00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a left-sided foot drop...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a left-sided foot drop that has been there for the last four weeks. He has noted slight tingling on the dorsum of his foot. Recently, his knee has been bandaged for support after a fall led to recurrent knee pain on walking. The foot drop has substantially improved over the last two weeks since the removal of the bandage.
      He has mild weakness of his left ankle dorsiflexors and evertors and moderate weakness of the extensor hallucis and extensor digitorum; other movements, including ankle inversion and hip abduction, are normal. Reflexes are normal. There is sensory loss on the dorsum of the foot from the base of the hallux to the ankle.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal palsy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Common Peroneal Palsy

      A left-sided common peroneal nerve lesion is likely in a patient who has experienced external compression of the nerve at the fibular head from a tight knee bandage. This condition is characterized by weakness in foot dorsiflexion and eversion, with normal plantar flexion and inversion, which distinguishes it from an L5 lesion. The degree of weakness and the onset of recovery suggest that the common peroneal palsy will improve in the coming weeks and months.

      Motor neurone disease can be ruled out in this patient due to the absence of sensory disturbance. Ischaemic stroke is a possibility, but the lack of upper motor neurone signs makes it less likely. L5 radiculopathy is unlikely as ankle inversion and hip abduction are preserved, and there may be back pain radiating down the leg. Sciatic nerve palsy is also possible, but there is no history of nerve damage or entrapment, and the tibial nerve is not affected. The patient’s history of compression at the fibular head supports the diagnosis of common peroneal palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      50
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 39-year-old plumber visits his GP complaining of increased clumsiness at work that...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old plumber visits his GP complaining of increased clumsiness at work that has been getting worse over the past 6 months. He reports difficulty finding tools and has fallen multiple times due to tripping over his own feet. The patient has well-controlled type 1 diabetes and is in good health otherwise. He is not taking any medication other than insulin and has no family history of illness. During the examination, the GP notes absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars, but sensation is normal. What could be a potential cause for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Explanation:

      Conditions that can present with extensor plantars and absent ankle jerk, along with mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs, include motor neuron disease, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, and syringomyelia. Other possible conditions to consider are diabetic neuropathy and myasthenia gravis.

      Absent Ankle Jerks and Extensor Plantars: Causes and Implications

      When a patient presents with absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars, it is typically indicative of a lesion that affects both the upper and lower motor neurons. This combination of signs can be caused by a variety of conditions, including subacute combined degeneration of the cord, motor neuron disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, syringomyelia, taboparesis (syphilis), and conus medullaris lesion.

      The absence of ankle jerks suggests a lower motor neuron lesion, while the presence of extensor plantars indicates an upper motor neuron lesion. This combination of signs can help clinicians narrow down the potential causes of the patient’s symptoms and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

      It is important to note that absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars are not always present in the same patient, and their presence or absence can vary depending on the underlying condition. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and diagnostic workup are necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      53.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man is taking co-careldopa for Parkinson’s disease.
    Select from the list the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is taking co-careldopa for Parkinson’s disease.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about this drug.

      Your Answer: The addition of carbidopa to levodopa makes toxicity more likely

      Correct Answer: While taking the drug there may be large variations in motor function

      Explanation:

      Levodopa: The Most Effective Drug for Parkinson’s Disease

      Levodopa is the most effective drug for treating Parkinson’s disease (PD). It replenishes depleted striatal dopamine, the lack of which causes PD symptoms. Levodopa is given with a dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor to limit side-effects such as nausea, vomiting, and cardiovascular effects. Benserazide and carbidopa are the dopa-decarboxylase inhibitors used with levodopa.

      Levodopa therapy should start at a low dose and increase gradually. The final dose should be the lowest possible that controls symptoms. Intervals between doses should suit the patient’s needs. Nausea and vomiting with co-beneldopa or co-careldopa are rarely dose-limiting and can be controlled with domperidone.

      Levodopa treatment can cause motor complications such as response fluctuations and dyskinesias. Response fluctuations involve large variations in motor performance, with normal function during an ‘on’ period, and restricted mobility during an ‘off’ period. End-of-dose deterioration with progressively shorter duration of benefit also occurs. Freezing of gait and falls may be problematic. Modified-release preparations may help with end-of-dose deterioration or immobility or rigidity at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the appropriate management for post-herpetic neuralgia in a 75-year-old man who...

    Correct

    • What is the appropriate management for post-herpetic neuralgia in a 75-year-old man who is still experiencing it three months after suffering an attack of thoracic herpes zoster?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline is the first line treatment for neuropathic pain uncontrolled by simple analgesia

      Explanation:

      Managing Neuropathic Pain: NICE Guidelines and Recommended Treatments

      Neuropathic pain can be a challenging condition to manage, but the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines to help healthcare professionals choose the most effective treatments. According to NICE, the first-line treatments for neuropathic pain (excluding trigeminal neuralgia) are oral amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. These medications should be tried one at a time, and the dosage can be gradually increased until pain is controlled or side effects occur.

