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  • Question 1 - At her booking appointment, a 29-year-old pregnant woman reports a history of pre-eclampsia...

    Incorrect

    • At her booking appointment, a 29-year-old pregnant woman reports a history of pre-eclampsia in her previous pregnancy. To decrease the risk of intrauterine growth retardation, what medication should be initiated at 12-14 weeks gestation?

      Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin

      Correct Answer: Low dose aspirin

      Explanation:

      What is the effectiveness of secondary prevention measures for women with pre-eclampsia? A-level research has shown that low-dose aspirin, when started at 12-14 weeks’ gestation, is more effective than a placebo in reducing the occurrence of pre-eclampsia in high-risk women. This treatment also reduces perinatal mortality and the risk of babies being born small for gestational age. While low molecular weight heparin may reduce placental insufficiency in pre-eclampsia, there is currently a lack of long-term safety studies. Labetalol and methyldopa are commonly used antihypertensive drugs for acute management of pre-eclampsia, but they are not given prophylactically and do not reduce intrauterine growth retardation. Unfractionated heparin has also not been proven to prevent the development of uteroplacental insufficiency.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A typically healthy 44-year-old man is hospitalized with T11/12 discitis that is complicated...

    Incorrect

    • A typically healthy 44-year-old man is hospitalized with T11/12 discitis that is complicated by a T4 to L1 epidural abscess and a left psoas abscess. Following surgery to drain the abscesses, laboratory cultures reveal the presence of Staphylococcus aureus. Furthermore, blood cultures taken upon admission grow Staphylococcus aureus after 72 hours. What is the most suitable initial investigation to identify the source of the infection, given the pathogenic organism detected?

      Your Answer: CT head with contrast

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      In cases of discitis caused by Staphylococcus, an echocardiogram is necessary to check for endocarditis. Staphylococcus aureus is a highly aggressive pathogen that can spread throughout the body when it enters the bloodstream. In cases of deep abscesses caused by Staphylococcus aureus, a haematogenous source of spread should be investigated, with septic emboli from endocarditis being the most common cause. An echocardiogram is necessary to check for valvular injury or vegetations in all cases of Staphylococcus aureus-positive cultures. CT imaging is useful in identifying other abscesses and foci of infection, but is unlikely to identify a primary source of haematogenous spread. HIV testing is recommended for patients with Staphylococcus aureus sepsis, but it would not identify the primary source of bacteraemia. Midstream urine is not a reliable test for identifying a primary source of Staphylococcus aureus infection. The Duke’s Criteria for Endocarditis can be used to diagnose bacterial endocarditis, with a positive blood culture for a typical organism being one major criterion. Treatment for complicated discitis typically lasts for 6-12 weeks, with the first two weeks requiring intravenous treatment. If endocarditis is diagnosed, the length of intravenous therapy and overall treatment time may be altered.

      Understanding Discitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Discitis is a condition characterized by an infection in the intervertebral disc space, which can lead to serious complications such as sepsis or an epidural abscess. The most common cause of discitis is bacterial, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most frequent culprit. However, it can also be caused by viral or aseptic factors. The symptoms of discitis include back pain, pyrexia, rigors, and sepsis. In some cases, neurological features such as changing lower limb neurology may occur if an epidural abscess develops.

      To diagnose discitis, imaging tests such as MRI are used due to their high sensitivity. A CT-guided biopsy may also be required to guide antimicrobial treatment. The standard therapy for discitis involves six to eight weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The choice of antibiotic depends on various factors, with the most important being the identification of the organism through a positive culture, such as a blood culture or CT-guided biopsy.

      Complications of discitis include sepsis and epidural abscess. Therefore, it is essential to assess the patient for endocarditis, which can be done through transthoracic echo or transesophageal echo. Discitis is usually due to haematogenous seeding of the vertebrae, which implies that the patient has had a bacteraemia, and seeding could have occurred elsewhere. Understanding the causes, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of discitis is crucial in managing this condition and preventing its complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis. Upon reviewing his...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis. Upon reviewing his medical history, it is discovered that he has been taking dabigatran since being diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. Due to the severity of the bleeding, it is necessary to reverse the effects of the anticoagulant. What medication is used for this purpose?

      Your Answer: Vitamin K

      Correct Answer: Idarucizumab

      Explanation:

      Understanding Direct Oral Anticoagulants

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used for various indications such as preventing stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation, preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) after hip or knee surgery, and treating deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention in non-valvular AF, certain risk factors must be present, such as prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 years or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure.

      There are four DOACs available, namely dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban, which differ in their mechanism of action and excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of dabigatran is excreted through the kidneys, while rivaroxaban is metabolized in the liver, and apixaban and edoxaban are excreted through the feces.

