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Question 1
Correct
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A concerned father brings his 6-year-old daughter to see the GP, worried about her walking and balance. The child learned to walk around 2 years old, much the same as her older brother. However, over the last few months, her dad has noticed that she has become reluctant to walk and often trips or falls when she does.
On examination, the child is of average build but has disproportionately large calves. When asked to walk across the room she does so on her tiptoes. Gowers test is positive.
What investigation is considered most appropriate to confirm the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Genetic analysis
Explanation:A diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) can now be made through genetic testing instead of a muscle biopsy. The symptoms and history described strongly suggest DMD, which is a genetic disorder that causes muscle wasting and weakness. Classic features of DMD include calf hyperplasia and a positive Gowers test. Most individuals with DMD will require a wheelchair by puberty, and management is primarily conservative. CT imaging of the legs is not typically used for diagnosis, and while a high creatine kinase can indicate muscular dystrophy in children, genetic testing is more definitive. Muscle function testing is useful for monitoring disease progression but not for initial diagnosis.
Understanding Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It affects the dystrophin genes that are essential for normal muscular function. The disorder is characterized by progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Other features include calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when a child uses their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.
To diagnose Duchenne muscular dystrophy, doctors typically look for elevated levels of creatinine kinase in the blood. However, genetic testing has now replaced muscle biopsy as the preferred method for obtaining a definitive diagnosis. Unfortunately, there is currently no effective treatment for Duchenne muscular dystrophy, so management is largely supportive.
The prognosis for Duchenne muscular dystrophy is poor. Most children with the disorder are unable to walk by the age of 12 years, and patients typically survive to around the age of 25-30 years. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is also associated with dilated cardiomyopathy, which can further complicate the management of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 6-week-old baby and their mum come to the hospital for their postnatal baby check. The infant has an asymmetrical skinfold around their hips. The skin folds under the buttocks and on the thighs are not aligning properly.
What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Ultrasound scan of the hip
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Developmental Hip Dysplasia
Developmental hip dysplasia is a condition that must be detected early for effective treatment. Clinical tests such as Barlows and Ortolani’s manoeuvres can screen for the condition, but an ultrasound scan of the hips is the gold standard for diagnosis and grading of severity. Asymmetrical skinfolds, limited hip movement, leg length discrepancy, and abnormal gait are also clues to the diagnosis. Isotope bone scans have no place in the diagnosis of developmental hip dysplasia. X-rays may be used in older children, but plain film X-rays do not exclude hip instability. Early detection and treatment with conservative management can prevent the need for complex surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy comes to the emergency department complaining of groin pain that has been present for the past two hours. He reports feeling nauseous and has vomited twice. He admits to having unprotected sexual intercourse recently. Upon examination, there is swelling and tenderness in the left testicle and scrotum. The left side lacks the cremaster reflex, and lifting the affected testicle causes more pain. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Testicular torsion is a condition where the testis twists on the remnant of the processus vaginalis, leading to restricted blood flow. The main symptom is severe testicular pain, which may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. The affected testis may also appear swollen and red. The cremaster reflex may be absent on the affected side, and elevating the testicle can worsen the pain.
While the patient had unprotected sex recently, the symptoms are not typical of epididymitis, which usually involves urinary symptoms and relief of pain with testicular elevation (Prehn’s sign positive).Acute Scrotal Disorders in Children: Differential Diagnoses
When a child presents with an acute scrotal problem, it is crucial to rule out testicular torsion as it requires immediate surgical intervention. The most common age for testicular torsion is around puberty. On the other hand, an irreducible inguinal hernia is more common in children under two years old. Epididymitis, which is inflammation of the epididymis, is rare in prepubescent children. It is important to consider these differential diagnoses when evaluating a child with an acute scrotal disorder. Proper diagnosis and prompt treatment can prevent serious complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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As an F1 in the emergency department, you receive a 15-year-old girl who has been brought in from her high school due to complaints of abdominal pain and nausea. Upon examination, you discover that she is septic and can only provide a brief medical history before becoming drowsy. The surgical team suspects that she may have a perforated appendicitis and requires immediate surgery. Unfortunately, the patient's parents cannot be reached with the contact numbers provided by the school, and the patient is not in a state to provide consent for the operation. What would be the most appropriate course of action in this situation?
Your Answer: Take the patient to surgery immediately
Explanation:According to GMC, it is permissible to administer emergency treatment to a child or young person without their consent in order to save their life or prevent their health from seriously deteriorating. This means that obtaining consent from their parents, seeking permission from others, or obtaining a court order is not required.
