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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery where she has recently...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery where she has recently registered. She is experiencing sneezing, an itchy nose, and itchy, watery eyes. She suspects that her symptoms are due to allergies and would like to undergo comprehensive allergy testing to inform her workplace and make necessary adjustments. She also wonders if she should carry an EpiPen.
      What is the most probable cause of this patient's allergy?

      Your Answer: Seasonal rhinitis

      Explanation:

      Common Allergic and Non-Allergic Conditions: Causes and Differences

      Seasonal rhinitis, atopic eczema, chronic urticaria, lactose intolerance, and coeliac disease are common conditions that can cause discomfort and distress. Understanding their causes and differences is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

      Seasonal rhinitis, also known as hay fever, is caused by allergens such as tree pollen, grass, mould spores, and weeds. It is an IgE-mediated reaction that occurs at certain times of the year.

      Atopic eczema can be aggravated by dietary factors in some children, but less frequently in adults. Food allergy should be suspected in children who have immediate reactions to food or infants with moderate or severe eczema that is not well-controlled.

      Chronic urticaria may have an immunological or autoimmune cause, but can also be idiopathic or caused by physical factors, drugs, or dietary pseudo allergens. It presents with a rash.

      Lactose intolerance is due to an enzyme deficiency and is different from milk allergy, which is IgE-mediated. It can occur following gastroenteritis.

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune condition that affects the small intestine in response to gluten exposure. It is not a gluten allergy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      65.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man visits your clinic. He recently returned from a trip to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits your clinic. He recently returned from a trip to Africa and is experiencing feelings of depression. He believes that his friends who accompanied him on the trip turned against him during the vacation. Since returning, he has been having unusual dreams and is feeling anxious. He reports taking malaria prophylaxis. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Proguanil

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Mefloquine and antimalarial Medication

      Mefloquine is a commonly prescribed antimalarial medication that can cause side effects such as abnormal dreams, depression, psychosis, and panic attacks. As a GP, it is important to inform patients of the risks of malaria and the potential side effects of the medication so that they can make an informed decision.

      When it comes to prescribing antimalarial medication, there are administrative issues to consider. For example, GPs can charge a private fee for prescribing or providing drugs for malaria chemoprophylaxis or for drugs that a patient requires solely in anticipation of an ailment while outside the UK. Some antimalarial medications can also be purchased from chemists without a prescription, which may be financially advantageous for patients.

      It is important to follow national guidance when issuing prescriptions for travel abroad, and to not prescribe medication for longer than a period of three months for extended stays. By being familiar with these administrative issues, GPs can provide the best care for their patients traveling to areas with a high risk of malaria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      54.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of breathlessness and bradycardia....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of breathlessness and bradycardia. During the consultation, it is observed that he has bilateral ptosis. He has no contact with his family and has never met his father, but he is aware that his sister has a muscle condition and lost a child in infancy. The patient reports having difficulty releasing someone's hand after shaking it at work.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myotonic dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Neuromuscular Disorders: Symptoms and Differences

      Myotonic Dystrophy: An Overview
      Myotonic dystrophy is a genetic disorder that affects the muscles and nervous system. It is characterized by myopathic facies, myotonia in the hands, and cardiac conduction defects. The congenital form of the disease can be fatal.

      Spinal Muscular Atrophy: Symptoms and Differences
      Spinal muscular atrophy is a genetic disorder that causes progressive muscle weakness and atrophy. It primarily affects the spinal nerves and doesn’t typically present with ptosis.

      Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy: Symptoms and Differences
      Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that presents in early childhood with progressive proximal muscular dystrophy. Ptosis is not a typical sign.

      Facioscapulohumeral Dystrophy: Symptoms and Differences
      Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy is a genetic disorder that causes weakness in the orbicularis oculi muscles, leading to difficulty in keeping eyelids closed. Ptosis is not typically seen at presentation.

      Becker Muscular Dystrophy: Symptoms and Differences
      Becker muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that presents with progressive proximal dystrophy. It usually presents at a younger age than myotonic dystrophy, with patients becoming progressively weaker between the ages of 20 and 60 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      381.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman comes in seeking to switch from her current Microgynon 30...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes in seeking to switch from her current Microgynon 30 COC to another option due to experiencing mood swings. The decision is made to start her on Marvelon. What guidance should be provided regarding transitioning to a new COC?

