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Question 1
Correct
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A 55-year-old man visits his doctor with worries that his spouse is cheating on him. Despite lacking any concrete evidence, he seems extremely agitated and convinced of his suspicions. What could this symptom indicate?
Your Answer: Othello's syndrome
Explanation:Erotomania, also known as De Clérambault’s syndrome, is a type of delusion where the patient firmly believes that another person is deeply in love with them.
Understanding Othello’s Syndrome
Othello’s syndrome is a condition characterized by extreme jealousy and suspicion that one’s partner is being unfaithful, even in the absence of any concrete evidence. This type of pathological jealousy can lead to socially unacceptable behavior, such as stalking, accusations, and even violence. People with Othello’s syndrome may become obsessed with their partner’s every move, constantly checking their phone, email, and social media accounts for signs of infidelity. They may also isolate themselves from friends and family, becoming increasingly paranoid and controlling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 40-year-old female patient presents to you for a follow-up after commencing sertraline for depression one week ago. She reports no improvement in her mood and mentions experiencing abdominal pain, nausea, and occasional diarrhoea since starting the medication. Despite this, you determine that she still requires antidepressant treatment. What is the optimal approach to address this issue?
Your Answer: Continue the sertraline and review in one week
Explanation:Given that the patient has been experiencing GI symptoms for only a week, it may be prudent to maintain the current treatment regimen while conducting a more thorough evaluation.
Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants
When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.
Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is diagnosed with colon cancer. Unfortunately by the time he is diagnosed it has spread to the liver.
The oncologist feels that palliative care is best in this situation and the patient is started on painkillers and other treatments to relieve his symptoms. He has a past history of osteoarthritis and bipolar disorder and takes lithium for this.
He comes to you a few weeks later with a range of symptoms that he thinks may be side effects of lithium. His lithium levels are within the therapeutic range.
Which of the following is most likely to be a side effect of lithium?Your Answer: Fine tremor
Correct Answer: Headache
Explanation:Lithium Side Effects
A common side effect of lithium is a fine tremor, which can occur even when lithium levels are within the therapeutic range. However, a coarse tremor suggests that lithium levels are toxic. It is important to monitor lithium levels regularly to avoid toxicity. While tinnitus is not a side effect of lithium, vertigo can occur. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. Proper monitoring and management can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure the safe and effective use of lithium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has depression which has not responded to a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). You stop the MAOI and wish to prescribe a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).
How long should you wait before starting the SSRI?Your Answer: 7 days
Correct Answer: 3 days
Explanation:Starting SSRI after MAOI
When switching from a MAOI to an SSRI, it is important to wait at least two weeks before starting the new medication. MAOIs can inhibit the enzymes responsible for breaking down certain neurotransmitters, such as noradrenaline and 5-hydroxytryptamine (5HT). This can lead to a buildup of these neurotransmitters in the body, which can cause severe drug reactions if an SSRI is started too soon. It may take up to two weeks for the enzymes to resume normal activity after stopping a MAOI, so it is important to wait until this wash-out period is over before starting an SSRI. This information is consistent with the guidelines provided by the British National Formulary (BNF) and is commonly tested on the Applied Knowledge Test (AKT) for medical professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with symptoms indicative of a first episode of psychosis. He is hesitant about being referred but acknowledges the need for treatment. What is the correct statement regarding prescribing for this condition?
Your Answer: Start with a low oral dose and titrate upwards
Explanation:Antipsychotic Prescribing Guidelines for GPs: Consultation with Psychiatrists Recommended
Antipsychotic medication can be prescribed by GPs, but it is recommended that they consult with a psychiatrist before doing so. The drug of choice is an oral atypical antipsychotic, but prescribing doesn’t replace the need for a comprehensive multidisciplinary assessment in secondary care. A study among Irish GPs found that just over half reported prescribing antipsychotics for suspected schizophrenia, with positive symptoms being the most common reason. However, the majority always referred patients to psychiatric services. A low dose should be initiated and titrated up slowly to achieve optimum symptom control without side effects. If treatment fails, alternative atypical or low-potency first-generation antipsychotics can be considered. Recovery rates of 80% have been reported after a first episode of psychosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 27-year-old receptionist has been absent from work for 4 weeks due to depression caused by multiple miscarriages. She is not ready to return to work and asks her doctor to extend her sick leave. What is the maximum duration that her doctor can sign her off for?
Your Answer: 3 months
Explanation:Fit notes are limited to a maximum of 3 months per form during the initial issuance.
The eMed Initiative: Electronic Fit Notes
The eMed initiative is a project by the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) aimed at replacing handwritten fit notes with electronically printed ones. This new system will be integrated into existing electronic record systems, such as EMIS, and stored alongside the patient’s record. The printed note will be given to the patient, who will use it in the same way as a handwritten note.
It is important to note that the electronic fit note will not be sent electronically to the employer, patient, or DWP. However, the DWP plans to collect anonymous data on sick notes in the future to inform policy development.
Despite the introduction of the eMed initiative, GPs will still be able to issue handwritten notes during home visits. Hospital doctors will also not be switching to the new system. The eMed initiative is a step towards modernizing the healthcare system and improving efficiency in the issuance of fit notes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 21-year-old man comes to your clinic for an appointment scheduled by his father, who is worried about his son's lack of sleep.
During the consultation, the patient reveals that he no longer feels the need to sleep for more than 2-3 hours. He appears talkative and mentions that he has been staying up late to work on an online business that he believes will bring him a lot of money. He expresses annoyance at people questioning him, especially since he usually feels low in mood but now feels much better. There are no reports of delusions or hallucinations.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypomanic phase of bipolar disorder
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms, including a significant decrease in sleep without feeling tired, excessive talking, irritability, and overconfidence in their business, suggest a possible hypomanic phase of bipolar disorder. This is further supported by their history of depression. Insomnia, which typically results in feeling tired and wanting to sleep, is less likely as the patient doesn’t report feeling tired. Psychosis is also unlikely as there are no delusions or hallucinations present. Overall, the patient’s symptoms align more closely with hypomania than a manic phase of bipolar disorder.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.
Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man is brought in by his sister who is very upset as she found him this morning acting strangely. Looking at his record he has a history of depression and substance misuse.
When you see him he is very paranoid at having been brought to the doctor's surgery and says that you are 'working for them'. He can see 'little men with guns lying on the floor trying to shoot him' and tells you that he is wanted by the government because he works as a secret spy.
He is somewhat agitated and whilst trying to talk to him he is obviously distracted and displays pressure of speech. Which of the symptoms displayed by this patient most strongly suggests that the psychosis is related to substance misuse rather than a schizophrenic illness?Your Answer: Agitation
Correct Answer: Paranoia
Explanation:Discriminating between Psychosis due to Drug Abuse and Schizophrenic Illness
Visual hallucinations are a common symptom in organic brain disorders and drug and alcohol intoxication and withdrawal. They are often associated with diagnoses such as stimulant/hallucinogen abuse, delirium tremens, dementia, and certain brain tumors. On the other hand, auditory hallucinations are more commonly seen in functional psychoses, particularly in schizophrenia. The first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia include auditory hallucinations in the form of third person, running commentary, and thought echo. By identifying these specific features, it is possible to discriminate between psychosis due to drug abuse and psychosis due to a schizophrenic illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Correct
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A 13-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner over concerns about his behaviour at school. There is concern that he is being bullied.
Which of the following behaviours is most likely to have prompted this enquiry?
Your Answer: Self-harm
Explanation:Understanding Bullying: Signs and Symptoms
Bullying can have serious effects on a child’s mental health, and it should always be viewed as unacceptable. It can take various forms, such as physical or psychological, and can include teasing, name-calling, hitting, kicking, and social exclusion. Signs that a child may be experiencing bullying include unexplained scratches and bruises, crying themselves to sleep, nightmares, depression, self-harm, headaches, abdominal pain, fear of walking to or from school, school refusal or truancy, poor school performance, and changes in behavior such as social isolation. On the other hand, signs that a child may be a bully include aggressive behavior, physical strength, having a high opinion of oneself, expecting people to behave according to one’s wishes, being popular or unpopular with other children, little concern for the feelings of others, and disregard for rules. Children who bully are at risk of failing in school, dropping out of school, getting involved with crime and fights later in life, and using drugs. It is important to recognize these signs and symptoms and take action to prevent and address bullying.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman is severely disabled by agoraphobia
Select from the list the single correct statement regarding agoraphobia.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commonly involves anticipatory anxiety
Explanation:Understanding Agoraphobia: The Fear of Open Spaces and Leaving Home
Agoraphobia is an irrational fear that affects up to one third of patients with panic disorders. It is characterized by a fear of open spaces and leaving home, especially those places from which escape may be difficult. Anxiety attacks are often triggered by provoking situations, and the anxiety experienced is disproportionate to the actual threat. Anticipatory anxiety is also common, with sufferers worrying about the anxiety itself and avoiding situations that may provoke it.
The onset of agoraphobia is bimodal, with peaks in the mid-20s and mid-30s. Prevalence rates of panic disorder suggest that it is a common disorder, affecting 1-5% of the population. Anxiety disorders are twice as common in females and more prevalent in deprived areas. There is also an association with mitral valve prolapse.
The treatments of choice for agoraphobia are self-help techniques and cognitive behavioural therapy, often in combination with antidepressant medication. Understanding agoraphobia and seeking appropriate treatment can help individuals overcome their fears and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the main diagnostic core symptom of depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fatigue or loss of energy
Explanation:Core Symptoms of Depression
Depression is a mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. One of the defining characteristics of depression is the presence of core symptoms that are present for more than two weeks. These core symptoms include persistent feelings of sadness or hopelessness, as well as a marked loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable.
It’s important to note that while there are other symptoms of depression, such as changes in appetite or sleep patterns, these are classified as other symptoms and are not considered core symptoms. This means that someone may experience these symptoms without necessarily meeting the criteria for a diagnosis of depression.
If you or someone you know is experiencing persistent feelings of sadness or loss of interest in activities, it’s important to seek help from a mental health professional. Depression is a treatable condition, and with the right support, individuals can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which patient from the list is the most suitable candidate for a benzodiazepine prescription?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 55-year-old woman who is anxious about having to fly to Australia next week
Explanation:Benzodiazepines for Short-Term Treatment of Anxiety and Sleeping Disorders
Benzodiazepines are commonly prescribed for short-term treatment of anxiety or sleeping disorders. For instance, patients with anxiety related to flying may benefit from a small number of diazepam tablets before and during the flight. However, long-term use of benzodiazepines can lead to tolerance and addiction, which are significant risks for patients with an anxious personality. Elderly patients are also at risk of daytime drowsiness, confusion, and falls, making the use of benzodiazepines discouraged. It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of benzodiazepines before prescribing them for any patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old crystal healer who lives alone says she doesn't have a best friend and thinks that people judge her unfairly. She says that the power of crystals will cure leukaemia and sometimes feels that her life story appears in magazine stories.
Select from the list the single best description of her personality type.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizotypal
Explanation:Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Characteristics
Personality disorders are not easy to diagnose, but they can be seen as extreme versions of normal behavior that affect an individual’s social functioning. Psychotherapy and cognitive behavior therapy can be helpful, and medication may be used in some cases. These disorders can be grouped into three clusters: odd, dramatic, and anxious. The odd PDs include paranoid, schizotypal, and schizoid. The dramatic PDs include histrionic, borderline, narcissistic, and antisocial. The anxious PDs include dependent, obsessive-compulsive, and avoidant. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, and dangerous behavior. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by excessive attention-seeking behavior and a need for approval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has just been released from the hospital following a heart attack. He has a history of depression and is currently experiencing low mood. What is the antidepressant with the most safety evidence for patients with recent unstable angina or myocardial infarction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Sertraline as the Treatment of Choice for CHD Patients
NICE guidance recommends sertraline as the treatment of choice for patients with coronary heart disease (CHD) due to its safety and efficacy. Sertraline has been found to be cost-effective in a study conducted by O’Connor and colleagues in a hospitalised population with acute coronary syndrome. Although limited to one study, this evidence supports the use of sertraline in this population. Additionally, the SPS recommends sertraline as the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) of choice for CHD patients due to its lower propensity for interactions and the availability of more data on its use in a population with pre-existing heart disease compared to other SSRIs. Overall, sertraline is a safe and effective treatment option for CHD patients with depression or anxiety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 71-year-old man presents with progressive gait disturbance and fluctuating confusion. His symptoms began about six months ago when he noticed a heaviness in his legs on walking to work. Since then, his handwriting has become more untidy. His wife reports that he has become increasingly forgetful at home, although he denies this. Over the last two months, he has become restless at night and has reported seeing unidentified objects moving on the walls and in the room. On examination, his Mini-Mental State Examination score is 24/30. He is symmetrically rigid and slow, with a mild, jerky tremor in the upper limbs. Cranial nerve examination is unremarkable. His gait is shuffling, with mildly impaired postural reflexes.