Understanding Consent in Children
The issue of consent in children can be complex and confusing. However, there are some general guidelines to follow. If a patient is under 16 years old, they may be able to consent to treatment if they are deemed competent. This is determined by the Fraser guidelines, which were previously known as Gillick competence. However, even if a child is competent, they cannot refuse treatment that is deemed to be in their best interest.
For patients between the ages of 16 and 18, it is generally assumed that they are competent to give consent to treatment. Patients who are 18 years or older can consent to or refuse treatment.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years old, the Fraser Guidelines outline specific requirements that must be met. These include ensuring that the young person understands the advice given by the healthcare professional, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to engage in sexual activity with or without treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without treatment. Ultimately, the young person’s best interests must be taken into account when deciding whether to provide contraceptive advice or treatment, with or without parental consent.
In summary, understanding consent in children requires careful consideration of age, competence, and best interests. The Fraser Guidelines provide a useful framework for healthcare professionals to follow when providing treatment and advice to young patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are working in a district general hospital and are asked to perform a routine check on a 6-month-old infant. You're part of the paediatric team and haven't had any access to the previous medical records.
On examination, the infant appears healthy with appropriate weight for age and has a strong cry. There are no signs of respiratory distress and no abnormal heart sounds on auscultation. However, you notice a cleft palate. What is the most likely association with this finding?Your Answer: Congenital heart disease
Correct Answer: Maternal anti-epileptic use in pregnancy
Explanation:The use of anti-epileptic medication by expectant mothers can lead to the development of orofacial clefts in their babies. Orofacial clefts are a common birth defect that can be caused by various factors, including smoking, benzodiazepine use, anti-epileptic medication, and rubella infection during pregnancy. Treatment for orofacial clefts requires a team of specialists, including plastic and orthodontic surgeons, paediatricians, and speech therapists. It is important to note that congenital heart disease does not increase the risk of orofacial clefts.
Understanding Cleft Lip and Palate
Cleft lip and palate are common congenital deformities that affect approximately 1 in every 1,000 babies. These conditions can occur as isolated developmental malformations or as a component of over 200 birth defects. The most common variants of cleft lip and palate are isolated cleft lip, isolated cleft palate, and combined cleft lip and palate.
The pathophysiology of cleft lip and palate involves polygenic inheritance and an increased risk for babies whose mothers use antiepileptic medication. Cleft lip occurs when the fronto-nasal and maxillary processes fail to fuse, while cleft palate results from the failure of the palatine processes and nasal septum to fuse.
Children with cleft lip and palate may experience problems with feeding and speech. Orthodontic devices can be helpful for feeding, while speech therapy can help 75% of children develop normal speech. Babies with cleft palate are at an increased risk of developing otitis media.
Management of cleft lip and palate involves repairing the cleft lip earlier than the cleft palate. The timing of repair varies, with some practices repairing the cleft lip in the first week of life and others waiting up to three months. Cleft palates are typically repaired between 6-12 months of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 6-week-old baby is brought to the emergency department by their parent due to vomiting after every feed. The vomit is large in volume, non-bilious, and projectile. The parent reports that this started as small amounts of vomit and infrequent, but has become more frequent and increased in volume over the past week. Despite vomiting, the baby still appears eager to feed.
During the examination, a small mass is felt in the upper right quadrant and a succussion splash is heard upon auscultation.
The baby is admitted and undergoes an ultrasound which confirms the diagnosis of pyloric stenosis due to increased pyloric muscle thickness, length, volume, and transverse diameter.
What is the recommended surgical intervention for this infant?Your Answer: Ramstedt pyloromyotomy
Explanation:Understanding Pyloric Stenosis
Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.
The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.
Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl presents to you with her parents. She has been experiencing chronic diarrhoea for the past eight months, with five to seven loose stools per day. Her parents report that the stools appear to contain undigested food from previous meals, such as carrots, peas, and sweet corn. Despite this, she has been growing well and remains stable on the 75th percentile for weight, height, and head circumference. She has not experienced any other symptoms or abdominal pain, and her examination is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis from the options below?
Your Answer: Toddlers diarrhoea
Explanation:In exams, if a toddler’s stool has undigested food and includes carrots and peas, it is likely an indication of chronic nonspecific diarrhea or toddler’s diarrhea.