      Your Answer: Finish the current pill packet and the start the new COC without a pill free interval

      Explanation:

      There is conflicting advice from the BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) regarding the omission of the pill free interval. The FSRH’s Clinical Effectiveness Unit has stated that the pill free interval doesn’t need to be skipped, while the BNF recommends skipping it if there are changes in progesterone. As there is no clear consensus, it is advisable to follow the BNF’s recommendation.

      Special Situations for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      Concurrent Antibiotic Use:
      In the UK, doctors have previously advised that taking antibiotics concurrently with the combined oral contraceptive pill may interfere with the enterohepatic circulation of oestrogen, making the pill ineffective. As a result, extra precautions were advised during antibiotic treatment and for seven days afterwards. However, this approach is not taken in the US or most of mainland Europe. In 2011, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare updated their guidelines, abandoning the previous approach. The latest edition of the British National Formulary (BNF) has also been updated in line with this guidance. Precautions should still be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.

      Switching Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills:
      The BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) appear to give contradictory advice on switching combined oral contraceptive pills. The Clinical Effectiveness Unit of the FSRH has stated in the Combined Oral Contraception guidelines that the pill-free interval doesn’t need to be omitted. However, the BNF advises missing the pill-free interval if the progesterone changes. Given the uncertainty, it is best to follow the BNF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      184.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A couple brings their 2-year-old son to see the family General Practitioner, as...

    Incorrect

    • A couple brings their 2-year-old son to see the family General Practitioner, as they are concerned about his development. He was born at term. He was a little slow to crawl but started walking at around 18 months. He has never had much speech. In the last few weeks, he has stopped walking and stopped feeding himself. He has started clapping his hands every few minutes and at times seems very distressed and screams. He has not been unwell with a fever or recent illness. The is no family history of note.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rett syndrome

      Explanation:

      The child in the video exhibits symptoms of a rare neurological genetic disorder called Rett syndrome. This condition is caused by a random mutation of the MECP2 gene on the X chromosome and typically affects girls between six and 18 months of age. Symptoms include delayed speech, muscle weakness, and jerky hand movements, which can be distressing for the individual. Other possible symptoms include microcephaly, seizures, and scoliosis. Sturge-Weber syndrome, Angelman syndrome, phenylketonuria, and encephalitis are unlikely diagnoses based on the absence of specific symptoms and history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rapidly worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rapidly worsening shortness of breath over the past four to five weeks. He reports bilateral ankle swelling and has experienced two episodes of gasping for breath in the past week. The patient has a history of hypertension and takes indapamide and amlodipine. On examination, his BP is 122/72, his pulse is 90 and regular, and he has bibasal crackles on chest auscultation and bilateral pitting edema. Laboratory investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 122 g/L (135-177), white cells of 8.3 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 182 ×109/L (150-400), sodium of 141 mmol/L (135-146), potassium of 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-5), creatinine of 122 μmol/L (79-118), and BNP of 520 pg/mL (<100). Based on the latest NICE guidance, what is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence ramipril and review in four weeks

      Explanation:

      Referral Guidelines for Suspected Heart Failure with Elevated BNP Levels

      According to NICE CG106, individuals with suspected heart failure and an NT-proBNP level between 400 and 2,000 ng/litre should be referred for specialist assessment and transthoracic echocardiography within 6 weeks. Urgent referral within 2 weeks is recommended for those with NT-proBNP levels above 2,000 ng/litre due to the poor prognosis associated with very high levels of BNP.

      For individuals with NT-proBNP levels below 400 ng/litre, alternative causes for symptoms of heart failure should be reviewed. If there is still concern that the symptoms may be related to heart failure, consultation with a physician with subspeciality training in heart failure is recommended.

