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  • Question 1 - An 81-year-old man is transferred from a nursing home with a change in...

    Correct

    • An 81-year-old man is transferred from a nursing home with a change in behaviour, insomnia and fever. Staff in the nursing home state that over the last five days, he has appeared confused and agitated and seems to be having visual hallucinations, as he has been talking and gesturing to people who are not present in the room. He has a past medical history of Lewy body dementia. On clinical examination, he is not orientated to time, place or person. He is mildly agitated. His blood pressure is 112/60 mmHg, pulse 96 bpm and temperature 38.2 °C. Urinalysis is positive for nitrites and leukocytes.
      Which of the following management plans should be considered as initial treatment for delirium?

      Your Answer: Treat the underlying cause, ensure effective communication and reorientation, provide reassurance for people diagnosed with delirium, provide a suitable care environment

      Explanation:

      Managing Delirium: Strategies for Treatment and Care Environment

      Delirium is a serious condition that requires prompt identification and management of underlying causes. Effective communication and reorientation, as well as reassurance for the patient, are crucial in managing delirium. Involving family, friends, and carers can also be helpful. Providing a suitable care environment, such as a well-lit and quiet room with minimal stimulation, is important. If verbal and non-verbal de-escalation techniques are ineffective, short-term use of antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol or olanzapine may be necessary, but caution should be exercised, especially for patients with conditions like Parkinson’s disease or dementia with Lewy bodies. Frequent reorientation and monitoring in a dimly lit room may also be necessary in some cases. Overall, a comprehensive approach that addresses both the underlying causes and the patient’s immediate needs is essential in managing delirium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A patient in their 50s is brought to the acute mental health unit...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 50s is brought to the acute mental health unit by the police after being found on the street shouting at people. They have no known past medical history.

      On examination, they are poorly dressed. When asked about their mood, they begin by asking what colour the sky is, then begin to talk about their strong dislike for cheese, followed by wanting to break the table lamp they own at home. Throughout the consultation, they speak slowly.

      What term best describes this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Flight of ideas

      Correct Answer: Knight's move

      Explanation:

      Knight’s move thinking involves illogical leaps from one idea to another without any discernible link between them, while flight of ideas involves moving from one idea to another with discernible links between them. In this scenario, the patient is exhibiting Knight’s move thinking, which is a thought disorder associated with schizophrenia. This is different from circumstantiality, which involves giving excessive, unnecessary detail without returning to the original point, and clang associations, which involves linking ideas based on their sound or rhyme. Flight of ideas, on the other hand, involves rapid and pressured speech with discernible links between ideas.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man is brought to the doctors by his son. Three weeks...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is brought to the doctors by his son. Three weeks ago his wife passed away from metastatic breast cancer. He reports feeling sad and tearful every day, but his son is worried because he keeps getting into arguments with him over small things and bringing up past family issues. The son also mentions that his father has mentioned hearing his wife's voice and even cooked a meal for her once. Despite this, he has started going for walks with his friends again and is determined to get his life back on track. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal grief reaction

      Explanation:

      Grief is a natural response to the death of a loved one and does not always require medical intervention. However, understanding the potential stages of grief can help determine if a patient is experiencing a normal reaction or a more significant problem. The most common model of grief divides it into five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. It is important to note that not all patients will experience all five stages. Atypical grief reactions are more likely to occur in women, sudden and unexpected deaths, problematic relationships before death, and lack of social support. Delayed grief, which occurs when grieving does not begin for more than two weeks, and prolonged grief, which is difficult to define but may last beyond 12 months, are features of atypical grief reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old man visits his doctor's office and reports that his partner of...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man visits his doctor's office and reports that his partner of many years passed away recently. He shares that when he woke up this morning, he believed he was lying next to her and heard her voice calling his name. Despite knowing that this is impossible, it has caused him considerable anguish. He is concerned that he may be losing his mind. He has no other significant psychiatric history.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pseudohallucination

      Explanation:

      Pseudohallucinations, which are characterized by the patient’s awareness that the voice or feeling is coming from their own mind, are not indicative of psychosis or serious psychiatric conditions. This makes schizophrenia and other psychotic options less likely, and there are no signs of schizoid personality disorder in the patient. Pseudohallucinations are often observed in individuals who have experienced bereavement.

      Understanding Pseudohallucinations

      Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.

      One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.

      Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old female with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder visits her doctor to...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder visits her doctor to discuss a headache. She starts explaining her issue with the following statement:
      I came here to talk about this headache, but I can't stop thinking about the dream I had last night where I was flying over a rainbow. It's funny because I haven't eaten pizza in a week, and I really miss it.
      What sign of thought disorder is evident in the patient's speech?

      Your Answer: Knight's move

      Explanation:

      The patient’s speech is indicative of thought disorder characterized by Knight’s move thinking, where there are illogical leaps from one idea to another without any discernible links between them. This is different from flight of ideas, where there are identifiable connections between ideas. It is important to note that the patient is not exhibiting neologisms or clang associations, and their speech is not a word salad.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old man with a history of moderate depression presents to his GP...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man with a history of moderate depression presents to his GP after being prescribed a new medication by his psychiatrist. He reports experiencing a significant increase in appetite and subsequent weight gain, as well as constant fatigue and difficulty concentrating at work.
      What medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      If a patient does not respond well to initial depression treatments or experiences adverse effects from their current medication, it is common practice to switch them to a different antidepressant. In such cases, it is reasonable to assume that the patient has already been prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, making sertraline an unlikely option. Advanced treatments like lithium and carbamazepine are typically reserved for severe mood disorders and are therefore not probable in this scenario. This leaves…

      Switching Antidepressants for Depression

      When switching antidepressants for depression, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.

      When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), it is recommended to cross-taper slowly. This involves gradually reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.

      If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. Similarly, when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine, withdrawal should occur before starting venlafaxine at a low dose and increasing slowly.

      Overall, switching antidepressants for depression should be done with caution and under the guidance of a healthcare professional to ensure a safe and effective transition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - A 17-year-old male student spontaneously disrobed while watching a film. He saw wavy...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old male student spontaneously disrobed while watching a film. He saw wavy lines on the screen and then reported a brief episode of mental blankness, followed soon after by a headache and extreme fatigue.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Partial complex seizure or Focal Impaired Awareness epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Neuropsychiatric Syndromes and Seizure Disorders: Understanding the Differences

      Seizure disorders can be complex and varied, with different symptoms and causes. One type of seizure disorder is the partial complex seizure (PCS), which is confined to the limbic structures of the brain. Symptoms of PCS can include visual distortions and disruptions of cognitive function. Patients may also experience intense dysphoria, anxiety, or rage during or after a seizure. However, organised, directed violent behaviour is not typical of a seizure.

      Another type of seizure disorder is the generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy, which can cause a loss of consciousness and convulsions. Inhibition-type behaviour is not typical of this disorder, and there is no history of tonic-clonic seizure activity.

      Schizophreniform disorder is a condition that involves schizophrenic symptoms of short duration. Patients with repeated focal seizures may exhibit personality changes that closely resemble chronic schizophrenia, such as passivity, unusual sexual behaviour, anhedonia, obsessiveness, religiosity, and psychosis.

      Migraine behavioural syndrome can involve visual auras, but it is unlikely to involve bizarre behaviour such as inappropriate disrobing. Finally, exhibitionism involves attracting attention to oneself, such as compulsive exposure of genitals in public.

      Understanding the differences between these neuropsychiatric syndromes and seizure disorders is important for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - You are requested to assess a 25-year-old man who has been urgently referred...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a 25-year-old man who has been urgently referred to the Community Mental Health Team. He has recently left his job to work on 'a groundbreaking project' which he believes will eradicate world poverty. He has also been neglecting his basic needs such as eating and sleeping as he 'cannot afford to waste time on such trivialities'. Upon examination, the patient appears restless and lacks awareness of their condition. The patient has a history of depression and is currently on an antidepressant medication.

      What would be the most suitable course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Start lithium and stop antidepressant

      Correct Answer: Start antipsychotic and stop antidepressant

      Explanation:

      The appropriate management for a patient experiencing mania/hypomania while taking antidepressants is to discontinue the antidepressant and initiate antipsychotic therapy. This is because the patient’s symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur and hyperactivity, suggest an episode of mania, which requires the use of a rapidly acting antipsychotic or benzodiazepine. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is not typically used for the treatment of mania, and lithium is not the first-line treatment for acute episodes of mania. Therefore, starting antipsychotic therapy and discontinuing antidepressants is the most appropriate course of action.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for guidance. He lost his...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for guidance. He lost his wife to cancer and has been a widower for 6 months. The patient has a supportive family and is not experiencing clinical depression, but he was very emotional after his wife's passing. He occasionally feels indifferent and disheartened, but this has improved significantly over time. However, he has heard his late wife speaking to him on several occasions over the last 2 weeks. He also believed he saw her once while shopping with a friend, but he acknowledges that this is impossible. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Reassure and safety-net

      Explanation:

      It is possible for pseudo hallucinations to be a normal part of the grieving process. People who are grieving may experience hearing, seeing, or smelling their deceased loved one, especially during acute grief. This can happen at any stage of bereavement. Therefore, the patient in question can be reassured that this is a common experience.

