00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of left thigh pain, tingling, and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of left thigh pain, tingling, and numbness that have been gradually worsening for the past 2 months. She points to the lateral and posterior aspects of her left thigh when asked to indicate the affected area. There is no history of leg or hip injury. During the examination, she demonstrates full range of motion in both hips, and her power is 5/5.

      What nerve is the most probable cause of her injury?

      Your Answer: Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh. The patient’s symptoms suggest meralgia paraesthetica, which is caused by compression of the nerve near the ASIS. The location of the tingling and numbness, as well as the absence of motor symptoms, point towards this diagnosis.

      The femoral nerve, obturator nerve, and sciatic nerve are not the correct answers. Each of these nerves would cause different symptoms and are typically injured in different ways.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - As a medical student on placement with a surgical team, you come across...

    Correct

    • As a medical student on placement with a surgical team, you come across a patient who has developed foot drop in their right leg after surgery. You notice that the patient is dragging their right foot and experiencing weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion of their foot, as well as an inability to extend their toes. Which nerve is most likely to have been affected during the operation?

      Your Answer: Common fibular nerve

      Explanation:

      The common fibular nerve starts at the top of the popliteal fossa, passing medial to the biceps femoris and then crossing over the head of the gastrocnemius. It provides an articular branch to the knee before winding around the neck and passing under the Fibularis longus. At this point, it divides into superficial and deep branches. In the popliteal fossa, it also divides to give the lateral sural cutaneous nerve, which joins with a branch from the tibial nerve to form the sural nerve. If the nerve is damaged, it can result in foot drop, which can occur due to prolonged pressure on the nerve during an operation or other causes. Motor loss of other nerves, such as the tibial, sciatic, inferior gluteal, or femoral nerves, can result in weakness in other muscles.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      89.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following structures divides the subclavian artery and vein? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures divides the subclavian artery and vein?

      Your Answer: Anterior scalene muscle

      Explanation:

      The subclavian vein (anterior) and subclavian artery (posterior) are separated by the significant anatomical feature known as the anterior scalene muscle.

      The Scalene Muscles and Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

      The scalene muscles are a group of three paired muscles located in the neck that play a role in elevating the ribs and tilting the neck. The scalenus anterior and medius muscles elevate the first rib and laterally flex the neck to the same side, while the scalenus posterior muscle elevates the second rib and tilts the neck to the opposite side. These muscles are innervated by spinal nerves C4-6 and originate from the transverse processes of C2 to C7, inserting into the first and second ribs.

      The scalene muscles are important because the brachial plexus and subclavian artery pass between the anterior and middle scalenes through a space called the scalene hiatus or fissure. The subclavian vein and phrenic nerve pass anteriorly to the anterior scalene as it crosses over the first rib. However, the scalenes are at risk of adhering to the fascia surrounding the brachial plexus or shortening, which can cause compression of the brachial plexus when it passes between the clavicle and first rib. This condition is known as thoracic outlet syndrome.

      In summary, the scalene muscles play an important role in the neck and chest, but can also cause issues if they become adhered or shortened, leading to thoracic outlet syndrome. It is important to be aware of this condition and seek medical attention if experiencing symptoms such as pain, numbness, or tingling in the arm or hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a severe throbbing headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a severe throbbing headache on one side of his head. He reports that it started two weeks ago and has now progressed to affect his vision. Additionally, he experiences discomfort in his jaw while chewing, which has made it difficult for him to eat. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril.

      During the examination, the GP notes a tender temporal artery that is palpable. Fundoscopy reveals a swollen pale optic disc with blurred margins.

      Which artery is responsible for the patient's visual symptoms?

      Your Answer: Anterior ciliary artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior ciliary artery

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is posterior ciliary artery. When a patient presents with temporal arteritis, they may experience a headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms that can progress to anterior ischemic optic neuropathy. This occurs due to occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, which is a branch of the ophthalmic artery. When this artery is blocked, it can result in retinal ischemia and necrosis, leading to visual loss.

      The answer of anterior ciliary artery is incorrect because it does not have a direct supply to the retina. Instead, it supplies the conjunctiva, sclera, and rectus muscles. Therefore, it would not show a pale swollen optic disc on fundoscopy, which suggests retinal ischemia.

      Central retinal artery is also an incorrect answer because it is not typically affected in temporal arteritis. When this artery is occluded, it results in a cherry red spot on fundoscopy without associated mastication symptoms.

