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  • Question 1 - A 43-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful right shoulder. Despite...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful right shoulder. Despite being generally healthy and playing tennis regularly, he has been limited by the pain. Upon examination, his shoulders appear symmetrical with no skin changes, but he experiences mild tenderness over the right acromion. He can fully abduct his arm, but experiences pain approximately halfway through the motion, with the start and end of abduction being pain-free. There are no other symptoms or abnormalities in his upper limbs. What is the probable underlying pathology for this man's presentation?

      Your Answer: Subacromial impingement

      Explanation:

      Subacromial impingement is often characterized by a painful arc of abduction. This is likely the cause of the patient’s shoulder pain, which is accompanied by tenderness at the acromion and pain around the midpoint of abduction (typically between 60 to 120 degrees). These symptoms are not indicative of inflammatory arthritis affecting the acromioclavicular joint, which is rare. Osteoarthritis affecting the ACJ may cause tenderness and swelling, but not acromial tenderness or a painful arc in abduction. Cervical radiculopathy would cause neuropathic pain in the distribution of a cervical root, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms. Rheumatoid arthritis and other inflammatory arthropathies typically cause acute joint inflammation and effusion, which is not present in this case. A supraspinatus tear is a possible differential diagnosis, but the pain would be limited to the initial 60 degrees of abduction rather than the midpoint, indicating impingement as the more likely cause. Depending on the extent of the tear, abduction may also be limited due to difficulty initiating the movement.

      Understanding Rotator Cuff Injuries

      Rotator cuff injuries are a common cause of shoulder problems that can be classified into four types of disease: subacromial impingement, calcific tendonitis, rotator cuff tears, and rotator cuff arthropathy. The symptoms of a rotator cuff injury include shoulder pain that worsens during abduction.

      The signs of a rotator cuff injury include a painful arc of abduction, which typically occurs between 60 and 120 degrees in cases of subacromial impingement. In cases of rotator cuff tears, the pain may be felt in the first 60 degrees of abduction. Additionally, tenderness over the anterior acromion may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department at 37 weeks gestation...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department at 37 weeks gestation with blurred vision and severe headache. She reports upper abdominal pain for the last few hours. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg and urinalysis shows proteinuria. While taking her medical history, she experiences a tonic-clonic seizure. What is the appropriate pharmacological treatment to stop this seizure?

      Your Answer: Oral midazolam

      Correct Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulfate

      Explanation:

      When a seizure is suspected to be caused by eclampsia, the recommended first-line treatment is intravenous magnesium sulfate, given as a loading dose followed by an infusion. In the case of convulsive status epilepticus, intravenous lorazepam is the preferred in-hospital treatment, with phenytoin as an alternative if lorazepam is ineffective. Glucose may be administered if hypoglycemia is a contributing factor. It is not appropriate to administer oral medications to a patient with a decreased level of consciousness. (Adapted from BMJ Best Practice – Pre-eclampsia)

      Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment

      Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.

      In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      44.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman and her partner visit their GP with concerns about their...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman and her partner visit their GP with concerns about their inability to conceive. Despite having regular unprotected intercourse for 12 months, they have not been successful in getting pregnant. The husband's semen analysis came back normal. The GP decides to order a serum progesterone test to assess ovulation.
      At what point should the blood test be conducted?

      Your Answer: 14 days before her next expected period

      Correct Answer: 7 days before her next expected period

      Explanation:

      To confirm ovulation in patients struggling to conceive, a serum progesterone level should be taken 7 days prior to the expected next period. This timing coincides with ovulation and is the most accurate way to confirm it. Taking the test 14 days before the next expected period or on the first day of the next period would not be timed correctly. It is also important to note that the timing of intercourse does not affect the confirmation of ovulation through serum progesterone testing.

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman presents to the GP clinic for a review. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman presents to the GP clinic for a review. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and has undergone urine microscopy, culture, and sensitivity tests. Despite having no fever or dysuria, the following results were obtained:
      - Red blood cells < 106/L
      - White blood cells 100 x 106/L
      - Culture Escherichia coli > 106/L colonies
      - Sensitivity trimethoprim sensitive, cefalexin sensitive, nitrofurantoin resistant

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin for 5 days

      Correct Answer: Cefalexin for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria should receive immediate antibiotic treatment. In this case, cefalexin for 7 days is the appropriate choice based on the sensitivity results of the culture. Amoxicillin is another option, but without sensitivity data, it cannot be recommended. Nitrofurantoin should be avoided as the bacteria are resistant, and a 5-day course is insufficient. No treatment is not an option for pregnant women as it increases the risk of pyelonephritis. Trimethoprim should also be avoided due to its potential impact on fetal development as a folate antagonist.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 54-year-old woman complains of facial asymmetry. She noticed that the right corner...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman complains of facial asymmetry. She noticed that the right corner of her mouth was drooping while brushing her teeth this morning. She is in good health but experienced pain behind her right ear yesterday and reports dryness in her right eye. Upon examination, she exhibits complete paralysis of the facial nerve on the right side, from the forehead to the mouth. There are no abnormalities found during ear, nose, and throat examination or clinical examination of the peripheral nervous system. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Bell's palsy

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of an ear infection is unlikely based on the patient’s symptoms and the results of their ear exam.

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.

      If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 82-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis that began 45...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis that began 45 minutes ago. He has a history of chronic back pain and takes ibuprofen, as well as warfarin for his atrial fibrillation. The medical team initiates resuscitation and places two large-bore cannulas. What is the appropriate management for this patient in an acute setting?

      Your Answer: IV proton pump inhibitors and fresh frozen plasma

      Correct Answer: IV prothrombin complex concentrate

      Explanation:

      There is insufficient evidence to support the use of PPIs in stopping bleeding, as in most cases, bleeding ceases without their administration. Administering IV proton pump inhibitors and fresh frozen plasma prior to endoscopy is incorrect, as PPIs should not be given and fresh frozen plasma should only be given to patients with specific blood clotting abnormalities.

      Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The clinical features of this condition include haematemesis, melena, and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes.

      The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation is also necessary, including ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours.

      For non-variceal bleeding, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) should not be given before endoscopy to patients with suspected non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding. However, PPIs should be given to patients with non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding and stigmata of recent haemorrhage shown at endoscopy. If further bleeding occurs, options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery. For variceal bleeding, terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients at presentation, and band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An increase in alkaline phosphatase can be attributed to any of the following...

    Incorrect

    • An increase in alkaline phosphatase can be attributed to any of the following conditions except?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Hypoparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alkaline Phosphatase and Its Causes

      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is an enzyme found in various tissues throughout the body, including the liver, bones, and intestines. When the levels of ALP in the blood are elevated, it can indicate a potential health issue. The causes of raised ALP can be divided into two categories based on the calcium level in the blood.

      If both ALP and calcium levels are high, it may indicate bone metastases, hyperparathyroidism, osteomalacia, or renal failure. On the other hand, if ALP is high but calcium is low, it may be due to cholestasis, hepatitis, fatty liver, neoplasia, Paget’s disease, or physiological factors such as pregnancy, growing children, or healing fractures.

      It is important to note that elevated ALP levels do not necessarily indicate a specific condition, but rather serve as a signal for further investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a complaint of feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a complaint of feeling tired and lethargic for the past six months. She also reports a weight gain of approximately 10 kg during this time. Upon conducting a blood test, the following results were obtained: Hb 141 g/l, Na+ 141 mmol/l, Bilirubin 7 µmol/l, Platelets 331 * 109/l, K+ 4.1 mmol/l, ALP 71 u/l, WBC 4.6 * 109/l, Urea 3.9 mmol/l, ALT 31 u/l, Neuts 3.1 * 109/l, Creatinine 86 µmol/l, γGT 51 u/l, Lymphs 1.2 * 109/l, TSH 0.1 mu/l, Albumin 41 g/l, Eosin 0.2 * 109/l, free-T4 3 nmol/l, and CRP 4.1 mg/l. What would be the most appropriate next investigation to determine the cause of her fatigue?

      Your Answer: Urine electrophoresis

      Correct Answer: MRI brain and pituitary

      Explanation:

      When a patient has normal blood tests except for low thyroid function, which is indicated by low TSH and low free-T4, and presents with symptoms of hypothyroidism, it may be a case of secondary hypothyroidism caused by pituitary failure. This is a rare condition that requires imaging of the pituitary gland to rule out any anatomical or vascular causes, such as a tumor.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that may be associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s or pernicious anaemia. Other causes of hypothyroidism include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that some of these causes may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.

      In rare cases, hypothyroidism may also be caused by pituitary failure, which is known as secondary hypothyroidism. Additionally, there are certain conditions that may be associated with hypothyroidism, such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old diabetic man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of poor vision,...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old diabetic man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of poor vision, particularly while driving at night. He reports that his vision has been progressively worsening and he struggles with glare from oncoming vehicles. He also finds watching TV difficult and struggles to recognise his neighbour waving at him from across the street. He has had to have his glasses prescription changed three times in the past 18 months.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute closed angle glaucoma

      Correct Answer: Cataracts

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Cataracts: Gradual, painless reduced visual acuity, blurred vision, difficulty seeing at night-time, sensitivity to light due to glare and halos around light, inability to watch TV or recognise faces. Risk factors include increasing age, steroid use, alcohol excess, myotonic dystrophy, and diabetes. Treatment is with surgical replacement of the lens.

      Open Angle Glaucoma: Increased intraocular pressure resulting in visual field defects, loss of peripheral vision, seeing halos around lights, and tunnel vision. Patients may report bumping into things or not seeing cars in their periphery.

      Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma: Ophthalmological emergency presenting as a painful red eye, vomiting, headache, and reduced visual acuity. On examination, patients have a tender, hard eye with a semi-dilated, fixed pupil.

      Presbyopia: Age-related condition causing trouble focusing on close-up vision, often requiring reading glasses.

      Retinal Detachment: New-onset floaters and flashes, sudden-onset, painless visual field loss that may progress over hours to days, and a dark curtain or shadow over the field of vision in one eye only.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman has a Mirena intrauterine device inserted for birth control on...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has a Mirena intrauterine device inserted for birth control on day 10 of her menstrual cycle. She has not engaged in sexual activity since her last period. What is the duration required before it can be considered a reliable contraceptive method?

      Your Answer: 5 days

      Correct Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
      Immediate: IUD
      2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
      7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      13.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Reproductive Medicine (0/2) 0%
Renal Medicine/Urology (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (2/2) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (0/1) 0%
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