      Since there is no evidence of an organic cause for the patient’s symptoms, it would not be appropriate to arrange blood tests or urinalysis.

      While antidepressants may be used to treat severe or atypical cases of grief, the patient is not clinically depressed and is unlikely to benefit from them. In fact, they may cause harm due to their adverse effects.

      The patient is fully aware of the situation and has insight into their condition. Therefore, there is no need for urgent psychiatric involvement or sectioning under the Mental Health Act 1983.

      Understanding Pseudohallucinations

      Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.

      One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.

      Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 31-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner 7 days after giving birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner 7 days after giving birth to her first child. The patient has been complaining of feeling ‘down’ for the last 4 or 5 days. She also describes being tearful and tired. She denies loss of interest in her hobbies, difficulty concentrating, guilt, change in appetite, sluggishness and suicidal thoughts. She also denies hallucination.
      Which of the following statements concerning this patient’s likely condition is most accurate?

      Your Answer: Her condition occurs in about 10% of women after giving birth

      Correct Answer: Her condition will probably improve within 10–14 days following birth

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mood Disorders: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Postpartum mood disorders are a common occurrence among women after giving birth. There are three main types of postpartum mood disorders: postpartum blues, postpartum depression, and postpartum psychosis.

      Postpartum blues is the mildest form and affects at least 50% of women. Symptoms include fatigue, tearfulness, and a depressed mood that develops 2-3 days after giving birth. This condition usually resolves without treatment within 10-14 days following birth.

      Postpartum depression is a more serious condition that affects about 10% of women. Patients present with at least 2 weeks of depressed mood that begins within 4 weeks of delivery. They also suffer from five of the following symptoms: change in sleep, loss of interest, guilt, decreased energy, difficulty concentrating, sluggishness, and suicidal ideation. Treatment options include antidepressants and psychotherapy.

      Postpartum psychosis is the rarest form, with an incidence rate of about 0.1%. It is characterized by hallucinations and delusions, and patients may feel suicidal or homicidal, especially towards the newborn. This condition can last 1 month or more and often requires hospitalization with anti-psychotic treatment.

      It is important to note that there is no time limit on diagnosing these conditions. If you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of a postpartum mood disorder, seek medical attention immediately. With proper treatment, these conditions can be managed effectively, and the patient can make a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner (GP) for counselling. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner (GP) for counselling. He describes being incredibly happy with his long-time girlfriend, describing how they have been together for 10 years. They go out shopping together, own a successful business together, frequently host parties and are very outgoing and popular. But when his partner brings up marriage, he convulses with fear. ‘I know it’s ridiculous, but I really think if we get married, everything will suddenly be terrible.’
      Which of the following best describes this patient?

      Your Answer: Acrophobia

      Correct Answer: Gamophobia

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Phobias and Anxiety Disorders

      Phobias and anxiety disorders are common mental health conditions that affect many people. Here are some examples of different types of phobias and anxiety disorders:

      Gamophobia: This is a specific phobia of getting married. It is commonly seen in patients in committed long-term relationships who are terrified of formalizing the relationship in marriage.

      Agoraphobia: This is a fear of being out in public. It is a fear of being in situations where escape might be difficult or that help would not be available in case of any accident.

      Algophobia: This is a fear of pain.

      Acrophobia: This is a fear of heights.

      Generalized Anxiety Disorder: This is a condition where a person experiences excessive and persistent worry and anxiety about everyday situations. However, this disorder is inconsistent with a patient who is outgoing and comfortable in public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the Outpatient clinic with complaints of involuntary muscle...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the Outpatient clinic with complaints of involuntary muscle movements of her tongue, fingers and trunk for the past 2 months. She was diagnosed with schizophrenia 10 years ago and has been on flupenthixol and then haloperidol, with good compliance. On examination, her temperature is 37.7 °C, blood pressure 115/80 mmHg and pulse 92 bpm. Her respiratory rate is 14 cycles/min. There is pronounced choreoathetoid movement of the hand and fingers.
      What is the next line of management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop the haloperidol and start olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for extrapyramidal side-effects of anti-psychotic medication