      Finally, the lacrimal artery is an incorrect answer because it supplies the lacrimal gland, conjunctiva, and eyelids, but not the retina. Therefore, it would not show a pale optic disc on fundoscopy.

      Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.

      To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old male with a history of gout presents with a suspected septic...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male with a history of gout presents with a suspected septic ankle joint. A diagnostic aspiration is performed and sent to microbiology. Which of the organisms below is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The most frequently encountered organism in cases of septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus.

      Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and swelling. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, while Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism in sexually active young adults. The infection is usually spread through the bloodstream, often from distant bacterial infections such as abscesses. The knee is the most commonly affected joint in adults.

      Symptoms of septic arthritis include acute joint swelling, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever. To diagnose the condition, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if needed. Blood cultures and joint imaging may also be necessary.

      Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci, such as flucloxacillin or clindamycin if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotics are typically given for several weeks, and patients may be switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration is used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required. Overall, prompt diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent joint damage and other complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 78-year-old man complains of heartburn and indigestion for the past 3 weeks,...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man complains of heartburn and indigestion for the past 3 weeks, which he attributes to a new medication he started taking a few days ago. He has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, osteoarthritis, right hip replacement, and recurrent falls. Which of the following medications could be causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Gliclazide

      Correct Answer: Alendronic acid

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal problems can be caused by bisphosphonates, which are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis. These drugs can lead to gastrointestinal issues, including oesophagitis, which should prompt discontinuation of the medication. Long-term use of bisphosphonates can also result in atypical femoral fractures and osteonecrosis of the jaw. Therefore, patients should be periodically re-evaluated to assess the benefits and risks of continuing treatment, especially after five or more years of use. Before starting bisphosphonate treatment, patients should have a dental check-up and any necessary dental work should be performed.

      Gliclazide, a sulfonylurea drug, can cause hypoglycemia symptoms such as dizziness, lack of energy, drowsiness, headache, and sweating.

      Metformin is associated with lactic acidosis and gastrointestinal problems.

      Bisoprolol can cause erectile dysfunction, cold hands and feet, bradycardia, and hypotension.

      Paracetamol, unlike NSAIDs, is not known to cause indigestion.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.

      The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of low back pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of low back pain. She is in good health otherwise. She reports several finger and wrist fractures during her childhood. Her father and sister have also experienced multiple fractures throughout their lives. On examination, she displays paralumbar tenderness and scoliosis. Her sclera is blue-grey. What type of collagen mutation is likely responsible for her condition?

      Your Answer: Type 4

      Correct Answer: Type 1

      Explanation:

      Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by an abnormality in type 1 collagen, which is the primary component of bone, skin, and tendons. The diagnosis is based on a combination of factors, including a history of fractures, scoliosis, family history, and physical examination findings. In contrast, mutations in type 2 collagen can lead to chondrodysplasias, while mutations in type 3 collagen may cause a type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. Additionally, mutations in type 4 collagen can result in Alport’s syndrome and Goodpasture’s syndrome, as this type of collagen forms the basal lamina.

      Understanding Osteogenesis Imperfecta

      Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by decreased synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides.

      This condition typically presents in childhood, with individuals experiencing fractures following minor trauma. Other common features include blue sclera, deafness secondary to otosclerosis, and dental imperfections. Despite these symptoms, adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal in individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and underlying causes of osteogenesis imperfecta is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old rower comes to your clinic complaining of a painful shoulder that...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old rower comes to your clinic complaining of a painful shoulder that has been bothering him for the past two weeks. The pain is dull and comes and goes, mainly affecting the posterior and lateral parts of his shoulder. Heavy exercises such as weightlifting and rowing exacerbate the pain, so he has been avoiding these activities. During the examination, you notice tenderness on the posterior aspect of the shoulder, and there is some weakness on shoulder abduction. Quadrangular space syndrome is a rare possibility for this presentation. Which of the following is not a border of the quadrangular space?

      Your Answer: Long head of triceps brachii

      Correct Answer: Infraspinatus

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is infraspinatus, which is located superior to the quadrangular space. The quadrangular space is a passage for nerves and vessels between the anterior and posterior regions of the shoulder, bordered by the inferior border of teres major, the lateral border of the surgical neck of the humerus, the medial border of the lateral margin of the long head of triceps brachii, and the superior border of the inferior margin of teres minor. The axillary nerve and posterior circumflex artery pass through this space. Quadrangular space syndrome is a rare condition that involves compression of these structures, typically in young adults without trauma. Symptoms may include shoulder pain during resisted abduction and external rotation, as well as wasting of the deltoid muscle.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Into which of the following structures does the superior part of the fibrous...

