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  • Question 1 - Fusidic acid is primarily indicated for infections caused by which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Fusidic acid is primarily indicated for infections caused by which of the following microorganisms:

      Your Answer: Gonococcal infections

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcal infections

      Explanation:

      Fusidic acid is a narrow spectrum antibiotic used for staphylococcal infections, primarily topically for minor staphylococcal skin (impetigo) or eye infection. It is sometimes used orally for penicillin-resistant staphylococcal infection, including osteomyelitis or endocarditis, in combination with other antibacterials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following statements is correct with regards to Horner's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct with regards to Horner's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Miosis occurs due to paralysis of the dilator pupillae muscle.

      Explanation:

      The characteristics of Horner’s syndrome are pupil constriction, partial ptosis and anhidrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - If the null hypothesis is wrongly rejected when it is actually true, this...

    Incorrect

    • If the null hypothesis is wrongly rejected when it is actually true, this is an example of:

      Your Answer: A test with nonparametric data

      Correct Answer: A test with a type I error

      Explanation:

      A type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is wrongly rejected when it is actually true and we conclude that there is a difference of effect when in reality there is none (a false positive result).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      53.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 23-year-old female has been prescribed a medication in the first trimester of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female has been prescribed a medication in the first trimester of pregnancy due to a life-threatening medical problem. After delivery, the foetus is found to have nasal hypoplasia, stippling of his bones and atrophy of bilateral optic discs along with growth retardation. Which ONE of the following drugs has this woman most likely received?

      Your Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Warfarin is teratogenic and can cause a host of abnormalities in the growing foetus. These include hypoplasia of the nasal bridge, stippling of the epiphyses, multiple ophthalmic complications, growth retardation, pectus carinatum, atrial septal defect, ventriculomegaly and a patent ductus arteriosus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of these increases osteoclast activity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these increases osteoclast activity?

      Your Answer: Calcitonin

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Osteoclasts are bone cell that break down bone tissue. Parathyroid hormone increases osteoclastic activity.1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases osteoclastic activityCalcitonin inhibits osteoclastic activityBisphosphonates are osteoclast inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following does NOT affect the rate of flow of a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does NOT affect the rate of flow of a liquid through a tube:

      Your Answer: Length of the tube

      Correct Answer: Surface tension

      Explanation:

      Flow through a tube is dependent upon:The pressure difference across the ends of the tube (P1– P2)The resistance to flow provided by the tube (R)This is Darcy’s law, which is analogous to Ohm’s law in electronics:Flow = (P1– P2) / RResistance in the tube is defined by Poiseuille’s law, which is determined by the diameter of the tube and the viscosity of the fluid. Poiseuille’s law is as follows:Resistance = (8VL) / (πR4)Where:V = The viscosity of the fluidL = The length of the tubeR = The radius of the tubeTherefore, in simple terms, resistance is directly proportional to the viscosity of the fluid and the length of the tube and inversely proportional to the radius of the tube. Of these three factors, the most important quantitatively and physiologically is vessel radius.It can be seen that small changes in the radius can have a dramatic effect on the flow of the fluid. For example, the constriction of an artery by 20% will decrease the flow by approximately 60%.Another important and frequently quoted example of this inverse relationship is that of the radius of an intravenous cannula. Doubling the diameter of a cannula increases the flow rate by 16-fold (r4). This is the reason the diameter of an intravenous cannula in resuscitation scenarios is so important.*Please note that knowledge of the detail of Poiseuille’s law is not a requirement of the RCEM Basic Sciences Curriculum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding cortical areas, which one is found in the posterior part of the...

    Correct

    • Regarding cortical areas, which one is found in the posterior part of the inferior frontal gyrus?

      Your Answer: Broca’s area

      Explanation:

      Broca’s area is involved in the expressive aspects of spoken and written language (production of sentences constrained by the rules of grammar and syntax). It corresponds to the opercular and triangular parts of the inferior frontal gyrus (BA 44 and 45). These areas are defined by two rami (branches) of the lateral sulcus (one ascending, one horizontal) which ‘slice into’ the inferior frontal gyrus. In keeping with its role in speech and language, Broca’s area is immediately anterior to the motor and premotor representations of the face, tongue and larynx. A homologous area in the opposite hemisphere is involved in non-verbal communication such as facial expression, gesticulation and modulation of the rate, rhythm and intonation of speech.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding co-amoxiclav, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding co-amoxiclav, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav therapy is associated with a risk of developing cholestatic jaundice.