The accumulation of which protein causes the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-synuclein
Explanation:Neurodegenerative Disorders and Associated Proteins
Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by cognitive decline, visual hallucinations, and sleep disturbances. It is caused by the accumulation of alpha-synuclein into Lewy bodies in vulnerable neurons.
Beta-amyloid plaques are insoluble and associated with Alzheimer’s disease. They can be detected in the brain before diagnosis and have subtle effects on cognition.
Prions are abnormal proteins that induce abnormal folding of other proteins. They are difficult to inactivate and can cause Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, a rapidly progressive neurodegenerative disorder.
Tau proteins are microtubule-binding proteins associated with local neurodegeneration and cognitive impairment. They are seen in Alzheimer’s disease as flame-shaped neurofibrillary tangles.
Overall, DLB is a good differential diagnosis for vascular dementia, but the clinical picture is more suggestive of DLB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old beauty therapist has come to see you because she is constantly arguing with her partner. They have been living together for the past six months. She says that the arguments are making her feel miserable and that her only enjoyment in life is her work and occasional nights out clubbing with her friends.
She says that her boyfriend resents her lifestyle and is very possessive of her time. She feels depressed when she arrives home and he is there, unless he is working a late shift or it is a night out with her friends. On examination, she appears physically fit, tanned, and smartly dressed. She talked about her partner's deficiencies for most of the consultation. Her past medical history includes a tonsillectomy and Chickenpox as a child. She is a non-smoker and visits the gym three times a week. A colleague advised her to visit you to help her with her problems.
What would be the most appropriate way to manage this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise her to take St John's wort
Explanation:Relationship Issues vs. Depression: Understanding the Difference
There is no clear indication of depression in this patient’s history. Despite experiencing disharmony in her relationship, she is still able to lead a normal life and enjoy most of it. Therefore, there is no need to prescribe antidepressants or refer her to a psychiatrist. Instead, offering support and guidance towards relationship counseling is the best course of action. It is important to understand the difference between relationship issues and depression, as they require different approaches to treatment. By addressing the root cause of the problem, the patient can work towards resolving her relationship issues and improving her overall well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner at the suggestion of his solicitor. He has recently been charged with assault and criminal damage and is facing a custodial sentence. His solicitor thinks he may have mental health problems and hopes that this may result in a lenient sentence. He admits he has always been impulsive, irritable and had a short temper, which frequently results in fights. He has no close friends and admits to being lonely. Reviewing his notes there are several episodes of deliberate self-harm usually provoked by arguments. There is no evidence of thought disorder.
What the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Common Mental Health Disorders: Characteristics and Symptoms
Borderline Personality Disorder, Schizophrenia, Attention-deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, Bipolar Disorder, and Depression are some of the most common mental health disorders that affect individuals worldwide. Each disorder has its own set of characteristics and symptoms that can significantly impact an individual’s daily life.
Borderline Personality Disorder is characterized by extreme fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, an inability to maintain friendships, an unstable sense of self, powerful emotions that change quickly and often, feelings of emptiness, frequent dangerous behavior, and self-harm. Men with this disorder may also exhibit aggressive behavior, seek to control others by criticism, demonstrate extreme jealousy, and be reluctant to share emotional experiences.
Schizophrenia is a psychotic illness that is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, thought disorder, and lack of insight.
Attention-deficit Hyperactivity Disorder is a developmental condition of inattention and distractibility, with or without accompanying hyperactivity. The hyperactivity decreases in adulthood, but impulsivity, poor concentration, and risk-taking can get worse. These can interfere with work, learning, and relationships with other people. Depressions, anxiety, feelings of low self-esteem, and drug misuse are more common in adults with the condition.
Bipolar Affective Disorder is characterized by periods of deep, prolonged, and profound depression that alternate with periods of an excessively elevated or irritable mood known as mania.
Depression involves both low mood and/or absence loss of interest and pleasure in most activities, accompanied by an assortment of emotional, cognitive, physical, and behavioral symptoms.
In conclusion, understanding the characteristics and symptoms of these common mental health disorders is crucial in identifying and seeking appropriate treatment for individuals who may be struggling with them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has been experiencing difficulty concentrating on tasks and remembering recent events. Clinical examination and laboratory tests are normal. Mental status examination shows emotional lability, difficulty in naming common objects and a recall of only one out of three objects after 5 minutes.
What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s dementia
Explanation:Understanding the Most Common Causes of Dementia in Older Adults
The symptoms presented by the patient are highly indicative of Alzheimer’s dementia, which is the most prevalent cause of dementia in their age group. This type of dementia is characterized by a gradual onset of memory impairment and the absence of any focal neurological disease. On the other hand, alcohol-related dementia is less likely as there is no history of excessive alcohol intake. Cerebrovascular disease is also an uncommon cause of dementia, and it often has a more sudden onset with evidence of focal neurological or vascular disease. If the deterioration is gradual, it tends to progress in a stepwise manner. Depression may cause difficulty in concentration, but it doesn’t impair short-term memory. It is important to note that aging alone doesn’t cause cognitive function problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of hearing voices narrating his actions and strongly believes he has been sent by God as a prophet, despite it not aligning with his religious beliefs. He displays tangentiality and clanging during a mental state examination. After two weeks, his symptoms completely resolve. The patient had a history of depression during his late teenage years and no prior similar episodes. What was the diagnosis for this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brief psychotic disorder
Explanation:The patient was experiencing symptoms of psychosis, including hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorganization. The most likely diagnosis is brief psychotic disorder, which is characterized by a short episode of psychosis followed by a return to baseline functioning. Bipolar affective disorder, drug abuse, and schizoaffective disorder are less likely diagnoses based on the information provided. It is important to take a thorough history to rule out any potential underlying causes of the patient’s symptoms.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her son because of concerns about worsening confusion over the last two days. Her son has been staying with her as he is worried about her, and throughout the night, the patient was shouting out that she was seeing figures behind the curtains.
Which of the following features most suggests a diagnosis of delirium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Symptoms developing rapidly over a few hours or days
Explanation:Differentiating between Delirium and Dementia: Symptoms and Signs to Look Out For
Delirium and dementia are two conditions that can cause confusion, memory problems, and other cognitive impairments. However, there are some key differences in how these conditions present themselves. Here are some symptoms and signs to look out for when trying to differentiate between delirium and dementia:
Symptoms developing rapidly over a few hours or days: This is more consistent with delirium, which can cause confusion, hallucinations, and delusions to develop rapidly over a short period of time. Dementia, on the other hand, usually develops gradually over several months.
Gradual worsening of symptoms over months: If symptoms such as confusion, poor concentration, and memory problems have been getting worse over a period of months, this is more suggestive of dementia.
Improved mobility: Patients with delirium may suddenly have difficulty with tasks they could previously do easily, such as walking.
Low mood: A low mood is more suggestive of depression, which usually develops over several weeks or months. However, hypoactive delirium can be misdiagnosed as depression, so it’s important to consider this possibility in patients who become suddenly withdrawn, drowsy, and unable to stay focused when awake.
Patient’s ability to concentrate on reading her book club novel: Attention is usually reduced in delirium, but in the early stages of dementia, patients may still be able to concentrate on activities such as reading or watching television.
By paying attention to these symptoms and signs, healthcare professionals can better differentiate between delirium and dementia and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with symptoms of low mood. Upon evaluation, you diagnose him with moderate depression and decide to initiate fluoxetine treatment. According to the latest NICE recommendations, when should you schedule a follow-up appointment with the patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: After 1 week
Explanation:NICE suggests that patients who are under 30 years old should be reviewed within one week.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman with a history of anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 16 kg/m2. She has lost 2 kg steadily over the past four weeks. She is unable to sit up from lying flat without using her hands or to stand from the squatting position without using her hands. Lanugo is present. Her hands feel cold to the touch.
Which feature of the patient’s physical examination would be most suggestive of impending high risk to life?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to sit up or squat without using the hands
Explanation:Identifying High Risk Factors in Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that can lead to life-threatening complications. The Royal College of Psychiatrists in the United Kingdom has issued guidance on recognising medical emergencies in eating disorders. Here are some key factors to consider when assessing the risk to life in anorexia nervosa:
Sit up–Squat–Stand (SUSS) test: This test involves asking a patient to sit up from a lying position and to stand up from a squatting position without using their hands. Inability to do this is associated with impending high risk to life.
Rate of weight loss: A weight loss of 500-999 g per week presents a moderate risk to life, whereas weight loss of >1 kg per week confers a high risk.
BMI: A BMI of greater than 15 kg/m2 represents a low impending risk to life, whereas a BMI of <13 kg/m2 is a high risk. Cool peripheries: Although cool peripheries may be seen on examination in anorexia nervosa, they are not associated with a high risk to life. However, a core temperature of less than 35 °C is. Lanugo: Lanugo is a covering of soft downy hair often seen in people with anorexia, but it is not identified as being associated with an increased risk to life in anorexia nervosa. By considering these factors, healthcare professionals can identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate interventions to prevent life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to you after being involved in a car accident 3 weeks ago. He reports experiencing flashbacks of the crash while watching car chase scenes on TV and has been avoiding such shows. He also mentions having trouble falling asleep and feeling more irritable than usual. However, his symptoms have not significantly impacted his work or relationships, and he is generally functioning well. What is the recommended next step in primary care management according to current NICE guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a period of watchful waiting, ensuring a follow-up appointment within 1 month
Explanation:If an individual is experiencing mild to moderate symptoms of PTSD for less than 4 weeks, it may be appropriate to suggest a period of watchful waiting, as per the current NICE guidelines. It is not recommended to use single session interventions that focus on the traumatic event, despite their common practice. Additionally, drug treatments should not be the first-line management for PTSD, whether used by general practitioners or specialist mental health professionals. There is no need for an urgent referral to the adult mental health team in this situation.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.
Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man with schizophrenia has recently started taking clozapine after struggling to find an effective Antipsychotic treatment. His full blood count results are as follows:
Hb 152 g/l
MCV 87 fL
WBC 2.0 x 109/L
Neutrophils 0.9 x 109/L
Lymphocytes 1.0 x 109/L
Platelets 322 x 109/L
What is the most suitable action to take in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop Clozapine
Explanation:Agranulocytosis and Neutropenia in Clozapine Treatment
Clozapine is a medication used to treat schizophrenia. However, it carries a risk of agranulocytosis and neutropenia, which are conditions that affect the white blood cells. Agranulocytosis occurs in approximately 1% of patients taking clozapine, while neutropenia occurs in about 3%. The highest risk of developing these conditions is between 6 and 18 weeks after starting clozapine treatment.
Before starting clozapine treatment, blood counts must be normal. During the first 18 weeks of treatment, a full blood count is required weekly. Afterward, the frequency can be reduced to every 2 or 4 weeks after 12 months. If the leucocyte count falls below 3000/mm or the absolute neutrophil count falls below 1500/mm, the medication should be stopped, and the patient should be referred to a haematologist.
Patients taking clozapine should report any symptoms of infection immediately. However, an exception is made for patients with benign ethnic neutropenia. If a haematologist approves, they may be started on the medication. It is essential to monitor blood counts regularly to prevent the development of agranulocytosis and neutropenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman was admitted to hospital after she took a paracetamol overdose. She was given a treatment dose of N-acetylcysteine and her baseline and repeat biochemical and haematological indices were normal. She doesn't enjoy her work as a secretary, and she has a regular partner but they have been arguing recently. She didn't intend to kill herself. She denies regularly using alcohol and illicit drugs. She has a past history of an aspirin ‘overdose’, but you note that at the time the blood level was very low and she was not admitted. There is no other significant past medical history. Her parents are divorced and she lives with her mother.
Select from the list the SINGLE FACTOR in the history that suggests she is likely to repeat this behaviour.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 'overdose'
Explanation:Understanding the Risk Factors for Self-Harm and Suicide
Self-harm is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on an individual’s mental and physical health. Previous episodes of self-harm are a strong predictor of future ones, regardless of the severity of the harm done. Other factors that increase the risk of self-harm include a history of psychiatric treatment, substance abuse, negative attitudes towards survival, relationship issues, and unemployment.
When it comes to completed suicide, organic illness, male gender, and middle-age are all risk factors. It’s important to note that around 15% of people who engage in deliberate self-harm will do so again within a year, and 1% will ultimately succeed in committing suicide. Identifying these risk factors is crucial in determining which patients should be referred to psychiatric services for further evaluation and treatment. By understanding these risk factors, we can work towards preventing self-harm and suicide and providing support to those who need it most.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male presents to general practice for an annual general check-up. He has no particular complaints and on examination, no abnormalities were found.