    Incorrect

    • Into which of the following structures does the superior part of the fibrous capsule of the shoulder joint insert?

      Your Answer: The surgical neck of the humerus

      Correct Answer: The anatomical neck of the humerus

      Explanation:

      Due to its shallow nature, the shoulder joint has a high degree of mobility, but this is achieved at the cost of stability. The fibrous capsule is connected to the anatomical neck in a superior position and the surgical neck in an inferior position.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following bones is associated with the distal articular surface of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following bones is associated with the distal articular surface of the cuboid?

      Your Answer: Medial cuneiform

      Correct Answer: 5th metatarsal

      Explanation:

      The cuboid bone is situated on the outer side of the foot, positioned between the heel bone at the back and the fourth and fifth toe bones towards the front.

      The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 43-year-old man presents to his doctor with complaints of struggling to use...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old man presents to his doctor with complaints of struggling to use the twist throttle on his motorcycle with his right hand. He sustained a mid-shaft fracture of his right humerus in a car accident 10 weeks ago, which was successfully treated with surgery. What is the most frequent nerve injury resulting from this type of fracture?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve injury

      Explanation:

      The most common nerve injury that occurs with a mid-shaft fracture of the humerus is radial nerve injury. This type of injury can cause a dropped wrist presentation, which is characterized by weakness in wrist extension and difficulty making a fist. The patient in the scenario describes difficulty accelerating on their motorcycle, which requires normal wrist extension and the ability to make a fist.

      Other nerve injuries that can occur include axillary nerve injury, which affects shoulder abduction and external rotation and is usually caused by anterior shoulder dislocation. Median nerve injury can result in weakness of forearm pronation, wrist flexion, and thumb flexion, and is associated with carpal tunnel syndrome. Musculocutaneous nerve injury, on the other hand, does not typically affect wrist movements and is responsible for elbow flexion and certain shoulder movements.

      The humerus is a long bone that runs from the shoulder blade to the elbow joint. It is mostly covered by muscle but can be felt throughout its length. The head of the humerus is a smooth, rounded surface that connects to the body of the bone through the anatomical neck. The surgical neck, located below the head and tubercles, is the most common site of fracture. The greater and lesser tubercles are prominences on the upper end of the bone, with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons inserted into the greater tubercle. The intertubercular groove runs between the two tubercles and holds the biceps tendon. The posterior surface of the body has a spiral groove for the radial nerve and brachial vessels. The lower end of the humerus is wide and flattened, with the trochlea, coronoid fossa, and olecranon fossa located on the distal edge. The medial epicondyle is prominent and has a sulcus for the ulnar nerve and collateral vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 31-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a skateboard accident. He...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a skateboard accident. He reports experiencing intense pain in his left lower leg. The patient has no significant medical history and is typically self-sufficient and healthy.

      During the examination, the physician notes palpable tenderness and significant bruising on the lateral side of the left leg, just below the knee. The patient is unable to dorsiflex his left foot.

      Which anatomical structure is most likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing foot drop, which is characterized by the inability to dorsiflex the foot, following a fibular neck fracture. This injury commonly affects the common peroneal nerve, which supplies the dorsum of the foot and lower, lateral part of the leg. The patient’s history of falling from a skateboard and tenderness and bruising over the lower left leg support this diagnosis.

      Achilles tendon rupture, on the other hand, presents with sudden-onset pain and a popping sensation at the back of the heel. It is more common in athletes or those taking certain medications. The deltoid ligament, which stabilizes the ankle against eversion injury, is less commonly injured and would not cause foot drop. The femoral nerve, which supplies the quadriceps muscles and plays a role in knee extension, is not affected by a fibular neck fracture and does not cause foot drop. The tibial nerve, responsible for foot plantarflexion and inversion, is not directly involved in foot drop, although its lack of opposing action from the anterior muscle group of the lower leg may contribute to the foot’s plantarflexed position.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old female comes in with a sudden onset of back pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old female comes in with a sudden onset of back pain that radiates down her lower limb while she was gardening and bending forward. During a neurological examination of her lower limb, it was discovered that she has reduced power when flexing her hip and extending her knee. Her patellar reflex was also reduced, and there is decreased sensation in the anteromedial aspect of her thigh. Can you determine the level at which the intervertebral disc herniation is located based on these examination findings?