      It’s important to note that using amitriptyline for neuropathic pain is an unlicensed indication, but it has been shown to be effective. If the first-line treatments don’t work, another one should be tried. Tramadol is not recommended for regular use in a non-specialist setting, but it can be used as rescue therapy. Strong opioids like morphine should also be avoided.

      For people with localized neuropathic pain who cannot tolerate oral treatments, capsaicin cream may be a good option. However, the intense burning sensation may limit its use. Versatis® is licensed for post-herpetic neuralgia, but it should only be used for 12 hours a day, followed by a 12-hour plaster-free period. If there is no response after four weeks, it should be discontinued. While NICE doesn’t comment on its use, the Scottish Medicines Consortium accepts it as a treatment option when first-line therapies are ineffective or not tolerated.

      In summary, managing neuropathic pain requires a tailored approach, and healthcare professionals should work closely with their patients to find the most effective treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old man presents to the neurology outpatient clinic with a resting tremor...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents to the neurology outpatient clinic with a resting tremor in his left hand. Parkinson's disease is diagnosed, but he is currently not experiencing any significant disability. What is the recommended treatment approach?

      Your Answer: New generation dopamine receptor agonist e.g. ropinirole

      Explanation:

      As per the latest NICE guidelines of 2017, it is advised to administer a dopamine receptor agonist for motor symptoms that do not significantly impact the patient’s quality of life.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old man with no previous medical history of note complains of sudden-onset...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man with no previous medical history of note complains of sudden-onset double vision that came on while he was playing basketball. He had a transient episode of weakness in his right arm 3 months ago that lasted several days. On examination he has a right-sided lateral rectus palsy.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis (MS)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Multiple Sclerosis and Differential Diagnosis

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is diagnosed based on the presence of two distinct neurological lesions separated by time. While other conditions may present similar symptoms, MS is the most likely diagnosis in the absence of other symptoms. An MRI scan is used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Other conditions that may be considered in the differential diagnosis include midline meningioma and AION, which tend to cause visual field or other neurological signs. Lyme disease may cause facial and other cranial nerve palsies, but lesions would not be separated by time as they are in MS. Cerebral aneurysms typically present as subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      In summary, a diagnosis of MS is made based on the presence of two distinct neurological lesions separated by time, and other conditions must be ruled out through differential diagnosis. An MRI scan is used to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old man presents with a tremor, accompanied by his wife. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with a tremor, accompanied by his wife. He reports that the tremor has been present for a long time but has become more noticeable over the past year. The tremor began in his left hand and has always been more severe on that side.

      Upon examination, you observe that the patient has a mask-like facial expression and a coarse, rhythmic tremor affecting both hands, which is most prominent at rest. The left hand is more affected than the right.

      As the patient walks, you note that he is stooped over and moves with short, shuffling steps. What other clinical signs would you expect to find in this patient?

      Your Answer: Rigidity

      Correct Answer: Fasciculation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Parkinson’s Disease

      Parkinson’s disease (PD) is a neurological disorder that presents with a range of symptoms. The core clinical features of PD are bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremor. Bradykinesia is characterized by a slowing of movements, resulting in a shuffling gait and a stooped posture. Patients may also experience a loss of facial expression, known as masked facies. Tremors in PD are typically worse at rest and are rhythmic and repetitive, occurring at a frequency of two to five movements per second. This tremor is often described as pill-rolling if the thumb and index finger are involved. Rigidity, which worsens over time, is also more prominent on one side and can lead to the classic description of cog wheel rigidity in PD. These symptoms can be asymmetrical, with one side of the body being more affected than the other. Understanding these core features can aid in the diagnosis and management of PD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner, having developed sudden-onset weakness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner, having developed sudden-onset weakness and numbness in her left arm and leg while exercising. She takes the combined oral contraceptive pill. No other risk factors for stroke are identified.
      On examination, she exhibits mild pyramidal weakness on the left side of her face, arm and leg. Left-sided hemisensory loss is also present, as well as left homonymous hemianopia and left-sided inattention.
      She is admitted to hospital for further testing. A brain computed tomography (CT) scan and diffusion-weighted magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) show a recent, single infarction in the territory of the right middle cerebral artery.
      What is the most likely cause for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Thromboembolic disorder secondary to carotid atherosclerosis

      Correct Answer: Dissection of the right carotid artery

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with total anterior cerebral syndrome

      Explanation:

      A patient presenting with total anterior cerebral syndrome, which includes left-sided weakness, hemisensory loss, and homonymous hemianopia, may have various underlying causes. One possibility is a spontaneous or minimally provoked cervical vascular dissection, which can affect the internal carotid and its middle cerebral branch. Although two-thirds of patients with this condition experience head or neck pain at onset, some do not, as in this case. Horner syndrome may also occur. Anticoagulation may be necessary, and specialist investigation and management are required.

