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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old man visits his doctor for routine blood tests before starting a...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man visits his doctor for routine blood tests before starting a statin medication. During the tests, his renal function is discovered to be impaired, and he is referred for further evaluation.
      Na+ 135 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      Urea 15 mmol/l
      Creatinine 152 µmol/l
      What sign would suggest that the man's condition is chronic rather than acute?

      Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease

      One of the most effective ways to differentiate between acute kidney injury (AKI) and chronic kidney disease (CKD) is through the use of renal ultrasound. In most cases, patients with CKD will have small kidneys that are bilateral. However, there are some exceptions to this rule, including individuals with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, diabetic nephropathy in its early stages, amyloidosis, and HIV-associated nephropathy.

      In addition to renal ultrasound, there are other features that can suggest CKD rather than AKI. For example, individuals with CKD may experience hypocalcaemia due to a lack of vitamin D. By identifying these distinguishing factors, healthcare professionals can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with kidney disease. Proper diagnosis is crucial, as the treatment and management of AKI and CKD differ significantly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old hypertensive man with asthma, heart failure and peptic ulcer disease reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old hypertensive man with asthma, heart failure and peptic ulcer disease reports experiencing yellowish-green halos for the past week. He has also been feeling nauseous and has lost his appetite. Despite his conditions being well controlled, physical examination reveals no abnormalities. Which of the following medications that he is taking could potentially be responsible for his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Enalapril

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects and Risks of Medications

      Digoxin Toxicity: Symptoms and Risk Factors
      Digoxin toxicity can cause vague symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, confusion, and fatigue, as well as dysrhythmias. Risk factors for toxicity include imbalances in potassium, magnesium, and calcium levels.

      Salbutamol: Common Side Effects and Hypokalaemia
      Salbutamol may cause fine tremors, anxiety, headaches, and muscle cramps. Prolonged use or high doses can lead to hypokalaemia, which is especially concerning in patients with renal failure.

      Enalapril: Common Side Effects and Serious Risks
      Enalapril therapy may cause raised serum creatinine, dizziness, hypotension, syncope, and dry cough. The most serious risk is angio-oedema, which can obstruct airways.

      Ranitidine: Common Side Effects
      H2-receptor antagonists like ranitidine may cause diarrhea, dizziness, and headaches.

      Aspirin: Contraindications
      Aspirin should be avoided in patients with a history of hypersensitivity to NSAIDs or gastritis/peptic ulcer disease due to the increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 38-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She is currently 28 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. During her booking appointment, her blood pressure was 112/78 mmHg, but today it has increased to 146/94 mmHg. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, the following results were obtained:
      Protein negative
      Leucocytes negative
      Blood negative

      What is the most suitable characterization of her situation?

      Your Answer: Gestational hypertension

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 72 year old man presents with a 6 day history of vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old man presents with a 6 day history of vomiting and diarrhoea. His blood results show Na+ 142 mmol/l, K+ 5.9 mmol/l, urea 14 mmol/l, and creatinine 320 mmol/l. His renal function was normal on routine blood tests 2 months ago. What finding is most indicative of acute tubular necrosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Raised urinary osmolality

      Correct Answer: Raised urinary sodium

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing acute kidney injury, which can be categorized into three causes: pre-renal, renal, and post-renal. Pre-renal causes are due to inadequate renal perfusion, such as dehydration, haemorrhage, heart failure, or sepsis. In this case, the kidneys are still able to concentrate urine and retain sodium, resulting in high urine osmolality and low urine sodium. Renal causes are most commonly caused by acute tubular necrosis, which damages tubular cells due to prolonged ischaemia or toxins. In this scenario, the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine or retain sodium, leading to low urine osmolality and high urine sodium. Acute glomerulonephritis and acute interstitial nephritis are rarer causes of renal injury. Post-renal causes are due to obstruction of the urinary tract, which can be identified through hydronephrosis on renal ultrasound.

      Distinguishing between Acute Tubular Necrosis and Prerenal Uraemia in Acute Kidney Injury

      Acute kidney injury can be caused by various factors, including prerenal uraemia and acute tubular necrosis. It is important to distinguish between the two in order to provide appropriate treatment. Prerenal uraemia occurs when the kidneys hold on to sodium to preserve volume, leading to decreased blood flow to the kidneys. On the other hand, acute tubular necrosis is caused by damage to the kidney tubules, often due to ischemia or toxins.

      To differentiate between the two, several factors can be considered. In prerenal uraemia, urine sodium levels are typically less than 20 mmol/L, while in acute tubular necrosis, they are usually greater than 40 mmol/L. Urine osmolality is also a useful indicator, with levels above 500 mOsm/kg suggesting prerenal uraemia and levels below 350 mOsm/kg suggesting acute tubular necrosis.

      Fractional sodium excretion and fractional urea excretion are also important measures. In prerenal uraemia, the fractional sodium excretion is typically less than 1%, while in acute tubular necrosis, it is usually greater than 1%. Similarly, the fractional urea excretion is less than 35% in prerenal uraemia and greater than 35% in acute tubular necrosis.

      Other factors that can help distinguish between the two include response to fluid challenge, serum urea:creatinine ratio, urine:plasma osmolality, urine:plasma urea ratio, and specific gravity. By considering these factors, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat acute kidney injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A woman presents with an area of dermatitis on her right ankle. She...