      Your Answer: L4-L5

      Correct Answer: L3-L4

      Explanation:

      If there is a disc herniation at the L3-L4 level, it can impact the L4 spinal nerve and lead to issues with the femoral nerve’s function. A herniation at the L2-L3 level can cause L3 radiculopathy and result in weakness in hip adduction. On the other hand, a herniation at the L3-L4 level can cause L4 radiculopathy and lead to weakness in knee extension, with a greater contribution from L4 than L3, as well as a decrease in the patellar reflex.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 60-year-old man comes to the dermatology clinic complaining of a rash. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the dermatology clinic complaining of a rash. During the examination, the doctor observes a linear rash on the lateral thigh of the left leg. The patient reports having undergone a left hip replacement surgery recently, and the rash has developed over the surgical scar.

      What skin condition is most likely responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis

      Explanation:

      The Koebner Phenomenon: Skin Lesions at the Site of Injury

      The Koebner phenomenon refers to the occurrence of skin lesions at the site of injury. This phenomenon is commonly observed in various skin conditions such as psoriasis, vitiligo, warts, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and molluscum contagiosum. In other words, if a person with any of these skin conditions experiences trauma or injury to their skin, they may develop new lesions in the affected area.

      This phenomenon is named after Heinrich Koebner, a German dermatologist who first described it in 1876. The exact mechanism behind the Koebner phenomenon is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to the immune system’s response to injury. In some cases, the injury may trigger an autoimmune response, leading to the development of new lesions.

      The Koebner phenomenon can be a frustrating and challenging aspect of managing skin conditions. It is important for individuals with these conditions to take precautions to avoid injury to their skin, such as wearing protective clothing or avoiding activities that may cause trauma. Additionally, prompt treatment of any new lesions that develop can help prevent further spread of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department with lateral knee pain. He...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department with lateral knee pain. He reports that the pain began two hours ago while playing hockey, and he was struck on the anteromedial aspect of his extended knee by a hockey stick. An x-ray of the knee reveals an avulsion fracture of the fibular head. Which muscle is the probable culprit for this patient's avulsion fracture?

      Your Answer: Biceps femoris

      Explanation:

      The fibular head serves as the insertion point for both the long and short head of the biceps femoris muscle. However, sudden contractions of the biceps femoris can lead to an avulsion fracture of the fibular head, where the fracture fragment may be attached to the lateral collateral ligament or biceps femoris tendon.

      The fibularis brevis muscle originates from the distal two-thirds of the fibular bone. If the ankle joint suddenly inverts, it can pull on the fibularis tendon and cause an avulsion of the tuberosity at the base of the fifth metatarsal.

      The flexor hallucis longus muscle originates from the distal two-thirds of the posterior surface of the fibular bone. This muscle not only allows for flexion of the big toe but also contributes to plantarflexion and inversion of the foot.

      The soleus muscle originates from the proximal one-third of the posterior surface of the fibular bone. It is a large muscle covered in thick fascia, which aids in its secondary function of pumping venous blood back into the heart through the skeletal muscle pump.

      The Biceps Femoris Muscle

      The biceps femoris is a muscle located in the posterior upper thigh and is part of the hamstring group of muscles. It consists of two heads: the long head and the short head. The long head originates from the ischial tuberosity and inserts into the fibular head. Its actions include knee flexion, lateral rotation of the tibia, and extension of the hip. It is innervated by the tibial division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the profunda femoris artery, inferior gluteal artery, and the superior muscular branches of the popliteal artery.

      On the other hand, the short head originates from the lateral lip of the linea aspera and the lateral supracondylar ridge of the femur. It also inserts into the fibular head and is responsible for knee flexion and lateral rotation of the tibia. It is innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the same arteries as the long head.

      Understanding the anatomy and function of the biceps femoris muscle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of injuries and conditions affecting the posterior thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 9-year-old child has been brought to the emergency department after falling onto...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old child has been brought to the emergency department after falling onto their shoulder during a soccer game. They are experiencing pain across their shoulder and upper chest, which is most severe when the clavicular area is palpated. A visible bony deformity is present in the clavicular area. The physician suspects a fracture and orders an x-ray.

      What is the most probable location of the fracture?