      Another potential cause is an inherited thromboembolic disorder, which is more likely to manifest as venous thrombosis, such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism, rather than arterial ischaemic stroke. Women of childbearing age with this condition may also have recurrent miscarriages.

      Cardioembolism from an atrial septal defect is possible, especially if the ischaemic event occurs during exercise and is precipitated by a Valsalva manoeuvre. However, if exercise provokes the event, arterial dissection is more likely.

      Dissection of the vertebral artery is less common than that of the right carotid artery but can also cause a posterior circulation infarct.

      Finally, a thromboembolic disorder secondary to carotid atherosclerosis, which is more prevalent in older patients with other cardiovascular risk factors, can also lead to ischaemic stroke in a similar distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old man comes to you with complaints of severe, stabbing pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to you with complaints of severe, stabbing pain in his right eye that has been occurring once a day for the past few weeks. The pain lasts for about 30 minutes and he is often seen pacing around and shouting during these episodes. His wife reports that his right eye appears red and he has clear nasal discharge during the episodes.

      Based on the probable diagnosis, what advice would you give the patient to prevent future episodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Cluster headaches are often triggered by alcohol, and they typically affect individuals of a certain age and gender.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old woman has had a fall. She has been well all her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman has had a fall. She has been well all her life and has rarely had to see the doctor. She smokes 10 cigarettes a week. Examination is unremarkable other than a left-sided ptosis and some slight thinning of the muscles of her left hand, which she thinks might be long-standing.
      What is the most probable reason for her left-sided ptosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Horner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Causes and Characteristics of Unilateral Ptosis and Lid Lag in Thyrotoxicosis

      Unilateral ptosis, or drooping of one eyelid, can be caused by disinsertion of the aponeurosis of the levator palpabrae superioris, Horner syndrome, or a third nerve palsy. Local inflammation of the conjunctiva can also lead to ptosis. Myasthenia gravis typically results in bilateral ptosis, but it may be asymmetrical.

      Disinsertion of the aponeurosis of the levator palpabrae superioris is characterized by the loss of the crease normally seen on the upper eyelid and is often due to dysfunction of the superior rectus and levator muscles. It may be iatrogenic or degenerative due to senility.

      Lid lag, where the upper eyelid lags behind the upper edge of the iris as the eye moves downward, is a common characteristic of thyrotoxicosis. A similar phenomenon can occur with the lower edge when the eye moves upwards.

      In cases where weakness of hand muscles is present, a T1 root lesion is likely, indicating Horner syndrome. Miosis, or constriction of the pupil, can be subtle and easily missed. In smokers, a high suspicion of a Pancoast’s tumor (apical pulmonary tumor) should be considered in patients with such a presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old patient has been attending a nurse-led epilepsy clinic to monitor the...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old patient has been attending a nurse-led epilepsy clinic to monitor the withdrawal of her epilepsy medication. She is a group 1 driver and has been free from seizures for over a year whilst taking medication and investigations have not revealed any underlying causes for ongoing seizures.
      During the process of withdrawal, for how long should she avoid driving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Whilst anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for 12 months after the last dose

      Explanation:

      Driving and Epilepsy Medication

      Individuals who are taking anti-epilepsy medication should not drive while the medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose. If a seizure occurs due to a physician-directed reduction or change in medication, the epilepsy regulations require that the driver’s license be revoked for 12 months. However, if the previously effective medication is reinstated for at least six months and the driver remains seizure-free for at least six months, earlier relicensing may be considered. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old man has a generalised tonic-clonic seizure.

    The neurologist decides to observe him...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has a generalised tonic-clonic seizure.

      The neurologist decides to observe him off treatment but two months later he has another seizure.

      What percentage of people who have two seizures will go on to have a third if they do not receive any treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Likelihood of Successive Seizures

      Once a person experiences a second seizure, there is a high probability that they will have a third event, with around 75% of untreated individuals experiencing this. As a result, it is crucial to consider treatment options at this stage. This question aims to test a candidate’s understanding of the likelihood of successive seizures by providing broad ranges of percentages. This knowledge is essential for GPs who often counsel patients on their management and need to make informed decisions about whether to escalate treatment based on the likelihood of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old teacher suddenly lost her memory after walking her dog. Her husband...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old teacher suddenly lost her memory after walking her dog. Her husband noticed that she still knew the names of close friends, but she was disorientated in time and place, and seemed perplexed. She could follow complex commands, but was unable to recall something she had been told 5 minutes before. The episode resolved after 10 hours, although she did not remember the event. She has a history of migraine, but the episode of memory loss was not associated with headache.
      What is the most probable clinical diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transient global amnesia