You check the blood test results which were sent by the nurse prior to the appointment:
Na+ 132 mmol/l
K+ 3.5 mmol/l
Urea 4 mmol/l
Creatinine 90 µmol/l
You decide to review his medications.
Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused his electrolyte abnormality?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:SSRIs like sertraline are linked to hyponatraemia, while aspirin and bisoprolol are not commonly associated with it. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with hyperkalaemia.
Side-Effects of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants. However, they can cause adverse effects, with gastrointestinal symptoms being the most common. Patients taking SSRIs are also at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if they are also taking NSAIDs. To prevent this, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed. Hyponatraemia is another potential side-effect, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
Citalopram, a type of SSRI, has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose for citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine for patients taking warfarin/heparin. Triptans should be avoided with SSRIs.
When starting antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide, they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.
When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled with fluoxetine, has started to suffer from anxiety, loss of interest and reduced appetite. She also complains of insomnia.
She claims that she is taking her medications regularly according to prescription. You conclude that her depression has not responded to treatment.
What will be the most appropriate management for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to another SSRI
Explanation:Treatment for Non-Responsive Depression
When a patient fails to respond to fluoxetine, which is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), it is recommended to switch to another SSRI first. If this doesn’t work, the NICE update on depression (2010) suggests trying a newer generation antidepressant that is better tolerated. It is important to find the right medication for each individual patient, as depression can have a significant impact on their quality of life. Therefore, healthcare professionals should closely monitor patients and adjust their treatment plan accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old woman is noted to have poor self-care with symptoms of early morning waking and decreased appetite. She has poor concentration and is easily agitated. There is a history of a recent death in the family. She also recently lost her job as a volunteer. She has difficulty answering short-term recall questions. Her family think that her symptoms have been deteriorating over the past 6 months.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depressive pseudodementia
Explanation:Physical Signs and Symptoms of Depression in Elderly Patients
Depression in elderly patients can manifest in various physical signs and symptoms. Early morning waking and decreased appetite are common symptoms, often accompanied by short-term memory loss. While memory loss is also seen in dementia, it improves with treatment of depression. Other physical signs include weight loss, constipation, loss of libido, impotence in men, fatigue, and body aches and pains. Retardation or agitation of behavior may also occur. These symptoms may be precipitated by life events and should be addressed promptly to improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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During an out of hours shift, you are called to see an 80-year-old man who has developed acute urinary retention on a background of 2 years of urinary hesitancy and poor stream. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and he tells you that his usual GP has recently started him on a new medication for neuropathic pain.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to have caused the urinary retention?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Urinary retention may be caused by tricyclic antidepressants, particularly Amitriptyline, due to its anticholinergic effects. This can result in symptoms such as tachycardia, dry mouth, mydriasis, and urinary retention. However, SSRIs like fluoxetine and SNRIs like venlafaxine are not typically associated with these side effects, with dry mouth and urinary retention being rare occurrences. Unlike Amitriptyline, Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, doesn’t have anticholinergic effects.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their side-effects and potential for toxicity in overdose. However, they are still widely used for the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. The common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of QT interval. When choosing a TCA, low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prevention of headaches. Lofepramine is preferred due to its lower incidence of toxicity in overdose, while amitriptyline and dosulepin are considered the most dangerous in overdose. The sedative effects of TCAs vary, with amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone being more sedative, while imipramine and nortriptyline are less sedative. Trazodone is technically a ‘tricyclic-related antidepressant’.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Among the following groups, which one is most likely to have the highest prevalence of depression in your practice population?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Separated females
Explanation:Prevalence of Depression in Different Groups
The prevalence rate of depression varies among different groups. According to research, separated males have the highest rate of depression, with 111 per 1000. This rate is even higher for those who are unemployed, homeless, or going through separation. Separated females have a lower rate of 56 per 1000.
Widowed males and females have rates of 70 and 46 respectively, while married men and women have the lowest rates of 17 and 14 respectively. Interestingly, unemployment affects men and women differently, with the rate increasing to 27 for men and 56 per 1000 for women. These findings highlight the importance of considering different demographic factors when assessing the prevalence of depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to you with a history of multiple recurrent and frequently changing symptoms that are 'functional' in nature (somatisation disorder).
Which of the following statements regarding her management is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should be persuaded to understand that her symptoms are psychological
Explanation:Understanding Somatisation Disorder
Somatisation disorder is a complex condition that has been frequently asked about in previous examinations. It is important to note that knowledge of early childhood experiences is not necessary for diagnosis. However, depression is often found in individuals with somatisation disorder, making antidepressants a useful treatment option. In addition, involving relatives in the management of the disorder can be beneficial. It is important to approach management with empathy rather than persuasion. Understanding the complexities of somatisation disorder is crucial for effective treatment and management.
Spacing:
Somatisation disorder is a complex condition that has been frequently asked about in previous examinations. It is important to note that knowledge of early childhood experiences is not necessary for diagnosis. However, depression is often found in individuals with somatisation disorder, making antidepressants a useful treatment option.
In addition, involving relatives in the management of the disorder can be beneficial. It is important to approach management with empathy rather than persuasion. Understanding the complexities of somatisation disorder is crucial for effective treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with his sister. She is worried about his well-being as he lives alone and has been isolating himself for some time. He rarely goes out and has no interests other than using his computer. He is generally distant when his family visits and speaks very little. He has not been in a relationship for many years. He appears disheveled and avoids making eye contact during the appointment. His sister is concerned that he may have Schizophrenia as their father exhibited similar behavior before his diagnosis.
The patient denies experiencing any visual or auditory hallucinations and doesn't express any delusional beliefs.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this individual?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Explanation:The absence of delusion or hallucination symptoms rules out schizophrenia, schizotypal personality disorder, and delusional beliefs. Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a greater concern for being accepted and social status anxiety. Schizoid personality disorder, on the other hand, exhibits negative symptoms of schizophrenia, making it the most probable diagnosis.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 33
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old patient is presented to you by his spouse due to concerns about his hallucinations. The wife reports that he frequently sees cats wandering around the house despite never having a pet cat. Apart from this, he is in good health with no other complaints and doesn't appear to be bothered by the visions. He has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and cataracts and consumes around 20 units of alcohol per week.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Explanation:Individuals with Charles-Bonnet syndrome typically have full awareness of their condition despite experiencing ongoing and intricate visual or auditory hallucinations.
Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.
Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.
Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.
In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease comes in for a check-up. He is currently taking a combination of a dopamine agonist, levodopa and a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. Although his motor symptoms are well managed, his wife is worried as he is experiencing mild confusion, staying awake for extended periods during the night, and having visual hallucinations accompanied by delusions that she is attempting to poison him. During the clinic visit, he appears quiet and withdrawn. His mini-mental state score is 23, and he is able to walk across the examination room and perform some fine motor tasks, but he is unable to provide a handwriting sample. What is the most effective approach to managing his hallucinations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Quetiapine
Explanation:Appropriate Medications for Managing Hallucinations and Agitation in Parkinson’s Disease
Managing hallucinations and agitation in patients with Parkinson’s disease can be challenging. The lack of dopamine, which is the cause of motor symptoms in Parkinson’s, makes it difficult to use medications that reduce dopamine levels or effects as they can worsen motor symptoms. Therefore, low-dose atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine are the most appropriate intervention for this condition.
However, medications such as lorazepam and benzhexol are not suitable for long-term use in managing Parkinson’s disease. Lorazepam is heavily sedating and has an intermediate duration of action, while benzhexol can cause disturbed sleep and agitation at higher doses. Entacapone, on the other hand, is a COMT inhibitor that prolongs the effects of levodopa in the brain and doesn’t have any role in preventing hallucinations or treating agitation.
Haloperidol, although effective in treating hallucinations and agitation, is contraindicated for patients with Parkinson’s disease as it is a D2-receptor antagonist that reduces the effect of dopamine in the brain, which can dramatically worsen motor symptoms. Therefore, it is essential to choose appropriate medications that do not worsen motor symptoms while managing hallucinations and agitation in patients with Parkinson’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman with a 25-year history of treatment with antipsychotic medications for schizophrenia complains of the onset of writhing tongue and finger movements.
Select from the list the single most likely cause.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Explanation:Understanding Tardive Dyskinesia and Differential Diagnosis
Tardive dyskinesia is a condition that can develop in patients who have been on long-term treatment with antipsychotic medications. It is characterized by choreoathetoid movements that typically start in the fingers and tongue before becoming more widespread. While Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease can also present with tremors and choreiform movements, they usually have an earlier onset than tardive dyskinesia. Parkinsonism, on the other hand, is characterized by resting tremors and bradykinesia, while akathisia is characterized by motor restlessness. It is important to note that antipsychotic medications can also cause Parkinson’s symptoms and akathisia. Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat tardive dyskinesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 36
Incorrect
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During a ward round consultation, the Psychiatrist was assessing a 12-year-old patient's current mental state. The patient's reply to most of the questions consisted of sentences which did not make any sense such as - 'painting pizza prince bus brush'. This is a good example of which of the following thought disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Word salad
Explanation:Disordered speech, such as word salad, neologisms, perseveration, and echolalia, is commonly linked to psychosis and mania.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man reports feeling anxious and worried most of the time. He denies depression and is not interested in psychological interventions. He requests medication to help him calm down. What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Treatment for Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is a chronic condition that requires long-term treatment. The recommended approach, according to NICE guidelines, is to start with low-intensity psychological interventions and then move on to high-intensity psychological interventions and/or drug therapy. The first choice of medication is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), with sertraline being suggested. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, another SSRI should be offered. Benzodiazepines should only be used as a short-term measure during a crisis, and buspirone should be used with caution. β blockers and antipsychotic medication are not effective. It is important to note that GAD worsens the prognosis for any other condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old factory worker is brought in by her boyfriend. He says that she was suicidal when they argued after she accidentally scratched his car while parking.
There have been no recent major life events and there is no mention of any suicide attempt in her past medical history. She drinks six cans of beer over the weekend and is a former smoker.
In her free time, she enjoys singing karaoke at the local bar with her friends. She still lives with her parents, but she and her boyfriend are considering moving in together.
Which of the following is a risk factor for suicide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Employed
Explanation:Enquiring about Suicide Risk Factors in Depressed Patients
When speaking with patients who are experiencing depression, it is important to always ask about suicide. Even if depression is not explicitly mentioned, it is helpful to identify any potential risk factors for suicide in the patient’s history. One example of a risk factor listed in this case is the patient’s low socio-economic status. Other risk factors include advancing age, male gender, recent major life events, unemployment, living alone, previous suicide attempts, and concurrent mental disorders.
To identify high-risk patients, clinicians may use formal assessments such as the PATHOS self-harm assessment. This tool is used after an overdose attempt to identify patients who are at a higher risk for suicide. By enquiring about suicide risk factors and using appropriate assessments, clinicians can better identify and support patients who may be at risk for self-harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department with suicidal thoughts following the end of his relationship two weeks ago. He expresses fear of being alone as his partner had always made important decisions for him, as he feels incapable of making the right choices. He has attempted to find a new partner through online dating but has been unsuccessful despite going on several dates. He discloses that he has previously been diagnosed with a personality disorder. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dependent personality disorder
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient in the question is dependent personality disorder. This personality disorder is characterized by a need for excessive reassurance from others, a tendency to seek out relationships, and a reliance on others to make major life decisions. Patients with this disorder often struggle to take care of themselves and become anxious when left to do so. They cope best when in a relationship and will urgently seek out new relationships if one fails. They tend to passively comply with the wishes of others.
Borderline personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, and intense but unstable relationships with others. While patients with borderline personality disorder may fear abandonment, they do not typically seek out excessive reassurance and are able to make life decisions.
Paranoid personality disorder is another incorrect answer. Patients with this disorder are often suspicious of others, reluctant to confide in friends and family, and may be unforgiving.
Finally, narcissistic personality disorder is also an incorrect answer. Patients with this disorder have an inflated sense of self-importance, lack empathy, and often feel entitled.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her current medication for depression. She is currently taking reboxetine but is experiencing over-energization and only sleeping for 4.5-5 hours per night. After discussing her options, you both agree that switching to sertraline may be the best course of action.