      Your Answer: Middle third of the clavicle

      Explanation:

      The most frequent location for clavicle fractures is the middle third, which is the weakest part of the bone and lacks any ligaments or muscles. This is especially common in young children. Fractures in the proximal and distal thirds are less frequent and therefore incorrect answers. While sternum fractures can occur in high-force trauma, the mechanism of injury and visible bony deformity in this case suggest a clavicular fracture. Acromion fractures are rare and would not result in the observed bony injury.

      Anatomy of the Clavicle

      The clavicle is a bone that runs from the sternum to the acromion and plays a crucial role in preventing the shoulder from falling forwards and downwards. Its inferior surface is marked by ligaments at each end, including the trapezoid line and conoid tubercle, which provide attachment to the coracoclavicular ligament. The costoclavicular ligament attaches to the irregular surface on the medial part of the inferior surface, while the subclavius muscle attaches to the intermediate portion’s groove.

      The superior part of the clavicle’s medial end has a raised surface that gives attachment to the clavicular head of sternocleidomastoid, while the posterior surface attaches to the sternohyoid. On the lateral end, there is an oval articular facet for the acromion, and a disk lies between the clavicle and acromion. The joint’s capsule attaches to the ridge on the margin of the facet.

      In summary, the clavicle is a vital bone that helps stabilize the shoulder joint and provides attachment points for various ligaments and muscles. Its anatomy is marked by distinct features that allow for proper function and movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old man with a submandibular gland stone is undergoing excision of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a submandibular gland stone is undergoing excision of the submandibular gland. The incision is sited transversely approximately 4 cm below the mandible. After incising the skin, platysma and deep fascia which of the following structures is most likely to be encountered.

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Facial vein

      Explanation:

      When accessing the submandibular gland, the facial vein and submandibular lymph nodes are the structures that are most easily visible. The gland is divided into a superficial and deep part by the mylohyoid muscle. The facial artery runs along the surface of the gland and can be seen in a groove. It then passes between the gland and the mandible before emerging on the face. During surgery, the facial vein is encountered first as the incision is made 4 cm below the mandible to prevent damage to the marginal mandibular nerve.

      Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland

      The submandibular gland is located beneath the mandible and is surrounded by the superficial platysma, deep fascia, and mandible. It is also in close proximity to various structures such as the submandibular lymph nodes, facial vein, marginal mandibular nerve, cervical branch of the facial nerve, deep facial artery, mylohyoid muscle, hyoglossus muscle, lingual nerve, submandibular ganglion, and hypoglossal nerve.

      The submandibular duct, also known as Wharton’s duct, is responsible for draining saliva from the gland. It opens laterally to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth and is approximately 5 cm in length. The lingual nerve wraps around the duct, and as it passes forward, it crosses medial to the nerve to lie above it before crossing back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.

      The submandibular gland receives sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglion and parasympathetic innervation from the submandibular ganglion via the lingual nerve. Its arterial supply comes from a branch of the facial artery, which passes through the gland to groove its deep surface before emerging onto the face by passing between the gland and the mandible. The anterior facial vein provides venous drainage, and the gland’s lymphatic drainage goes to the deep cervical and jugular chains of nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Liam is a 5-year-old boy playing outside in the park on his scooter....

    Correct

    • Liam is a 5-year-old boy playing outside in the park on his scooter. He accidentally falls off his scooter and scrapes his elbow, causing a small amount of bleeding. After a few days, a scab forms and eventually falls off, leaving the skin healed. What is the outermost layer of the epidermis?

      Your Answer: Stratum corneum

      Explanation:

      The epidermis comprises five distinct layers that consist of various cell types and perform different functions. These layers, listed from outermost to innermost, are the stratum corneum, stratum lucidum*, and stratum granulosum.

      The Layers of the Epidermis

      The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin and is made up of a stratified squamous epithelium with a basal lamina underneath. It can be divided into five layers, each with its own unique characteristics. The first layer is the stratum corneum, which is made up of flat, dead, scale-like cells filled with keratin. These cells are continually shed and replaced with new ones. The second layer, the stratum lucidum, is only present in thick skin and is a clear layer. The third layer, the stratum granulosum, is where cells form links with their neighbors. The fourth layer, the stratum spinosum, is the thickest layer of the epidermis and is where squamous cells begin keratin synthesis. Finally, the fifth layer is the stratum germinativum, which is the basement membrane and is made up of a single layer of columnar epithelial cells. This layer gives rise to keratinocytes and contains melanocytes. Understanding the layers of the epidermis is important for understanding the structure and function of the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The etiology of osteopetrosis is most effectively described by a malfunction in which...