      Explanation:

      Transient Global Amnesia: Symptoms, Causes, and Differential Diagnosis

      Transient Global Amnesia (TGA) is a sudden onset condition that profoundly impairs anterograde memory. Patients are disoriented in time and place, but not in person. Retrograde memory is variably disturbed, lasting for hours to years. Patients recognize their memory deficits and repeatedly ask questions to orient themselves. Immediate and procedural memory are preserved, and patients can perform complex tasks. The attack resolves gradually, with subjective recovery occurring in two-thirds of patients within 2-12 hours. Precipitating events include strenuous exercise, intense emotion, and medical procedures. Differential diagnosis includes migraine, transient epileptic amnesia, and transient ischemic attack (TIA).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old woman comes to you seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to you seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 12 hours ago. She has a history of epilepsy and is currently taking carbamazepine.

      What is the recommended first-line emergency contraception to offer in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulipristal acetate 30 mg

      Explanation:

      First-Line Treatment for Emergency Contraception in Patients on Liver-Inducing Drugs

      The question of first-line treatment for emergency contraception in patients on liver-inducing drugs is an important one. It is crucial to understand the terminology used in such questions to avoid confusion and provide accurate answers. The recommended first-line treatment in such cases is the copper intrauterine device. This device is particularly useful for patients on drugs such as carbamazepine, phenytoin, rifampicin, antiretrovirals, and St John’s wort, which induce liver enzymes. If a patient declines the use of an IUD, a double dose of levonorgestrel (3mg) is recommended as second-line treatment. It is important to note that this information is specific to first-line treatment and not just any possible treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Samantha is a 58-year-old woman who comes to see you with her husband...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 58-year-old woman who comes to see you with her husband John.

      John has noticed that Samantha's left hand shakes, particularly when she is relaxed. This has been gradually worsening over the past few months and he has also noticed that she appears to be less steady when she is walking. On further questioning, you find that Samantha is also having trouble with her sleep.

      On examination, Samantha has a resting tremor of her left hand and cogwheel rigidity is present. Her gait demonstrates a reduced arm swing and is slow.

      What is the next best management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer Michael urgently to a specialist with expertise in movement disorders

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE guidelines, only a specialist with expertise in movement disorders, such as a neurologist or elderly care physician, should diagnose Parkinson’s disease and initiate management. Therefore, further investigations such as an MRI or PET scan should not be carried out in primary care, as this will be decided upon by the specialist. Treatment should also not be initiated in primary care, including the use of levodopa or a dopamine agonist. However, if Parkinson’s disease is suspected but the person is taking a drug known to induce parkinsonism, it may be appropriate to reduce or stop the drug in primary care. It is important to refer all people with suspected Parkinson’s disease urgently and untreated to a specialist for confirmation of the diagnosis and exclusion of alternative diagnoses, without delaying assessment of the response.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A patient in their 60s with Parkinson's disease presents with cognitive symptoms and...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s with Parkinson's disease presents with cognitive symptoms and is diagnosed with mild Parkinson's-related dementia. Is there a licensed medication available to treat their cognitive impairment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rivastigmine

      Explanation:

      Rivastigmine is the only acetylcholinesterase inhibitor approved for treating mild to moderate Parkinson’s related dementia, while none of the three (donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine) are licensed for use in vascular dementia. However, all three are commonly used to alleviate cognitive symptoms in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 26-year-old man comes in for a check-up. He has been experiencing headaches...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man comes in for a check-up. He has been experiencing headaches for the past year. These headaches occur around 5-6 times per month and last all day. There is no associated aura. He describes the headache as a severe throbbing on both sides of his head with nausea and lethargy. He typically goes to bed when he gets a headache as activity makes it worse. He takes one of his father's diclofenac tablets before bed, which seems to help. Neurological examination is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Migraine

      Explanation:

      It is highly probable that this headache is indicative of a migraine. The symptoms described align with the typical presentation, although it is worth noting that most patients experience symptoms on only one side of the head. Additionally, there is no indication of medication overuse, which can lead to frequent headaches.

      Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 61-year-old man presented to his GP with wasting and weakness of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man presented to his GP with wasting and weakness of the muscles in his left hand.

      He had noticed severely impaired hand grip and had noticed problems with writing. He had also developed a tingling sensation over the palm of his hand extending up the forearm.

      On examination he appeared alert and orientated. Fundoscopy and cranial nerve examination were all normal and neck movements were full.

