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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old woman presents after collapsing at home. She has diplopia on right...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents after collapsing at home. She has diplopia on right gaze, right-sided facial weakness and left flaccid hemiparesis.
      Which of the following is the most likely site for her lesion?

      Your Answer: Right pons

      Explanation:

      Lesions in different areas of the brainstem can cause specific neurological symptoms. A lesion in the right pons can result in left-sided weakness, right-sided facial paralysis, and double vision when looking towards the lesion. This is known as Millard-Gubler syndrome and is caused by a blockage in the penetrating branches of the basilar artery. A lesion in the right midbrain can affect cranial nerves III and IV, while a lesion in the left midbrain can cause contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral hypoglossal nerve palsy, and ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy. A lesion in the left pons can cause contralateral hemiparesis, ipsilateral lateral gaze palsy, and ipsilateral paralysis of the upper and lower face. Lesions in the cerebral hemisphere produce purely contralateral and upper motor neuron signs. The insertion site, cranial nerves, and skull base associated with each area of the brainstem are also important to consider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old man with a known history of mixed type dementia (Alzheimer's and...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man with a known history of mixed type dementia (Alzheimer's and vascular) is evaluated in memory clinic due to a recent decline in his memory and cognition. His mini-mental state score is 12 and he is started on memantine. What is the mechanism of action of memantine?

      Your Answer: NMDA antagonist

      Explanation:

      Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is not a cholinesterase inhibitor like donepezil and rivastigmine. While memantine does act at the serotonin and dopamine receptors, it acts as an antagonist and agonist respectively, rather than the options given.

      Managing Alzheimer’s Disease: Non-Pharmacological and Pharmacological Approaches

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. To manage this condition, there are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches available.

      Non-pharmacological management involves offering a range of activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy is recommended for patients with mild to moderate dementia, while group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation are also options to consider.

      Pharmacological management involves the use of medications. The three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine) are options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is considered a second-line treatment and is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.

      When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.

      It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. By utilizing both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches, patients with Alzheimer’s disease can receive comprehensive care and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 18-year-old woman presents to her GP with painful lumps in her neck...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old woman presents to her GP with painful lumps in her neck that appeared two days ago. She also reports a sore throat and fever. Upon examination, she has tender, enlarged, smooth masses on both sides. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lipoma

      Correct Answer: Reactive lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Neck Lumps: Causes and Characteristics

      When a patient presents with a neck lump, it is important to consider the possible causes and characteristics to determine the appropriate course of action. In this case, the patient’s sore throat and fever suggest a throat infection, which has resulted in reactive lymphadenopathy. This is a common cause of neck lump presentations in primary care.

      Other possible causes of neck lumps include goitre, which is a painless mass in the midline of the throat that is not associated with fever and may be functional if accompanied by hyperthyroidism. An abscess could also present as a painful neck lump, but the history of a sore throat and bilateral swelling make this less likely.

      Branchial cysts are smooth, soft masses in the lateral neck that are usually benign and congenital in origin. Lipomas, on the other hand, are lumps caused by the accumulation of soft, fatty deposits under the skin and do not typically present with systemic features.