    Incorrect

    • The etiology of osteopetrosis is most effectively described by a malfunction in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Osteoblast function

      Correct Answer: Osteoclast function

      Explanation:

      Understanding Osteopetrosis: A Rare Disorder of Bone Resorption

      Osteopetrosis, also known as marble bone disease, is a rare disorder that affects the normal function of osteoclasts, leading to a failure of bone resorption. This results in the formation of dense, thick bones that are more prone to fractures. Individuals with osteopetrosis often experience bone pains and neuropathies. Despite the abnormal bone growth, levels of calcium, phosphate, and ALP remain normal.

      Treatment options for osteopetrosis include stem cell transplant and interferon-gamma therapy. However, these treatments are not always effective and may have significant side effects. As such, early diagnosis and management of osteopetrosis is crucial in preventing complications and improving quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old woman presents to your clinic complaining of increased joint pain and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to your clinic complaining of increased joint pain and fatigue. She reports no significant medical history but mentions that her sister was recently diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). On examination, there are no notable findings. Laboratory tests reveal the following results:

      - Hemoglobin: 118 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
      - Platelets: 260 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
      - White blood cells: 7.5 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
      - ANA: Negative
      - ANCA: Negative
      - Anti-La antibody: Negative
      - Rheumatoid factor: Positive

      Which blood test result is the most reliable indicator that SLE is unlikely in this patient?

      Your Answer: ANA (antinuclear antibodies)

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old woman is scheduled to have an axillary lymph node dissection as...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is scheduled to have an axillary lymph node dissection as a component of her breast cancer treatment. During the surgical approach to the axilla, which fascial layer will be cut?

      Your Answer: Clavipectoral fascia

      Explanation:

      The clavipectoral fascia is located beneath the clavicular part of the pectoralis major muscle and serves as a protective barrier for the axillary vessels and nodes. In cases of breast cancer requiring axillary node clearance, the clavipectoral fascia is incised to allow access to the nodal stations. These stations include level 1 nodes located below the pectoralis minor muscle, level 2 nodes situated behind it, and level 3 nodes above it. In some cases, such as during a Patey Mastectomy, surgeons may need to divide the pectoralis minor muscle to access level 3 nodes. However, with the use of sentinel node biopsy and improved techniques, this procedure is becoming less common.

      Anatomy of the Axilla

      The axilla, also known as the armpit, is a region of the body that contains important structures such as nerves, veins, and lymph nodes. It is bounded medially by the chest wall and serratus anterior, laterally by the humeral head, and anteriorly by the lateral border of the pectoralis major. The floor of the axilla is formed by the subscapularis muscle, while the clavipectoral fascia forms its fascial boundary.

      One of the important nerves that passes through the axilla is the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve and trunk, on the other hand, innervate and vascularize the latissimus dorsi muscle. The axillary vein, which is the continuation of the basilic vein, lies at the apex of the axilla and becomes the subclavian vein at the outer border of the first rib. The intercostobrachial nerves, which provide cutaneous sensation to the axillary skin, traverse the axillary lymph nodes and are often divided during axillary surgery.

      The axilla is also an important site of lymphatic drainage for the breast. Therefore, any pathology or surgery involving the breast can affect the lymphatic drainage of the axilla and lead to lymphedema. Understanding the anatomy of the axilla is crucial for healthcare professionals who perform procedures in this region, as damage to any of the structures can lead to significant complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 60-year-old patient visits the GP with symptoms indicative of a rotator cuff...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient visits the GP with symptoms indicative of a rotator cuff injury. The GP intends to assess the subscapularis muscle. What is the most suitable special test to examine the subscapularis muscle?

      Your Answer: Empty can test

      Correct Answer: Lift-off test

      Explanation:

      If a lift-off test shows abnormal results, it suggests that the subscapularis muscle may be involved.

      Rotator cuff injuries are a common cause of shoulder problems and can be classified into four types of disease: subacromial impingement, calcific tendonitis, rotator cuff tears, and rotator cuff arthropathy. The symptoms of a rotator cuff injury include shoulder pain that worsens during abduction. The signs of a rotator cuff injury include tenderness over the anterior acromion and a painful arc of abduction. The painful arc of abduction is typically between 60 and 120 degrees for subacromial impingement, while for rotator cuff tears, the pain may be in the first 60 degrees. Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent further damage and improve shoulder function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 79-year-old woman is admitted after a fall resulting in a wrist fracture....