      On examination of the upper limb, there was significant wasting over the left thenar eminence and fasciculations with a small burn over the left thumb. No other fasciculations could be detected in the proximal limb or other hand. Tone appeared normal and reflexes were intact. There was weakness of thumb abduction and opposition, with loss of pinprick and light touch sensation over the thumb, index and middle finger.

      On examination of the lower limb, no abnormalities could be found.

      Given the above history and clinical findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a condition that occurs when there is pressure on the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. This can result in severe wasting of the muscles in the thenar eminence, abductor pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis, as well as the lateral two lumbricals. Nerve conduction studies can confirm denervation and absent sensory potentials within the median nerve territory.

      It is important to note that CTS is not indicative of motor neurone disease, which presents with a combination of upper and lower motor neurone abnormalities without sensory disturbance. Syringomyelia within the cervical cord would cause lower motor neurone signs at the level of the syrinx, with dissociated pain and temperature loss and upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Thoracic inlet syndrome affecting C8, T1 of the brachial plexus would cause additional weakness of hand muscles. An ulnar nerve palsy would cause weakness of small muscles of the hand with preserved thenar muscle function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old man presents with a headache. He has never experienced significant headaches...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with a headache. He has never experienced significant headaches before but developed this one about a week ago.

      He describes a vague headache on the left side of his head, starting above his left eye and extending to the parietal area. The headache has been fairly constant, and he has taken paracetamol and ibuprofen, which have only provided slight relief and have not significantly reduced the pain.

      There is no history of vomiting, drowsiness, loss of consciousness, seizures, postural related headache, or tinnitus. There are no mental or cognitive changes.

      On clinical examination, all cranial nerves are normal, and there is no focal limb neurological deficit or cerebellar signs. ENT examination is normal, and there is no scalp or temporal tenderness. There is no neck stiffness or restriction of neck movements. Observations, including blood pressure and temperature, are normal, and there is no anxiety, depression, or psychological upset.

      Despite the lack of a clear cause for this new headache, which of the following statements is true regarding papilloedema?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The absence of papilloedema rules out the presence of a brain tumour

      Explanation:

      Importance of Fundal Examination in Headache Assessment

      Fundal examination is a crucial part of headache assessment, particularly in cases of new and unexplained headaches. It helps to check for papilloedema, which may indicate raised intracranial pressure and requires urgent action, even in the absence of other symptoms or normal examination results. However, the absence of papilloedema doesn’t rule out the possibility of a brain tumor, and papilloedema is not always a sign of a brain tumor.

      According to the latest NICE guidelines, the predictive value of symptoms is more important than clinical signs in referring patients for suspected cancer. However, they recommend an urgent direct access MRI scan of the brain (or CT scan if MRI is contraindicated) within two weeks for adults with progressive, subacute loss of central neurological function. This is to assess for brain or central nervous system cancer and to speed up the diagnostic process for patients with a tumor.

      Some GPs may have direct access to MRI, while others may need to coordinate with secondary care colleagues through locally arranged pathways. Regardless of the means of acquiring an MRI, the finding of papilloedema warrants urgent MRI, regardless of other factors in the history or examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 2-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with a high fever....

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with a high fever. He has a history of febrile seizures. During the examination, he begins to have a seizure. The medical team quickly moves him to the treatment room and administers oxygen. However, after 5 minutes, the seizure persists. Unfortunately, there is no buccal midazolam available. What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give 5 mg rectal diazepam

      Explanation:

      Acute Management of Seizures

      Seizures can be a frightening experience for both the patient and those around them. While most seizures will stop on their own, prolonged seizures can be life-threatening. Therefore, it is important to know how to manage seizures in an acute setting.

      The first step in managing a seizure is to check the patient’s airway and provide oxygen if necessary. It is also important to place the patient in the recovery position to prevent choking or aspiration. If the seizure is prolonged, benzodiazepines may be necessary.

      Rectal diazepam is a recommended option for managing prolonged seizures. The dose will vary depending on the patient’s age and weight. The BNF recommends repeating the dose once after 10-15 minutes if necessary.

      Another option is midazolam oromucosal solution, which can be administered based on the patient’s age and weight. It is important to note that this medication is unlicensed for use in neonates and for some age groups.

      In summary, the acute management of seizures involves ensuring the patient’s airway is clear, placing them in the recovery position, and administering benzodiazepines if necessary. Rectal diazepam and midazolam oromucosal solution are two options for managing prolonged seizures, but dosages will vary based on the patient’s age and weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old schoolteacher is admitted with headache, photophobia and neck stiffness.

    His temperature is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old schoolteacher is admitted with headache, photophobia and neck stiffness.

      His temperature is 39.0°C, pulse rate 120 beats/min and he has no skin rash or focal neurological signs. His Glasgow coma scale is 15/15.

      A CT scan shows no contraindication to lumbar puncture. CSF is obtained and Gram stain shows Gram-positive cocci, subsequent culture confirms a pneumococcal meningitis.