      It is important to note that very high levels of BNP carry a poor prognosis with respect to both morbidity and increased risk of hospital admission and mortality from heart failure. If transthoracic echocardiogram images are poor, other imaging methods such as radionucleotide scanning or transoesophageal echo should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man, known to have been referred to ophthalmology and awaiting the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man, known to have been referred to ophthalmology and awaiting the appointment for his right pterygium, attends.

      He was referred to the ophthalmologist by his Optician because the pterygium is encroaching on his visual axis. He is complaining of constant irritation, but there is no inflammation of the eye. There is no ocular pain or discharge.

      What is the best next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give the patient a short course of topical ocular lubricants

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pterygium and When to Refer to an Ophthalmologist

      Pterygium is a condition that can cause irritation and grittiness in the eye due to its irregular surface, which can lead to dryness in certain areas. If the pterygium encroaches on the visual axis, it can threaten the patient’s vision and requires referral to an ophthalmologist. Other reasons for referral include inducing irregular astigmatism, chronic inflammation, or being cosmetically unacceptable.

      While waiting for an ophthalmology appointment, the best management for symptomatic relief is to use ocular lubricants. If there is evidence of acute inflammation, an ophthalmologist may prescribe topical steroids or NSAIDs. In some cases, surgery may be necessary.

      It’s important to note that if a patient has not been referred and their pterygium encroaches on the visual axis, they should be referred to an ophthalmologist. Understanding when to refer patients with pterygium can help ensure they receive the appropriate care and management for their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 8 - Samantha is a 26-year-old trans female who wants to discuss contraception options with...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 26-year-old trans female who wants to discuss contraception options with you. She is in a committed relationship with another woman and they have regular unprotected intercourse. Samantha has no medical history and is currently undergoing gender reassignment using oestrogen and antiandrogen therapy, but has not had any surgical interventions yet.

      What would be the most suitable form of contraception to recommend for Samantha?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Barrier methods such as condoms

      Explanation:

      If a patient was assigned male at birth and is undergoing treatment with oestradiol, GNRH analogs, finasteride or cyproterone, there may be a decrease or cessation of sperm production. However, this cannot be considered a reliable method of contraception. In the case of a trans female patient, who was assigned male at birth, hormonal treatments cannot be relied upon for contraception. There is a possibility of her female partner becoming pregnant, and therefore, barrier methods are recommended. Hormonal contraceptives are not suitable for this patient, and the copper IUD is not an option as she doesn’t have a uterus.

      Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals

      The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.

      For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.

      In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old woman presents to an early morning duty appointment with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to an early morning duty appointment with complaints of increasing fatigue, abdominal pain, vomiting, and excessive thirst over the past week. She has a history of well-controlled hypertension with amlodipine and takes atorvastatin. She recently started a six-week course of high-dose colecalciferol, prescribed by another GP, but has only taken one dose so far. On examination, she appears fatigued and drowsy, but her observations are unremarkable. Urgent blood tests are ordered, and the results show a Hb of 124 g/L, platelets of 224 * 109/L, WBC of 6.4 * 109/L, Na+ of 141 mmol/L, K+ of 4.0 mmol/L, urea of 6.9 mmol/L, creatinine of 100 µmol/L, calcium of 3.7 mmol/L, phosphate of 1.1 mmol/L, magnesium of 1.0 mmol/L, and TSH of 3.24 mU/L. Looking back at her blood results from the previous week, her calcium was 2.56 mmol/L, phosphate was 1.2 mmol/L, magnesium was 0.8 mmol/L, and vitamin D was 7 nmol/L. Based on these findings, she is admitted directly under the acute medical team for further management. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      If a patient with coexistent hyperparathyroidism undergoes rapid vitamin D replacement, it can lead to toxicity. In the case of this woman, she requires urgent admission under the medical team due to severe hypercalcaemia. The cause is likely vitamin D toxicity and unidentified primary hyperparathyroidism. Previous blood tests indicate a severe vitamin D deficiency, but her calcium level is at the higher end of normal, suggesting an overactive parathyroid gland that was masked by the low vitamin D. Testing for parathyroid hormone prior to administering vitamin D could have clarified this. It is advisable to seek advice from endocrinology before rapid vitamin D replacement if the baseline corrected calcium is >2.5. While multiple myeloma can cause hypercalcaemia, it doesn’t occur as rapidly. Paget’s disease causes an increased ALP with a normal calcium level, and thyrotoxicosis due to Graves disease can cause hypercalcaemia due to increased bone turnover, but a suppressed TSH would be expected.

      Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.

      Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old bus driver has a past medical history of an isolated seizure....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old bus driver has a past medical history of an isolated seizure. He has notified the DVLA and has stopped driving his bus. He holds a full driving licence and has never taken medication. He has undergone a recent assessment by a neurologist and, following initial investigations, is thought to have no continuing increased risk of seizures.
      Assuming he remains free of epileptic attacks, when, if at all, can he resume driving a group 2 bus or lorry?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 years

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance on Medical Conditions for Group 2 Bus and Lorry Drivers

      According to the DVLA’s guidance on medical conditions, drivers of group 2 buses or lorries who have experienced an isolated seizure must meet certain conditions in order to continue driving. Unlike drivers with epilepsy and a history of recurrent seizures, who must be seizure-free for 10 years, drivers with an isolated seizure must meet the following criteria:

      – Hold a full ordinary driving licence
      – Have been free of epileptic attacks for the last 5 years
      – Have not taken any medication to treat epilepsy during these 5 years or had a seizure during these 5 years
      – Have undergone a recent assessment by a neurologist
      – Have no continuing increased risk of seizures

      It is important for drivers to follow these guidelines in order to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road. By meeting these criteria, drivers can continue to operate group 2 buses and lorries without posing a risk to themselves or others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 11 - What could be the cause of stridor in a 6-month-old infant? ...

    Incorrect

    • What could be the cause of stridor in a 6-month-old infant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia

      Explanation:

      Causes of Stridor: An Overview

      Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is often a sign of an underlying respiratory problem. One common cause of stridor is laryngomalacia, a congenital condition that results in flaccidity of supraglottic structures. This condition may not present until the child is a few months old.

      It is important to note that stridor doesn’t occur in bronchiolitis, asthma, or reflux. In the UK, viral croup is the most common cause of stridor in general practice, while epiglottitis is a much rarer cause that can produce severe stridor with distress and cyanosis very quickly. Structural abnormalities such as micrognathia and trachea-oesophageal fistula can also cause stridor.

      It is worth noting that stridor doesn’t occur with pertussis but used to be seen with diphtheria. Other causes of stridor include smoke inhalation, angio-oedema, and foreign body. Understanding the various causes of stridor is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old female presents 16 weeks into her pregnancy with a vaginal discharge....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents 16 weeks into her pregnancy with a vaginal discharge. Further investigation confirms infection with Chlamydia trachomatis.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment of C. trachomatis Infection in Pregnancy

      C. trachomatis infection is becoming more common in the UK and can lead to adverse fetal outcomes such as spontaneous miscarriage, premature rupture of membranes, and intrauterine growth retardation. Therefore, treatment is advised ahead of test results if chlamydia is strongly suspected clinically. Current UK guidelines recommend three different options for pregnant patients: erythromycin, amoxicillin, and azithromycin. However, erythromycin is the most appropriate option as it is the recommended treatment by most guidelines. Doxycycline, co-trimoxazole, and metronidazole are not routinely used in the treatment of chlamydia during pregnancy. It is also important to note that pregnant patients should be tested for cure 5 weeks after completing treatment (or 6 weeks if azithromycin is used).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 13 - A 60-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner for a consultation. She recently underwent...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner for a consultation. She recently underwent bowel cancer screening and had to have a colonoscopy, which revealed the presence of four small benign polyps (< 10mm) that were completely removed. Her discharge letter mentions that she will be seen again, and she is curious if she will require another colonoscopy. What is the most suitable level of routine surveillance for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy at 3 years

      Explanation:

      Stratification of Colorectal Cancer Risk Based on Adenoma Findings

      Colorectal cancer risk can be categorized based on the findings of adenomas at baseline and subsequent surveillance examinations. Low risk individuals have one or two adenomas less than 10mm and require no follow-up or a colonoscopy every five years until one is negative. Intermediate risk individuals have three or four adenomas, or one or two adenomas with one larger than 10mm, and require a colonoscopy every three years until two consecutive colonoscopies are negative. High risk individuals have five or more adenomas, or three or four adenomas with one larger than 10mm, and require a colonoscopy at 12 months before returning to three-yearly surveillance.