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old woman is admitted after a fall resulting in a wrist fracture. After diagnosis, she is prescribed a medication to increase bone density in accordance with NICE guidance. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Inhibits osteoclasts

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for bone resorption. Therefore, NICE recommends discharging patients on bisphosphonates after fragility fractures without the need for a DEXA scan. While vitamin D and calcium supplementation increase calcium availability to bone, bisphosphonates are the first-line treatment for fragility fractures. Inhibiting osteoblasts would decrease bone density, so promoting osteoclasts would lead to increased bone resorption, which is incorrect.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.

      The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of worsening bone pain...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of worsening bone pain in her left hip over the past few days. She mentions feeling ill and feverish, but attributes it to a recent cold. The patient is a known IV drug user and has not traveled recently.

      During the examination, the left hip appears red and tender, and multiple track marks are visible.

      Which organism is most likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus in both adults and children. IV drug use is a known risk factor for this condition as it can introduce microorganisms directly into the bloodstream. While Escherichia coli can also cause osteomyelitis, it is more prevalent in children than adults. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also lead to osteomyelitis, but it is less common than Staphylococcus aureus. Bone introduction typically occurs via the circulatory system from pulmonary tuberculosis. However, antitubercular therapy has reduced the incidence of tuberculosis, making bone introduction less likely than with Staphylococcus aureus, which is part of the normal skin flora. Salmonella enterica is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in individuals with sickle cell disease. As the patient is not known to have sickle cell, Staphylococcus aureus remains the most probable cause.

      Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment

      Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria in the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children and can be caused by risk factors such as sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species are more prevalent. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%.

      The treatment for osteomyelitis involves a course of antibiotics for six weeks. Flucloxacillin is the preferred antibiotic, but clindamycin can be used for patients who are allergic to penicillin. Understanding the types, causes, and treatment of osteomyelitis is crucial in managing this bone infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which one of the following statements relating to osteomyelitis is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements relating to osteomyelitis is not true?

      Your Answer: The presence of associated septic joint involvement will significantly alter management

      Correct Answer: Should be treated by aggressive surgical debridement initially

      Explanation:

      The initial management involves medical treatment with an antistaphylococcal antibiotic, as opposed to septic joints where prompt joint washout is necessary.

      Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment

      Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria in the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children and can be caused by risk factors such as sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species are more prevalent. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%.

      The treatment for osteomyelitis involves a course of antibiotics for six weeks. Flucloxacillin is the preferred antibiotic, but clindamycin can be used for patients who are allergic to penicillin. Understanding the types, causes, and treatment of osteomyelitis is crucial in managing this bone infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 40-year-old male presents to the GP with fatigue and shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male presents to the GP with fatigue and shortness of breath. He states that he is taking methotrexate for psoriasis. The GP takes some bloods, and finds the following results in his full blood count (FBC):

      Hb 90 g/L
      MCV 90 fL
      Platelets 70 * 109/L
      WBC 2.5 * 109/L
      Neuts 1.5 * 109/L)
      Lymphs 0.7 * 109/L
      Mono 0.2 * 109/L
      Eosin 0.1 * 109/L

      The GP suspects this to be an adverse effect of methotrexate.

      What adverse effect is indicated by these results?

      Your Answer: Polycythemia

      Correct Answer: Pancytopaenia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s blood test indicates a decrease in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, which is known as pancytopenia. This condition is caused by severe bone marrow suppression, which is a common side effect of methotrexate. Anemia, on the other hand, would only result in a low hemoglobin level and cannot account for the low platelet and white blood cell counts.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - An 80-year-old man with symptoms of intermittent claudication needs to have his ankle...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man with symptoms of intermittent claudication needs to have his ankle brachial pressure indices checked. However, the dorsalis pedis artery cannot be felt. What tendinous structure, located medially, could aid in its identification?

      Your Answer: Flexor digitorum longus tendon

      Correct Answer: Extensor hallucis longus tendon

      Explanation:

      The dorsalis pedis artery is located lateral to the extensor hallucis longus tendon.

      The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old male patient visits his doctor complaining of scaly and erythematous lesions...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient visits his doctor complaining of scaly and erythematous lesions on the extensor surfaces of his knees and elbow. He reports that his skin condition worsens due to lithium, which he takes for bipolar disorder. Additionally, he experiences joint pain and nail ridging.

      What is the probable diagnosis, and which histological characteristic is pathognomonic?