      Correct Answer: Clavulanic acid acts to inhibit cross-linking of bacterial peptidoglycan polymers.

      Explanation:

      Co-amoxiclav consists of amoxicillin with the beta-lactamase inhibitor clavulanic acid. Clavulanic acid itself has no significant antibacterial activity but, by inactivating beta-lactamases, it makes the combination active against beta-lactamase-producing bacteria that are resistant to amoxicillin.The most common adverse effects of co-amoxiclav include nausea, vomiting, skin rash and diarrhoea. Pseudomembranous colitis should be considered if a person develops severe diarrhoea during or after treatment with co-amoxiclav. Cholestatic jaundice can occur either during or shortly after the use of co-amoxiclav. An epidemiological study has shown that the risk of acute liver toxicity was about 6 times greater with co-amoxiclav than with amoxicillin. Cholestatic jaundice is more common in patients above the age of 65 years and in men; these reactions have only rarely been reported in children. Jaundice is usually self-limiting and very rarely fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      51.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding inhaled corticosteroids, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding inhaled corticosteroids, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Lower doses of inhaled corticosteroids may be required in smokers.

      Explanation:

      Current and previous smoking reduces the effectiveness of inhaled corticosteroids and higher doses may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old man who has a history of asthma arrives at the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man who has a history of asthma arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations that have been going on for 5 days. Which of the following beta-blockers is the safest for an asthmatic patient?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Atenolol is a beta blocker, which is a type of medication that works by preventing certain natural substances in the body, such as epinephrine, from acting on the heart and blood vessels. This effect reduces heart rate, blood pressure, and cardiac strain. Atenolol, bisoprolol fumarate, metoprolol tartrate, nebivolol, and (to a lesser extent) acebutolol have a lower action on beta2 (bronchial) receptors and are thus cardio selective but not cardiac specific. They have a lower effect on airway resistance, although they are not without this adverse effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      1915.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Monoamine oxidase is primarily involved in the degradation of which of the following:...

    Correct

    • Monoamine oxidase is primarily involved in the degradation of which of the following:

      Your Answer: Noradrenaline

      Explanation:

      Catecholamines are broken down extracellularly and in the liver by catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) and intracellularly by monoamine oxidase (MAO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following muscles inserts into the patella? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles inserts into the patella?

      Your Answer: The quadriceps femoris complex

      Explanation:

      The quadriceps femoris muscle translates to “four-headed muscle” from Latin. It bears this name because it consists of four individual muscles; rectus femoris, vastus medialis, vastus lateralis, and vastus intermedius. Out of all four muscles, only the rectus femoris crosses both the hip and knee joints. The others cross only the knee joint. These muscles differ in their origin, but share a common quadriceps femoris tendon which inserts into the patella. The function of the quadriceps femoris muscle is to extend the leg at the knee joint and to flex the thigh at the hip joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 29-year-old male presents with a 3-day history of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male presents with a 3-day history of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain.All the following are causes of infectious bloody diarrhoea EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Correct Answer: Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Infective causes of bloody diarrhoea include:Salmonella sppCampylobacter sppSchistosomiasisEntamoeba histolytica (Amoebiasis )Shigella sppClostridium difficileYersinia sppEnteroinvasive Escherichia coliEnterotoxigenic Escherichia coli is non-invasive and does not cause inflammation of the gut and bloody diarrhoea. It presents with copious watery diarrhoea and usually are not associated with abdominal cramping.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 66-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with a nose bleed. She...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with a nose bleed. She says that she has been having frequent episodes of nose bleeds over the past four months, along with increasing fatigue and some weight loss. On examination, she has a diffuse petechial rash and hypertrophy of the gingiva. Which one of the following conditions is this patient most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)

      Explanation:

      The history of nosebleeds and fatigue, and gingival hyperplasia presents a typical picture of acute myeloid leukaemia. Leukemic infiltrates within the gingiva cause hypertrophy and distinguish this condition from other types of leukaemia. The fatigue is secondary to anaemia, while the nosebleeds are caused by thrombocytopenia secondary to leukemic infiltration of bone marrow. Patients may also report frequent infections secondary to neutropenia and hepatosplenomegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is synthesised by which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is synthesised by which of the following:

      Your Answer: Posterior pituitary

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Antidiuretic hormone is synthesised in the hypothalamus and transported to the posterior pituitary within nerve fibres where it is stored in secretory granules. ADH binds V2 receptors on renal principal cells in the late distal tubule and collecting ducts, raising cAMP levels and causing intracellular vesicles to fuse with the apical membrane. In their membrane these vesicles have water channels called aquaporins, which increase the water permeability allowing greater water reabsorption and concentration of urine. Excess levels of ADH results in syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) characterised by hyponatremia with concomitant hypo-osmolality and high urine osmolality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A range of one standard deviation above and below the mean includes what...

    Incorrect

    • A range of one standard deviation above and below the mean includes what approximate percentage of the sample values:

      Your Answer: 0.56

      Correct Answer: 0.68

      Explanation:

      A range of one SD above and below the mean (+/- 1 SD) includes 68.2% of the sample values.A range of two SD above and below the mean (+/- 2 SD) includes 95.4% of the sample values.A range of three SD above and below the mean (+/- 3 SD) includes 99.7% of the sample values.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      67.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old man presents with signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction. His...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction. His GP had recently given him a new medication.Which one of these is the most likely medication responsible for the drug-induced anaphylactic reaction?

      Your Answer: Penicillin

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of drug-induced anaphylaxis is penicillin.The second commonest cause are NSAIDs. Other drugs associated with anaphylaxis are ACE inhibitors and aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A patient suffers from an injury and as a consequence, the nerve that...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffers from an injury and as a consequence, the nerve that was damaged innervates the obturator internus muscle.In which of the following nerves is the obturator internus muscle innervated by?

      Your Answer: Inferior gluteal nerve

      Correct Answer: Nerve to obturator internus

      Explanation:

      The obturator internus is innervated by the obturator internus nerve (L5–S2), a branch of sacral plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following laboratory findings is NOT typical of von Willebrand disease...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following laboratory findings is NOT typical of von Willebrand disease (VWD):

      Your Answer: Normal PT

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytopaenia

      Explanation:

      Laboratory findings typically show (although this varies depending on VWD type):Abnormal PFA-100 testLow factor VIII levels (if low a factor VIII/VWF binding assay is performed)Prolonged APTT (or normal)Normal PTLow VWF levelsDefective platelet aggregationNormal platelet count

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Approximately what proportion of lymphocytes are B-cells: ...

    Incorrect

    • Approximately what proportion of lymphocytes are B-cells:

      Your Answer: 0.05

      Correct Answer: 0.2

      Explanation:

      B-cells (20% of lymphocytes) mature in the bone marrow and circulate in the peripheral blood until they undergo recognition of antigen. B-cell immunoglobulin molecules synthesised in the cell are exported and bound to the surface membrane to become the B-cell receptor (BCR) which can recognise and bind to a specific antigen (either free or presented by APCs). The BCR is also important for antigen internalisation, processing and presentation to T helper cells. Most antibody responses require help from antigen-specific T helper cells (although some antigens such as polysaccharide can lead to T-cell independent B-cell antibody production). When the B-cell is activated, the receptor itself is secreted as free soluble immunoglobulin and the B-cell matures into a memory B-cell or a plasma cell (a B-cell in its high-rate immunoglobulin secreting state). Plasma cells are non-motile and are found predominantly in the bone marrow or spleen. Most plasma cells are short-lived (1 – 2 weeks) but some may survive much longer. A proportion of B-cells persist as memory cells, whose increased number and rapid response underlies the augmented secondary response of the adaptive immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A patient presents with acute severe asthma. Her initial salbutamol nebulization produced a...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with acute severe asthma. Her initial salbutamol nebulization produced a poor response and you administer another nebuliser with ipratropium bromide added on.Which statement about ipratropium bromide is true?

      Your Answer: It commonly causes tremor as a side effect

      Correct Answer: It can trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Ipratropium bromide is an antimuscarinic drug. It is used in the management of acute asthma and COPD. It provides short-term relief in chronic asthma. Short-acting β2agonists are preferred and act more quickly.The commonest side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. Tremor is commonly seen with β2agonists. It can trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in patients that are susceptible. First-line treatment for moderate asthma attacks is short-acting β2agonists.The BTS guidelines recommend that nebulised ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4-6 hourly) be added to β2agonist treatment in patients with a poor initial response to β2agonist therapy or with acute severe or life-threatening asthma.Its duration of action is 3-6 hours, maximum effect occurs 30-60 minutes after use, and bronchodilation can be maintained with three times per day dosing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old female patient with a history of hypothyroidism arrives at the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient with a history of hypothyroidism arrives at the Emergency Department after taking 30 of her 200 mcg levothyroxine tablets. She tells you she's 'tired of life' and 'can't take it any longer.' She is currently asymptomatic, and her findings are all within normal limits.What is the minimum amount of levothyroxine that must be taken before thyrotoxicosis symptoms appear?

      Your Answer: >10 mg

      Explanation:

      An overdose of levothyroxine can happen by accident or on purpose. Intentional overdosing is sometimes done to lose weight, but it can also happen in patients who are suicidal. The development of thyrotoxicosis, which can lead to excited sympathetic activity and high metabolism syndrome, is the main source of concern. The time between ingestion and the emergence of clinical features associated with an overdose is often quite long.After a levothyroxine overdose, the majority of patients are asymptomatic. Symptoms and signs are usually only seen in patients who have taken more than 10 mg of levothyroxine in total.The following are the most commonly seen clinical features in patients developing clinical features:TremorAgitationSweatingInsomniaHeadacheIncreased body temperatureIncreased blood pressureDiarrhoea and vomitingLess common clinical features associated with levothyroxine overdose include:SeizuresAcute psychosisThyroid stormTachycardiaArrhythmiasComaThe continued absorption of the ingested levothyroxine causes a progressive rise in both total serum T4 and total serum T3 levels in the first 24 hours after an overdose. However, in some cases, the biochemical picture is completely normal. Thyroid function tests are not always recommended after a thyroxine overdose. Although elevated thyroxine levels are common, they have little clinical significance and have no impact on treatment. Following a levothyroxine overdose, the following biochemical features are common:T4 and T3 levels in the blood are elevated.Free T4 and Free T3 levels are higher.TSH levels in the blood are low.If the patient is cooperative and more than 10 mg of levothyroxine has been consumed, activated charcoal can be given (i.e., likely to become symptomatic)Within an hour of ingestion, the patient presents.The treatment is mostly supportive and aimed at managing the sympathomimetic symptoms that come with levothyroxine overdose. If beta blockers aren’t an option, try propranolol 10-40 mg PO 6 hours or diltiazem 60-180 mg 8 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      105.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following nerves supplies the abductor pollicis brevis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves supplies the abductor pollicis brevis?

      Your Answer: The radial nerve

      Correct Answer: The recurrent branch of the median nerve

      Explanation:

      Abductor pollicis brevis is innervated by the recurrent (thenar) branch of median nerve (root value C8 and T1).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Common causes of exudates are infection, pericarditis, and malignancy.Which one statement about exudates...

    Correct

    • Common causes of exudates are infection, pericarditis, and malignancy.Which one statement about exudates is true?

      Your Answer: LDH levels are usually high

      Explanation:

      An exudate is an inflammatory fluid emanating from the intravascular space due to changes in the permeability of the surrounding microcirculation.Exudates are cloudy. It has high LDH levels, serum protein ratio >0.5, protein content >2.9g/dl, specific gravity of >1.020 and a serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) of <1.2g/dl.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      55.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following nerves supplies innervation to the extensor hallucis longus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves supplies innervation to the extensor hallucis longus?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Extensor hallucis longus is innervated by the deep fibular nerve (root value L5 and S1).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      70.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 23-year-old has a known diagnosis of HIV. Blood is sent to the...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old has a known diagnosis of HIV. Blood is sent to the laboratory for tests.AIDS be diagnosed at a CD4 counts below?