      In summary, understanding the characteristics and possible causes of neck lumps can aid in the diagnosis and management of patients presenting with this symptom.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of urinary frequency, dysuria,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of urinary frequency, dysuria, suprapubic pain and back pain. The symptoms have been getting worse over the past 48 hours. During examination, she is febrile and tachycardic. She has no history of urinary infections.
      What is the most suitable investigation to arrange for this patient next?
      Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Urinary microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate investigation to arrange for a patient presenting with symptoms suggestive of a urinary tract infection or pyelonephritis is urinary microscopy and culture. It is important to obtain a sample before starting empirical antibiotics to guide subsequent antibiotic choice if the initial course is ineffective. While genital swabs may be useful if there is a history of sexually transmitted infection, they are not as important as urine culture in this situation. Cystoscopy and ultrasound scans of the abdomen may be useful in other situations, but are not urgently indicated in this case. Similarly, a CTKUB would not be useful in investigating the cause of the infection, which can be determined through urine culture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dysuria and increased urinary...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dysuria and increased urinary frequency. She is in good health otherwise and does not show any signs of sepsis. During a urine dip test at the doctor's office, blood, leukocytes, protein, and nitrites are detected. The patient has a medical history of asthma, which she manages with salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers, hypertension, which she treats with amlodipine 10mg daily and ramipril 5mg daily, and stage 3 chronic kidney disease. Which antibiotic should be avoided when treating this patient's urinary tract infection?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      When prescribing antibiotics for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), it is important to consider the patient’s level of renal function. Nitrofurantoin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat urinary tract infections, should be avoided in patients with CKD stage 3 or higher due to the risk of treatment failure and potential side effects caused by drug accumulation. Nitrofurantoin requires adequate glomerular filtration to be effective, and an eGFR of less than 40-60ml/min means the drug is unlikely to work. Additionally, nitrofurantoin can cause side effects such as peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity, and pulmonary reactions and fibrosis, particularly in patients with impaired renal function. Amoxicillin and co-amoxiclav are safer options for patients with CKD, although dose reduction may be necessary in severe cases. Ciprofloxacin also requires dose reduction in CKD to avoid crystalluria. Patients taking nitrofurantoin should be aware that the drug may cause urine discoloration, and it is generally safe to use during pregnancy except at full term.

      Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure

      When it comes to prescribing medication for patients with renal failure, it is important to be aware of which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin should be avoided, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin. These drugs can potentially harm the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.

      On the other hand, some drugs can be used with dose adjustment. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as medications like digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, furosemide, and opioids, may require a lower dose in patients with chronic kidney disease. It is important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose as needed.

      Finally, there are some drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics like erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as medications like diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease. However, it is still important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose if necessary.

      In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits of each drug. By avoiding certain drugs, adjusting doses of others, and monitoring patients closely, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and effectiveness of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old woman presents with bilateral hearing loss and tinnitus for several months....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with bilateral hearing loss and tinnitus for several months. Her mother and brother had similar issues. Ear examination reveals no abnormalities. An audiometry test indicates bilateral conductive hearing loss.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hearing Loss and Their Characteristics

      Hearing loss can be caused by various factors, including genetic factors, abnormal bone formation, and tumors. Here are some common causes of hearing loss and their characteristics:

      1. Otosclerosis: This condition affects young adults and causes conductive deafness. It is caused by abnormal bone formation around the base of the stapes, which eventually fuses with the bone of the cochlea, reducing normal sound transmission.

      2. Glue ear: This is a type of conductive hearing loss that is more common in children. There is no evidence of ear examination, but it can cause hearing difficulties.

      3. Meniere’s disease: This is a sensorineural type of hearing loss that is usually accompanied by vertigo and a sensation of fullness or pressure in the ear.

      4. Presbycusis: This is a sensorineural hearing loss that is associated with aging. Audiometry should show a bilateral high-frequency hearing loss.

      5. Vestibular schwannomas: This is a benign primary intracranial tumor that affects the vestibulocochlear nerve. It commonly presents with unilateral hearing loss and can affect the facial nerve causing facial palsy as well.

      Understanding the characteristics of these common causes of hearing loss can help in early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old medical student noticed that he had a murmur when he tested...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old medical student noticed that he had a murmur when he tested his new stethoscope. On assessment in the Cardiology Clinic, he was found to have a harsh systolic murmur over his precordium, which did not change with inspiration. His electrocardiogram (ECG) showed features of biventricular hypertrophy.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

      Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and their Characteristics

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here are some common heart murmurs and their characteristics:

      1. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD): This has a pansystolic murmur, heard loudest at the lower left sternal edge and causing biventricular hypertrophy due to increased strain on both the right and left ventricles.

      2. Mitral Regurgitation: This has a pansystolic murmur which is heard loudest at the apex and radiates to the axilla; it is louder on expiration. The ECG can show left ventricular and left atrial enlargement.

      3. Aortic Stenosis: This causes a crescendo-decrescendo murmur, heard loudest in the aortic area and radiating to the carotids. It (and all other left-sided murmurs) is louder on expiration.