      In terms of reversal agents, idarucizumab is available for dabigatran, while andexanet alfa is available for rivaroxaban and apixaban. However, there is currently no authorized reversal agent for edoxaban, although andexanet alfa has been studied. Understanding the differences between DOACs is important for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old woman complains of bloating and abdominal pain that has been ongoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman complains of bloating and abdominal pain that has been ongoing for the past 6 months. Which of the following symptoms is not typically associated with a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?

      Your Answer: Feeling of incomplete stool evacuation

      Correct Answer: Weight loss

      Explanation:

      Exclusion of underlying malignancy or inflammatory bowel disease is necessary as weight loss is not a characteristic of IBS.

      Diagnosis and Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects many people. In 2008, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published clinical guidelines on the diagnosis and management of IBS. According to these guidelines, a positive diagnosis of IBS should be considered if the patient has had abdominal pain, bloating, or a change in bowel habit for at least six months. Additionally, a positive diagnosis should be made if the patient has abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency stool form, in addition to two of the following four symptoms: altered stool passage, abdominal bloating, symptoms made worse by eating, and passage of mucus. Other features such as lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms may also support the diagnosis.

      It is important to note that red flag features should be enquired about, including rectal bleeding, unexplained/unintentional weight loss, family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and onset after 60 years of age. Primary care investigations such as a full blood count, ESR/CRP, and coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies) are suggested. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively diagnose and manage IBS in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 21-year-old student is brought by his flatmates to the University Health Service...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old student is brought by his flatmates to the University Health Service with headache, neck stiffness and a petechial rash. There is a history of infection with Neisseria meningitidis four and ten years earlier. He is immediately referred to the local general hospital.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 310 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 190 ÎŒmol/l 50–120 ÎŒmol/l
      Lumbar puncture: neutrophils +++
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Membrane attack complex (MAC) formation deficiency

      Explanation:

      Overview of Complement Deficiencies and Associated Infections

      Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) Formation Deficiency
      MAC is the final stage of complement activation that leads to the formation of a hole in the bacterial cell membrane, causing cell lysis. Patients with MAC formation deficiency are prone to recurrent bacterial infections, particularly with Neisseria meningitidis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

      C1 Deficiency
      Deficiencies of components of the classical pathway (C1, C2, and C4) are associated with immune complex diseases such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and an increased risk for bacterial infection. C2 deficiency is associated with an increased risk for bacterial infection, while C3 deficiency increases the risk for infections by encapsulated organisms (e.g., pneumococci, Haemophilus, and meningococci).

      C2 Deficiency
      Deficiencies of components of the classical pathway (C1, C2, and C4) are associated with immune complex diseases such as SLE and an increased risk for bacterial infection. C2 deficiency is associated with an increased risk for bacterial infection, while C3 deficiency increases the risk for infections by encapsulated organisms (e.g., pneumococci, Haemophilus, and meningococci).

      C4 Deficiency
      Deficiencies of components of the classical pathway (C1, C2, and C4) are associated with immune complex diseases such as SLE and an increased risk for bacterial infection. C2 deficiency is associated with an increased risk for bacterial infection, while C3 deficiency increases the risk for infections by encapsulated organisms (e.g., pneumococci, Haemophilus, and meningococci).

      Immunoglobulin A (IgA) Deficiency
      IgA deficiency results in autoimmune diseases, respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, and gastrointestinal infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old man presents to his GP with a nodular change on his...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to his GP with a nodular change on his back. He complains that it has become itchy and bleeding over the past two months. On examination, it appears black and blue in colour with a slightly irregular border.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Malignant melanoma

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Lesions and Malignancies: Types and Characteristics

      Skin lesions and malignancies are common conditions that affect people of all ages. Among the most prevalent types are malignant melanoma, actinic keratosis, guttate psoriasis, lentigo maligna, and seborrhoeic keratosis. Each of these conditions has distinct characteristics that can help in their diagnosis and management.

      Malignant Melanoma: This is a type of skin cancer that arises from melanocytes in the skin. It can present as a black or brown lesion with asymmetrical shape, irregular border, multiple colors, and diameter greater than 6mm. Any change in size, shape, color, or symptoms such as bleeding or itching should be evaluated promptly.

      Actinic Keratosis: This is a sun-induced lesion that can become malignant. It appears as a scaly or hyperkeratotic lesion with a brown or hyperpigmented base. It commonly occurs on the head, neck, forearms, and hands.

      Guttate Psoriasis: This is a skin condition that causes multiple lesions. It can present as scaly, hyperpigmented, or scaly lesions that are usually brown with a scaly base.

      Lentigo Maligna: This is an early form of melanoma that is confined to the epidermis. It presents as a slowly growing or changing patch of discolored skin that resembles freckles or brown marks. It can grow to several centimeters over several years or decades.

      Seborrhoeic Keratosis: This is a harmless, pigmented growth that commonly occurs with age. It appears as a raised, often pigmented lesion that rarely causes bleeding.

      In summary, skin lesions and malignancies can have various presentations and characteristics. It is important to be aware of their features and seek medical attention if any changes or symptoms occur. Regular skin checks and sun protection can help prevent and detect these conditions early.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 67-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of joint stiffness, fatigue, and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of joint stiffness, fatigue, and swelling and tenderness in the metacarpophalangeal joints. The doctor suspects Rheumatoid Arthritis. What is the plasma autoantibody with the greatest specificity for Rheumatoid Arthritis?

      Your Answer: Anti-dsDNA

      Correct Answer: Anti-CCP

      Explanation:

      For the detection of Rheumatoid Arthritis, Anti-CCP has the most specific results. It can be identified in patients even a decade before the diagnosis and is advised for all individuals suspected of having Rheumatoid Arthritis but have tested negative for rheumatoid factor.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition that can be diagnosed through initial investigations, including antibody tests and x-rays. One of the first tests recommended is the rheumatoid factor (RF) test, which detects a circulating antibody that reacts with the patient’s own IgG. This test can be done through the Rose-Waaler test or the latex agglutination test, with the former being more specific. A positive RF result is found in 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and high levels are associated with severe progressive disease. However, it is not a marker of disease activity. Other conditions that may have a positive RF result include Felty’s syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome, infective endocarditis, SLE, systemic sclerosis, and the general population.

      Another antibody test that can aid in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is the anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody test. This test can detect the antibody up to 10 years before the development of rheumatoid arthritis and has a sensitivity similar to RF (around 70%) but a much higher specificity of 90-95%. NICE recommends that patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis who are RF negative should be tested for anti-CCP antibodies.

      In addition to antibody tests, x-rays of the hands and feet are also recommended for all patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis. These x-rays can help detect joint damage and deformities, which are common in rheumatoid arthritis. Early detection and treatment of rheumatoid arthritis can help prevent further joint damage and improve overall quality of life for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department via ambulance after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department via ambulance after experiencing a sudden onset of facial droop and speech impairment. Upon examination, she is conscious but displays both expressive and receptive aphasia. The patient's GP summary record indicates that she is only taking tamoxifen. Based on this information, what is the most probable medical condition in her past medical history?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen receptor-negative breast cancer

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Pre-menopausal women with oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer are managed using Tamoxifen.
      Tamoxifen is ineffective in treating oestrogen receptor-negative breast cancer or ovarian cancer.
      However, Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer.
      Colorectal cancer is not treated with Tamoxifen.

      Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 85-year-old man complains of increasing back pain and overall weakness. An X-ray...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man complains of increasing back pain and overall weakness. An X-ray of his back reveals multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Myeloma: A Malignant Disease of Plasma Cells

      Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that commonly affects adults aged over 60 years. It is characterized by the production of paraproteinaemia in the blood, which can affect multiple organs including the blood, bone, kidneys, and immune system. The most common symptoms of multiple myeloma include unexplained bone pain, hypercalcaemia, weight loss, hyperviscosity symptoms, spinal cord compression, and fever.

      On the other hand, osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone mass and deterioration of the structure of the bone tissue, resulting in bone fragility and susceptibility to fracture. Multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions are more sinister in nature and are commonly associated with multiple myeloma.

      Osteosarcoma, bone metastases, and chronic myeloblastic leukaemia (CML) are not related to multiple myeloma. Osteosarcoma is characterized by cortical destruction and the presence of a soft-tissue mass, while bone metastases usually lead to destruction of the cortex on plain radiographs. Symptoms of CML include fatigue, night sweats, weight loss, abdominal fullness, and left upper quadrant pain.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms and characteristics of multiple myeloma is crucial in diagnosing and treating this malignant disease of plasma cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old homeless man is brought to the emergency department after being found...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old homeless man is brought to the emergency department after being found unresponsive in a local park. Upon admission, his temperature is 30.2 ÂșC and an ECG reveals a broad complex polymorphic tachycardia. The patient is diagnosed with torsades de pointes. What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      Torsades de pointes can be treated with IV magnesium sulfate.

      Torsades de Pointes: A Life-Threatening Condition

      Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation, which can cause sudden death. There are several causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like antiarrhythmics, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other causes include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      The management of torsades de pointes involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate. This can help to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Immunology/Allergy (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
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