Understanding Diarrhoea in Children
Diarrhoea is a common condition in children that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is gastroenteritis, which is often accompanied by fever and vomiting for the first two days. The main risk associated with this condition is severe dehydration, which can be life-threatening if left untreated. The most common cause of gastroenteritis is rotavirus, and the diarrhoea may last up to a week. The treatment for this condition is rehydration.
Chronic diarrhoea is another type of diarrhoea that can affect infants and toddlers. In the developed world, the most common cause of chronic diarrhoea in infants is cow’s’ milk intolerance. Toddler diarrhoea, on the other hand, is characterized by stools that vary in consistency and often contain undigested food. Other causes of chronic diarrhoea in children include coeliac disease and post-gastroenteritis lactose intolerance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of stiffness, swelling, and pain in both knees. During the examination, the doctor observes a salmon-pink rash on her legs. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Explanation:Juvenile idiopathic arthritis, also known as Still’s disease, is identified by the presence of a distinct salmon-pink rash along with joint pain. While joint pain may also be present in Henoch-Schonlein purpura, the rash in this condition is palpable and purpuric. Meningitis, on the other hand, is characterized by a non-blanching purpuric rash but does not cause joint pain.
Understanding Systemic Onset Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is a condition that affects individuals under the age of 16 and lasts for more than six weeks. It is also known as juvenile chronic arthritis. Systemic onset JIA, also referred to as Still’s disease, is a type of JIA that presents with several symptoms. These symptoms include pyrexia, a salmon-pink rash, lymphadenopathy, arthritis, uveitis, anorexia, and weight loss.
When investigating systemic onset JIA, doctors may find that the antinuclear antibody (ANA) is positive, especially in oligoarticular JIA. However, the rheumatoid factor is usually negative. It is important to note that systemic onset JIA can be challenging to diagnose, as its symptoms can mimic other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 14 kg 2-year-old girl with a history of vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days is brought to the pediatric emergency department due to increasing fussiness and fatigue. The child has not eaten anything for the past 24 hours and has only been able to tolerate a small amount of fluids. The mother also noticed that the child has been urinating less frequently.
Upon examination, the child appears lethargic and unresponsive. The heart rate is 155 beats per minute (normal range: 90-140/min), respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute (normal range: 20-30/min), and systolic blood pressure is 88 mmHg (normal range: 80-100 mmHg). The child's temperature is within normal limits.
There are no skin rashes present. The capillary refill time is 3 seconds, and the child's extremities are cold and pale. Skin turgor is decreased, and the mucous membranes are dry. What can you conclude about the hydration status of the girl and how would you manage the patient based on your conclusion?Your Answer: There is early (compensated) shock. Urgent fluid resuscitation is needed
Explanation:Managing Diarrhoea and Vomiting in Children
Diarrhoea and vomiting are common in young children, with rotavirus being the most common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. According to the 2009 NICE guidelines, diarrhoea usually lasts for 5-7 days and stops within 2 weeks, while vomiting usually lasts for 1-2 days and stops within 3 days. When assessing hydration status, NICE recommends using normal, dehydrated, or shocked categories instead of the traditional mild, moderate, or severe categories.
Children younger than 1 year, especially those younger than 6 months, infants who were of low birth weight, and those who have passed six or more diarrhoeal stools in the past 24 hours or vomited three times or more in the past 24 hours are at an increased risk of dehydration. Additionally, children who have not been offered or have not been able to tolerate supplementary fluids before presentation, infants who have stopped breastfeeding during the illness, and those with signs of malnutrition are also at risk.
If clinical shock is suspected, children should be admitted for intravenous rehydration. For children without evidence of dehydration, it is recommended to continue breastfeeding and other milk feeds, encourage fluid intake, and discourage fruit juices and carbonated drinks. If dehydration is suspected, give 50 ml/kg low osmolarity oral rehydration solution (ORS) solution over 4 hours, plus ORS solution for maintenance, often and in small amounts. It is also important to continue breastfeeding and consider supplementing with usual fluids, including milk feeds or water, but not fruit juices or carbonated drinks.
In terms of diagnosis, NICE suggests doing a stool culture in certain situations, such as when septicaemia is suspected, there is blood and/or mucous in the stool, or the child is immunocompromised. A stool culture should also be considered if the child has recently been abroad, the diarrhoea has not improved by day 7, or there is uncertainty about the diagnosis of gastroenteritis. Features suggestive of hypernatraemic dehydration include jittery movements, increased muscle tone, hyperreflexia, convulsions, and drowsiness or coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl, Lily, is taken to the pediatrician by her father. He is concerned about an umbilical hernia that Lily has had since birth. He was told that it would likely go away on its own, but it has not yet resolved. The pediatrician conducts an examination and finds a 1.5 cm umbilical hernia that is easily reducible. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this, according to the guidelines?
Your Answer: Compression therapy
Correct Answer: Delaying referral for elective outpatient surgical repair until 5 years of age, if still unresolved
Explanation:According to medical guidelines, umbilical hernias in children usually close on their own by the age of 4-5. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age or is large and causing symptoms, surgical repair is recommended. In the case of a small hernia in a 3-year-old child, observation is appropriate until the age of 5. If the hernia becomes incarcerated, it should be manually reduced and surgically repaired within 24 hours. The use of compression therapy after surgery is not recommended. Waiting for the hernia to self-resolve after the age of 5 is not advised as it is unlikely to happen and could lead to incarceration. These recommendations are based on BMJ Best Practice guidelines.
Umbilical Hernia in Children: Causes and Treatment
Umbilical hernias are a common occurrence in children and are often detected during the newborn examination. This condition is characterized by a bulge or protrusion near the belly button, caused by a weakness in the abdominal muscles. While umbilical hernias can occur in any child, they are more common in Afro-Caribbean infants and those with Down’s syndrome or mucopolysaccharide storage diseases.
Fortunately, in most cases, umbilical hernias in children do not require treatment and will resolve on their own by the age of three. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age or becomes painful, surgery may be necessary to repair the abdominal wall. It is important to monitor the hernia and seek medical attention if there are any changes in size or symptoms.
In summary, umbilical hernias are a common condition in children that typically resolve on their own without treatment. However, certain factors such as ethnicity and underlying medical conditions may increase the likelihood of developing an umbilical hernia. Parents should be aware of the signs and symptoms of umbilical hernias and seek medical attention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to her family doctor complaining of bilateral knee pain that has been bothering her for the past four weeks. She mentions that she is a member of her school's track and field team but denies any recent injuries or falls. During the physical examination, the doctor notes tenderness in both of her tibial tuberosities. However, her anterior and posterior cruciate ligament stress tests, as well as the Apley's and McMurray's tests, all yield normal results.
What would be the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Request an urgent X-ray and review her afterwards
Correct Answer: Do no further investigations - advise analgesia, reduce physical exertion and consider physiotherapy
Explanation:Osgood-Schlatter Disease: Diagnosis and Treatment
Osgood-Schlatter disease is a common condition that affects teenagers who are very active in sports. It is caused by traction, which results in numerous microscopic avulsion fractures at the tibial tuberosity. The diagnosis is clinical, and treatment is conservative. X-rays and imaging are usually normal. Physiotherapy may help by strengthening the quadriceps muscles. The pain reduces and resolves, as the bones mature and ossification is completed. It is important to avoid unnecessary investigations and refer to secondary care only if there is suspicion of other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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During a routine examination of a 4 day old baby born at 36 weeks gestation, a very prominent murmur is heard during systole and diastole, with the loudest point being over the left sternal edge. A chest X-Ray reveals massive cardiomegaly, particularly in the right atrium. The mother of the child has bipolar disorder but is otherwise healthy and has no congenital heart problems. There is no significant family history except for a paternal cousin who developed cardiomyopathy in their early twenties. Based on the given information, what is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ebstein's anomaly
Explanation:Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain in his right testicle that started four hours ago. There was no history of injury or any other medical condition. Upon examination, the right testicle was found to be retracted and lying horizontally, but it was too tender to palpate completely. The left hemiscrotum appeared normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Torsion
Explanation:Torsion: A Serious Condition to Consider
A brief history of intense pain without any accompanying symptoms should be considered as torsion. It is crucial to be cautious not to disregard the possibility of torsion even if other symptoms are present, as there is only a small window of time for treatment. While a horizontal-lying testis is a typical indication of torsion, it may not always be visible.
Torsion is a severe condition that requires immediate medical attention. It occurs when the spermatic cord twists, cutting off the blood supply to the testicle. This can lead to tissue death and, in severe cases, the loss of the testicle. Therefore, it is essential to recognize the signs and symptoms of torsion and seek medical attention promptly. Remember, a short history of severe pain in the absence of other symptoms must be regarded as torsion, and a horizontal-lying testis is a classical finding, though not always seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old child is brought in for a routine check-up, with concerns from the parents that the child is smaller than expected for their age. The parents mention that the child has difficulty with eating and mainly consumes milk and soft foods. The child appears healthy upon examination, but is found to be on the 3rd percentile for weight. During a cardiac examination, a systolic murmur is detected in the pulmonary area and a fixed splitting to the second heart sound is heard. All pulses are palpable and within normal range. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect
Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect
Explanation:Most children with atrial septal defects (ASDs) do not show any symptoms. However, if these heart defects are not detected before birth, children with severe ASD may experience shortness of breath, fatigue, poor appetite and growth, and increased susceptibility to respiratory infections. During a physical examination, a doctor may detect an ejection systolic murmur and fixed splitting of the second heart sound.
Other congenital heart defects can be identified by the following murmurs:
– Ventricular septal defect: A pansystolic murmur in the lower left sternal border
– Coarctation of the aorta: A crescendo-decrescendo murmur in the upper left sternal border
– Patent ductus arteriosus: A diastolic machinery murmur in the upper left sternal borderCongenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 2-month-old baby is brought to the GP clinic by their parent for their first round of vaccinations. What vaccinations are recommended for this visit?
Your Answer: 6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B), one dose of MMR (Measles, Mumps and Rubella vaccine) and one dose of Rotavirus vaccine
Correct Answer: 6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B), one dose Men B (vaccine for group B meningococcal disease) and one dose of Rotavirus vaccine
Explanation:The recommended vaccination schedule includes the 6-in-1 vaccine for diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib, and hepatitis B, as well as one dose each of the MMR vaccine for measles, mumps, and rubella, and the Rotavirus vaccine.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.
It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A baby boy is born after 29 weeks gestation. On day three, a routine examination reveals a continuous mechanical murmur and bounding femoral pulses. Echocardiography confirms a haemodynamically significant, isolated patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). What should be the next step in managing this condition?
Your Answer: Medical management - cyclooxygenase inhibitor infusion
Explanation:Management of Patent Ductus Arteriosus
The ductus arteriosus is a fetal blood vessel that directs deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle directly into the descending aorta. After birth, the ductus should close within the first few days due to decreased prostaglandin levels and increased oxygen concentrations. Premature and low birth weight babies are at a higher risk of the ductus remaining open, which can lead to complications such as reduced blood supply to tissues, pressure overload of the pulmonary circulation, and volume overload of the systemic circulation.
The decision to intervene and close a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is based on the individual case and the severity of the condition. Medical management is usually the first step and involves administering a cyclooxygenase inhibitor to block prostaglandin synthesis and promote closure of the ductus. Conservative management may be an option for PDAs of little consequence, but even small PDAs pose long-term risks and may require intervention. Cardiac catheterisation is not appropriate in isolated PDA cases, and surgical management is reserved for those who fail medical management. Prostaglandin infusions may be used to keep the ductus patent in certain cardiac malformations that require a shunt for survival.
Overall, the management of PDA is crucial in preventing complications and ensuring proper blood flow. The decision to intervene should be made on a case-by-case basis, with medical management being the usual first step.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) by her parents due to a painful knee. The knee is swollen, red, hot, and tender. The patient experiences extreme pain when the joint is moved, and resists any attempts to flex it passively. Upon examination, you notice a cut on the affected knee, which the parents explain was caused by a fall on the playground. The patient has a mild fever but is otherwise healthy, without other areas of pain or additional joint involvement.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Septic arthritis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Knee Pain and Inflammation
Upon examination of a patient with knee pain and inflammation, several differential diagnoses should be considered. Septic arthritis is a likely possibility, especially if the patient has a recent cut or injury that could have allowed infective organisms to enter the joint. Non-accidental injury (NAI) should also be considered, although in this case, it is unlikely given the patient’s age, single injury, and relevant history. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE), Osgood–Schlatter’s disease, and patellofemoral pain syndrome are less likely possibilities, as they typically present with different symptoms than what is observed in this patient. Overall, a thorough examination and consideration of all possible diagnoses is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat knee pain and inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are attending labour for an emergency Caesarean section for failure to progress. The operation goes on without any complications. The baby cries immediately after birth and there is 30 seconds of delayed cord clamping. On examination, baby is centrally pink with blueish hands and feet. Saturation probes are attached to the baby and show an oxygen saturation of 73% at 5 minutes. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Observe and reassess at next interval
Explanation:During the first 10 minutes after birth, it is normal for a healthy newborn to have SpO2 readings that are not optimal. It is also common for them to experience temporary cyanosis, which typically resolves on its own and does not require intervention. It is important to evaluate the baby’s appearance and color using the APGAR scoring system at 1 minute after birth, and then again at 5 and 10 minutes.
Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, is a common occurrence in newborns. Peripheral cyanosis, which affects the hands and feet, is often seen in the first 24 hours of life and can be caused by crying or illness. Central cyanosis, on the other hand, is a more serious condition that occurs when the concentration of reduced hemoglobin in the blood exceeds 5g/dl. To differentiate between cardiac and non-cardiac causes of central cyanosis, doctors may use the nitrogen washout test, which involves giving the infant 100% oxygen for ten minutes and then measuring arterial blood gases. A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease, which can be caused by conditions such as tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries, and tricuspid atresia.
If cyanotic congenital heart disease is suspected, initial management involves supportive care and the use of prostaglandin E1, such as alprostadil, to maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in ductal-dependent congenital heart defects. This can serve as a temporary measure until a definitive diagnosis is made and surgical correction is performed.
Acrocyanosis, a type of peripheral cyanosis, is a benign condition that is often seen in healthy newborns. It is characterized by bluish discoloration around the mouth and extremities, such as the hands and feet, and is caused by vasomotor changes that result in peripheral vasoconstriction and increased tissue oxygen extraction. Unlike other causes of peripheral cyanosis that may indicate significant pathology, such as septic shock, acrocyanosis occurs immediately after birth in healthy infants and typically resolves within 24 to 48 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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The midwife has requested that you conduct a newborn examination on a 2-day-old baby boy. He was delivered vaginally at 39 weeks gestation, weighing 3300 grams, and was in good condition. The antenatal scans were normal, and it was a low-risk pregnancy without family history of congenital disorders. During your examination, you observe a ventral urethral meatus while examining the external genitalia. What condition is commonly associated with this finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism
Explanation:What conditions are commonly associated with hypospadias in patients?
Hypospadias is often an isolated abnormality in children, but it is important to consider the possibility of other malformations. Cryptorchidism (undescended testes) and inguinal hernias are conditions commonly associated with hypospadias. It is crucial to examine the groin and scrotum in children with hypospadias and ensure they have passed urine in the first 24 hours of life. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome, renal agenesis, and Turner’s syndrome are not typically associated with hypospadias.
Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis
Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.
Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A murmur is incidentally discovered by a GP in a 9-year-old girl. The murmur is described as a 'continuous blowing noise' heard below both clavicles. What type of murmur is most likely to be diagnosed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venous hum
Explanation:A venous hum is a harmless murmur commonly found in children. It is characterized by a constant blowing sound that can be heard beneath the collarbones. In contrast, a Still’s murmur is also benign but produces a low-pitched noise on the lower left side of the sternum. A pulmonary flow murmur is another harmless murmur, but it is heard on the upper left side of the sternum. The remaining murmurs are considered pathological.
Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. There are different types of innocent murmurs, including ejection murmurs, venous hums, and Still’s murmur. Ejection murmurs are caused by turbulent blood flow at the outflow tract of the heart, while venous hums are due to turbulent blood flow in the great veins returning to the heart. Still’s murmur is a low-pitched sound heard at the lower left sternal edge.
An innocent ejection murmur is characterized by a soft-blowing murmur in the pulmonary area or a short buzzing murmur in the aortic area. It may vary with posture and is localized without radiation. There is no diastolic component, no thrill, and no added sounds such as clicks. The child is usually asymptomatic, and there are no other abnormalities.
Overall, innocent murmurs are not a cause for concern and do not require treatment. However, if a child has symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or fainting, further evaluation may be necessary to rule out any underlying heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A child is born at 28 weeks gestation and is transferred to the neonatal unit. After a few hours, the child shows signs of nasal flaring, chest wall indrawing, and appears to have jaundice. The observations show a heart rate of 75/min, a respiratory rate of 68/min, and a temperature of 38.2ºC. What is the most common organism responsible for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Group B streptococcus
Explanation:The leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis in the UK is infection by group B streptococcus.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Each one of the following statements regarding ADHD is correct, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The majority of children have normal or increased intelligence
Explanation:Understanding Autism Spectrum Disorder
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental condition that affects social interaction, communication, and behaviour. It is usually diagnosed during early childhood, but symptoms may manifest later. ASD can occur in individuals with any level of intellectual ability, and its manifestations range from subtle problems to severe disabilities. The prevalence of ASD has increased over time due to changes in definitions and increased awareness, with recent estimates suggesting a prevalence of 1-2%. Boys are three to four times more likely to be diagnosed with ASD than girls, and around 50% of children with ASD have an intellectual disability.
Individuals with ASD may exhibit a broad range of clinical manifestations, including impaired social communication and interaction, repetitive behaviours, interests, and activities, and associated conditions such as attention deficit hyperactivity disorder and epilepsy. Although there is no cure for ASD, early diagnosis and intensive educational and behavioural management can improve outcomes. Treatment involves a comprehensive approach that includes non-pharmacological therapies such as early educational and behavioural interventions, pharmacological interventions for associated conditions, and family support and counselling. The goal of treatment is to increase functional independence and quality of life for individuals with ASD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Sarah, a 12-year-old girl with Down's syndrome, visits her GP complaining of fatigue. What medical condition is commonly linked to Down's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Hypothyroidism is commonly found in individuals with Down syndrome, while the risk of hyperthyroidism is also increased. Type-1 diabetes is more prevalent in those with Down syndrome, but there is no association with ADHD. Fragile X is linked to ADHD, and male breast cancer is not associated with Down syndrome but has been linked to Klinefelter’s syndrome.
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.
Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.
Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy fell off his bike and now has an angled left elbow. His left hand feels cold and there are no detectable brachial, radial, or ulnar pulses. An X-ray of the elbow reveals a displaced humeral supracondylar fracture on the left side (Milch Type 1/Gartland II). What is the most suitable initial course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning of the fracture
Explanation:Complications and Management of Supracondylar Fractures
Supracondylar fractures can lead to various complications, including vascular and nerve injuries, compartment syndrome, and malunion. Arterial injury is a common complication, occurring in 5% of fractures, and can result from the brachial artery becoming kinked or lacerated. It is important to carefully check and record the distal circulation in the patient’s notes.
Initial management of supracondylar fractures involves providing analgesia and performing an emergency reduction of the fracture to restore the brachial artery’s unkinking and distal blood flow. Displaced fractures are typically treated with percutaneous pinning. However, if blood flow is not restored, a vascular surgeon should perform a surgical exploration of the brachial artery.
Lacerations of the artery can be repaired either primarily with sutures or with a vein graft. It is crucial to address complications promptly to prevent further damage and ensure proper healing. By the potential complications and appropriate management strategies, healthcare professionals can provide optimal care for patients with supracondylar fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old child is being evaluated by a neurologist due to delayed motor development. The child's general practitioner referred them to the specialist. The child exhibits slow, twisting, and repetitive movements of the arms when attempting to move or walk. Additionally, the child experiences rapid involuntary and jerky movements of the legs, along with oro-motor difficulties. There is no significant family history of neurological conditions, and the child's two siblings are healthy. What is the most probable diagnosis, and in which zone is the lesion likely located?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Basal ganglia and the substantia nigra
Explanation:Dyskinetic cerebral palsy is caused by damage to the basal ganglia and the substantia nigra. These areas control movement and are specifically affected by cerebral malformations during development and congenital infections. The main symptoms of dyskinetic cerebral palsy are athetoid movements and oro-motor problems, which involve slow, involuntary, and writhing movements of various muscle groups.
Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is caused by lesions to the amygdala, produces a different set of symptoms, including hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. Frontal lobe lesions can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and inability to generate a list. Damage to the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can cause Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome, which is typically seen in alcoholics and those with severe nutritional deficiencies. This syndrome is characterized by nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and amnesia.
Understanding Cerebral Palsy
Cerebral palsy is a condition that affects movement and posture due to damage to the motor pathways in the developing brain. It is the most common cause of major motor impairment and affects 2 in 1,000 live births. The causes of cerebral palsy can be antenatal, intrapartum, or postnatal. Antenatal causes include cerebral malformation and congenital infections such as rubella, toxoplasmosis, and CMV. Intrapartum causes include birth asphyxia or trauma, while postnatal causes include intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, and head trauma.
Children with cerebral palsy may exhibit abnormal tone in early infancy, delayed motor milestones, abnormal gait, and feeding difficulties. They may also have associated non-motor problems such as learning difficulties, epilepsy, squints, and hearing impairment. Cerebral palsy can be classified into spastic, dyskinetic, ataxic, or mixed types.
Managing cerebral palsy requires a multidisciplinary approach. Treatments for spasticity include oral diazepam, oral and intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin type A, orthopedic surgery, and selective dorsal rhizotomy. Anticonvulsants and analgesia may also be required. Understanding cerebral palsy and its management is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A doctor is performing a routine check on a 6-month-old baby and finds that the hips are positive for Barlow and Ortolani tests. What is the most probable situation for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Female
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia of the hip is more likely to occur in females. Positive Barlow and Ortolani tests are indicative of DDH. High birth weight, breech presentation, and oligohydramnios are risk factors for DDH, while C-section birth is not a relevant factor.
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding X-linked recessive inheritance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A female child of a heterozygous female carrier has a 50% chance of being a carrier
Explanation:Understanding X-Linked Recessive Inheritance
X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where only males are affected, except in rare cases such as Turner’s syndrome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by heterozygote females, who are carriers of the gene mutation. Male-to-male transmission is not observed in X-linked recessive disorders. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is important to note that the possibility of an affected father having children with a heterozygous female carrier is generally rare. However, in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect are observed.
In summary, X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern that affects only males and is transmitted by female carriers. Understanding this pattern is crucial in predicting the likelihood of passing on genetic disorders to future generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension following a rugby injury. During the game, he was tackled from the side and experienced intense pain in his left lower rib cage. On examination, the patient has a pulse of 140 bpm and a blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg. There is visible bruising over the left flank and tenderness upon palpation. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splenic rupture
Explanation:High Impact Injuries to the Left Flank
High impact injuries to the left flank can result in damage to the spleen or kidney, as well as the ribs and soft tissue. If the patient experiences fractured ribs and hypotension, it is important to suspect a spleen rupture. Fluid resuscitation can be used to determine if the patient responds positively, and a CT scan can be arranged to confirm the diagnosis. Based on the injury grade and physical parameters, a decision can be made to either manage the injury conservatively or operate.
Observation should be conducted in a High Dependency Unit (HDU) setting initially to ensure that any deterioration in haemodynamic parameters can be addressed promptly. CT scans are also useful in trauma cases to rule out other injuries, such as hollow visceral injuries that would require a laparotomy. Renal trauma typically does not cause hypotension unless other organs are also injured, and aortic dissection would require more force.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is seen by the General Practitioner (GP). She has been unwell with coryzal symptoms for two days and has fever. She has been eating a little less than usual but drinking plenty of fluids and having her normal amount of wet nappies. Her mother reports that she had an episode of being unresponsive and her limbs were jerking while in the waiting room that lasted about 30 seconds. On examination, following the episode, she is alert, without signs of focal neurology. Her temperature is 38.9 °C, heart rate 120 bpm and capillary refill time < 2 seconds. She has moist mucous membranes. There is no sign of increased work of breathing. Her chest is clear. She has cervical lymphadenopathy; her throat is red, but no exudate is present on her tonsils. She has clear, thick nasal discharge, and both her tympanic membranes are inflamed, but not bulging. Which of the following is most likely to indicate that the child can be managed safely at home?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seizure/convulsion lasted for < 5 minutes
Explanation:When to Seek Urgent Medical Attention for Febrile Convulsions in Children
Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in response to a high body temperature in children aged between six months and three years. While most febrile convulsions are harmless and do not require urgent medical attention, there are certain red flag features that parents should be aware of. If any of the following features are present, urgent hospital admission is necessary:
– Children aged less than 18 months
– Diagnostic uncertainty
– Convulsion lasting longer than 5 minutes
– Focal features during the seizure
– Recurrence of convulsion during the same illness or in the last 24 hours
– Incomplete recovery one hour after the convulsion
– No focus of infection identified
– Examination findings suggesting a serious cause for fever such as pneumonia
– Child currently taking antibiotics, with a clear bacterial focus of infectionIt is important to note that a first febrile convulsion in a child is also an indication for urgent hospital admission. If a child less than six months or over three years experiences a seizure not associated with fever, it may be due to an underlying neurological condition and require further specialist investigation. Parents should be aware of these red flag features and seek medical attention promptly if they are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which feature is not associated with Down's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ataxic gait
Explanation:Down’s Syndrome and Cognitive Decline
Cerebellar dysfunction is not a characteristic of Down’s syndrome. However, individuals with this condition may experience a decline in memory and cognitive abilities similar to Alzheimer’s disease as they approach their mid-thirties. This syndrome is characterized by a gradual loss of cognitive function, including memory, attention, and problem-solving skills. It is important to note that this decline is not universal and may vary in severity among individuals with Down’s syndrome. Despite this, it is crucial to monitor cognitive function in individuals with Down’s syndrome to ensure early detection and intervention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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