What advice would you give her regarding the switch to sertraline?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A washout period of two weeks between drugs is needed
Explanation:Switching from Reboxetine to Sertraline
When switching from reboxetine to sertraline, it is recommended to start sertraline immediately but gradually increase the dose as the reboxetine dose is reduced. It is important to note that reboxetine is metabolized by CYP3A4, which means that taking inhibitors such as macrolides and antifungals like fluconazole may increase its effects by raising plasma concentration. Therefore, caution should be exercised when taking these medications together. Proper management and monitoring of the switch from reboxetine to sertraline can help ensure a smooth transition and minimize potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman, who lived alone, scheduled a follow-up appointment with her GP. She had been self-isolating at home for several months due to the COVID-19 pandemic and continued to feel anxious about going out even after the lockdown was lifted.
Before the pandemic, she had experienced a traumatic event that left her struggling with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). She had also been dealing with chronic pain and had to quit her job as a result.
During a telephone consultation with her GP 4 weeks ago, she was diagnosed with moderate depression and referred for computerised cognitive behavioural therapy. She was also advised to try to incorporate more physical activity into her routine.
However, her mental health had been worsening and she was now experiencing insomnia, early morning awakening, and occasional thoughts of self-harm. She expressed reluctance to pursue one-to-one therapy, as she found it difficult to engage with.
The GP and patient discussed the next steps in managing her depression.
What treatment options should be considered?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence citalopram
Explanation:For patients with moderate depression and worsening mental health despite low-level therapy, SSRIs are the recommended first-line antidepressant. In this case, the patient has already received CBT and declined psychological treatments, making an antidepressant necessary. While mirtazapine and venlafaxine are valid options, they are not typically used as first-line treatments due to the likelihood of side effects and higher cost compared to SSRIs. These medications are usually reserved as second-line options if the patient doesn’t respond well to an SSRI. NICE guidelines suggest offering an SSRI first-line due to their effectiveness and lower incidence of side effects. As the patient has not expressed suicidal plans or intent, referral to a crisis team is not necessary at this time.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman is concerned that she may not be able to take her final university examinations in three months' time because she experiences flustered, faint and dizzy spells during written examinations. She reports no symptoms at any other time, including when engaging in physical activity. Her resting ECG is normal and clinical examination doesn't reveal any abnormalities. What would be the best course of action in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange counselling, with relaxation training
Explanation:Understanding a Student’s Symptoms of Stress and Anxiety
The symptoms described by the student are typical of stress and anxiety, which are common experiences among students. It is important to reassure the student that these symptoms are not indicative of any organic disease. However, if the student is still concerned, a 24-hour ECG monitoring can be done to provide further reassurance.
It is not recommended to prescribe diazepam as it can impair the student’s exam performance. Fluoxetine may also not be the best option as it can increase feelings of anxiety. Instead, the student can be advised to practice relaxation techniques, such as deep breathing exercises or meditation, to help manage their stress and anxiety. It is also important to encourage the student to seek support from friends, family, or a mental health professional if needed. By understanding and addressing the student’s symptoms, they can better manage their stress and anxiety and perform well in their exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is constantly in trouble at school. She will not sit still and be quiet or get on with her work. She is equally troublesome at home and her mother cannot take her anywhere. She wonders if she has attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
Select from the list the single correct statement about ADHD.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Some impairment from symptoms must be evident in two or more settings
Explanation:Understanding ADHD: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Comorbidities
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that is more severe than what is typically observed in individuals at a comparable level of development. In the UK, ADHD affects between 2-5% of children, with boys being more commonly affected. Diagnosis is usually made in children aged 3-7 years, but it can also be recognized later in life.
To diagnose ADHD, symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity and/or inattention should be present. However, the ICD-10 classification requires all three problems of attention, hyperactivity, and impulsiveness to be present. About 70% of children with ADHD also have other conditions, such as learning difficulties, dyspraxia, Gilles de la Tourette syndrome, or tic disorder. Oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder is present in most children with ADHD, and depression and anxiety are common comorbidities.
While about 1 in 3 children with ADHD can grow out of their condition and not require any treatment when they are adults, the remainder either continue with ADHD or retain some symptoms and functional impairment. Therefore, early diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to improve outcomes for individuals with ADHD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 44
Incorrect
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You see a 20-year-old male patient who is worried about his erections. He has been experiencing problems for the past 8 months. He is generally healthy with no medical history. He doesn't use any illegal drugs and is a non-smoker. He drinks occasionally on weekends. He lives with his parents and has recently started dating a girl from his university.
Which of the following history findings would indicate a psychogenic cause rather than an organic cause for his erectile dysfunction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The presence of self stimulated or morning erections
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is the inability to achieve and maintain an erection sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. It can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors, as well as certain medications.
Symptoms that suggest a psychogenic cause of ED include a sudden onset, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or morning erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, relationship problems or changes, major life events, and psychological issues.
Symptoms that suggest an organic cause of ED include a gradual onset, normal ejaculation, normal libido (except in hypogonadal men), a history of medical risk factors (such as cardiovascular, endocrine, or neurological conditions), pelvic or scrotal trauma, radiotherapy or surgery, current use of medications known to cause ED, smoking, high alcohol consumption, or use of recreational or bodybuilding drugs.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presented with palpitations, breathlessness and chest pain, radiating to the left arm. These symptoms had started seven weeks ago, following the death of her father from a heart attack. Over the last decade, she had undergone investigations for abdominal pain, headaches, joint pains, and dyspareunia, but no significant cause was identified for these symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder
Explanation:Somatisation Disorder: A Likely Diagnosis
Somatisation disorder is a condition characterized by recurrent physical complaints such as pains, gastrointestinal, sexual, and pseudo-neurologic symptoms that persist over a period of years. Although the brief scenario doesn’t provide enough criteria to make a definitive diagnosis, the symptoms described suggest that somatisation disorder is the most likely answer.
To meet the diagnostic criteria for somatisation disorder, the patient’s physical complaints must not be intentionally induced and must result in medical attention or significant impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. Typically, the first symptoms appear in adolescence, and the full criteria are met by 30 years of age.
Among the other disorders, factitious disorder is the least likely, while the other three are possible but not as probable as somatisation. Overall, the scenario suggests that somatisation disorder should be considered as a potential diagnosis, and further evaluation is necessary to confirm or rule out this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old retiree comes to see you after being found crying by a neighbour. Over the past six months she has lost her husband to cancer and has become increasingly isolated and withdrawn. She has never experienced depression before and her PHQ depression score is 20.
She enjoys gardening and reading, but has lost interest in these activities recently. She has also been experiencing difficulty sleeping and has lost her appetite. She takes medication for high blood pressure and has a history of smoking, but quit 10 years ago.
You decide to initiate treatment with sertraline, but which other drug may be helpful in addition to this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Disulfiram
Explanation:Considerations for prescribing medication to an older person
When prescribing medication to an older person, it is important to consider potential interactions and side effects. For example, if the person is already taking a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), gastro protection should be considered when prescribing a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). In this case, omeprazole would be the best option.
It is also important to consider the person’s lifestyle and habits. If they are drinking regularly, but not excessively, there may be no need to add acamprosate or disulfiram. Similarly, if an SSRI has already been prescribed, there may be no need to add dosulepin.
While adding ibuprofen or prednisolone may theoretically reduce inflammation related to arthritis, it poses a significant risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Therefore, taking two NSAIDs at the same time should be avoided.
Finally, it is important to be aware of potential interactions with other medications or supplements the person may be taking. St John’s wort, for example, is often used by those who feel depressed, but can interact with other antidepressants and have varying levels of active ingredient depending on the preparation. Overall, careful consideration and monitoring is necessary when prescribing medication to an older person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 47
Incorrect
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You see a 26-year-old male patient with erectile dysfunction. He is typically healthy and doesn't take any regular medications. He is a non-smoker and drinks alcohol in moderation.
You proceed to gather a more comprehensive history of his issue and conduct a thorough psychosexual evaluation.
Which of the following history findings would indicate a psychogenic origin rather than an organic cause for his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A history of premature ejaculation
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, or mixed, and can also be caused by certain medications.
Symptoms that indicate a psychogenic cause of ED include a sudden onset, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or waking erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, relationship problems or changes, major life events, and psychological issues.
On the other hand, symptoms that suggest an organic cause of ED include a gradual onset and normal ejaculation.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 48
Incorrect
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The brother of a 35-year-old woman visits your clinic with concerns about his sister's behavior. He reports that his sister has always had an inflated sense of self-importance and often expresses delusional thoughts about her potential for success as a lawyer, believing she is capable of becoming a partner at a top law firm. She doesn't seem to care about the impact her actions have on others and appears pleased when she talks about others' failures. He recalls that she behaved similarly when they were growing up and was unsympathetic towards him when he struggled with his studies due to a learning disability.
Which personality disorder is being described in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder
Explanation:Individuals with narcissistic personalities exhibit a lack of empathy, a sense of entitlement, and exploit others to fulfill their own needs. This behavior is indicative of narcissistic personality disorder. While the individual’s brother may not meet the criteria for a personality disorder, his behavior aligns with many of the features of narcissistic behavior. Narcissistic individuals have an inflated sense of self-importance and believe they possess unlimited abilities to succeed, become powerful, or appear attractive. They lack empathy and are willing to take advantage of others to achieve their own goals. These symptoms often manifest in childhood and persist into adulthood.
Antisocial personality disorder also involves a lack of empathy and guilt, as well as deceitful behavior to achieve personal goals. However, individuals with this disorder often disregard rules and laws, leading to criminal behavior and a propensity for violence. Therefore, the individual in the scenario is more likely to have narcissistic personality disorder.
Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a disinterest in sexual relationships, a preference for solitude, and a lack of close friendships. These individuals are indifferent to praise and recognition, making it an unlikely diagnosis for the individual’s brother.
Schizotypal personality disorder involves eccentric beliefs and behaviors, difficulty forming friendships, and paranoid or suspicious thoughts. This disorder doesn’t typically involve a lack of empathy or a sense of entitlement.
Borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, feelings of emptiness, and recurrent self-harm attempts.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is a frequent attender with abdominal pain that has been extensively investigated and no cause found. He still finds the symptoms very distressing. They are the focus of his attention and he says they are restricting normal activities; he also fears he may have bowel cancer.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somatic symptom disorder
Explanation:Understanding Somatic Symptom Disorder and its Distinctions from Other Conditions
Somatic symptom disorder (SSD) is a condition characterized by distressing somatic symptoms and excessive thoughts, feelings, and behaviors related to those symptoms. These symptoms must persist for at least six months to be diagnosed with SSD. In contrast, illness anxiety disorder is a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness without significant somatic symptoms. Colon cancer is unlikely in this patient as extensive investigations have found no cause. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by anxiety about a variety of things, while this patient’s focus is on his abdominal pain and fears of bowel cancer. Irritable bowel syndrome causes abdominal pain, diarrhea, and constipation, but the patient’s symptoms and concerns are more consistent with somatic symptom disorder. Understanding the distinctions between these conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A fax from psychiatry regarding a 35-year-old man has been received, requesting that the patient be initiated on quetiapine. The patient has no significant medical history but has been referred due to experiencing psychotic symptoms. Upon reviewing the patient's medical records, it is noted that a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and fasting blood glucose were conducted in the past two weeks after the patient complained of constant fatigue. What other tests should be performed as a baseline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fasting lipids, weight, blood pressure, prolactin
Explanation:While psychiatrists typically start antipsychotic treatment, it is not unusual for GPs to take over prescribing for stable patients or initiate therapy based on a recommendation from a psychiatrist. As such, it is important for us to have a fundamental understanding of the monitoring necessary for safe prescribing. Additionally, a cardiovascular risk assessment and ECG may be necessary depending on the patient’s medical history.
Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old recently divorced woman has been a frequent consulter with different physical symptoms. You suspect she may be suffering from a generalised anxiety disorder (GAD).
Select from the list the problem that is least likely to be due to GAD.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eczematous rash
Explanation:The Relationship Between Generalized Anxiety Disorder and Eczematous Rash
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is not typically the direct cause of an eczematous rash, but it can exacerbate itching and scratching. Patients with GAD may experience a range of physical symptoms, including autonomic arousal symptoms like palpitations, sweating, shaking, and dry mouth. Chest and abdominal symptoms, such as choking, dyspnea, chest pain, nausea, and discomfort, are also common. Other symptoms may include dizziness, hot flashes, tingling, aches and pains, or a lump in the throat with difficulty swallowing (not true dysphagia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old nursing home resident, with advanced dementia, has become increasingly verbally disruptive at meal times, often shouting out incoherent phrases at staff and other residents. A general examination, urine dipstick and baseline blood tests were normal.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Restrain the patient at meal times in case of violent behaviour
Explanation:Managing Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia
With Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia (BPSD), it is crucial to identify and treat any reversible causes. However, in cases where there are no other symptoms and normal examination and investigations, empirical antibiotics should be avoided as they may lead to adverse clinical events such as Clostridium difficile. If conservative measures fail, it is advisable to seek advice from an elderly care physician who may recommend short-term use of medications such as haloperidol or lorazepam. It is important to note that restraining the patient during anticipated bad behaviour is not appropriate. By following these guidelines, we can effectively manage BPSD and improve the quality of life for patients with dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 53
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is least acknowledged as a possible negative outcome of electroconvulsive therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epilepsy
Explanation:There is no long-term risk of epilepsy associated with electroconvulsive therapy, despite the fact that it induces a controlled seizure.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for individuals who suffer from severe depression that doesn’t respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.