      Extrapyramidal side-effects are common with anti-psychotic medication, particularly with typical anti-psychotics such as haloperidol and chlorpromazine. Tardive dyskinesia is one such side-effect, which can be treated by switching to an atypical anti-psychotic medication like olanzapine. Acute dystonia, on the other hand, can be managed with anticholinergics. Decreasing the dose of haloperidol can help alleviate akathisia, or motor restlessness. Supportive therapy is not effective in treating extrapyramidal side-effects. It is important to monitor patients for these side-effects and adjust medication accordingly to ensure optimal treatment outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old female visits her GP due to concerns about memory loss. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old female visits her GP due to concerns about memory loss. She has been experiencing forgetfulness and absent-mindedness for the past three weeks. She cannot recall conversations that occurred earlier in the day and has forgotten to lock her front door. Additionally, she has been feeling fatigued and has lost interest in her usual activities, such as going out for walks. Living alone, she is worried about the potential risks associated with her memory loss. Although initially appearing cheerful, she becomes emotional and starts crying while discussing her symptoms. The following blood test result is obtained: TSH 2 mU/L. What is the most probable cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Depression and dementia can be distinguished based on their respective characteristics. Depression typically has a short history and a sudden onset, which can cause memory loss due to lack of concentration. Other symptoms include fatigue and loss of interest in usual activities. Hypothyroidism can be ruled out if TSH levels are normal. On the other hand, dementia progresses slowly and patients may not notice the symptoms themselves. It is usually others who notice the symptoms, and memory loss is not a concern for patients with dementia. Finally, there is no indication of bipolar disorder as there is no history of manic episodes.

      Differentiating between Depression and Dementia

      Depression and dementia are two conditions that can have similar symptoms, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, there are certain factors that can suggest a diagnosis of depression over dementia.

      One of the key factors is the duration and onset of symptoms. Depression often has a short history and a rapid onset, whereas dementia tends to develop slowly over time. Additionally, biological symptoms such as weight loss and sleep disturbance are more commonly associated with depression than dementia.

      Patients with depression may also express concern about their memory, but they are often reluctant to take tests and may be disappointed with the results. In contrast, patients with dementia may not be aware of their memory loss or may not express concern about it.

      The mini-mental test score can also be variable in patients with depression, whereas in dementia, there is typically a global memory loss, particularly in recent memory.

      In summary, while depression and dementia can have overlapping symptoms, careful consideration of the duration and onset of symptoms, biological symptoms, patient concerns, and cognitive testing can help differentiate between the two conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old woman is seen in the clinic after a recent visit to...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman is seen in the clinic after a recent visit to the psychiatrist who recommended an increase in her lithium dose for better symptom control. Her renal function is stable and you prescribe the recommended dose increase. When should her levels be re-checked?

      Your Answer: In 1 week

      Explanation:

      Lithium levels should be monitored weekly after a change in dose until they become stable. This means that after an increase in lithium dose, the levels should be checked again after one week, and then weekly until they stabilize. The ideal time to check lithium levels is 12 hours after the dose is taken. Waiting for a month after a dose adjustment is too long, while checking after three days is too soon. Once the levels become stable, they can be checked every three months for the first year. After a year, if the levels remain stable, low-risk patients can have their lithium testing reduced to every six months, according to the BNF. However, NICE guidance recommends that three-monthly testing should continue indefinitely. Additionally, patients on lithium should have their thyroid function tests monitored every six months.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - A 40-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms, including chorea, incoordination,...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms, including chorea, incoordination, personality changes and psychiatric symptoms such as depression. His father died at the age of 55. You suspect this may be a case of Huntington’s disease.
      Which of the following investigations would be the most useful to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Genetic testing

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Huntington’s Disease: Genetic Testing, CT Scan, EEG, MRI Scan, and PET Scan

      Huntington’s Disease is a genetic disorder that affects the brain, causing progressive motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. There are several investigations that can be done to confirm the diagnosis and assess disease progression.

      Genetic testing is the most useful way to confirm the diagnosis of Huntington’s Disease. A positive result consists of 40 or more CAG repeats on one of the alleles. It is important to provide genetic counselling to patients if they choose to get this test done.

      CT scans can be useful later on in the disease, showing loss of striatal volume and an increase in the size of the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles of the brain. However, these findings are not always present early on in the disease, so a CT scan would not be the most useful investigation.