      What chemoprophylaxis should be offered to his pupils?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Chemoprophylaxis for Meningitis Close Contacts

      Chemoprophylaxis is not typically recommended for individuals who have been in close contact with someone who has pneumococcal meningitis. However, for those who have been in close contact with someone who has meningococcal meningitis, chemoprophylaxis with rifampicin, ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, or azithromycin is often used. For individuals who have been in close contact with someone who has Haemophilus influenza meningitis, rifampicin is recommended. Additionally, children under the age of two should receive a vaccination for Haemophilus influenza meningitis. Proper chemoprophylaxis and vaccination can help prevent the spread of meningitis and protect individuals who have been in close contact with those who have the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which patient is NOT appropriate for urgent referral for suspected brain tumour from...

    Incorrect

    • Which patient is NOT appropriate for urgent referral for suspected brain tumour from the given list?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 17-year-old girl complaining of recurrent episodes of flashing lights in one eye, nausea and headache

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Neurological Symptoms

      When a patient presents with neurological symptoms, it is important to consider a range of possible diagnoses. In the case of a patient with migraine, the symptoms may include headache, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound. However, if the symptoms are more severe or progressive, other conditions may need to be considered.

      One possible diagnosis is a brain tumour, which can cause symptoms of a space-occupying lesion and raised intracranial pressure. Another potential concern is central nervous system cancer, which should be assessed with an MRI or CT scan within two weeks of onset.

      Elderly patients with a first seizure may have underlying factors such as cerebrovascular disease, dementia, or tumours. Therefore, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the cause of the symptoms and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 10-year-old girl is brought to your clinic by her mother. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought to your clinic by her mother. She has been complaining of headaches for the past six months. The headaches occur over the left frontal area and are described as burning and not sharp in nature. They occur on most days, sometimes during the night, last for one to four hours and are occasionally associated with nausea but no vomiting. She has not experienced any tinnitus, falls, seizures or visual symptoms.

      Her mother reports that she has been constantly tired and for the last few months has been less inclined to play with friends, preferring to stay in her room reading. She feels that the headaches seem to occur most frequently on school days rather than weekends. Since the headaches began she has been seen by your colleagues on four occasions. She has been treated twice for sinusitis (including a course of antibiotics) and, more recently, for migraine (when paracetamol was recommended).

      On examination, she is pale and quiet but converses normally. Neurological examination is normal and there is no papilloedema.

      What is the most appropriate next step in your management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to paediatric department

      Explanation:

      Childhood Brain Tumours: Early Detection is Key

      Childhood cancer is rare, but brain tumours are the most common solid tumour in children. Unfortunately, children with brain tumours often experience symptoms for months before receiving a diagnosis. This delay can lead to increased morbidity and a poorer prognosis.

      If a child presents with persistent or recurrent headaches and behaviour changes, it is crucial to investigate further. Additionally, if a child has already presented with these symptoms three or more times without a clear diagnosis, urgent referral is necessary.

      To aid in early detection, the Headsmart campaign provides guidelines for medical professionals to identify red flag symptoms of brain tumours. By recognizing these symptoms and referring children for further evaluation promptly, we can improve outcomes for children with brain tumours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 42-year-old man has been experiencing frequent headaches for 6 weeks.
    Select from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has been experiencing frequent headaches for 6 weeks.
      Select from the list the single red-flag feature that should prompt further referral.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Worsening memory

      Explanation:

      Red Flags for Headaches: When to Consider Further Investigation or Referral

      According to NICE (Headaches, CG 150, September 2012), certain features in patients presenting with headaches should prompt further investigation or referral. These include worsening headache with fever, sudden-onset headache reaching maximum intensity within 5 minutes, new-onset neurological deficit or cognitive dysfunction, change in personality, impaired level of consciousness, recent head trauma, headache triggered by certain activities, symptoms suggestive of certain conditions, compromised immunity, history of malignancy, and vomiting without an obvious cause. Memory loss falls under the category of new-onset cognitive dysfunction, while depression can be managed in general practice. Failure to find relief from simple analgesics may indicate medication-overuse headaches, and neck pain radiating to the neck may be indicative of tension headaches that interfere with sleep. It is important to recognize these red flags and consider further investigation or referral when appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old man has been admitted to the hospital for investigation of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has been admitted to the hospital for investigation of worsening muscle weakness in his upper and lower limbs over the last 10 years. The patient says he had never been interested in sports at school and that his father had problems with his gait for years. On examination, cognition, bulbar function and cranial nerves are all normal. Examination of the limbs shows distal symmetrical wasting and weakness in his arms and legs. There is areflexia. Tone is normal. There are no visible fasciculation. Vibration, pain and temperature are impaired in both hands and feet. There is kyphoscoliosis and bilateral pes cavus.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charcot–Marie–Tooth disease

      Explanation:

      Neurological Disorders: A Comparison

      When presented with a patient exhibiting neuromuscular symptoms and signs, it is important to consider various possible diagnoses. In this case, the presence of musculoskeletal deformities and a family history of gait difficulties suggest a hereditary basis for the patient’s condition. The following are some potential diagnoses to consider:

      Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease (CMT): This is the most common inherited polyneuropathy, affecting approximately 1 in 2500 people. It typically presents with distal limb muscle wasting and sensory loss, with proximal progression over time. However, the disease course can vary greatly.