      It is widely accepted that most colorectal cancers arise from adenomas, which have a prevalence of 30-40% at 60 years. However, the lifetime cumulative incidence of colorectal cancer is only 5.5%, indicating that many adenomas do not progress. The risk of malignancy increases with adenoma size, with flat or depressed adenomas progressing more rapidly than polypoid adenomas. While there is no direct evidence, observational studies suggest that polypectomy can reduce cancer mortality. However, there is no evidence that further colonoscopies provide greater benefit than the initial clearance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - As part of your role in coordinating the introduction of the shingles vaccine...

    Incorrect

    • As part of your role in coordinating the introduction of the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) to the surgery, the Practice Manager has asked you to identify which age group should be offered the vaccine.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All adults aged 70-79 years

      Explanation:

      Serologic studies reveal that adults aged 60 years and above have been exposed to Chickenpox to a great extent. Hence, it is recommended that individuals within the age range of 70-79 years should receive the vaccine, irrespective of their memory of having had Chickenpox. However, the vaccine may not be as efficacious in individuals above 80 years of age.

      Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles

      Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.

      The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.

      The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 78-year-old male attends clinic with his daughter who reports that her father...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male attends clinic with his daughter who reports that her father has become disinterested and withdrawn.

      Which of the following would favour a diagnosis of dementia rather than depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Self-reported concern of poor memory

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Alzheimer’s and Depression

      Urinary incontinence is an uncommon symptom associated with depression, but it is more typical of dementia or normal pressure hydrocephalus. On the other hand, impaired memory and concern over memory deficits can be found in both depression and dementia. Therefore, it can be challenging to differentiate between Alzheimer’s and depression based on these symptoms alone. Mayo Clinic suggests that a combination of symptoms and medical tests can help differentiate between the two conditions. Proper diagnosis and treatment can improve the quality of life for individuals and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris with papules, pustules and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris with papules, pustules and comedones. Her weight and periods are both normal. Identify the probable cause from the options provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacteria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acne in Women: Causes and Treatments

      Acne is not just a teenage problem, especially for women. There are several factors that contribute to its development, including genetics, seborrhoea, sensitivity to androgen, P. acnes bacteria, blocked hair follicles, and immune system response. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is a less common cause of acne. Treatment options target these underlying causes, with combined oral contraceptives being a popular choice. Contrary to popular belief, diet and hygiene do not play a significant role in acne. The black color of blackheads is due to pigment in the hair follicle material. Understanding the causes and treatments of acne can help women manage this common skin condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 36-year-old woman has been having occasional pins and needles in her right...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman has been having occasional pins and needles in her right hand for the last month. During your neurological assessment, you try to elicit the triceps reflex by positioning her arm across her chest and tapping the triceps tendon with a reflex hammer. What nerve (and its corresponding nerve root) are you evaluating?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve C7

      Explanation:

      The triceps reflex arc is formed by the components of the radial nerve, which primarily derives from the C7 nerve root and innervates the triceps muscle. The triceps muscle, with its three heads of origin (long, lateral, and medial), is the chief extensor of the forearm and attaches to the olecranon of the ulna.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old retired farmer contacts his GP seeking advice on preventing gout. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old retired farmer contacts his GP seeking advice on preventing gout. Despite making dietary changes and limiting alcohol consumption, he has experienced four flares in the past year. The patient has a BMI of 28 kg/m² and is attempting to lower it through lifestyle modifications. He has a controlled hiatus hernia with omeprazole and no other underlying health issues or medications. His most recent gout attack occurred six weeks ago, and his latest blood test revealed a urate level of 498 micromol/L. What is the most appropriate treatment in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start allopurinol + colchicine

      Explanation:

      According to current NICE guidelines, patients with gout who experience two or more attacks per year should receive urate-lowering therapy (ULT). When starting ULT, it is recommended to also prescribe colchicine cover for up to six months. If colchicine is not suitable, an alternative option is to consider NSAID cover.