      EEGs are not usually done unless another cause for the symptoms, such as epilepsy, is suspected.

      MRI scans can also show caudate or striatal atrophy. However, it is important to note that these findings are not always specific to Huntington’s Disease, making this investigation less useful.

      PET scans are not routinely done to detect Huntington’s Disease but may be used in combination with other investigations to assess disease progression. Systematic reviews have shown that when they are used, the scan results show differences in brain metabolism, dopaminergic function, and phosphodiesterase levels when assessing the progression of Huntington’s Disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - A 49-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being found wandering...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being found wandering the streets in an agitated state. His medical history includes hepatic steatosis, hypertension, and asthma, and he regularly takes amlodipine and Symbicort. He drinks up to 1 liter of vodka daily and has smoked for 30 years. He has not been seen by his family for 2-3 days before these events. His vital signs are heart rate 111 beats per minute, blood pressure 170/94 mmHg, respiratory rate 23 /min, oxygen saturations 97% on air, and temperature 37.2ºC. He is tremulous, diaphoretic, and agitated. Shortly after examination, he has a self-terminating seizure lasting 30 seconds. Blood tests and a CT head are performed, with the latter being reported as normal. What is the best medication choice to prevent further seizures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Chlordiazepoxide is the preferred medication for treating delirium tremens and alcohol withdrawal, not diazepam. Symptoms of minor alcohol withdrawal, such as tremors, anxiety, and headaches, typically appear 6-12 hours after alcohol cessation and can progress to alcoholic hallucinosis, withdrawal seizures, and delirium tremens. Delirium tremens and alcohol withdrawal seizures are treated with chlordiazepoxide as the first-line medication. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol (CIWA) score is used to manage alcohol withdrawal in hospital, with benzodiazepines being administered based on the score. Intravenous glucose, intravenous hypertonic saline, and intravenous levetiracetam are not appropriate treatments for delirium tremens and alcohol withdrawal.

      Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.

      Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.

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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with concerns about recurring...

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    • A 28-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with concerns about recurring thoughts. He has been experiencing thoughts of needing to repeatedly check that his car is locked when leaving it, even though he knows he locked it. Sometimes he feels the need to physically check the car, but other times it is just thoughts. He denies any symptoms of depression or psychosis and has no significant medical or family history. He is not taking any medications. What is the recommended first-line treatment for his likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exposure and response prevention

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for a patient with OCD is exposure and response prevention, which involves exposing them to anxiety-inducing situations (such as having dirty hands) and preventing them from engaging in their usual compulsive behaviors. This therapy is effective in breaking the cycle of obsessive thoughts and compulsive actions.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.

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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old trans woman visits her primary care physician after experiencing a sexual...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old trans woman visits her primary care physician after experiencing a sexual assault by a coworker at her workplace two weeks ago. She has been suffering from persistent flashbacks, nightmares, and dissociation since the incident, which has affected her sleep and caused her to take a two-week leave from work. What would be the optimal initial treatment for her likely diagnosis, if it were readily accessible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      For individuals experiencing distressing symptoms following a traumatic event, such as the woman in this scenario, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) should be the first-line treatment for acute stress disorders. This type of therapy involves a highly trained therapist exploring the thoughts surrounding the traumatic event and linking them to behaviours or symptoms that may be developing as a result. The goal is to give control back to the individual over their thoughts and behaviours.

      Counselling is not appropriate for acute stress disorders, as it involves a counsellor listening and empathising with the individual, but taking less control over the conversation than a therapist would. Counselling may even be harmful, as it may exacerbate negative thoughts by exploring the trauma in an uncontrolled way.

      Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy is not appropriate for acute stress disorders, as it is the first-line treatment for post-traumatic stress disorder, which cannot be diagnosed until 4 weeks after the event. This type of therapy involves reprocessing thoughts of the trauma with the goal of eventually letting them go.

      Interpersonal therapy is not appropriate for acute stress disorders, as it is intended to address longer-term, deep-rooted thoughts related to relationships with others.

      Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy is not appropriate for acute stress disorders, as there is no evidence that mindfulness alone is enough to deal with severe reactions to trauma.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.

      To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.

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  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old woman is in a car accident. Another car collided with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is in a car accident. Another car collided with a truck and she swerved to avoid them, hitting a tree. Two weeks later, she still experiences flashbacks, nightmares, and difficulty sleeping. Her brother reports that she startles easily and seems disoriented at times. The woman denies any chest pain or dizziness.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute stress reaction

      Explanation:

      Acute stress disorder refers to a reaction to a traumatic event that occurs within four weeks, as opposed to PTSD which is diagnosed after this time frame. Symptoms may include negative mood, dissociation, and avoidance.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.