      Your Answer: 200 cells/mm 3

      Explanation:

      A normal CD4 count ranges from 500-1000 cells/mm3.At CD4 count of less than 350 cells/mm3 treatment with anti-retroviral therapy should be considered.At a CD4 count of >200 cells/mm3 AIDS is diagnosed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Streptococcus pyogenes is commonly implicated in all of the following infective diseases EXCEPT for:...

    Correct

    • Streptococcus pyogenes is commonly implicated in all of the following infective diseases EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Gas gangrene

      Explanation:

      Gas gangrene is a life-threatening infection caused by toxin-producing Clostridium species, primarily Clostridium perfringens, and characterised by rapidly progressive muscle necrosis, gas production and sepsis.Gas gangrene is not a notifiable disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is NOT typically present in the nasopharyngeal flora: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT typically present in the nasopharyngeal flora:

      Your Answer: Candida spp.

      Correct Answer: Bacteroides spp.

      Explanation:

      Bacteroides spp. are typically found in the normal flora of the lower gastrointestinal tract. Species commonly found in the flora of the nasopharynx include: Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus epidermidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, Corynebacterium spp., Moraxella spp. and Candida spp.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which cervical interspace is most likely injured if a patient presents with difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • Which cervical interspace is most likely injured if a patient presents with difficulty of shoulder abduction and elbow flexion, pain in the right shoulder and lateral arm, and decreased sensation over the deltoid and lateral arm?

      Your Answer: C3-C4

      Correct Answer: C4-C5

      Explanation:

      In the setting of cervical radiculopathy, because the nerve root of a spinal nerve is compressed or otherwise impaired, the pain and symptomatology can spread far from the neck and radiates to arm, neck, chest, upper back and/or shoulders. Often muscle weakness and impaired deep tendon reflexes are noted along the course of the spinal nerve.Cervical radiculopathy is almost always unilateral, although, in rare cases, both nerves at a given level may be impacted. Those rare presentations can confound physical diagnosis and require acceleration to advanced imaging especially in cases of trauma. If there is nerve impingement, the affected side will be reduced relative to the unaffected side. Reduction in strength of muscles innervated by the affected nerve is also significant physical finding.For a C4-C5 injury, the following symptoms may present:Weakness in the deltoid muscle (front and side of the shoulder) and upper armShoulder painNumbness along the outside of the upper arm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      108.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old man, known hypertensive on amlodipine has been visiting his GP with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man, known hypertensive on amlodipine has been visiting his GP with symptoms of headache, tiredness, and muscle weakness. His blood test today shows a low potassium level of 2.8 mmol/L, and a slightly raised sodium level at 147 mmol/L.What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addison’s disease

      Correct Answer: Conn’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      When there are excessive levels of aldosterone independent of the renin-angiotensin aldosterone axis, primary hyperaldosteronism occurs. Secondary hyperaldosteronism occurs due to high renin levels.Causes of primary hyperaldosteronism include:Conn’s syndromeAdrenal hyperplasiaAdrenal cancerFamilial aldosteronismCauses of secondary hyperaldosteronism include:Renal vasoconstrictionOedematous disordersDrugs – diureticsObstructive renal artery diseaseAlthough patients are usually asymptomatic, when clinical features are present, classically hyperaldosteronism presents with:HypokalaemiaSodium levels can be normal or slightly raisedHypertensionMetabolic alkalosisLess common, clinical features are:LethargyHeadachesIntermittent paraesthesiaPolyuria and polydipsiaMuscle weakness (from persistent hypokalaemia)Tetany and paralysis (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      63.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infections (1/3) 33%
Pharmacology (4/8) 50%
Anatomy (3/7) 43%
Head And Neck (1/2) 50%
Evidence Based Medicine (0/2) 0%
Statistics (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Endocrine Physiology (0/2) 0%
Physiology (1/5) 20%
Basic Cellular (0/1) 0%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (1/2) 50%
Lower Limb (1/3) 33%
Microbiology (2/4) 50%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/2) 50%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Pathology (2/4) 50%
Immune Responses (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Endocrine Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
General Pathology (1/1) 100%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Principles (0/1) 0%
Passmed