      While high-dose prednisolone can effectively treat acute gout, low-dose prednisolone is not recommended for gout prevention due to the negative effects of long-term corticosteroid use.

      Although NSAIDs like naproxen or ibuprofen can be used to treat gout, this may not be the best option for someone with a history of hiatus hernia. Unlike xanthine oxidase inhibitors such as allopurinol or febuxostat, NSAIDs are not considered ULT and are therefore not suitable for gout prevention.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 19 - The collusion of anonymity is a phrase used to describe a patient's experience...

    Incorrect

    • The collusion of anonymity is a phrase used to describe a patient's experience of medical care, often in hospital.

      Which of the following statements best describes this concept?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients' care is fractionated, so that no-one is directly responsible for decision-making

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Collusion of Anonymity in Healthcare

      The collusion of anonymity is a significant issue in healthcare, particularly in hospitals where multiple professionals from different departments are involved in a patient’s care. This can lead to a breakdown in communication and compromised care, as the patient becomes an anonymous entity rather than an individual with specific needs.

      One example of how collusion of anonymity can occur is between primary and secondary care. Medications issued by secondary care often require strict monitoring, and without clear communication between primary and secondary care, issues can arise. To combat this, shared care protocols have been implemented to outline exactly who will be monitoring and acting on abnormal results.

      Multidisciplinary meetings involving various healthcare professionals are also common practice, but it is crucial to clarify each person’s role to avoid collusion of anonymity. This can be achieved through open communication and a clear understanding of each individual’s responsibilities.

      In summary, understanding the collusion of anonymity is essential in providing effective healthcare. By implementing clear communication and protocols, healthcare professionals can work together to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old female patient with type 1 diabetes is planning a trip to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient with type 1 diabetes is planning a trip to visit her family in Japan. She is aware that she will need to adjust her medication schedule due to the time difference and seeks your guidance on how to do so. She is currently following a basal bolus regimen consisting of glargine and actrapid. What recommendations would you make regarding dose adjustments when traveling across time zones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You should decrease your total insulin dose by 2-4% for every hour of time difference flying East

      Explanation:

      Tips for Travelling with Insulin

      Many patients with diabetes experience hypoglycaemia when travelling to different time zones. To avoid this, it is recommended to reduce the total daily insulin dose by 2-4% per hour of time difference. For example, a trip to Australia may require a reduction of around 30% during the flight and the first few days of adjusting to the time difference.

      When travelling with insulin, it is important to carry a membership card from the local diabetes society and a letter from the doctor to make it easier to travel with needles and syringes. Insulin should not be stored in the hold as it may freeze and form crystals. If it must be stored in the hold, it should be placed in an airtight container and packed in the middle of the suitcase. After landing, it should be checked for crystals and thrown away if any are seen.

      Airline rules allow staff to store excessive needles and insulin supplies for the duration of the journey. By following these tips, patients with diabetes can travel safely and comfortably with their insulin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old man with Down syndrome attends your clinic alone for his annual...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with Down syndrome attends your clinic alone for his annual health check. He has a history of mild asthma, which is well controlled with his inhalers. He lives with his mother and her partner. When asking about his diet, he tells you that he always eats his dinner, because his mother’s partner says he will hit him if he doesn’t. He doesn't seem concerned about this.
      What is the most appropriate response to this information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raise the issue with the safeguarding lead at the practice

      Explanation:

      Steps to Take When Concerned About a Patient’s Home Situation

      If you are a healthcare professional and have concerns about a patient’s home situation, there are several steps you can take. One option is to raise the issue with the safeguarding lead at the practice. They can provide information on whether any concerns have been raised previously and help you decide what to do next.

      It is not appropriate to do nothing if you have concerns. Asking the patient if the situation bothers them is not enough, as they may not have the capacity to make decisions or may not want to disclose any issues. Similarly, notifying the police via 101 is not appropriate if the patient is not in immediate danger.