      To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.

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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old man comes to you seeking help as he feels like he...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to you seeking help as he feels like he is not himself lately. He has been struggling since his divorce 8 months ago. For the past 5 weeks, he has been experiencing low moods for most of the day, particularly in the mornings when he wakes up early. He has lost interest in his usual hobbies, including going to the gym. He has not been to any of his regular workout classes. He has had thoughts of taking a bottle of pills to end it all, but he knows he won't do it because he has a supportive family. He has no significant medical or psychiatric history.

      Which of the following treatments would be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Depression: Choosing the Right Antidepressant

      Depression is a serious mental health condition that requires a comprehensive treatment plan. Antidepressants are often prescribed as part of this plan, along with high-intensity psychological interventions like cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT). However, not all antidepressants are created equal. Here are some of the most commonly used antidepressants and their indications:

      Fluoxetine: This selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) is the most suitable first-line treatment for depression due to its efficacy, patient acceptability, and lower toxicity in overdose.

      Imipramine: This tricyclic antidepressant is not usually used as a first-line treatment for depression but has a role in nocturnal enuresis.

      Lithium: While lithium has antidepressant properties, it is not a first-line treatment for unipolar depression due to its side-effects and the need for blood monitoring. It is commonly used in the treatment of bipolar affective disorder.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT): ECT is reserved for more severe depression where there is an immediate risk to life or where other treatments have been ineffective.

      Phenelzine: This monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) is not commonly used as a first-line treatment for depression but is helpful in treatment-resistant depression.

      It’s important to work closely with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment plan for your individual needs. Antidepressants may take several weeks to take effect, and patients should be aware of potential side-effects and the importance of adhering to their medication regimen.

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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old with a long standing history of schizophrenia presents to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old with a long standing history of schizophrenia presents to the emergency department in status epilepticus. After receiving treatment, he informs the physician that he has been experiencing frequent seizures lately.
      Which medication is the most probable cause of his seizures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Seizures are more likely to occur with the use of clozapine due to its ability to lower the seizure threshold. This is a known side-effect of the atypical antipsychotic, which is commonly prescribed for treatment resistant schizophrenia.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

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  • Question 22 - A 63-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with stiffness in his muscles,...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with stiffness in his muscles, difficulty initiating movements such as getting up from a chair, slow movements and hand shaking, which started 5 weeks ago. He has a medical history of schizophrenia and has had good compliance with his medication for the past 3 months. He is taking haloperidol. On examination, his temperature is 37.5 °C, blood pressure 120/81 mmHg and pulse 98 bpm. On examination, there is decreased facial expression, pill-rolling tremor, cogwheel rigidity and festinating gait.
      Which of the following terms describes the symptoms of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bradykinesia

      Explanation:

      Common Neurological Side Effects of Medications

      Medications can sometimes cause neurological side effects that mimic symptoms of neurological disorders. One such side effect is called pseudo-parkinsonism, which is characterized by bradykinesia or slowness in movements. This can be caused by typical and atypical antipsychotic medication, anti-emetics like metoclopramide, and some calcium channel blockers like cinnarizine.

      Another side effect is acute dystonia, which is the sudden and sustained contraction of muscles in any part of the body, usually following the administration of a neuroleptic agent. Akathisia is another symptom associated with antipsychotic use, which is characterized by restlessness and the inability to remain motionless.

      Tardive dyskinesia is a neurological side effect that is characterized by involuntary muscle movements, usually affecting the tongue, lips, trunk, and extremities. This is seen in patients who are on long-term anti-dopaminergic medication such as antipsychotic medication (both typical and atypical), some antidepressants, metoclopramide, prochlorperazine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and others.

      Finally, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a life-threatening condition associated with the use of antipsychotic medication. It is characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, changes in level of consciousness, and autonomic instability. Management is supportive, and symptoms generally resolve within 1-2 weeks.

      Understanding the Neurological Side Effects of Medications

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  • Question 23 - A father is concerned about his 19 year-old daughter, who has recently become...

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    • A father is concerned about his 19 year-old daughter, who has recently become more reclusive and spends most days in her bedroom. She has stopped socialising with friends and has dropped out of college. She has also removed all the mirrors in her room as she believes that people are spying on her through the mirrors. The father's sister has had schizophrenia in the past, and he is worried that his daughter is showing very similar symptoms.
      Which of the following statements best characterises the aetiology of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Approximately 20 million people worldwide are reported to have schizophrenia with a prevalence of up to 1%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Schizophrenia: Genetic and Environmental Factors

      Schizophrenia is a complex mental illness that affects approximately 20 million people worldwide, with a prevalence of up to 1%. While there is clear evidence of a genetic predisposition to the disease, the heterogeneity of schizophrenia has presented a major challenge to medical research, resulting in a variety of explanatory hypotheses and controversies.

      Studies have shown that monozygotic twins have an 85% concordance for schizophrenia, while dizygotic twins have a concordance of 50%. This suggests a significant genetic contribution to the illness, but also implies that non-genetic factors may be necessary for full expression of the disease.

      Neurodevelopmental trauma has been linked to an increased risk of schizophrenia, but there is also evidence that family variables can exacerbate the illness. Adoption studies have shown that family environment does not cause schizophrenia, but patients who live in families where they are criticised and treated with hostility by an over-involved parent have higher rates of relapse and greater need for anti-psychotic medication.

      Overall, understanding the genetic and environmental factors that contribute to schizophrenia is crucial for developing effective treatments and interventions for those affected by this debilitating illness.

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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman confides in you that she experienced childhood sexual abuse. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman confides in you that she experienced childhood sexual abuse. Which one of the following features is not a characteristic feature of post-traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of inhibitions

      Explanation:

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.

      It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.

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  • Question 25 - A 26-year-old male comes to his doctor's office at the request of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male comes to his doctor's office at the request of his friends. Upon examination, he discloses that he thinks everyone can hear his thoughts, as if he were a radio station, and that he hears voices commenting on his actions. The doctor observes that he has a blunted affect, alogia, and avolition. Additionally, the doctor notes that the patient repeats the final word of any inquiry posed to him.

      What term describes this phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echolalia

      Explanation:

      Echolalia is when someone repeats the speech of another person, including any questions asked. This is often seen in individuals with schizophrenia, particularly catatonic schizophrenia, which is characterized by negative symptoms such as a lack of emotional expression, poverty of speech, and poor motivation. The patient in question exhibits two of Schneider’s first-rank symptoms: thought broadcasting and third-person auditory hallucinations, and is therefore diagnosable with schizophrenia. Copropraxia refers to the involuntary performance of obscene or forbidden gestures or inappropriate touching, while echopraxia involves the meaningless repetition or imitation of others’ movements. Finally, a neologism is a word that has been made up.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

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  • Question 26 - A 16-year-old boy is referred by his general practitioner (GP). He was brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is referred by his general practitioner (GP). He was brought in by his parents after he had attempted to set fire to his room. His parents reported that, over the past two months, they have noticed that the patient appears withdrawn and has been spending a lot of time in his room. He will not let anyone in his room and has also blocked the view from his windows using aluminium foil.
      At the clinic, he accused the GP of being one of the police agents sent to spy on him. He has also lost significant weight, and his parents report that his mood seems to be quite low on some days. The patient has no insight into his current condition and says that his room needs to be burnt down to destroy the surveillance devices installed by the police. The patient denies drug use, but his father confirms that he has once seen his son smoking what he suspected was an illicit drug in the backyard.
      The GP refers the patient to a psychiatric hospital, and the doctors there explain to the parents that it is in the patient’s best interests to be kept in hospital for assessment for a maximum of 28 days.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate Section to be used for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Section 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Sections of the Mental Health Act

      The Mental Health Act provides legal frameworks for the assessment, treatment, and care of individuals with mental health illnesses. There are several sections under the Act that allow for patients to be detained in hospital for assessment or treatment. It is important to understand these sections and their limitations.

      Section 2 is used to keep a patient in hospital for assessment for up to 28 days. This section is used when a patient is at risk of harming themselves or others and there is a suspicion of a psychiatric illness or drug misuse.

      Section 5(2) allows doctors to keep a patient in hospital for at least 72 hours when Section 2 or 3 cannot be used. However, it cannot be extended, and arrangements should be made for Section 2 or 3 if the patient is to be kept longer in hospital.

      Section 4 is used in emergencies and allows for a patient to be kept in hospital for 72 hours. This section can be used by only one doctor when finding another doctor to use Section 5(2), 2 or 3 would cause delay, which is not in the patient’s best interests.

      Section 3 can be used to keep a patient in hospital for treatment for up to six months. The patient can also be discharged earlier if the doctor thinks the patient is well enough. However, if necessary, it can be extended for another six months, and then after that for one year for each renewal.

      Finally, Section 5(4) can be used by mental health or learning disability nurses to keep a patient in hospital for a maximum of six hours. This section is used when a doctor cannot be found for Section 5(2) to be used. However, it cannot be extended, and arrangements should be made for Section 2 or 3 if the patient is to be kept longer in hospital.

      It is important to note that these sections should only be used when necessary and in the best interests of the patient. The Mental Health Act also provides safeguards and rights for patients, including the right to appeal against detention.

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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of severe dyspareunia...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of severe dyspareunia and loss of libido that has been ongoing for the past year. She has already been evaluated by a gynaecologist and discharged as all her tests were normal. She has undergone a pelvic ultrasound, laparoscopy, and blood tests for LH/FSH and TFTs, as well as low vaginal and endocervical swabs. She reports no symptoms of depression or anxiety and maintains a healthy lifestyle with regular exercise, good sleep, and a balanced diet. She denies any substance abuse. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for psychosexual counselling

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Female Sexual Dysfunction

      Psychosexual counselling, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants are all potential treatment options for female sexual dysfunction. However, each option should be carefully considered based on the individual’s symptoms and medical history.

      Psychosexual counselling is recommended when there are no physical causes for sexual difficulties. CBT may be appropriate for patients displaying signs of anxiety or depression. The COCP may worsen poor libido and is not without risks. HRT is not indicated for non-menopausal patients. SSRIs can cause loss of libido and are not recommended unless there are symptoms of depression. It is important to discuss all options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.

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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old male with bipolar disorder is currently under the care of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male with bipolar disorder is currently under the care of his psychiatrist as an outpatient. During the review, the psychiatrist observes that the patient's speech mostly follows a logical sequence, but at times, the patient uses a seemingly inappropriate series of rhyming words. For instance, when asked about his activities the previous day, he responded, I went for a run, had some fun, saw the sun, and then I was done.

      What is the most appropriate term to describe the speech abnormality exhibited by the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clanging

      Explanation:

      Language Disturbances in Mental Illness

      Clanging, echolalia, neologism, perseveration, and word salad are all language disturbances that may occur in individuals with mental illness. Clanging is the use of words that sound similar but are not related in meaning. This is often seen in individuals experiencing mania or psychosis. Echolalia is the repetition of words or phrases spoken by others. Neologism is the creation of new words that are not part of standard language. Perseveration is the repetition of a word or activity beyond what is appropriate. Finally, word salad is a completely disorganized speech that is not understandable.

      These language disturbances can be indicative of underlying mental illness and can be used as diagnostic criteria. It is important for mental health professionals to be aware of these language disturbances and to assess their presence in patients. Treatment for these language disturbances may involve medication, therapy, or a combination of both. By addressing these language disturbances, individuals with mental illness may be better able to communicate and function in their daily lives.

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  • Question 29 - A very thin 20-year-old woman is referred for evaluation of weight loss. Anorexia...

    Incorrect

    • A very thin 20-year-old woman is referred for evaluation of weight loss. Anorexia nervosa is suspected, but various screening tests are conducted to confirm the diagnosis. Which of the following findings would support the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low white cell count

      Explanation:

      Biochemical and Haematological Abnormalities in Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is a condition that can lead to a wide range of biochemical and haematological abnormalities. These abnormalities include hypokalaemia and hypochloraemic alkalosis, which are caused by vomiting and/or diuretic/laxative abuse. Additionally, hypercholesterolaemia is often present in individuals with anorexia nervosa, although the mechanism behind this is not yet fully understood.

      When it comes to haematological abnormalities, the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is typically normal or reduced in individuals with anorexia nervosa. Furthermore, the white cell count may be low. These abnormalities can have serious consequences for individuals with anorexia nervosa, and it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of them in order to provide appropriate treatment and care.

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  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old woman is brought to your office by her brother. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is brought to your office by her brother. He is concerned about her lack of close friends and her eccentric behavior, speech, and beliefs. The patient believes she has psychic abilities and is fascinated with the paranormal. Her brother reports that she has displayed these behaviors since childhood, but he is only seeking help now as he is moving to another state and worries about how she will manage alone with their parents. What personality disorder might this patient have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Individuals with schizotypal personality disorder exhibit peculiar behavior, speech, and beliefs and typically do not have any close friends outside of their family.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (10/15) 67%
Passmed