      4. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM): HCM has an early peaking systolic murmur which is worse on Valsalva and reduced on squatting. It is also associated with a jerky pulse. The ECG would show left ventricular hypertrophy.

      5. Tricuspid Regurgitation: This has a pansystolic murmur and a brief rumbling diastolic murmur; these are louder on inspiration. The ECG may show right ventricular enlargement.

      It is important to note that right-sided murmurs increase with inspiration (e.g. tricuspid regurgitation or TR), whereas left-sided murmurs show no change. The clue to diagnosis is in the ECG finding. Aortic stenosis and mitral regurgitation produce left ventricular hypertrophy; TR produces right ventricular hypertrophy and a VSD produces biventricular hypertrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is not a characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.

      Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.

      The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - For what has the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommended...

    Correct

    • For what has the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommended the use of varenicline?

      Your Answer: Smoking cessation (cigarettes)

      Explanation:

      The Use of Varenicline in Smoking Cessation and Other Substance Withdrawals

      Varenicline, marketed as Champix®, is a medication used in combination with motivational support to aid smoking cessation. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends offering varenicline or nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) to all smokers, along with advice and encouragement to quit. The choice of therapy depends on factors such as the smoker’s compliance, availability of counseling and support, previous experience with cessation aids, contraindications, and personal preference. However, varenicline use has been associated with changes in behavior and thinking, anxiety, psychosis, mood swings, depression, and suicidal ideation, so monitoring is advised.

      While varenicline is not currently indicated for cannabis cessation, some studies suggest that it may reduce the enjoyment reported from using cannabis, which could lead to further investigation in this area. However, varenicline has no role in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal, and the FDA has warned that people taking varenicline should reduce their alcohol intake due to the potential for unusual behavior, including aggression. The use of varenicline for opioid withdrawal in patients with chronic pain is also under investigation but is not currently recommended. Finally, varenicline is not indicated for cocaine cessation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 63-year-old man visits his doctor with a persistent cough that has lasted...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man visits his doctor with a persistent cough that has lasted for 5 weeks. He reports coughing up smelly, green phlegm and experiencing night sweats, left-sided chest pain, and occasional fevers. He denies any weight loss. During the examination, the lower left lung is dull to percussion with low-pitched bronchial breath sounds, and he has a temperature of 38.2°C. The patient has not traveled recently or had any contact with sick individuals. The doctor notes that he was treated for pneumonia 7 weeks ago. What is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Lung abscess

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is lung abscess, as they are presenting with a subacute productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, and night sweats. The duration of a cough can be categorized as acute, subacute, or chronic, and this patient falls under the subacute category. The patient’s recent history of aspiration pneumonia and examination findings, such as dullness on percussion, bronchial breath sounds, and fever, support the diagnosis of lung abscess.

      Lung cancer is not the most likely diagnosis for this patient, as they do not have weight loss and have other findings that point towards lung abscess. Pulmonary fibrosis is also unlikely, as it is rare to have unilateral pulmonary fibrosis, and the patient’s examination findings do not support this diagnosis. Recurrent pneumonia is a good differential, but the presence of bronchial breath sounds and night sweats make lung abscess a more likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Lung Abscess

      A lung abscess is a localized infection that occurs within the lung tissue. It is commonly caused by aspiration pneumonia, which can be triggered by poor dental hygiene, reduced consciousness, or previous stroke. Other potential causes include haematogenous spread, direct extension, and bronchial obstruction. The infection is typically polymicrobial, with Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumonia, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa being the most common monomicrobial causes.

      The symptoms of lung abscess are similar to pneumonia, but they tend to develop more slowly over several weeks. Patients may experience fever, productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, chest pain, and dyspnea. Some may also have systemic features such as night sweats and weight loss, while a minority may experience haemoptysis. Physical examination may reveal dull percussion and bronchial breathing, as well as clubbing in some cases.

      To diagnose lung abscess, a chest x-ray is usually performed, which shows a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation. Sputum and blood cultures should also be obtained to identify the causative organism. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics, but if the infection does not resolve, percutaneous drainage or surgical resection may be required in rare cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      2.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (2/2) 100%
ENT (1/2) 50%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Medicine (1/1) 100%
Passmed