Short-term side effects of ECT may include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events that occurred before the treatment, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and subside after a short period of time.
Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks and side effects, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 54
Incorrect
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If your daily activities take a long time to finish, which disorder could this question be most useful for screening?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Explanation:Identifying Comorbid OCD in Patients: Recommendations and Epidemiological Findings
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that doctors routinely consider the possibility of comorbid obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) in patients with symptoms of depression, anxiety, substance misuse, body dysmorphic disorder, eating disorders, or those attending dermatology clinics. To identify potential OCD, doctors are advised to ask patients a series of questions related to washing, checking, intrusive thoughts, time-consuming activities, and orderliness.
Epidemiological findings suggest that many patients with obsessional symptoms are initially referred to dermatologists, where their OCD may go undiagnosed. Somatic obsessions and washing compulsions are commonly reported symptoms, with acne being the most frequently reported disorder. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the potential for comorbid OCD in these patient populations and to screen for it accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman returns home from the hospital after the birth of her first child. Over the next week she becomes increasingly irritable, feels low in mood and is very anxious that she is not taking good care of her baby.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Postpartum blues
Explanation:Postpartum Mental Health Conditions: Understanding the Differences
Postpartum mental health conditions can affect women after giving birth. It is important to understand the differences between these conditions to provide appropriate care and support.
Postpartum blues is a common and short-lived condition that occurs in the first week after delivery. Symptoms include irritability, crying, depression, and emotional lability. Reassurance and explanation are usually enough to resolve this condition.
Major depression is not suggested in the vignette and there is no indication of an ongoing depressive illness.
Generalised anxiety disorder requires symptoms to be present for at least six months, which is not the case in this scenario.
Postpartum depression is more persistent and debilitating than postpartum blues. It can interfere with the mother’s ability to care for herself or her child and typically develops over the first three months after delivery.
Postpartum psychosis has a dramatic onset within the first two weeks after delivery. Symptoms include restlessness, insomnia, irritability, rapidly shifting mood, and disorganized behavior. Delusional beliefs or auditory hallucinations may instruct the mother to harm herself or her infant.
Understanding the differences between these conditions can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support for women experiencing postpartum mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage IV prostate cancer and would like to explore how his beliefs can influence his decision-making.
What is the single most appropriate intervention?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discuss referral to a chaplain
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Patient with Terminal Breast Cancer
When treating a patient with terminal breast cancer, it is important to consider their emotional and spiritual needs. Referring them to a chaplain can provide emotional and spiritual support during times of stress, illness, loss, and approaching death. It is important to note that spirituality is unique to each individual and may or may not involve religious beliefs.
Cognitive behavioural therapy can be an effective treatment for conditions such as anxiety and depression, but it may not be necessary for a patient who doesn’t exhibit symptoms of a mental health condition.
Prescribing an antidepressant may also not be necessary if the patient doesn’t express symptoms of depression, such as persistent feelings of sadness and loss of interest.
If hypercalcaemia is suspected, a blood test including calcium should be requested. However, if the patient has not described any symptoms relating to hypercalcaemia, exploring their beliefs when facing a terminal diagnosis is a common occurrence and may not require referral to the Community Mental Health Team.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman, who is a mature university student, has difficulty getting off to sleep and feels tired.
Select from the list the single most useful piece of advice.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Take regular daytime exercise
Explanation:Tips for Better Sleep: Understanding Sleep Hygiene
Sleep hygiene refers to a set of general guidelines that can help individuals achieve better quality sleep. One of the key recommendations is to avoid daytime naps, as they can disrupt the body’s natural sleep-wake cycle. Establishing a regular morning routine is also important, which involves waking up at the same time every day, even if an alarm clock is needed. To avoid constantly checking the time during periods of wakefulness, it may be helpful to place the clock under the bed.
Going to bed when feeling sleepy, rather than at a fixed time, is another important aspect of sleep hygiene. It’s also advisable to avoid mentally or physically demanding activities, such as studying, within 90 minutes of bedtime. Engaging in daytime exercise has been shown to improve sleep quality, reduce the time it takes to fall asleep, and increase the amount of time spent asleep.
Overall, sleep hygiene encompasses various aspects of sleep control, including homeostatic, adaptive, and circadian factors. It also provides guidance on how to avoid sleep deprivation and how to respond to unwanted awakenings during the night. By following these tips, individuals can improve their sleep habits and enjoy better overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner because she is concerned about her weight, which is 56 kg. Her body mass index (BMI) is 18 kg/m2. She also reports prolonged fasts, sometimes not eating for a few days. She denies using laxatives or diuretics to help her lose weight. She is scared of putting on weight and has missed her last three periods. She has no known medical comorbidities.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Understanding Eating Disorders: Differential Diagnosis
Eating disorders are complex mental health conditions that can have serious physical and psychological consequences. When a patient presents with symptoms of an eating disorder, it is important to consider a range of differential diagnoses to ensure appropriate treatment. Here, we explore the key features of several eating disorders and related conditions, including anorexia nervosa, personality disorders, avoidant restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID), bulimia nervosa, and depression. By understanding the unique characteristics of each disorder, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide effective support for patients with eating disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled for some time with fluoxetine, has started to suffer from anxiety, loss of interest and reduced appetite. She also complains of insomnia.
She claims to taking her medications regularly according to prescription.
What will be the most appropriate management for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to another group of antidepressant
Explanation:Switching Antidepressants: Consider Mirtazapine
When a patient stops responding to fluoxetine, switching to another group of antidepressants is a feasible approach. One such option is mirtazapine, a newer antidepressant that exhibits both noradrenergic and serotonergic activity. Studies have shown that mirtazapine is effective in treating a substantial proportion of patients who did not respond well to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or found them difficult to tolerate. Therefore, if a patient is no longer responding to fluoxetine, it may be worth considering switching to mirtazapine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman brings her husband to the surgery. She is very concerned as his memory has been deteriorating significantly in recent years; so much so that he walked to the local village a week ago to do some shopping and had to be brought home by the police after forgetting where he was and why he had gone there.
Previously he had controlled the finances in the house, but he recently began neglecting to pay the bills at home, and she has noticed objects in the kitchen being put in completely the wrong place.
He has a history of hypertension for which he takes ramipril and amlodipine. On examination his BP is 165/89. He has a left carotid bruit.
Investigations
Haemoglobin 127 g/L (135-180)
White cell count 4.5 ×109/L (4-10)
Platelets 232 ×109/L (150-400)
Sodium 140 mmol/L (134-143)
Potassium 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5)
Creatinine 145 μmol/L (60-120)
ECG Sinus rhythm
GPCOG* 4 (>5)
*GPCOG stands for general practitioner assessment of cognition, and is a formal test of cognitive function recommended by NICE.
Which one of the following would constitute the most appropriate initial measure in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Syphilis screen
Explanation:Importance of Diagnosing Dementia
Of utmost importance in the management of cognitive impairment is the establishment of a diagnosis of dementia. This can be best assessed by a specialist clinic psychologist, who is usually available through the local memory clinic. These clinics are typically run by neurologists or specialist elderly care physicians. While there may be evidence of cerebrovascular disease, which may require additional medications such as aspirin and statin, diagnosing dementia and identifying its underlying cause is crucial at this stage. Early therapeutic intervention can then be initiated to help manage the condition and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 61
Incorrect
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The risk of developing bipolar disorder if one monozygotic twin is affected is approximately:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Understanding the Epidemiology of Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. While the exact cause of schizophrenia is still unknown, research has identified several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing the condition. The most significant risk factor is having a family history of schizophrenia, which increases the relative risk by 7.5. For example, if a parent has schizophrenia, the risk of developing the condition is between 10-15%, while having a sibling with schizophrenia increases the risk to 10%. In contrast, individuals with no relatives with schizophrenia have a 1% risk of developing the condition.
Aside from family history, other risk factors for developing psychotic disorders include Black Caribbean ethnicity, migration, urban environment, and cannabis use. Black Caribbean ethnicity increases the relative risk by 5.4, while migration and urban environment increase the risk by 2.9 and 2.4, respectively. Cannabis use, which is a common recreational drug, increases the relative risk by 1.4.
Understanding the epidemiology of schizophrenia is crucial in identifying individuals who are at high risk of developing the condition. By identifying these individuals, healthcare professionals can provide early interventions and treatments that can help manage the symptoms of schizophrenia and improve the quality of life of affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 62
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 44-year-old who undergoes regular blood tests for a health assessment. Her blood results reveal the following:
Na+ 125 mmol/l
K+ 4.3 mmol/l
Urea 5.3 mmol/l
Creatinine 60 µmol/l
She is currently taking the following medications: sertraline, carbimazole, amlodipine, metformin, aspirin. Which of her prescribed drugs is likely responsible for her low sodium levels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Hyponatraemia is a known side effect of SSRIs, with sertraline being the specific medication associated with this condition. Other drugs that can cause low sodium levels include chlorpropramide, carbamazepine, tricyclic antidepressants, lithium, MDMA/ecstasy, tramadol, haloperidol, vincristine, desmopressin, and fluphenazine.
Side-Effects of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants. However, they can cause adverse effects, with gastrointestinal symptoms being the most common. Patients taking SSRIs are also at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if they are also taking NSAIDs. To prevent this, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed. Hyponatraemia is another potential side-effect, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
Citalopram, a type of SSRI, has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose for citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine for patients taking warfarin/heparin. Triptans should be avoided with SSRIs.
When starting antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide, they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.
When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old unemployed man has been seeing you for the past six months as a newly registered patient with depression. He lives alone without support.
He has suffered from depression since he was a young man, taking citalopram 20 mg for the past five months but has frequently defaulted review appointments with you. He last saw a colleague of yours as an emergency appointment eight weeks ago but did not attend follow up with you one week later as advised.
On this occasion, you have been asked to visit by a neighbour who fears that he may have died, because his curtains have been drawn for seven days and when she last saw him, through his lounge window, he looked 'absolutely awful and has lost a lot of weight'.
You phone his house, but there is no reply. You decide to visit, fearing the worst, but he finally answers the door when you shout your name through his letterbox.
On examination he appears to have lost a significant amount of weight and is unshaven. He says that he has not slept or eaten for four days and feels very depressed. He says that he doesn't feel suicidal and that he is still taking the antidepressants, but you notice that there is an unopened box of tablets on his kitchen table. His house is very unkempt.
What is the best way of managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tail off citalopram and switch to dosulepin
Explanation:Consider Inpatient Treatment for High-Risk Patients
You should consider inpatient treatment for individuals who are at a significant risk of suicide, self-harm, or self-neglect. According to the NICE guidance on Depression in adults (CG90), inpatient treatment should be considered for those who are at high risk.
In this case, the patient is showing signs of self-neglect and has little social support. He has missed appointments and may not be taking his medication as prescribed. These factors increase the risk of suicide, although this has not been explicitly stated in the patient’s history.
Changing the patient’s medication may not be appropriate since there is no guarantee that he will comply. Asking a neighbor to check on him may provide some support, but it may not be enough.
Given the available information, the most appropriate course of action would be to consider emergency admission by contacting the mental health team. This will ensure that the patient receives the necessary care and support to manage his risk of self-harm or suicide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is brought by his wife and appears to be experiencing an elevated mood, along with increased activity and energy, and difficulty sleeping. He is extremely talkative and jumps quickly from one topic to another. He has no hallucinations or delusions. His wife believes he requires medication to help calm him down.
What medication would be the most appropriate for the mental health team to prescribe for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Treatment for Mania/Hypomania
Mania/hypomania is a condition that requires specialist mental health assessment. The patient may be prescribed atypical antipsychotic drugs such as olanzapine, quetiapine, or risperidone, which have a quicker onset and lower incidence of extrapyramidal side-effects compared to older antipsychotics like chlorpromazine. Alternatively, benzodiazepines like lorazepam may be used to aid sleep.
Lithium, a mood stabilizer, has a slower onset of action and is only used alone if symptoms are mild. It is usually initiated after a specialist assessment. In this case, the treatment with antipsychotics is to calm the patient down in the immediate short-term. Managing mania or hypomania in adults requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A client is initiated on clozapine for treatment resistant schizophrenia. What is a known adverse effect of clozapine treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersalivation
Explanation:Clozapine therapy often leads to excessive salivation, which is a commonly observed side effect. However, this issue can be effectively managed with the use of hyoscine hydrobromide.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.
Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 66
Incorrect
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You see a 40-year-old woman for a third episode of moderately severe depression in the last 18 months.
She has been stopping and starting her antidepressant medication according to how she is feeling. You advise her that she should take the medication regularly.
What length of time is recommended for continuation of antidepressants for recurrent depression?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Six months
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Antidepressant Use for Recurrent Depression
According to NICE guidance, patients who have experienced two or more depressive episodes in the recent past and have suffered significant functional impairment during these episodes should be advised to continue taking antidepressants for a period of two years. This recommendation is based on evidence that suggests that longer-term use of antidepressants can reduce the risk of relapse and recurrence of depression. It is important to note that this guidance applies specifically to patients with recurrent depression and should be considered on a case-by-case basis in consultation with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 67
Incorrect
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An anxious mother brings her 15-year-old daughter to see you as she is worried that she may be depressed or using drugs, although she has no evidence of the latter. She had previously been happy and healthy and performing well at school, but recently has become withdrawn, has started failing at school and is often heard shouting in her bedroom, which she locks herself into most of the day. She has accused her parents of trying to harm her when they have encouraged her to come out.
Select from the list the most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute schizophrenia
Explanation:Early Intervention for Acute Schizophrenia and Substance Use
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of acute schizophrenia, including social withdrawal, declining academic performance, delusions of persecution, and hallucinations. Substance use is a common factor in the development of psychosis, with cocaine, amphetamines, cannabis, and alcohol use linked to a higher risk of developing schizophrenia. Research suggests that cannabis use, in particular, may contribute to the development of schizophrenia. However, signs of drug use typically precede the onset of thought disorders. To ensure the best possible outcome, this patient should be referred to an early intervention team for prompt diagnosis and treatment. Early intervention is crucial for managing acute schizophrenia and substance use disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 68
Incorrect
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Which of the following indicates psychiatric illness instead of an organic brain disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A family history of major psychiatric illness
Explanation:Distinguishing Psychiatric Disease from Organic Brain Disease
Psychiatric diseases such as depression and schizophrenia have distinct features that differentiate them from organic brain diseases like dementia. While loss of short term memory and advanced age are more typical of organic brain disease, a family history is particularly associated with depressive illness and schizophrenia. To determine whether a psychiatric emergency is due to disease or psychological illness, it is important to consider the differential diagnosis of psychotic symptoms and medical mimics. Additionally, mental health in older people should be approached with a practice primer that takes into account the unique challenges and considerations of this population. By understanding the typical features and diagnostic approaches for psychiatric diseases, healthcare professionals can provide more effective and targeted care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A father brings his 14-year-old son to see you. The boy is a high achiever and is about to take his 'GCSEs'.
In recent months he has broken up with his girlfriend, has lost interest in his usual hobbies, and has lost a stone in weight so that his BMI is now 17. He cries frequently, struggles to focus on his school work, and is not interested in playing video games, one of his favourite pastimes.
His father feels he is depressed, and you are inclined to agree.
Which of the following symptoms would make you suspect this was more than a straightforward depression?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Feelings of guilt
Explanation:Anorexia Nervosa and Disproportionate Body Image Perception
Disproportionate perception of one’s body image, often characterized by the belief of being overweight, is a common feature of anorexia nervosa. This condition is often accompanied by symptoms of depression, but treating it with antidepressants alone may not yield significant improvement. It is important to consider alternative diagnoses, especially in age groups where depression is not prevalent.
In summary, anorexia nervosa is a serious condition that affects one’s perception of their body image. It is crucial to seek appropriate treatment and consider other potential diagnoses to ensure proper care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 39 year-old woman reports trouble sleeping. She discloses that she experienced sexual assault 10 months ago. What symptoms are indicative of post traumatic stress disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypervigilance
Explanation:PTSD symptoms include re-experiencing, avoidance of reminders, hypervigilance, poor concentration, exaggerated startle responses, and sleep problems. People may also have recurrent distressing images, flashbacks, nightmares, and may constantly re-think the event.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.
Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his son. The son complains that his father's personality has changed completely over the past year. Even at his best, he is forgetful and ‘switched off’. At worst, he is drowsy and unresponsive. He is particularly concerned that his father has been claiming to 'see things that aren't really there'. Over the past few weeks, he has also been tripping a lot on the carpet and is no longer safe on the stairs going to his bedroom unaccompanied. The GP gave the patient a small dose of a neuroleptic which 'made things a million times worse'.
On examination, he has an inexpressive face, with a mild resting tremor and some axial rigidity. There is no other focal neurology. On mini-mental state examination, he scores 20/30.
What is the most likely primary brain pathology?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy bodies
Explanation:Understanding Lewy Body Dementia: A Comparison with Other Neurological Conditions
Lewy body dementia is a neurological condition characterized by extrapyramidal signs, visual hallucinations, and a variable symptom profile. Patients with this condition are also highly sensitive to the anticholinergic side-effects of neuroleptics. The presence of eosinophilic inclusions bodies called Lewy bodies in the limbic areas of the brain is a hallmark of this condition.
It is important to differentiate Lewy body dementia from other neurological conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Normal brain is an unlikely diagnosis given the neurological symptoms seen in patients with Lewy body dementia. Multiple infarcts in the grey matter, on the other hand, typically have a stepwise course with an acute onset and patchy cognitive impairment. Neurofibrillary tangles are characteristic of Alzheimer’s disease, which presents with early impairment of memory that evolves into more general deficits in concentration and attention. Finally, Pick bodies are associated with fronto-temporal dementias and tend to involve disinhibition as an early feature.
In summary, understanding the unique features of Lewy body dementia and its differences from other neurological conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman reports that she regularly needs to check items. She will return repeatedly to check a door is locked or an iron unplugged or an oven switched off etc. She has even occasionally returned to the house after leaving to check things.
Select from the list the single most correct statement concerning obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) in this patient.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obsessions or compulsions must be a source of distress or interfere with functioning for the diagnosis to be made
Explanation:Understanding and Treating Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors. While many people may exhibit some obsessive or compulsive tendencies, the key to diagnosing OCD is whether it causes distress or interferes with daily functioning.
Cognitive behavioral therapy, specifically exposure and response prevention, is the first-line treatment for OCD. This type of therapy helps individuals confront their fears and learn to resist the urge to engage in compulsive behaviors. If a patient cannot participate in therapy or if it is not effective, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may be prescribed. Clomipramine is an alternative medication to SSRIs.
It is important to note that OCD can affect anyone, regardless of gender, and typically has an onset in adolescence or early adulthood. If you or someone you know is struggling with OCD, seeking professional help can lead to effective treatment and improved quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman, who has a history of panic attacks, visits her General Practitioner as she has been experiencing a feeling of detachment from her surroundings during her attacks. She describes it as as if there is a veil between me and the outside world. What is the most appropriate term for this symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Derealisation
Explanation:Differentiating between psychological experiences: Derealisation, Delusion, Depersonalisation, Flight of Ideas, and Hallucination
Psychological experiences can be complex and difficult to differentiate. Here are some explanations of five different experiences: derealisation, delusion, depersonalisation, flight of ideas, and hallucination.
Derealisation is the feeling that the external world is unreal, distant, or distorted. Patients may describe it as a veil between themselves and their surroundings.
Delusion is a fixed false belief that doesn’t change despite conflicting evidence. This is different from derealisation, where patients feel detached from their surroundings. Delusions are commonly associated with schizophrenia, not anxiety.
Depersonalisation is the feeling of being a detached observer of oneself. This is different from derealisation, where patients feel detached from their surroundings.
Flight of ideas is a rapid flow of thoughts that often connect and is part of the hyperexcitable state of mania. It is not typically seen in anxiety with derealisation.
Hallucination is a false sensory perception in the absence of a real external stimulus. For example, hearing voices when no one has spoken. This patient has not described any false sensory perception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. Her spouse reports that she had a disagreement with their daughter, causing her to leave the house. Following this incident, she has been unable to speak. Physical examination of her chest and throat reveals no abnormalities. What is the most appropriate term to describe this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psychogenic aphonia
Explanation:Understanding Aphonia: The Inability to Speak
Aphonia is a medical condition that refers to the inability to speak. It can be caused by various factors, including recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, which can occur after a thyroidectomy. In this case, the nerve that controls the vocal cords is damaged, leading to difficulty in speaking.
Another cause of aphonia is psychogenic, which means that it is related to psychological factors. This can include anxiety, depression, or other mental health conditions that affect the ability to communicate verbally.
It is important to note that aphonia is different from mutism, which is the inability to speak due to a physical or neurological condition. In contrast, aphonia is typically a temporary condition that can be treated with appropriate medical or psychological interventions.
Overall, understanding aphonia is crucial for identifying and addressing the underlying causes of this condition. Whether it is related to a physical or psychological issue, seeking medical attention can help individuals regain their ability to speak and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 75
Incorrect
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Samantha, a 48-year-old woman, visits you for her annual medication review.
Samantha has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Her current medications include lisinopril 10 mg, hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg, and atorvastatin 40 mg. She has no known drug allergies.
During the review, Samantha expresses her concern about her persistent headaches and occasional dizziness. Upon further questioning, she reveals that she has been experiencing stress at work and difficulty sleeping due to worrying about her job security.
You diagnose mild anxiety and discuss starting an anxiolytic. Samantha agrees, and you prescribe lorazepam 0.5mg as needed.
What other step is important in managing Samantha's condition at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe lansoprazole
Explanation:When prescribing medication to a patient who is already taking an NSAID, such as aspirin, it is important to assess their risk for gastrointestinal bleeding. According to NICE guidelines, patients with 1-2 risk factors are considered moderate risk and should either be prescribed a COX-2 inhibitor alone or a PPI. One risk factor is taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), so in this case, the patient should be prescribed lansoprazole along with citalopram.
It is important to note that taking both citalopram and amitriptyline can increase the risk of serotonin syndrome. While co-codamol may be helpful for the patient’s back pain, it would be best to assess the pain before prescribing pain relief.
Gabapentin is not necessary in this situation, and Z drugs like zopiclone should not be the first choice for managing sleep difficulties associated with depression.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male patient has just been prescribed clozapine by his psychiatrist for his treatment-resistant schizophrenia. As he has not responded to conventional antipsychotic drugs in the past, he started taking clozapine last week. As his primary care physician, what additional monitoring should be done for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full blood count once a week for 18 weeks
Explanation:The need for weekly full blood counts for the first 18 weeks, followed by fortnightly checks for up to a year, and then monthly monitoring is necessary for clozapine due to the risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, the other choices are inaccurate.
Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with his father who is concerned about him and reports a 6-month history of weight loss, apathy and poor self-care. He dropped out of university soon after starting his course. He has no friends and now spends most of his time alone in his room playing video games. He has recently accused his father of trying to spy on him. During the consultation, he is suspicious and reluctant to speak directly to the GP.
What is the most likely reason for this presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Understanding Possible Diagnoses for a Teenager’s Behaviour Changes
When a teenager’s behaviour changes, it can be difficult to determine whether it is normal teenage behaviour or a sign of a mental health issue. In the case of schizophrenia, social withdrawal and odd ideas, such as the belief that someone is trying to poison them, are classic symptoms. Amphetamine misuse can exacerbate underlying mental health problems, but there is no indication of drug abuse in this scenario. Severe depression can also manifest with delusions, which are false beliefs held with absolute certainty. Normal teenage behaviour may include changes in appearance and some withdrawal from family life, but excessive neglect of personal hygiene and never going out with friends may be signs of mental illness. Finally, personality disorders such as schizotypal and schizoid personality disorder may involve discomfort in close relationships and a preference for being alone, but do not typically include delusions or other features of schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with longstanding bipolar disorder has recently joined your practice after moving to the area. He has been on a stable dosage of lithium for the past 4 years and has been adherent to treatment. He has no other medical history of note and is not taking any medication that interacts with lithium. His previous blood tests have all been within normal limits, with a serum lithium level consistently around 0.5 mmol/litre (within target range).
What is the minimum ongoing blood monitoring required for this patient in relation to his lithium treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum lithium level, serum electrolytes, eGFR, thyroid function and full blood count annually
Explanation:Lithium Monitoring Requirements
Lithium is a medication with a narrow therapeutic ratio, which means it requires careful monitoring. The British National Formulary (BNF) outlines the monitoring requirements for patients taking lithium. After initiation and each dose change, serum-lithium monitoring should be carried out weekly until concentrations are stable. After that, it should be checked every 3 months for the first year and every 6 months thereafter as a minimum.