      Another option is to contact the duty social worker. However, it is best to gather more information about the family first, which can be done through discussion with the safeguarding lead. If they are not available, then contacting a social worker would be appropriate.

      Making an appointment with the patient’s mother and partner to discuss the issue is not recommended, as it could potentially put the patient at more risk. It is important to take appropriate steps to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 22 - A 30-year old woman presents to the clinic with concerns about her facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old woman presents to the clinic with concerns about her facial hirsutism and amenorrhea for the past six months. On examination, she has a BMI of 31 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 140/85 mmHg. She denies the possibility of pregnancy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      PCOS and Hirsutism: A Common Endocrinopathy in Women

      This patient is diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), which is the most common endocrinopathy in women of reproductive age. PCOS accounts for 95% of cases of hirsutism presenting to out-patient clinics. The clinical features of PCOS include hirsutism and oligomenorrhoea, which are caused by excessive androgen levels. These symptoms are often worsened by obesity.

      When diagnosing hirsutism, it is important to consider other potential causes such as virilising tumours of the ovaries or adrenal gland, Cushing’s syndrome, and congenital adrenal hyperplasia. By ruling out these other conditions, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat PCOS and its associated symptoms. Proper management of PCOS can improve quality of life and reduce the risk of long-term complications such as infertility and cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - What are the indications for tonsillectomy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the indications for tonsillectomy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parental pressure

      Explanation:

      Indications for Tonsillectomy

      The SIGN guidelines for tonsillectomy have been updated to suggest seven acute attacks of proven tonsillitis in one year or five in each of two successive years as an indication for the procedure. Weight loss alone is not a sufficient indication, but complications such as nephritis and rheumatic fever, as well as peritonsillar abscess, are. Children with obstructive sleep apnoea have also been shown to benefit from tonsillectomy. Malignancy is an absolute indication. However, three attacks in two years and two attacks in two months are considered too short a period to warrant tonsillectomy. It is important to note that while children may experience an improvement in general health post-tonsillectomy, weight loss alone is not a valid indication for the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of difficulty in...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of difficulty in sustaining an erection. He had a heart attack 3 years ago and has been experiencing depression since then. Additionally, he has a history of uncontrolled hypertension. Which medication is the most probable cause of his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is often caused by beta-blockers like bisoprolol, which are commonly prescribed to patients who have had a previous myocardial infarction (MI). While amlodipine can also cause ED, it is less common than bisoprolol. Isosorbide mononitrate doesn’t typically cause ED, but patients taking it should avoid taking sildenafil at the same time due to the risk of hypotension. Mirtazapine is a less common cause of sexual dysfunction, and sertraline is generally the preferred antidepressant for post-MI patients.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 25 - A 27 year old male with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old male with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with rectal symptoms and bloody diarrhoea. Upon examination, he appears comfortable and well hydrated. His vital signs include a regular pulse of 88 beats per minute, a temperature of 37.5ºC, and a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. There is mild tenderness in the left iliac fossa, but no palpable masses or rebound tenderness. Rectal examination reveals tenderness and blood in the rectum. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient's mild/moderate proctitis flare?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rectal mesalazine

      Explanation:

      When experiencing a mild-moderate flare of distal ulcerative colitis, the initial treatment option is the use of topical (rectal) aminosalicylates. It is recommended to start with local treatment for rectal symptoms. Topical aminosalicylates are more effective than steroids, but a combination of both can be used if monotherapy is not effective. If the disease is diffuse or if symptoms do not respond to topical treatments, oral aminosalicylates can be used. In cases of severe disease, oral steroids can be considered.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old woman who is currently 8 weeks pregnant contacts the clinic to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is currently 8 weeks pregnant contacts the clinic to inquire about the results of her urine culture that was taken during her first antenatal visit. She reports no symptoms and has no known allergies to medications.

      The urine culture report indicates:

      Significant growth of Escherichia coli

      Trimethoprim Sensitive
      Nitrofurantoin Sensitive
      Cefalexin Sensitive

      What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin (7 day course)

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old insulin-dependent type 2 diabetic visits her GP with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old insulin-dependent type 2 diabetic visits her GP with a complaint of a burning sensation in her left leg. She mentions that the leg is very sensitive to touch as well.