    Correct

    • A woman presents with an area of dermatitis on her right ankle. She suspects she may have a nickel allergy. What is the most appropriate test to confirm this suspicion?

      Your Answer: Skin patch test

      Explanation:

      Types of Allergy Tests

      Allergy tests are used to determine if a person has an allergic reaction to a particular substance. There are several types of allergy tests available, each with its own advantages and limitations. The most commonly used test is the skin prick test, which is easy to perform and inexpensive. Drops of diluted allergen are placed on the skin, and a needle is used to pierce the skin. A wheal will typically develop if a patient has an allergy. This test is useful for food allergies and pollen.

      Another type of allergy test is the radioallergosorbent test (RAST), which determines the amount of IgE that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. Results are given in grades from 0 (negative) to 6 (strongly positive). This test is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (e.g. pollen), and wasp/bee venom.

      Skin patch testing is useful for contact dermatitis. Around 30-40 allergens are placed on the back, and irritants may also be tested for. The patches are removed 48 hours later, and the results are read by a dermatologist after a further 48 hours. Blood tests may be used when skin prick tests are not suitable, for example if there is extensive eczema or if the patient is taking antihistamines. Overall, allergy tests are an important tool in diagnosing and managing allergies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman is scheduled for surgery to address an inguinal hernia. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is scheduled for surgery to address an inguinal hernia. She is currently on the combined oral contraceptive pill and is not taking any other medications. What advice should be given to the patient regarding her medication before the operation?

      Your Answer: Continue taking the pill until the day before operation

      Correct Answer: Continue taking the pill until four weeks before her operation

      Explanation:

      To lower the risk of a pulmonary embolism, it is advised to discontinue the use of contraceptive pills four weeks prior to undergoing an operation, as per NICE guidelines. This is because oral contraceptives are recognized as a risk factor for thrombosis.

      Venous Thromboembolism: Common Risk Factors

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While there are many factors that can increase the risk of VTE, some are more common than others. These include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation. Other general risk factors include advancing age, obesity, family history of VTE, immobility, hospitalization, anaesthesia, and the use of central venous catheters. Underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and antiphospholipid syndrome can also increase the risk of VTE. Additionally, certain medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill, hormone replacement therapy, raloxifene, tamoxifen, and antipsychotics have been shown to be risk factors.

      It is important to note that while these factors can increase the risk of VTE, around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department via ambulance after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department via ambulance after experiencing a sudden onset of facial droop and speech impairment. Upon examination, she is conscious but displays both expressive and receptive aphasia. The patient's GP summary record indicates that she is only taking tamoxifen. Based on this information, what is the most probable medical condition in her past medical history?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Pre-menopausal women with oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer are managed using Tamoxifen.
      Tamoxifen is ineffective in treating oestrogen receptor-negative breast cancer or ovarian cancer.
      However, Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer.
      Colorectal cancer is not treated with Tamoxifen.

      Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old homeless woman with drug addiction presents with fever, rash and progressive...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old homeless woman with drug addiction presents with fever, rash and progressive swelling of the left side of her face, which began with an itchy scab on her left cheek 24 hours ago. Her temperature is 38.5 °C, and she is unable to open her left eye because of the swelling.
      Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?

      Your Answer: Group A Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Skin Infections: Understanding the Causes and Symptoms

      Erysipelas, a bacterial skin infection, is characterized by a tender, intensely erythematous, indurated plaque with a sharply demarcated border. It is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, which is often sourced from the host’s nasopharynx. Prodromal symptoms such as malaise, chills, and high fever often precede the onset of skin lesions. Haemophilus influenzae can also cause cellulitis, but the skin lesion described in erysipelas is more consistent with this condition. Herpes simplex viruses cause a wide variety of disease states, including oropharyngeal infections and cold sores. Meningococcaemia, caused by Neisseria meningitidis, presents with a characteristic petechial skin rash on the trunk and legs. Understanding the causes and symptoms of these bacterial skin infections is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old man comes to you with a painful and swollen left knee....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man comes to you with a painful and swollen left knee. He recently returned from a trip to Spain about 4 weeks ago. He denies any history of knee problems or trauma. Upon examination, you notice that his left knee is warm and swollen, but he has a full range of motion. Additionally, he complains of pain when moving his ankle joints, but there is no visible swelling. You also observe a waxy yellow rash on the soles of both feet. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Keratoderma blenorrhagica is the cause of the rash on the soles. The reactive arthritis he is experiencing could be a result of a gastrointestinal infection or Chlamydia.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.

      Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A nurse updates you on a 32-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant....

    Incorrect

    • A nurse updates you on a 32-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant. The patient's blood pressure reading is 155/90 mmHg, up from 152/85 mmHg two days ago. A 24-hour urine collection shows a urinary protein excretion of 0.7g / 24 hours. The patient was previously healthy before pregnancy. Following oral labetalol administration, what is the next step in managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plan delivery of the foetus within 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who have mild or moderate gestational hypertension, are beyond 37 weeks of pregnancy, and exhibit pre-eclampsia symptoms, should be advised to deliver their baby within 24 to 48 hours as per the existing recommendations.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal Medicine/Urology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (0/1) 0%
Reproductive Medicine (1/2) 50%
Immunology/Allergy (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Passmed