Patients who are 65 years and above, taking drugs that may interact with lithium, at risk of impaired renal or thyroid function, have high calcium levels, poor symptom control or adherence to treatment, or whose last serum-lithium concentration was 0.8 mmol/litre or higher should be monitored every 3 months. Additionally, serum-lithium measurements should be checked if there is a significant intercurrent illness/disease or a significant change in sodium or fluid intake.
Before treatment is initiated, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be assessed, and an ECG is recommended for those with cardiovascular disease or risk factors. Body-weight/BMI, serum electrolytes, and a full blood count should also be measured. During treatment, body-weight/BMI, serum electrolytes, eGFR, and thyroid function should be monitored every 6 months. If there is evidence of impaired renal or thyroid function or raised calcium levels, monitoring should be more frequent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A first time mother in her early 20s presents to the clinic with complaints of feeling exhausted, tearful without any reason, easily irritated, occasionally overjoyed, and sensitive to criticism 48 hours after giving birth.
What course of action would you recommend?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral for urgent psychiatric assessment
Explanation:Understanding postpartum Blues
postpartum blues are a common experience for 50-70% of women after giving birth. Symptoms typically resolve within 10-14 days, but it’s important for women to receive appropriate support from their GP, health visitor, and family during this time. If symptoms persist, urgent assessment is recommended according to NICE guidelines. Women who are at a higher risk of developing postpartum depression may have a history of psychiatric issues, lack supportive mechanisms, or have experienced stressful life events. It’s important to note that postpartum blues do not require medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had previously visited with complaints of worsening headaches and insomnia, which you diagnosed as tension-type headaches after ruling out any red flags. Her sleep pattern has continued to deteriorate over the past few months, with early morning waking being a prominent issue. She denies any substance misuse or excessive alcohol consumption.
During today's visit, she reports experiencing a few episodes of palpitations and occasional dizziness. These symptoms do not occur during exercise, and there are no red flags present. Her cardiovascular and neurological exams are unremarkable, and her blood pressure is normal.
All of her blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and thyroid function tests, come back normal.
What would be the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Consider generalised anxiety disorder as a potential underlying diagnosis and explore if psychological distress present
Explanation:Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) can manifest in various ways, including presenting solely with physical symptoms. Patients with GAD may experience headaches, muscle tension, gastrointestinal symptoms, back pain, and insomnia, without reporting any psychological distress or worry. Therefore, it is important to explore the presence of psychological distress during consultations.
Based on the history and examination provided, there is no indication for urgent cardiology referral, and it would not be an appropriate use of resources.
While beta-blockers may be a suitable treatment option for GAD, further discussion with the patient is necessary before reaching a diagnosis, especially in the presence of somatic symptoms.
Similarly, SSRI may be an appropriate treatment option, but it is important to have a thorough discussion with the patient before prescribing.
In this case, prescribing a sleeping tablet is not the most appropriate option. Secondary insomnia resulting from GAD should be treated, and a sleeping tablet should only be prescribed at the lowest possible dose for the shortest period of time, with regular review. Treatment should not exceed 2-4 weeks due to the risk of tolerance and addiction. Depending on the circumstances, other treatment options such as individual guided self-help, psychological interventions, or cognitive behavioural therapy may be considered.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female presents after her partner encouraged her to see the GP. She has had hyperarousal to loud noises and difficulty concentrating at work following a car accident 4 weeks ago. Her partner did some reading online and feels she is suffering from an acute stress disorder. You advise her that she has post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and discuss treatment options. She asks what the difference is, so that she can explain it to her partner. You advise there are similarities in the presentation and the main difference is temporal.
At what point after the event can you confirm a diagnosis of PTSD?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:Acute stress disorder is characterized by an acute stress reaction that occurs within 4 weeks of a traumatic event, while PTSD is diagnosed after 4 weeks have passed. Symptoms presented at 2 weeks would indicate acute stress disorder. PTSD and acute stress disorder share similar symptoms, including re-experiencing, avoidance, hyperarousal, and emotional numbing. Re-experiencing symptoms may include flashbacks, nightmares, and intrusive images, while avoidance symptoms may involve avoiding people, situations, or circumstances associated with the traumatic event. Hyperarousal symptoms may include hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response, sleep disturbances, irritability, and difficulty concentrating. Emotional numbing may manifest as a lack of ability to experience feelings or feeling detached.
Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.
The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for advice. He lost his wife to cancer and has been a widower for 6 months. The patient has a supportive family and is not clinically depressed, but he was very emotional after his wife's passing. He sometimes feels indifferent and down, but this has improved significantly over time. However, he has been hearing his late wife's voice on several occasions for the past 2 weeks. He also believed he saw her once while shopping with a friend, but he knows this is impossible.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure and safety-net
Explanation:It is possible for pseudo hallucinations to be a normal part of the grieving process. People who are grieving may experience hearing, seeing, or even smelling their deceased loved one. These occurrences are often associated with acute grief but can happen at any stage of bereavement. Therefore, the patient in question can be reassured.
Since there is no evidence of an organic cause for the patient’s symptoms, it would be inappropriate to arrange blood tests and urinalysis.
While antidepressants may be used to treat severe or atypical cases of grief, they are unlikely to provide significant benefits for a patient who is not clinically depressed. Additionally, they may cause harm due to their adverse effects.
The patient is fully aware of the situation and has insight into their condition. Therefore, there is no need for urgent involvement from a psychiatrist or for the patient to be sectioned under the Mental Health Act 1983.
Understanding Pseudohallucinations: A Controversial Topic in Mental Health
Pseudohallucinations are a type of false sensory perception that occur in the absence of external stimuli. Unlike hallucinations, the affected person is aware that they are experiencing a false perception. However, there is no clear definition of pseudohallucinations in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, leading to controversy among mental health specialists.
Some experts argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, ranging from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations. This approach can prevent misdiagnosis or mistreatment of symptoms. For example, hypnagogic hallucinations, which occur during the transition from wakefulness to sleep, are a common type of pseudohallucination that many people experience. These hallucinations are fleeting and can be either auditory or visual.
The relevance of pseudohallucinations in mental health practice is that patients may need reassurance that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness. Pseudohallucinations are also commonly experienced by people who are grieving, which can add to the confusion and distress of the grieving process.
In conclusion, while the definition and role of pseudohallucinations in mental health treatment remain controversial, it is important for mental health professionals to be aware of this phenomenon and provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who experience it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old gentleman with a history of depression comes to see you. Last month he was admitted to hospital after having taken a paracetamol overdose as a suicide attempt.
Which of the following factors suggests the greatest chance of his making another attempt on his life?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He consumed the paracetamol whilst inebriated
Explanation:Assessing Suicidal Intent: Factors to Consider
There are several factors to consider when assessing current and ongoing suicidal intent. Being unemployed and living alone may increase the risk, but they are not the strongest indicators of actual intent. Consuming a large quantity of alcohol at the same time may also complicate the risk assessment. To determine actual suicidal intent, it is important to inquire about the planning of the act, attempts made not to be discovered, the location of the attempt, the presence of a suicide note, and how the patient perceives the potential harm of their actions.
A suicide note indicates a serious attempt at suicide and suggests that considerable thought has gone into the attempt. However, notes are also common in parasuicides as a cry for help and are often not found in completed suicides. Visiting a solicitor to make a will in advance of the attempt demonstrates the highest likelihood of a subsequent attempt, as it shows considerable planning and forethought. By considering these factors, healthcare professionals can better assess the level of suicidal intent and provide appropriate interventions to prevent future attempts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is currently receiving olanzapine depot injections to manage his psychotic symptoms. Prior to starting the treatment, his psychiatrist conducted a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. If the patient continues to take olanzapine in the long term, how frequently should these parameters be monitored?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annually
Explanation:Before starting a patient on antipsychotics and on an annual basis thereafter, it is recommended to conduct a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. Any other options presented in this scenario are incorrect. It is important to note that different antipsychotics may have varying monitoring requirements, and consulting the BNF is advised if unfamiliar with these drugs.
Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is being seen in the psychiatric clinic after being referred by his GP who has been struggling to manage his depression. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, high cholesterol, and depression, as well as a previous acute coronary syndrome one year ago. He reports that his mood has deteriorated and he is experiencing persistent suicidal thoughts. He denies any cognitive impairment, difficulty concentrating, or sleep disturbances. What guidance should be provided regarding his ability to drive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Must not drive and must inform the DVLA
Explanation:He is not allowed to drive and must notify the DVLA due to his depression and ongoing suicidal ideation.
The DVLA has specific rules regarding psychiatric disorders for those who wish to drive group 1 vehicles such as cars and motorcycles. Those with severe anxiety or depression accompanied by memory problems, concentration problems, agitation, behavioral disturbance, or suicidal thoughts must not drive and must inform the DVLA. Those with acute psychotic disorder, hypomania or mania, or schizophrenia must not drive during acute illness and must notify the DVLA. Those with pervasive developmental disorders and ADHD may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with mild cognitive impairment, dementia, or mild learning disability may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with severe disability must not drive and must notify the DVLA. Those with personality disorders may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. The rules for group 2 vehicles such as buses and lorries are stricter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old new mother is brought to the surgery by her concerned partner. Their baby daughter is six days old.
For the last 48 hours the mother has been very tearful, anxious and irritable. The partner has read about postnatal depression and is worried as she seemed so happy in the first days after the birth. The baby is formula-fed and is thriving.
When asked, she feels exhausted, and is in some discomfort following the delivery. She doesn't feel depressed but says it is very unusual for her to be so emotional and crying all the time.
What is your diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Postnatal depression
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Mood Disorders
Baby blues are a common experience for new mothers, affecting between 50-70% of women. This short-lived disturbance of mood typically begins between the third and sixth day post-delivery and resolves within 10 days. While it can cause anxiety, it doesn’t indicate an anxiety disorder and doesn’t affect a mother’s ability to function. Supportive treatment is all that is required.
Postnatal depression is a more serious condition, affecting 10-15% of pregnancies with the highest incidence occurring three months postpartum. Symptoms may include persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and a loss of interest in activities. Treatment may involve therapy, medication, or a combination of both.
Puerperal psychosis is a rare but severe condition affecting 1-2 in 1000 births. Symptoms may include delusions, hallucinations, and clouding of consciousness. Delusions may be centered around the baby, putting the child at risk of harm or neglect. This condition is typically managed in a specialist mother and baby unit.
It’s important for new mothers to be aware of these postpartum mood disorders and seek help if they experience symptoms. With proper treatment and support, women can recover and enjoy the joys of motherhood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 87
Incorrect
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Samantha, a 50-year-old woman, visits her doctor complaining of feeling fatigued, experiencing a low mood, and losing interest in activities she typically enjoys for the past two weeks. As per ICD-10 guidelines, how long must Samantha's symptoms persist to be diagnosed with a depressive episode?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 weeks
Explanation:The criteria for diagnosing depressive illness according to ICD-10 include a depressed mood, loss of interest in activities that were once enjoyable, and decreased energy levels. Other common symptoms include reduced concentration, low self-esteem, feelings of guilt, pessimistic views of the future, and thoughts or actions of self-harm or suicide. Disturbed sleep, diminished appetite, psychomotor agitation or retardation, and loss of libido are also common.
To diagnose a mild depressive episode, at least two of the main three symptoms and two of the other symptoms should be present, but none of the symptoms should be intense. The episode should last for a minimum of two weeks, and individuals should still be able to function socially and at work, despite being distressed by the symptoms.
For a moderate depressive episode, at least two of the main three symptoms and three or four of the other symptoms should be present for a minimum of two weeks. Individuals will likely have difficulty continuing with normal work and social functioning.
A severe depressive episode is diagnosed when all three typical symptoms are present, along with at least four other symptoms, some of which should be severe. The episode should last for a minimum of two weeks, but an early diagnosis may be appropriate if the symptoms are particularly severe. Individuals may also experience psychotic symptoms and show severe distress or agitation.
Screening and Assessment of Depression
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.
Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.
The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.
In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A young man arrives at the emergency department after taking a paracetamol overdose following a recent break-up. He has entered into a new relationship but is struggling with frequent outbursts of anger. The patient has a history of childhood abuse and struggles with maintaining healthy relationships. He reports experiencing frequent mood swings between low and elevated states. The overdose was not premeditated and the patient has a history of similar incidents. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The young woman who overdosed on paracetamol after breaking up with her boyfriend is now in a new relationship that is plagued by her frequent angry outbursts, indicating borderline personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by rapidly changing intense emotions, difficulties in maintaining relationships, feelings of emptiness, fear of abandonment, impulsive behavior, and self-harm. Bipolar affective disorder is not the correct diagnosis as it involves periods of depression and mania, which are not reported in this case. Dependent personality disorder and histrionic personality disorder are also not applicable as they have different symptoms such as low confidence, difficulty making decisions without support, and a need for attention.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia reports that thoughts are leaking out of his head and being read by others around him.
What is the correct term for this symptom?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thought broadcast
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Thought Experiences
There are various types of thought experiences that individuals may encounter. One of these is thought broadcast, where others can seemingly hear or read one’s thoughts as they are being broadcasted from the individual. On the other hand, thought insertion and withdrawal refer to the experience of having thoughts inserted into or taken out of one’s mind by an external force. In thought blocking, individuals may suddenly find themselves unable to continue speaking as their minds go blank. Meanwhile, thought echo involves hearing one’s own thoughts being spoken aloud after thinking them. Finally, auditory hallucinations refer to the perception of hearing sounds or voices without any external stimulus. Understanding these different types of thought experiences can help individuals better recognize and cope with them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male patient presents for a medication review. He has been diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder and was initially prescribed sertraline, but this was discontinued due to gastrointestinal side effects. He has since been taking venlafaxine for a week but has reported experiencing headaches and blurred vision. What is the most appropriate course of action to manage his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to pregabalin
Explanation:For generalised anxiety disorder, pregabalin is suggested as a third line treatment option. If the patient is unable to tolerate SSRIs and SNRIs, pregabalin can be considered as an alternative. However, amitriptyline is not recommended for this condition.
Dealing with anxiety and depression is a common issue, and initial treatments may not always be effective. It is important for healthcare professionals to be knowledgeable about second and third line treatments, which may be initiated by some GPs or prescribed after specialist advice. The GP is responsible for ongoing monitoring and safety, including being aware of potential drug interactions.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother and she complains that she resists going to school because she wants to stay with her mother. She becomes terrified whenever her parents leave the house. During the day she worries that her family may never come back home.
What is the disorder most closely associated with these symptoms in adulthood?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Panic disorder
Explanation:The Relationship Between Childhood Separation Anxiety and Mental Disorders
Separation anxiety disorder is a condition characterized by excessive anxiety related to separation from an attachment figure, such as a mother. Studies have shown that this disorder is a strong risk factor for developing mental disorders, particularly panic disorder and depression, in people aged 19-30 years. However, there is no proven link between childhood separation anxiety and irritable bowel syndrome, obsessive-compulsive disorder, schizophrenia, or somatic symptom disorder. While negative childhood experiences may play a role in the development of some mental disorders, separation anxiety in childhood is not directly related to these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male presents to the GP with persistent difficulty in leaving his home without performing a cleaning ritual that takes over 3 hours to finish. He has an intense fear that if he doesn't complete the process, his family will be harmed. The patient is currently undergoing cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT).
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe sertraline
Explanation:Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is the likely diagnosis for this patient, who is exhibiting symptoms of fear of harming her children and compulsive cleaning. The first-line treatment for OCD is cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT) or exposure and response prevention. However, since the patient has not responded to CBT and is still experiencing intrusive symptoms, it would be appropriate to prescribe an SSRI, such as sertraline.
Continuing with CBT alone would not be appropriate for this patient, given her ongoing and intrusive symptoms. Therefore, the most suitable course of action is to add an SSRI to her treatment plan.
Benzodiazepines are not recommended for this patient, as they have a high potential for addiction and are typically used for acute relief of panic attacks. The patient is not displaying any overt anxiety symptoms that would warrant a prescription of benzodiazepines.
Zopiclone may be prescribed for severe sleeping difficulties, but it is not indicated for this patient, who is not experiencing any acute issues with sleeping.
Since the patient has not responded to CBT, it is appropriate to add an SSRI rather than referring her for exposure and response prevention.
Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that affects 1 to 3% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of obsessions, which are unwanted intrusive thoughts, images, or urges, and compulsions, which are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform. These symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and distress.
Risk factors for OCD include a family history of the condition, age (with peak onset between 10-20 years), pregnancy/postnatal period, and a history of abuse, bullying, or neglect.
The management of OCD involves classifying the level of impairment as mild, moderate, or severe using the Y-BOCS scale. For mild impairment, low-intensity psychological treatments such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) including exposure and response prevention (ERP) are recommended. If this is insufficient, a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) can be offered. For moderate impairment, a choice of either an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) is recommended, with clomipramine as an alternative first-line drug treatment to an SSRI if necessary. For severe impairment, referral to the secondary care mental health team for assessment is necessary, with combined treatment of an SSRI and CBT (including ERP) or clomipramine as an alternative while awaiting assessment.
ERP is a psychological method that involves exposing a patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. This helps them confront their anxiety, leading to the eventual extinction of the response. Treatment with an SSRI should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement. Compared to depression, the SSRI usually requires a higher dose and a longer duration of treatment (at least 12 weeks) for an initial response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 93
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately reflects the epidemiological risk factors for schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The lifetime risk of developing schizophrenia is 1%
Explanation:Schizophrenia: Prevalence, Onset, and Demographics
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that affects 1% of the global population. Although it can occur at any age, it typically starts in late adolescence or early adulthood, with rare cases before puberty. Men tend to develop schizophrenia earlier than women, and they are more likely to experience severe symptoms. Negative symptoms are also more common in men. The condition is more prevalent among migrants, people in lower social classes, and those living in urban areas. Some studies suggest that schizophrenia is more frequently diagnosed in black individuals than in white individuals, but this finding may be due to cultural biases or healthcare disparities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old teacher has been seeking your help for the past four weeks due to symptoms of mild depression. You have prescribed an antidepressant and would like to suggest cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) as an additional treatment. However, access to CBT in your area is limited. During your latest appointment, the patient has mentioned finding some online CBT therapies and would like your advice on the most suitable options. Which computer-based CBT therapies (CCBT) are recommended by NICE for managing mild to moderate depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beating the Blues
Explanation:CCBT Approved by NICE for Depression and Anxiety Treatment
In 2002, NICE did not recommend any form of computerized cognitive behavioral therapy (CCBT). However, the current packages have been reviewed and two have been approved. Beating the Blues has been recommended as an option in the treatment of mild to moderate depression and should be made available free to all NHS patients. Although approved by NICE, Fear Fighter is aimed at the treatment of panic and phobia. NICE consider that there is insufficient evidence to recommend the use of COPE and Overcoming Depression as clinically cost-effective options, but this may change should further trials prove successful. OC Fighter (previously known as BTSteps) is used to supplement treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder.
If you are a healthcare professional, do you use CCBT in the management of your patients? If so, it is important to note that Beating the Blues is now available for free to all NHS patients with mild to moderate depression. Patients can access this treatment through their GP or mental health professional. It is important to stay up-to-date with NICE guidelines and recommendations for the use of CCBT in the treatment of mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his doctor's office and reports that his wife passed away recently. He shares that he woke up this morning thinking she was lying next to him and heard her voice calling his name. He acknowledges that this is not feasible, but it has caused him considerable anguish. He is concerned that he might be losing his mind. He has no other significant psychiatric history.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudohallucination
Explanation:Pseudohallucinations, which are characterized by the patient’s awareness that the voice or feeling is coming from their own mind, are not indicative of psychosis or serious psychiatric conditions. This makes schizophrenia and other psychotic options less likely, and there are no signs of schizoid personality disorder in the patient. Pseudohallucinations are often observed in individuals who have experienced bereavement.
Understanding Pseudohallucinations: A Controversial Topic in Mental Health
Pseudohallucinations are a type of false sensory perception that occur in the absence of external stimuli. Unlike hallucinations, the affected person is aware that they are experiencing a false perception. However, there is no clear definition of pseudohallucinations in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, leading to controversy among mental health specialists.
Some experts argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, ranging from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations. This approach can prevent misdiagnosis or mistreatment of symptoms. For example, hypnagogic hallucinations, which occur during the transition from wakefulness to sleep, are a common type of pseudohallucination that many people experience. These hallucinations are fleeting and can be either auditory or visual.
The relevance of pseudohallucinations in mental health practice is that patients may need reassurance that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness. Pseudohallucinations are also commonly experienced by people who are grieving, which can add to the confusion and distress of the grieving process.
In conclusion, while the definition and role of pseudohallucinations in mental health treatment remain controversial, it is important for mental health professionals to be aware of this phenomenon and provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who experience it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman comes to see you. She is 31 weeks pregnant and lives with her partner. The pregnancy has so far been uneventful.
She says that over the past few days she has started to feel anxious and tearful, and is finding it hard to concentrate. She is not sure if this is just 'normal' at this stage of pregnancy. She denies any disturbance of sleep or appetite, and her PHQ-9 score is only five. She has had no thoughts of self-harm.
Her parents, and her older sister have been treated for depression and she suffered a brief depressive episode in her early teens.
Which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Only women at high risk for postnatal depression, like this lady, need active monitoring of their mood in the postnatal period
Explanation:Managing Depression in Pregnancy and Postpartum
This patient has a history of depressive illness and is at high risk for developing a depressive episode during pregnancy or postpartum. While her current symptoms are common in later pregnancy, close monitoring is necessary to detect any changes that may require treatment. If treatment is necessary, SSRIs such as Sertraline are now considered safe for use during pregnancy.
Postpartum depression is a common concern, and all patients should be closely monitored by health visiting teams and community midwives. GPs should also have a low threshold for considering depression in mothers of young babies and should inquire about the mother’s mood at the six-week postnatal check. If a mother experiences tearfulness and difficulty sleeping at six weeks postpartum, this should be taken seriously, as the baby blues typically resolve by 10 days postpartum. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 97
Incorrect
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According to the Mental Capacity Act (2005), what would indicate that a person doesn't have capacity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to weigh up information and make a decision
Explanation:Understanding Capacity to Make Decisions: The Test and Criteria
The Mental Capacity Act provides a clear and concise test to determine whether a person lacks capacity to make a decision at a particular time. The test involves assessing whether the person has an impairment or disturbance of mental function that prevents them from making the decision in question.
To have capacity, a person must be able to understand the relevant information, retain it, use it to make a decision, and indicate that decision through communication. Age, appearance, and behavior are not factors in determining capacity.
Overall, understanding the criteria for capacity is crucial in ensuring that individuals are able to make informed decisions and have their rights protected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old nursing student comes to you with a 2-year history of low mood, anhedonia, and poor concentration. She has been taking fluoxetine for 6 months and wants to switch to a different antidepressant. What important factors do you need to consider when changing her medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Long half-life
Explanation:Compared to other SSRIs, fluoxetine has a longer half-life. Therefore, it is recommended to wait for about 4-7 days after discontinuing fluoxetine before starting a new antidepressant. Although fluoxetine undergoes first-pass metabolism and is excreted through the kidneys, this doesn’t affect the process of switching to another antidepressant. Instead, it may impact the appropriateness of fluoxetine for a specific patient.
Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants
When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.
Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 99
Incorrect
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You are conducting a diabetic annual review on a 63-year-old man with type 2 diabetes. As part of the review, you are checking for any indications of depression. NICE suggests using two questions to screen for depression in at-risk patients, such as those with chronic illnesses. What is one of the questions that should be asked as part of the evaluation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?
Explanation:Managing Chronic Medical Conditions in Primary Care
More and more patients with complex, chronic medical conditions are being managed in primary care, such as diabetes where some practices are initiating and managing patients on insulin and newer injectable treatments. However, with this greater workload comes the need for structured regular reviews. Part of reviewing a patient with a chronic medical problem is to consider the psychological impact of their disease and to elicit any depression or mood disorder that may be present.
To approach this scenario, NICE has provided a framework that advises asking two questions. If either question is answered with a ‘yes,’ further inquiry is needed into specific symptoms of depression. The two questions are: During the last month, have you been feeling down, depressed, or hopeless? During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?
By regularly reviewing patients with chronic medical conditions and considering their psychological well-being, primary care providers can provide comprehensive care and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 100
Incorrect
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You are the on-call doctor for the afternoon clinic and have received an email from a consultant psychiatrist regarding a patient with bipolar disorder who is registered at your practice. The psychiatrist has just reviewed the patient and increased their lithium dose from 200 mg to 400 mg daily. The patient has already started taking the new dose. As the duty doctor, when should you schedule the next lithium level check for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 week after change
Explanation:Following a change in dosage, it is recommended to monitor lithium levels one week later and continue to do so on a weekly basis until the levels stabilize. Checking lithium levels three days after a dosage change may not provide accurate results as the medication may not have reached a steady state. However, it is crucial to not delay monitoring for more than a week as an increase in lithium dosage can increase the risk of toxicity. Neglecting to monitor lithium levels can be unsafe.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.
Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.
Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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