFE a more probable diagnosis.
Septic arthritis is another possible differential diagnosis, but it would be more likely if the patient presented with a fever and symptoms of systemic upset.
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.
The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.
The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.
In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
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A 72-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and ischaemic heart disease is experiencing symptoms suggestive of a chest infection. He is currently taking amiodarone, warfarin, and simvastatin. Which antibiotic should be avoided, if possible?
Your Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Macrolides: Antibiotics that Inhibit Bacterial Protein Synthesis
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation, which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated.
Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA. Adverse effects of macrolides include prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, with nausea being less common with clarithromycin than erythromycin. Cholestatic jaundice is also a potential risk, although using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which can cause interactions with other medications. For example, taking macrolides concurrently with statins significantly increases the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, macrolides are a useful class of antibiotics that can effectively treat bacterial infections. However, it is important to be aware of their potential adverse effects and interactions with other medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 8
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A 26-year-old woman comes to the clinic 10 days after giving birth. She reports a continuous pink vaginal discharge with a foul odor. During the examination, her pulse is 90 / min, temperature is 38.2ºC, and she experiences diffuse suprapubic tenderness. The uterus feels tender on vaginal examination, but her breasts appear normal. The urine dipstick shows blood ++. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:Understanding Puerperal Pyrexia
Puerperal pyrexia is a condition that occurs when a woman experiences a fever of more than 38ºC within the first 14 days after giving birth. The most common cause of this condition is endometritis, which is an infection of the lining of the uterus. Other causes include urinary tract infections, wound infections, mastitis, and venous thromboembolism.
If a woman is suspected of having endometritis, it is important to seek medical attention immediately. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics such as clindamycin and gentamicin until the patient is afebrile for more than 24 hours. It is important to note that puerperal pyrexia can be a serious condition and should not be ignored. By understanding the causes and seeking prompt medical attention, women can receive the necessary treatment to recover from this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 9
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A 48-year-old male presents to the hospital with a productive cough and a temperature of 38.2 C. He has been feeling ill for the past 10 days with flu-like symptoms. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 96/60 mmHg and his heart rate is 102/min. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral lower zone consolidation. What is the probable pathogen responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Prior infection with influenza increases the likelihood of developing pneumonia caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Causes of Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various infectious agents. Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is the most common type of pneumonia and is caused by different microorganisms. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which accounts for around 80% of cases. Other infectious agents that can cause CAP include Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, atypical pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and viruses.
Klebsiella pneumoniae is another microorganism that can cause pneumonia, but it is typically found in alcoholics. Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as pneumococcus, is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is characterized by a rapid onset, high fever, pleuritic chest pain, and herpes labialis (cold sores).
In summary, pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents, with Streptococcus pneumoniae being the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is important to identify the causative agent to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 10
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A mother brings in her 8-year-old daughter to the pediatrician's office. She is worried because she has noticed that her daughter has been showing signs of breast development for the past 3 months. The mother is concerned that her daughter may be experiencing early puberty. What course of action would you recommend?
Your Answer: Reassure her that this is normal development
Explanation:If a girl develops secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 and a boy before the age of 9, it is considered precocious puberty. However, if a girl is developing within the normal time frame, such as breast development, there is no need for the mother to worry or seek medical attention. Checking sex hormones or referring to a pediatric specialist is unnecessary as the child is developing normally and the breast development will continue as part of the natural pubertal process.
Understanding Precocious Puberty
Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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