      Vitamin B12 Deficiency: Neurological features of this deficiency may include peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. However, skeletal defects will be absent.

      Acquired Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP): This is a chronically progressive or relapsing symmetric sensorimotor disorder that lacks the skeletal deformities of CMT.

      Motor Neurone Disease (MND): This tends to present with early signs of weakness in an ankle or leg, or a weak grip. It then progresses, leading to problems with slurred speech or swallowing. However, this patient’s relatively young age and symptoms suggest an inherited neurological problem rather than MND.

      Spinal Muscular Atrophy: This is a spectrum of genetically inherited disorders that present with muscle weakness and wasting. It lacks the sensory loss of CMT.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - John is a 45-year-old man who presents with weakness and numbness of his...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 45-year-old man who presents with weakness and numbness of his hand. The symptoms worsen when he raises his hands above his head. The numbness is not specific to any particular dermatome. He also complains of a painful neck and generalised headache. John is an avid golfer and is frustrated as he cannot grip his club properly. He also notices his fingers turning white in the cold. On examination, there is wasting in his thenar eminence. No other focal neurology is detected.

      What is the most probable cause of John's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thoracic outlet syndrome

      Explanation:

      Neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome is characterized by muscle atrophy in the hands, as well as numbness, tingling, and potential autonomic symptoms. The narrowing of the thoracic outlet can lead to both neurological and arterial symptoms, which may be exacerbated by raising the arm above the head. The specific symptoms experienced will depend on the underlying cause and whether the condition is primarily neurogenic or vascular in nature. Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve at the wrist and typically results in numbness and tingling in the hand, without any associated neck pain or headaches. Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition that causes a change in the color of the fingers or toes in response to cold temperatures and can be either primary or secondary.

      Understanding Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

      Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is a condition that occurs when there is compression of the brachial plexus, subclavian artery, or vein at the thoracic outlet. This disorder can be either neurogenic or vascular, with the former accounting for 90% of cases. TOS is more common in young, thin women with long necks and drooping shoulders, and peak onset typically occurs in the fourth decade of life. The lack of widely agreed diagnostic criteria makes it difficult to determine the exact epidemiology of TOS.

      TOS can develop due to neck trauma in individuals with anatomical predispositions. Anatomical anomalies can be in the form of soft tissue or osseous structures, with cervical rib being a well-known osseous anomaly. Soft tissue causes include scalene muscle hypertrophy and anomalous bands. Patients with TOS typically have a history of neck trauma preceding the onset of symptoms.

      The clinical presentation of neurogenic TOS includes painless muscle wasting of hand muscles, hand weakness, and sensory symptoms such as numbness and tingling. If autonomic nerves are involved, patients may experience cold hands, blanching, or swelling. Vascular TOS, on the other hand, can lead to painful diffuse arm swelling with distended veins or painful arm claudication and, in severe cases, ulceration and gangrene.

      To diagnose TOS, a neurological and musculoskeletal examination is necessary, and stress maneuvers such as Adson’s maneuvers may be attempted. Imaging modalities such as chest and cervical spine plain radiographs, CT or MRI, venography, or angiography may also be helpful. Treatment options for TOS include conservative management with education, rehabilitation, physiotherapy, or taping as the first-line management for neurogenic TOS. Surgical decompression may be warranted where conservative management has failed, especially if there is a physical anomaly. In vascular TOS, surgical treatment may be preferred, and other therapies such as botox injection are being investigated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a headache lasting 45 minutes associated with lacrimation...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a headache lasting 45 minutes associated with lacrimation and nasal stuffiness. A similar headache the previous day lasted for 60 minutes.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Headache Types: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Cluster Headache
      Cluster headaches are characterized by rapid onset of pain around one eye, accompanied by lacrimation, rhinorrhea, eyelid swelling, ptosis, myosis, facial sweating, and flushing. Attacks are unilateral and occur two to three times in a 24-hour period, lasting from 15 to 180 minutes untreated. Sufferers are restless during attacks, and treatment involves 100% oxygen and/or sumatriptan.

      Intracranial Tumour
      The chronic headache of an intracranial tumour or any other cause of raised intracranial pressure is usually worse in the morning, present on waking, and worse when lying down. The headache of raised intracranial pressure is not usually severe.

      Acute Glaucoma
      Acute glaucoma presents with a decrease in visual acuity, nausea, and a dull ache around the affected eye.

      Maxillary Sinusitis
      Maxillary sinusitis presents as constant dull pain over the maxillary sinus, worse on bending over, and may last up to two weeks.

      Trigeminal Neuralgia
      Trigeminal neuralgia presents with intense stabbing pain, usually lasting only a few seconds. Pain occurs in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve and is often precipitated by contact with the skin over the affected area. Pain is unilateral.

      Understanding the Characteristics of Different Headache Types

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of persistent fatigue over...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of persistent fatigue over the past six months. She used to be quite active and had no other medical issues, but now she is unable to maintain her previous exercise routine. It takes her several days to recover from fatigue after exercising. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS).
      What is the most likely additional feature that would support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cognitive dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Understanding Symptoms of Chronic Fatigue Syndrome

      Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a condition characterized by persistent and unexplained fatigue that significantly reduces activity levels and is accompanied by post-exertional malaise. In addition to fatigue, cognitive dysfunction, such as difficulty thinking, concentrating, and remembering, is a common symptom. Low mood may also indicate depression or another mood disorder, which can cause chronic fatigue. Painful lymph nodes without pathological enlargement may occur, but further investigation is needed to rule out other causes of fatigue. Sleep disturbance is also common, and weight loss may suggest an underlying pathology that requires further investigation. It is important to understand these symptoms to properly diagnose and manage CFS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 29-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe, intermittent, piercing left-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe, intermittent, piercing left-sided frontotemporal headache over the past few days. The headache seems to occur early in the morning, around the same time each day, and lasts between 15 minutes to 2 hours. He feels sick at the time and is unable to lie still. He had a similar episode last year.

      During a headache-free period, a complete neurological examination is entirely normal.

      What could be the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s demographics, description of pain, and duration of symptoms, it is likely that they are experiencing a cluster headache. These headaches typically last between 15 minutes to 2 hours and occur in clusters over a period of time. The fact that the patient had a similar headache a year ago also supports this diagnosis.

      A carotid artery dissection would cause persistent symptoms, including neck pain and neurological symptoms, and would not explain the same symptoms occurring a year ago.

      Migraines usually present with unilateral, episodic headaches, but patients tend to want to lie still during an attack, which is the opposite of what is seen in cluster headaches. Additionally, migraines typically last longer than 15 minutes to 2 hours and do not occur in clusters over a period of time.

      Trigeminal neuralgia is more common in women over the age of 50 and tends to have a specific trigger, such as brushing teeth. The pain is typically more facial in distribution rather than frontotemporal.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of numbness and pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of numbness and pain in his left thigh. He reports feeling unsteady on his feet and has gained more than 6 kg in weight over the past six months. He also has chronic lower back pain. His family has a history of a neurological condition, with his uncle having multiple sclerosis (MS). He has no other medical conditions.
      During the examination, the patient is found to be overweight. He has reduced pinprick sensation over the anterior part of his left thigh, but no motor signs. His tendor reflexes are normal and there are no cerebellar signs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meralgia paraesthetica

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between causes of lower limb pain: A brief overview

      Lower limb pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own unique symptoms and diagnostic criteria. Here, we will briefly discuss four potential causes of lower limb pain and how they can be differentiated.

      Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by numbness, paraesthesia, and pain in the anterolateral thigh. It is caused by either an entrapment neuropathy or a neuroma of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. The pain can be reproduced by deep palpation just below the anterior superior iliac spine and by extension of the hip. Obesity and weight gain are risk factors.

      Diabetic lumbosacral plexopathy is a condition in which patients develop severe pain in the hip and thigh, followed by weakness and wasting of the thigh muscles. This often occurs asymmetrically and is accompanied by distal sensory neuropathy. However, this patient has no diagnosis of diabetes.

      Familial MS is a form of multiple sclerosis that usually presents as intermittent episodic sensory, motor, or autonomic disturbances. While a family history of MS may be present, it is not a definitive diagnostic criterion.

      Lumbar canal stenosis with nerve root entrapment typically causes pain in the buttocks or lower extremities, with or without back pain. Standing, walking, or lumbar extension often exacerbate the condition, while forward flexion, sitting, or lying flat often relieves the pain.

      Finally, lumbar facet arthropathy is characterized by facet joints causing back pain that can radiate to the buttocks and legs. The pain is worsened by retroflexion and lateral flexion of the spine and prolonged standing or walking. However, facet syndrome would not usually cause reduced sensation.

      In conclusion, a thorough clinical evaluation and diagnostic testing can help differentiate between these potential causes of lower limb pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (5/8) 63%
Passmed