      Your Answer: Destruction of the hemidesmosomes

      Correct Answer: Neutrophil infiltration of the stratum corneum

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils into the stratum corneum. This is suggested by the skin changes on the extensor surfaces, which are exacerbated by lithium. Bullous pemphigoid is associated with the destruction of hemidesmosomes, while pemphigus vulgaris is linked to damage to desmoglein. Acne vulgaris is characterized by follicular hyperkeratosis and increased sebum production.

      Psoriasis: A Chronic Skin Disorder with Various Subtypes and Complications

      Psoriasis is a prevalent chronic skin disorder that affects around 2% of the population. It is characterized by red, scaly patches on the skin, but it is now known that patients with psoriasis are at an increased risk of arthritis and cardiovascular disease. The pathophysiology of psoriasis is multifactorial and not yet fully understood. It is associated with genetic factors such as HLA-B13, -B17, and -Cw6, and abnormal T cell activity that stimulates keratinocyte proliferation. Environmental factors such as skin trauma, stress, streptococcal infection, and sunlight exposure can worsen, trigger, or improve psoriasis.

      There are several recognized subtypes of psoriasis, including plaque psoriasis, flexural psoriasis, guttate psoriasis, and pustular psoriasis. Each subtype has its own unique characteristics and affects different areas of the body. Psoriasis can also cause nail signs such as pitting and onycholysis, as well as arthritis.

      Complications of psoriasis include psoriatic arthropathy, metabolic syndrome, cardiovascular disease, venous thromboembolism, and psychological distress. It is important for patients with psoriasis to receive proper management and treatment to prevent these complications and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - During a hip examination, Sarah, a 65-year-old female, is found to have a...

    Correct

    • During a hip examination, Sarah, a 65-year-old female, is found to have a positive trendelenburg's sign. When she stands on only her left leg, her right pelvis drops.

      Which muscles are affected in Sarah?

      Your Answer: Left gluteus medius and gluteus minimus

      Explanation:

      The superior gluteal nerve is responsible for innervating the gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles. These muscles are involved in the abduction and medial rotation of the lower limb, as well as preventing pelvic drop of the opposing limb. For instance, when standing on only the right leg, the right gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles stabilize the pelvis. However, if the right superior gluteal nerve is damaged, the right gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles will not receive innervation, resulting in a lack of stability when standing on the right leg and causing the left pelvis to drop. On the other hand, the inferior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus maximus muscles, which primarily functions as the main extensor of the thigh and also performs lateral rotation.

      The Trendelenburg Test: Assessing Gluteal Nerve Function

      The Trendelenburg test is a diagnostic tool used to assess the function of the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for the contraction of the gluteus medius muscle, which is essential for maintaining balance and stability while standing on one leg.

      When the superior gluteal nerve is injured or damaged, the gluteus medius muscle is weakened, resulting in a compensatory shift of the body towards the unaffected side. This shift is characterized by a gravitational shift, which causes the body to be supported on the unaffected limb.

      To perform the Trendelenburg test, the patient is asked to stand on one leg while the physician observes the position of the pelvis. In a healthy individual, the gluteus medius muscle contracts as soon as the contralateral leg leaves the floor, preventing the pelvis from dipping towards the unsupported side. However, in a person with paralysis of the superior gluteal nerve, the pelvis on the unsupported side descends, indicating that the gluteus medius on the affected side is weak or non-functional. This is known as a positive Trendelenburg test.

      It is important to note that the Trendelenburg test is also used in vascular investigations to determine the presence of saphenofemoral incompetence. In this case, tourniquets are placed around the upper thigh to assess blood flow. However, in the context of assessing gluteal nerve function, the Trendelenburg test is a valuable tool for diagnosing and treating motor deficits and gait abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 75-year-old woman experiences a fracture at the surgical neck of her humerus...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman experiences a fracture at the surgical neck of her humerus and requires surgery. During the operation, there are challenges in realigning the fracture, and a blood vessel located behind the surgical neck is damaged. What is the most probable vessel that was injured?

      Your Answer: Axillary artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior circumflex humeral artery

      Explanation:

      The surgical neck is where the circumflex humeral arteries are located, with the posterior circumflex humeral artery being the most susceptible to injury in this situation. The thoracoacromial and transverse scapular arteries are situated in a more superomedial position. It is worth noting that the axillary artery gives rise to the posterior circumflex humeral artery.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      6.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal System And Skin (14/30) 47%
Passmed