      After diagnosis, the GP prescribes amitriptyline for neuropathic pain. However, after 12 weeks, the patient returns and reports no improvement despite taking the medication as directed.

      The GP decides to discontinue the use of amitriptyline. What alternative treatment options should the GP suggest next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral duloxetine

      Explanation:

      The initial drugs recommended for treating neuropathic pain are amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these medications are ineffective, the next step is to try one of the remaining three drugs. Therefore, the correct option is duloxetine.

      According to NICE guidelines, lidocaine patches are not a recommended treatment for neuropathic pain.

      Topical capsaicin is only suitable for localized neuropathic pain. Using topical capsaicin for neuropathic pain affecting the entire leg would not be appropriate.

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, including oral naproxen, are not recommended for treating neuropathic pain.

      Understanding Neuropathic Pain

      Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and doesn’t respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.

      In 2013, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance on the management of neuropathic pain. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment doesn’t work, patients may be switched to one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, they should be switched rather than added to.

      Tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that the guidance may vary for specific conditions. For example, carbamazepine is used first-line for trigeminal neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - Which one of the following statements regarding the electronic fit note (eMed) is...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the electronic fit note (eMed) is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A printed copy of the electronic fit note is handed to the patient

      Explanation:

      The eMed Initiative: Electronic Fit Notes

      The eMed initiative is a project by the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) aimed at replacing handwritten fit notes with electronically printed ones. This new system will be integrated into existing electronic record systems, such as EMIS, and stored alongside the patient’s record. The printed note will be given to the patient, who will use it in the same way as a handwritten note.

      It is important to note that the electronic fit note will not be sent electronically to the employer, patient, or DWP. However, the DWP plans to collect anonymous data on sick notes in the future to inform policy development.

      Despite the introduction of the eMed initiative, GPs will still be able to issue handwritten notes during home visits. Hospital doctors will also not be switching to the new system. The eMed initiative is a step towards modernizing the healthcare system and improving efficiency in the issuance of fit notes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old man with a BMI of 50 kg/m² comes to you seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a BMI of 50 kg/m² comes to you seeking advice on how to lose weight. He has no significant medical history and is not on any regular medication.

      As per the latest NICE guidelines on weight loss, what would be your first-line recommendation to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for consideration of bariatric surgery

      Explanation:

      The latest guidance from NICE recommends bariatric surgery as the primary option for adults with a BMI exceeding 50 kg/m2, rather than lifestyle changes or medication. Therefore, patients falling under this category should be referred for bariatric surgery evaluation.

      In cases where the waiting time for surgery is prolonged, drug treatment with orlistat may be prescribed to maintain or reduce weight. Orlistat is approved for adults aged 18-75 years with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more, or a BMI of 28 kg/m2 or more with associated risk factors, when used in conjunction with a mildly hypocaloric diet.

      In addition to referral consideration, advising the patient to follow a low-calorie diet and increase physical activity would be beneficial. As this patient is at high risk of developing type 2 diabetes, testing for it may be necessary, but should not delay urgent intervention to reduce their BMI.

      Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management

      Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.

      There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - Which one of the following is an example of a primary accident prevention...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is an example of a primary accident prevention strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stair guards

      Explanation:

      Accidents and Preventive Healthcare

      Accidents are a common cause of childhood deaths, with road traffic accidents being the most common cause of fatal accidents. Boys and children from lower social classes are more likely to have an accident. Around 15-20% of children attend Emergency Departments in the course of a year due to an accident. Preventive healthcare can be divided into primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention strategies. Primary prevention aims to prevent accidents or diseases from happening, while secondary prevention aims to prevent injury from the accident or disease. Tertiary prevention aims to limit the impact of the injury. Examples of preventive healthcare strategies include teaching road safety, wearing seat belts, and teaching parents first aid. Some strategies, such as reducing driving speed, may have a role in both primary and secondary accident prevention. By implementing these strategies, we can reduce the number of accidents and improve the overall health and safety of children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Genomic Medicine (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed