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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old male presents with exertional fatigue. He has no significant past medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents with exertional fatigue. He has no significant past medical history and is not taking any medications. His blood test results show abnormal readings of Hb 125 g/L (normal range: 135-180 g/L) and calcium 2.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6 mmol/L). The rest of his blood test results, including mean corpuscular volume, platelet count, and white cell count, are normal. Additionally, his serum ferritin, vitamin B12, and folic acid levels are normal. Upon conducting a urine protein electrophoresis, the presence of immunoglobulin light chains is detected. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Megaloblastic anaemia

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of multiple myeloma can be supported by the presence of Bence-Jones protein, which is a monoclonal globulin protein produced by neoplastic plasma cells. Anaemia and hypercalcemia, along with the presence of Bence-Jones protein in the urine, make multiple myeloma the most likely diagnosis.

      Gout can be diagnosed by examining the contents of a joint fluid aspirate under polarised red light. The urate crystals will appear needle-shaped and negatively birefringent.

      Megaloblastic anaemia occurs due to inhibition of DNA synthesis during red blood cell production. A normal mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and serum vitamin B12 level can rule out megaloblastic anaemia.

      While patients with non-Hodgkin lymphoma may present with anaemia, it can be ruled out for the time being as the white cell count and platelet count are normal.

      Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations

      Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is most commonly found in patients aged 60-70 years. The disease is characterized by a range of symptoms, which can be remembered using the mnemonic CRABBI. These include hypercalcemia, renal damage, anemia, bleeding, bone lesions, and increased susceptibility to infection. Other features of multiple myeloma include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.

      To diagnose multiple myeloma, a range of investigations are required. Blood tests can reveal anemia, renal failure, and hypercalcemia. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised levels of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum, while bone marrow aspiration can confirm the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can be used to detect osteolytic lesions.

      The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include the presence of plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, or elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, or low levels of antibodies in the blood. Understanding the features and investigations of multiple myeloma is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 2 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her parents after...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her parents after falling off the monkey bars at the playground. Shortly after, her left elbow became swollen and very painful. Her parents are worried because her father has a history of von Willebrand disease. The patient is evaluated for a bleeding disorder. The girl has no previous medical issues and is generally healthy.

      What is the most probable blood test result for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased APTT, normal bleeding time

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia A is the most likely diagnosis for the child based on the family history and presentation of haemarthrosis. Haemophilia is a genetic condition that affects clotting factors VIII or IX, which are part of the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade. APTT is a test that measures the intrinsic and common clotting cascades, but it does not include factor IX, so haemophilia B may not always show an abnormal APTT. PT measures the extrinsic and common pathways of the clotting cascade and is associated with factors I, II, V, VII, and X. Bleeding time measures platelet function, which is normal in haemophilia. Therefore, APTT may be raised, PT will be normal, and bleeding time will be normal in haemophilia.

      Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects blood coagulation and is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It is possible for up to 30% of patients to have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of factor VIII, while haemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, is caused by a lack of factor IX.

      The symptoms of haemophilia include haemoarthroses, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma. Blood tests can reveal a prolonged APTT, while the bleeding time, thrombin time, and prothrombin time are normal. However, up to 10-15% of patients with haemophilia A may develop antibodies to factor VIII treatment.

      Overall, haemophilia is a serious condition that can cause significant bleeding and other complications. It is important for individuals with haemophilia to receive appropriate medical care and treatment to manage their symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 3 - A 13-year-old boy with coeliac disease visits his GP with complaints of fatigue....

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy with coeliac disease visits his GP with complaints of fatigue. The doctor suspects iron deficiency anaemia and requests some blood tests. The pathologist's report indicates the presence of microcytic and hypochromic red blood cells along with another unusual cell type. Which of the following abnormal red cell types is indicative of iron deficiency anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pencil cells

      Explanation:

      Iron deficiency anaemia is characterized by microcytic and hypochromic cells, as well as pencil and target cells on a peripheral blood film. Schistocytes may be present due to mechanical heart valves, while rouleaux may be observed in cases of chronic liver disease and malignant lymphoma. Tear drop poikilocytes may be seen in myelofibrosis.

      Pathological Red Cell Forms in Blood Films

      Blood films are used to examine the morphology of red blood cells and identify any abnormalities. Pathological red cell forms are associated with various conditions and can provide important diagnostic information. Some of the common pathological red cell forms include target cells, tear-drop poikilocytes, spherocytes, basophilic stippling, Howell-Jolly bodies, Heinz bodies, schistocytes, pencil poikilocytes, burr cells (echinocytes), and acanthocytes.

      Target cells are seen in conditions such as sickle-cell/thalassaemia, iron-deficiency anaemia, hyposplenism, and liver disease. Tear-drop poikilocytes are associated with myelofibrosis, while spherocytes are seen in hereditary spherocytosis and autoimmune hemolytic anaemia. Basophilic stippling is a characteristic feature of lead poisoning, thalassaemia, sideroblastic anaemia, and myelodysplasia. Howell-Jolly bodies are seen in hyposplenism, while Heinz bodies are associated with G6PD deficiency and alpha-thalassaemia. Schistocytes or ‘helmet cells’ are seen in conditions such as intravascular haemolysis, mechanical heart valve, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Pencil poikilocytes are seen in iron deficiency anaemia, while burr cells (echinocytes) are associated with uraemia and pyruvate kinase deficiency. Acanthocytes are seen in abetalipoproteinemia.

      In addition to these red cell forms, hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in megaloblastic anaemia. Identifying these pathological red cell forms in blood films can aid in the diagnosis and management of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old woman visits the maternity assessment unit two weeks after giving birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman visits the maternity assessment unit two weeks after giving birth with complaints of perineal pain and discharge. She had a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery at 40+5 weeks and suffered a type 3a perineal tear. Her primary concern is that the wound may be infected as it appears red and inflamed when she tries to examine it with a mirror.

      During the examination, the perineal wound shows signs of purulent discharge, erythematous surrounding skin, and a buried suture. Given the complexity of the repair, the consultant orders a CT scan to rule out a pelvic abscess. The CT report reveals a small fluid collection in the perineal wound and lymphadenopathy.

      Based on this information, where is the likely site of lymphatic drainage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      The patient’s CT scan showed lymphadenopathy in the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, which is expected as the infection is located in the perineum. The deep inguinal lymph nodes, which drain the glans penis and clitoris, are not the primary site for perineal drainage. The medial group of external iliac lymph nodes drain the urinary bladder, membranous aspect of the urethra, cervix, and upper part of the vagina, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, the lower part of the rectum, the cervix, and the inferior uterus. If there were retained products of conception in the uterus causing an infection or a type 4 perineal tear involving a substantial portion of the rectum, lymphadenopathy of the internal iliac lymph nodes may be seen on the CT scan. The para-aortic lymph nodes drain the ovaries, but this is not relevant to the patient’s case as there is no indication of an ovarian pathology.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 5 - A 27-year-old man comes to his doctor for a routine check-up before participating...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to his doctor for a routine check-up before participating in a local 20-mile cycling race. He has been training for over a year and is determined to win. He has been experiencing occasional headaches on both sides of his head for the past three weeks, but they come and go and are not accompanied by aura, photophobia, or phonophobia. He has some redness and tenderness on his abdomen, but no masses are felt. His bowel and bladder function are normal. He had flu-like symptoms last week but is feeling much better now. His blood test results are as follows, and his hematocrit level is higher than normal:

      Hemoglobin: 198 g/L
      Platelets: 250 * 10^9/L
      White blood cells: 6 * 10^9/L

      Which of the following best explains his symptoms and blood test results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary polycythemia due to erythropoietin use

      Explanation:

      Athletes who use EPO are at risk of developing polycythemia. Cyclists are known to frequently use EPO, which can cause localized erythema on the abdomen from repeated injections. The patient’s headaches are not migrainous as they lack associated symptoms such as aura, photophobia, or phonophobia. Renal cell carcinoma is the primary type of kidney cancer in adults and typically presents with flank pain, haematuria, and a flank mass. Other symptoms may include weight loss, night sweats, fever, and malaise.

      Polycythaemia is a condition that can be classified as relative, primary (polycythaemia rubra vera), or secondary. Relative polycythaemia can be caused by dehydration or stress, such as in Gaisbock syndrome. Primary polycythaemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the bone marrow to produce too many red blood cells. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by conditions such as COPD, altitude, obstructive sleep apnoea, or excessive erythropoietin production due to certain tumors or growths. To distinguish between true polycythaemia and relative polycythaemia, red cell mass studies may be used. In true polycythaemia, the total red cell mass in males is greater than 35 ml/kg and in women is greater than 32 ml/kg. Uterine fibroids may also cause polycythaemia indirectly by causing menorrhagia, but this is rarely a clinical problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old male is found to have Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which subtype is linked...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male is found to have Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which subtype is linked with the most positive outcome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Classical lymphocyte predominant

      Explanation:

      The prognosis for the classical lymphocyte predominant variant is the most favorable, while the nodular lymphocyte predominant disease has a different disease entity and does not share the same positive prognosis.

      Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Staging and Treatment

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system. It is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are malignant lymphocytes. This type of cancer is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life.

      To determine the extent of the cancer, doctors use the Ann-Arbor staging system. This system divides the cancer into four stages, with each stage being further divided into A or B. Stage I involves a single lymph node, while stage II involves two or more lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm. Stage III involves nodes on both sides of the diaphragm, and stage IV involves the spread of cancer beyond the lymph nodes.

      The main treatment for Hodgkin’s lymphoma is chemotherapy. Two combinations of drugs may be used: ABVD and BEACOPP. ABVD is considered the standard regime, while BEACOPP has better remission rates but higher toxicity. Radiotherapy and combined modality therapy (CMT) may also be used. In some cases, hematopoietic cell transplantation may be used for relapsed or refractory classic Hodgkin lymphoma.

      While most patients now achieve long-term survival free of Hodgkin’s lymphoma with modern therapy, complications of treatment are a concern. Secondary malignancies, particularly solid tumors such as breast and lung cancer, are a risk for these patients. It is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of treatment with their healthcare team.

      Overall, understanding the staging and treatment options for Hodgkin’s lymphoma can help patients and their families make informed decisions about their care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 7 - You are developing a research project to evaluate the impact of a novel...

    Incorrect

    • You are developing a research project to evaluate the impact of a novel anticoagulant on the coagulation cascade. Your focus is on the intrinsic pathway. What parameter will you measure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: aPTT

      Explanation:

      The aPTT time is the most effective way to evaluate the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade. If the aPTT time is prolonged, it may indicate haemophilia or the use of heparin.

      To assess the extrinsic pathway, the prothrombin time (PT) is the preferred measurement.

      The thrombin time is a test that evaluates the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen in plasma. It can be prolonged by heparin, fibrin degradation products, and fibrinogen deficiency.

      A 50:50 mixing study is utilized to determine whether a prolonged PT or aPTT is caused by a factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.

      The Coagulation Cascade: Two Pathways to Fibrin Formation

      The coagulation cascade is a complex process that leads to the formation of a blood clot. There are two pathways that can lead to fibrin formation: the intrinsic pathway and the extrinsic pathway. The intrinsic pathway involves components that are already present in the blood and has a minor role in clotting. It is initiated by subendothelial damage, such as collagen, which leads to the formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12. This complex activates Factor 11, which in turn activates Factor 9. Factor 9, along with its co-factor Factor 8a, forms the tenase complex, which activates Factor 10.

      The extrinsic pathway, on the other hand, requires tissue factor released by damaged tissue. This pathway is initiated by tissue damage, which leads to the binding of Factor 7 to tissue factor. This complex activates Factor 9, which works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10. Both pathways converge at the common pathway, where activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Thrombin hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin and also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.

      Finally, fibrinolysis occurs, which is the process of clot resorption. Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate this process. It is important to note that certain factors are involved in both pathways, such as Factor 10, and that some factors are vitamin K dependent, such as Factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. The intrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while the extrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 8 - A mother brings her 6-month-old baby boy to your general practice, as he...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 6-month-old baby boy to your general practice, as he was diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome at birth. She was informed that one of the consequences of this condition is the failure of thymus development, which can impact her baby's blood cells. Specifically, which type of blood cell will be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is T lymphocytes, as the thymus plays a role in their maturation. DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 22, resulting in the failure of development of the third and fourth pharyngeal arches. The syndrome is characterized by cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymus aplasia, cleft palate, and hypoparathyroidism, which can be remembered with the acronym CATCH.

      The Thymus Gland: Development, Structure, and Function

      The thymus gland is an encapsulated organ that develops from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches. It descends to the anterior superior mediastinum and is subdivided into lobules, each consisting of a cortex and a medulla. The cortex is made up of tightly packed lymphocytes, while the medulla is mostly composed of epithelial cells. Hassall’s corpuscles, which are concentrically arranged medullary epithelial cells that may surround a keratinized center, are also present.

      The inferior parathyroid glands, which also develop from the third pharyngeal pouch, may be located with the thymus gland. The thymus gland’s arterial supply comes from the internal mammary artery or pericardiophrenic arteries, while its venous drainage is to the left brachiocephalic vein. The thymus gland plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T-cells, which are essential for the immune system’s proper functioning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 9 - During a placement in general practice, a 56-year-old woman comes in with new...

    Incorrect

    • During a placement in general practice, a 56-year-old woman comes in with new nipple discharge and skin dimpling over her breast. The GP conducts a breast examination, including the lymph nodes surrounding the area. Which lymph nodes receive the most breast lymph?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axilliary lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      The lymphatic system of the breast is responsible for draining excess fluid and waste products. Lymph from the upper outer quadrant of the breast drains to the axillary lymph nodes, while lymph from the inner quadrants drains to the parasternal lymph nodes. Additionally, some lymph from the lower quadrants drains to the inferior phrenic lymph nodes.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 10 - You are investigating the impact of HIV on T-cells during their maturation process....

    Incorrect

    • You are investigating the impact of HIV on T-cells during their maturation process. Which organ sample is necessary to meet the criteria of your research?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thymus

      Explanation:

      The thymus is where T-cells undergo maturation, while they are produced in the bone marrow. Once mature, they can be found in the spleen and lymph nodes where they interact with antigen presenting cells. To investigate the impact of HIV on T-cell maturation, a thymus sample is necessary.

      Understanding the Lymphatic System

      The lymphatic system is composed of primary and secondary lymphatic organs, as well as lymph vessels. The primary lymphatic organs are the thymus and red bone marrow, which are responsible for the formation and maturation of lymphocytes. These organs contain pluripotent cells that give rise to immunocompetent B cells and pre-T cells. To become mature T cells, pre-T cells must migrate to the thymus.

      On the other hand, secondary lymphatic organs include lymph nodes, the spleen, tonsils, mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), and Peyer’s patches. These organs filter lymphocytes and activate them to mount an immune response. Understanding the lymphatic system is crucial in comprehending how the body’s immune system works. By knowing the different organs and their functions, we can appreciate how the body fights off infections and diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old woman goes for a cervical screening test and is found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman goes for a cervical screening test and is found to have HPV subtypes 6 & 11. She has no other health issues. What is her primary risk factor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Genital warts

      Explanation:

      HPV Infection and Cervical Cancer

      Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, with subtypes 16, 18, and 33 being the most carcinogenic. Other common subtypes, such as 6 and 11, are associated with genital warts but are not carcinogenic. When endocervical cells become infected with HPV, they may undergo changes that lead to the development of koilocytes. These cells have distinct characteristics, including an enlarged nucleus, irregular nuclear membrane contour, hyperchromasia (darker staining of the nucleus), and a perinuclear halo. These changes are important diagnostic markers for cervical cancer and can be detected through Pap smears or other screening methods. Early detection and treatment of HPV infection and cervical cancer can greatly improve outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 12 - A 10-year-old boy arrives at the emergency department with sudden onset of rapid...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy arrives at the emergency department with sudden onset of rapid breathing. He has a history of cough and dehydration over the past 4 days. Upon respiratory examination, tachypnea is noted but no other significant findings. The child undergoes a series of tests and is ultimately diagnosed with a vaso-occlusive crisis due to mild sickle cell disease.

      What is the most probable haemoglobin trait in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HbA HbS

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sickle-Cell Anaemia

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic disorder that occurs when an abnormal haemoglobin chain, known as HbS, is synthesized due to an autosomal recessive condition. This condition is more common in people of African descent, as the heterozygous condition offers some protection against malaria. In the UK, around 10% of Afro-Caribbean individuals are carriers of HbS. Symptoms in homozygotes typically do not develop until 4-6 months when the abnormal HbSS molecules take over from fetal haemoglobin.

      The pathophysiology of sickle-cell anaemia involves the substitution of the polar amino acid glutamate with the non-polar valine in each of the two beta chains (codon 6) of haemoglobin. This substitution decreases the water solubility of deoxy-Hb, causing HbS molecules to polymerize and sickle in the deoxygenated state. HbAS patients sickle at p02 2.5 – 4 kPa, while HbSS patients sickle at p02 5 – 6 kPa. Sickle cells are fragile and can cause haemolysis, block small blood vessels, and lead to infarction.

      To diagnose sickle-cell anaemia, haemoglobin electrophoresis is the definitive test. It is essential to understand the pathophysiology and symptoms of sickle-cell anaemia to provide appropriate care and management for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 13 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother due to fatigue and lethargy for the past 9 months. Previously, she was very active and was at the 80th percentile for height and weight. Currently, she is also unable to concentrate and lagging academically in school. The family moved to an old house 3 years back. During physical examination, conjunctival pallor and a blue line on her gingiva are observed.

      Blood tests reveal:
      Hb 100 g/L Male: (119-150)
      Female: (119-150)
      Platelets 340 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 4 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 70 fL (80 - 100)

      A skeletal survey shows dense opacity at the junction of metaphysis and epiphysis of the long bones.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lead poisoning

      Explanation:

      Lead poisoning can cause the accumulation of lead in the metaphysis of bones, which can be seen as bands of increased density on x-rays. In this case, the child’s recent deterioration in academic and physical performance, along with the history of moving to an old house, suggests the possibility of lead-based paint exposure. The presence of a lead line on the gums further supports this suspicion. While normocytic anemia can have many causes, the addition of radiodense lines in the metaphysis of long bones increases the likelihood of lead poisoning. Cretinism, caused by maternal hypothyroidism, typically presents earlier and has different symptoms. Osteomyelitis, an infection of the bone, has different x-ray findings. Sickle cell anemia and iron deficiency are not associated with the symptoms and x-ray findings in this case.

      Lead poisoning is a condition that should be considered when a patient presents with abdominal pain and neurological symptoms, along with acute intermittent porphyria. This condition is caused by defective ferrochelatase and ALA dehydratase function. Symptoms of lead poisoning include abdominal pain, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), neuropsychiatric features, fatigue, constipation, and blue lines on the gum margin (which is rare in children and only present in 20% of adult patients).

      To diagnose lead poisoning, doctors typically measure the patient’s blood lead level, with levels greater than 10 mcg/dl considered significant. A full blood count may also be performed, which can reveal microcytic anemia and red cell abnormalities such as basophilic stippling and clover-leaf morphology. Additionally, raised serum and urine levels of delta aminolaevulinic acid may be seen, which can sometimes make it difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria. Urinary coproporphyrin is also increased, while urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased. In children, lead can accumulate in the metaphysis of the bones, although x-rays are not typically part of the standard work-up.

      Various chelating agents are currently used to manage lead poisoning, including dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA), D-penicillamine, EDTA, and dimercaprol. These agents work to remove the lead from the body and can help alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 14 - Which one of the following statements relating to malignant mesothelioma is not true?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements relating to malignant mesothelioma is not true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is linked to cigarette smoking independent of asbestos exposure.

      Explanation:

      This type of cancer is not associated with smoking cigarettes. The preferred treatment option is a complete removal of the tumor if caught early. Radiation therapy is commonly administered before or after surgery, but this type of cancer is not highly responsive to radiation. The most effective treatment involves a combination of chemotherapy drugs, with many regimens utilizing cisplatin.

      Occupational cancers are responsible for 5.3% of cancer deaths, with men being more affected than women. The most common types of cancer in men include mesothelioma, bladder cancer, non-melanoma skin cancer, lung cancer, and sino-nasal cancer. Occupations that have a high risk of developing tumors include those in the construction industry, coal tar and pitch workers, miners, metalworkers, asbestos workers, and those in the rubber industry. Shift work has also been linked to breast cancer in women.

      The latency period between exposure to carcinogens and the development of cancer is typically 15 years for solid tumors and 20 years for leukemia. Many occupational cancers are rare, such as sino-nasal cancer, which is linked to wood dust exposure and is not strongly associated with smoking. Another rare occupational tumor is angiosarcoma of the liver, which is linked to working with vinyl chloride. In non-occupational contexts, these tumors are extremely rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of weight loss and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of weight loss and night sweats. He reports feeling fatigued more easily than usual. During the physical examination, the doctor observes significant splenomegaly. The patient's lab results show an elevated white blood cell count and a translocation between two chromosomes. Which two chromosomes are likely to be translocated in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: (9;22)

      Explanation:

      Based on his symptoms of night sweats, weight loss, fatigue, and splenomegaly, the patient is likely suffering from chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). This type of leukemia is characterized by a specific translocation between chromosome 9 and 22, known as the Philadelphia chromosome. Other translocations are associated with different types of blood cancers, such as t(15;17) in acute promyelocytic leukemia, t(8;14) in Burkitt’s lymphoma, and t(11;14) in mantle cell lymphoma.

      Genetics of Haematological Malignancies

      Haematological malignancies are cancers that affect the blood, bone marrow, and lymphatic system. These cancers are often associated with specific genetic abnormalities, such as translocations. Here are some common translocations and their associated haematological malignancies:

      – Philadelphia chromosome (t(9;22)): This translocation is present in more than 95% of patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). It results in the fusion of the Abelson proto-oncogene with the BCR gene on chromosome 22, creating the BCR-ABL gene. This gene codes for a fusion protein with excessive tyrosine kinase activity, which is a poor prognostic indicator in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).

      – t(15;17): This translocation is seen in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (M3) and involves the fusion of the PML and RAR-alpha genes.

      – t(8;14): Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with this translocation, which involves the translocation of the MYC oncogene to an immunoglobulin gene.

      – t(11;14): Mantle cell lymphoma is associated with the deregulation of the cyclin D1 (BCL-1) gene.

      – t(14;18): Follicular lymphoma is associated with increased BCL-2 transcription due to this translocation.

      Understanding the genetic abnormalities associated with haematological malignancies is important for diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old male presents to his GP with complaints of fatigue. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to his GP with complaints of fatigue. He has been feeling increasingly tired since he switched to a vegan diet a year ago. Despite taking daily vitamin B12 supplements, he is unsure why he is experiencing these symptoms. The GP suspects iron deficiency anemia and orders blood tests for confirmation. What measures can be taken to enhance the absorption of dietary iron?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Consuming iron in its ferrous (Fe2+) form

      Explanation:

      Iron deficiency anaemia is a prevalent condition worldwide, with preschool-age children being the most affected. The lack of iron in the body leads to a decrease in red blood cells and haemoglobin, resulting in anaemia. The primary causes of iron deficiency anaemia are excessive blood loss, inadequate dietary intake, poor intestinal absorption, and increased iron requirements. Menorrhagia is the most common cause of blood loss in pre-menopausal women, while gastrointestinal bleeding is the most common cause in men and postmenopausal women. Vegans and vegetarians are more likely to develop iron deficiency anaemia due to the lack of meat in their diet. Coeliac disease and other conditions affecting the small intestine can prevent sufficient iron absorption. Children and pregnant women have increased iron demands, and the latter may experience dilution due to an increase in plasma volume.

      The symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia include fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion, palpitations, pallor, nail changes, hair loss, atrophic glossitis, post-cricoid webs, and angular stomatitis. To diagnose iron deficiency anaemia, a full blood count, serum ferritin, total iron-binding capacity, transferrin, and blood film tests are performed. Endoscopy may be necessary to rule out malignancy, especially in males and postmenopausal females with unexplained iron-deficiency anaemia.

      The management of iron deficiency anaemia involves identifying and treating the underlying cause. Oral ferrous sulfate is commonly prescribed, and patients should continue taking iron supplements for three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to replenish iron stores. Iron-rich foods such as dark-green leafy vegetables, meat, and iron-fortified bread can also help. It is crucial to exclude malignancy by taking an adequate history and appropriate investigations if warranted.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 17 - A 60-year-old male presents with fatigue, pallor and a tingling sensation in both...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male presents with fatigue, pallor and a tingling sensation in both hands. Screening blood tests reveal:

      Hb 110 g/l (115-160 g/l)
      MCV 112 fl (82-100 fl)
      B12 140 ng/l (200-900 ng/l)

      What is the most frequent reason for this patient's macrocytic anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      The primary cause of vitamin B12 deficiency is pernicious anaemia. This condition occurs when the stomach lining is destroyed by autoimmune factors, leading to reduced production of intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is responsible for binding B12 in the gut, and without it, B12 absorption is impaired. This can result in a deficiency of vitamin B12 and macrocytic anaemia, as well as neurological symptoms due to damage to spinal cord myelination.

      While a strict vegan diet and alcoholism can also lead to B12 deficiency, they are not the most common causes.

      Microcytic sideroblastic anaemia, on the other hand, is caused by lead poisoning, which impairs haem production.

      Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.

      Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.

      Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 18 - A 75-year-old man is diagnosed with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation after presenting to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is diagnosed with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation after presenting to the GP with palpitations. Due to his age and his background of hypertension, he is offered anticoagulation treatment. After drug counselling, he is prescribed apixaban.

      What is the mechanism of action of apixaban?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It directly inhibits factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Apixaban is a medication that directly inhibits factor Xa, which is responsible for the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin in the coagulation cascade. It is used as prophylaxis against embolic events in patients with atrial fibrillation, who are at increased risk due to blood pooling in the atria and potential clot formation. Unlike heparin, which activates antithrombin III to reduce blood clotting, apixaban works independently of antithrombin III. It also does not directly inhibit thrombin, which is the mechanism of action of dabigatran. Antiplatelets, such as aspirin and clopidogrel, work to decrease platelet activation and aggregation, but are not recommended for reducing the risks of embolic events in AF. Apixaban also does not inhibit vitamin K, which is the mechanism of action of warfarin.

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 19 - Sophie, a 25-year-old woman, is visiting the haematology clinic for Hodgkin's lymphoma treatment....

    Incorrect

    • Sophie, a 25-year-old woman, is visiting the haematology clinic for Hodgkin's lymphoma treatment. Despite tolerating chemotherapy well, her bone marrow has been suppressed, necessitating frequent blood transfusions. To minimize the risk of graft versus host disease (GVHD), the haematologist prescribes irradiated red cells.

      What is the purpose of using irradiated red cells in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They have fewer active T-lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Irradiated blood products are utilized to reduce the risk of GVHD in patients who are at risk. This is achieved by eliminating the donated immune cells within the sample, particularly the T-lymphocytes responsible for causing GVHD. When these T-lymphocytes are from a different person, they may perceive the host’s tissues as foreign and attack them, leading to damage to various body structures such as the skin, liver, and bowels. Patients with Hodgkin’s lymphoma are at a higher risk of developing GVHD due to their weakened immune system.

      Although irradiation of blood products can also eliminate pathogens and reduce the risk of infection, this is not the primary reason for its use in reducing GVHD. Irradiation does not cause a reduced immune response from the host, as GVHD is caused by an immune response from the donated lymphocytes against the host tissues.

      It is important to note that macrophages are not a significant cause of GVHD, and irradiated blood products do not have significantly fewer antibodies. Blood products still need to be matched based on blood group and other factors, as irradiation primarily damages living cells such as lymphocytes rather than antibodies and other proteins.

      CMV Negative and Irradiated Blood Products

      Blood products that are CMV negative and irradiated are used in specific situations to prevent certain complications. CMV is a virus that is transmitted through leucocytes, but as most blood products are now leucocyte depleted, CMV negative products are not often needed. However, in situations where CMV transmission is a concern, such as in granulocyte transfusions, intra-uterine transfusions, neonates up to 28 days post expected date of delivery, bone marrow/stem cell transplants, immunocompromised patients, and those with/previous Hodgkin lymphoma, CMV negative blood products are used.

      On the other hand, irradiated blood products are depleted of T-lymphocytes and are used to prevent transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD) caused by engraftment of viable donor T lymphocytes. Irradiated blood products are used in situations such as granulocyte transfusions, intra-uterine transfusions, neonates up to 28 days post expected date of delivery, bone marrow/stem cell transplants, and in patients who have received chemotherapy or have congenital immunodeficiencies.

      In summary, CMV negative and irradiated blood products are used in specific situations to prevent complications related to CMV transmission and TA-GVHD. The use of these blood products is determined based on the patient’s medical history and condition.

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  • Question 20 - A 29-year-old woman is a few minutes into receiving a blood transfusion after...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman is a few minutes into receiving a blood transfusion after experiencing a postpartum haemorrhage when she experiences intense chest and abdominal pain. Her temperature has risen to 38.1ºC, and her BP is 80/60 mmHg. The medical team suspects that she is having an acute reaction to the blood product transfusion.

      What is the underlying mechanism of the probable transfusion reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Host IgM antibody destruction of ABO-incompatible red blood cells (RBCs)

      Explanation:

      The correct mechanism of acute haemolytic transfusion reactions is the destruction of ABO-incompatible red blood cells (RBCs) by host IgM antibodies. These reactions typically occur due to human error in giving patients ABO-incompatible blood products. Symptoms include hypotension, fever, and abdominal and/or chest pain.

      Fluid overload, host anti-IgA antibodies reacting against donor IgA, and host antibodies reacting with donor white cell fragments are all incorrect mechanisms for acute haemolytic transfusion reactions. These mechanisms are associated with transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), anaphylaxis to blood products in patients with IgA deficiency, and non-haemolytic febrile reactions, respectively. These conditions present with different symptoms and are not associated with the rapid onset of hypotension and abdominal pain seen in acute haemolytic transfusion reactions.

      Blood product transfusion complications can be categorized into immunological, infective, and other complications. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may arise due to transmission of vCJD, although measures have been taken to minimize this risk. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.

      Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. These reactions may occur in 1-2% of red cell transfusions and 10-30% of platelet transfusions. Minor allergic reactions may also occur due to foreign plasma proteins, while anaphylaxis may be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.

      Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is a serious complication that results from a mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis. Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started and include a fever, abdominal and chest pain, agitation, and hypotension. Treatment should include immediate transfusion termination, generous fluid resuscitation with saline solution, and informing the lab. Complications include disseminated intravascular coagulation and renal failure.

      TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion that is characterized by the development of hypoxaemia/acute respiratory distress syndrome within 6 hours of transfusion. On the other hand, TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema. As well as features of pulmonary oedema, the patient may also be hypertensive, a key difference from patients with TRALI.

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  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old man with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to his GP with complaints of fatigue and breathlessness upon exertion. During examination, no splenomegaly was observed. A peripheral smear revealed microcytic red blood cells with basophilic stippling. A bone marrow biopsy showed an increased uptake of Prussian blue. The patient's iron levels and transferrin saturation were high, while both mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mean corpuscular hemoglobin were low. Laboratory results showed a hemoglobin level of 95 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180 g/L), platelets of 200 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L), and WBC of 7.0 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L). The patient's ferritin level was 300 ng/mL (normal range: 20-230 ng/mL), and his vitamin B12 level was 400 ng/L (normal range: 200-900 ng/L). What is the most likely disease that the patient is suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sideroblastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for the patient is sideroblastic anaemia, which is characterized by hypochromic microcytic anaemia, high levels of ferritin iron and transferrin saturation, and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. This condition is caused by vitamin B6 deficiency due to frequent alcohol consumption, leading to abnormal heme production. The peripheral smear shows basophilic stippling of red blood cells, and there is iron overload causing iron deposition in the bone marrow, observed as increased staining with Prussian blue.

      Anaemia of chronic disease, iron deficiency anaemia, and aplastic anaemia are incorrect diagnoses. Anaemia of chronic disease is usually normocytic normochromic and has significantly low levels of folate, B12, and iron while ferritin is high. Iron deficiency anaemia may be microcytic hypochromic, but serum iron, ferritin, and transferrin levels would be reduced. Aplastic anaemia presents with pancytopenia and is rarely found in the given age group.

      Understanding Sideroblastic Anaemia

      Sideroblastic anaemia is a medical condition that occurs when red blood cells fail to produce enough haem, which is partly synthesized in the mitochondria. This results in the accumulation of iron in the mitochondria, forming a ring around the nucleus known as a ring sideroblast. The condition can be either congenital or acquired.

      The congenital cause of sideroblastic anaemia is delta-aminolevulinate synthase-2 deficiency. On the other hand, acquired causes include myelodysplasia, alcohol, lead, and anti-TB medications.

      To diagnose sideroblastic anaemia, doctors may conduct a full blood count, iron studies, and a blood film. The results may show hypochromic microcytic anaemia, high ferritin, high iron, high transferrin saturation, and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. A bone marrow test may also be done, and Prussian blue staining can reveal ringed sideroblasts.

      Management of sideroblastic anaemia is mainly supportive, and treatment focuses on addressing any underlying cause. Pyridoxine may also be prescribed to help manage the condition.

      In summary, sideroblastic anaemia is a condition that affects the production of haem in red blood cells, leading to the accumulation of iron in the mitochondria. It can be congenital or acquired, and diagnosis involves various tests. Treatment is mainly supportive, and addressing any underlying cause is crucial.

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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old male visits his GP complaining of fatigue. The GP schedules a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male visits his GP complaining of fatigue. The GP schedules a blood test to rule out anaemia as a possible cause. Typically, where do red blood cells undergo breakdown in the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      The spleen is responsible for breaking down most of the red blood cells. This is achieved through the action of macrophages that identify and eliminate old red blood cells. It is worth noting that in a healthy individual, the liver, kidneys, and blood vessels do not participate in the breakdown of red blood cells. Additionally, while the bone marrow plays a crucial role in producing blood cells, it is not involved in the destruction of red blood cells.

      Understanding Haemolytic Anaemias by Site

      Haemolytic anaemias can be classified by the site of haemolysis, either intravascular or extravascular. In intravascular haemolysis, free haemoglobin is released and binds to haptoglobin. As haptoglobin becomes saturated, haemoglobin binds to albumin forming methaemalbumin, which can be detected by Schumm’s test. Free haemoglobin is then excreted in the urine as haemoglobinuria and haemosiderinuria. Causes of intravascular haemolysis include mismatched blood transfusion, red cell fragmentation due to heart valves, TTP, DIC, HUS, paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria, and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.

      On the other hand, extravascular haemolysis occurs when red blood cells are destroyed by macrophages in the spleen or liver. This type of haemolysis is commonly seen in haemoglobinopathies such as sickle cell anaemia and thalassaemia, hereditary spherocytosis, haemolytic disease of the newborn, and warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.

      It is important to understand the site of haemolysis in order to properly diagnose and treat haemolytic anaemias. While both intravascular and extravascular haemolysis can lead to anaemia, the underlying causes and treatment approaches may differ.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 23 - A 23-year-old male presents to his GP with a 5-day-history of mild scrotal...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male presents to his GP with a 5-day-history of mild scrotal pain. He reports having unprotected sexual intercourse with a new female partner recently. Upon examination, the right hemi-scrotum is swollen, red, and tender with an enlarged epididymis. The patient has a normal glans penis and a present cremasteric reflex.

      In this scenario, which lymph nodes are most likely to be enlarged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 24 - A 67-year-old man presents with sudden onset headache, blurry vision, and weakness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with sudden onset headache, blurry vision, and weakness in his right arm. He has a history of multiple episodes of fleeting blindness and was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus 25 years ago. On physical examination, he has generalised lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, and reduced tone and power in the right arm compared to the left. Fundoscopy reveals blurred disc margins and engorged retinal veins. Investigations show an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate and plasma viscosity, and serum electrophoresis shows a monoclonal spike. Which plasma component is most likely responsible for his clinical features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgM

      Explanation:

      Hyperviscosity syndrome is a condition that can occur in paraproteinemia, where there is an overproduction of IgM. This is because IgM is a pentamer, which means it is larger in size and can cause increased viscosity.

      An elderly man is displaying stroke-like symptoms, but they are not in contiguous anatomical locations. This makes it unlikely that the cause is embolism or thrombosis, and suggests a global cause of ischemia. The presence of fleeting blindness (amaurosis fugax), increased viscosity, and monoclonal spike on serum electrophoresis all point towards a plasma cell dyscrasia, specifically hyperviscosity syndrome. Additional fundoscopic findings further support this suspicion.

      Hyperviscosity can be caused by various conditions, but multiple myeloma is the most common. Other differentials include Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia and polycythemia rubra vera. The presence of generalized lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly make Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia more likely than the others.

      In Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia, there is an overproduction of IgM, which is different from the other immunoglobulins as it is a pentamer. This makes it the largest immunoglobulin and more likely to cause hyperviscosity when in excess quantities. This is why Waldenstrom’s tends to present with hyperviscosity syndrome, while multiple myeloma rarely does.

      Understanding Waldenstrom’s Macroglobulinaemia

      Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia is a rare condition that primarily affects older men. It is a type of lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy that is characterized by the production of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including systemic upset, hyperviscosity syndrome, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, and cryoglobulinemia.

      One of the most significant features of Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia is the hyperviscosity syndrome, which can lead to visual disturbances and other complications. This occurs because the pentameric configuration of IgM increases serum viscosity, making it more difficult for blood to flow through the body. Other symptoms of this condition can include weight loss, lethargy, and Raynaud’s.

      To diagnose Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia, doctors will typically look for a monoclonal IgM paraprotein in the patient’s blood. A bone marrow biopsy can also be used to confirm the presence of lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma cells in the bone marrow.

      Treatment for Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia typically involves rituximab-based combination chemotherapy. This approach can help to reduce the production of the monoclonal IgM paraprotein and alleviate symptoms associated with the condition. With proper management, many patients with Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia are able to live full and healthy lives.

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  • Question 25 - A 55-year old man presents to the clinic with a recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year old man presents to the clinic with a recent diagnosis of type 2 diabetes and increasing issues with erectile dysfunction. During the examination, you observe a pigmented appearance, gynaecomastia, a lack of body hair, and hepatomegaly of two finger breadths. What diagnostic investigation should be performed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iron studies

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis Diagnosis and Overview

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. It is caused by abnormalities in the HFE gene. The diagnosis of haemochromatosis can be suggested by the presence of diabetes, hypogonadism, deranged liver function, and pigmentation. An elevation of serum ferritin is expected in this condition, and further assessment of iron storage can be done by measuring transferrin saturation. Other investigations may also be necessary to assess the complications of type 2 diabetes and the end organ consequences of haemochromatosis.

      Overall, haemochromatosis is a condition that affects iron metabolism in the body. It can lead to iron overload and damage to various organs, including the liver, heart, and pancreas. Early diagnosis and treatment are important to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 26 - From which of the following cell types do giant cells typically arise?
    ...

    Incorrect

    • From which of the following cell types do giant cells typically arise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      Macrophages are still the most frequent cell type that can generate giant cells, despite the possibility of other cell types doing so.

      Giant cells are masses that result from the fusion of various types of cells. Typically, these masses are composed of macrophages. It is important to note that giant cells are not the same as granulomas, although the agents that cause them may be similar. In fact, giant cells are often a reaction to foreign materials, such as suture material, and can be seen in histological sections stained with haematoxylin and eosin. Overall, giant cells are a unique phenomenon in cellular biology that can provide insight into the body’s response to foreign substances.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 27 - Which one of the following statements related to the coagulation cascade is true?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements related to the coagulation cascade is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tissue factor released by damaged tissue initiates the extrinsic pathway

      Explanation:

      The primary route of coagulation is the extrinsic pathway, which is inhibited by heparin’s ability to prevent the activation of factors 2, 9, 10, and 11. The convergence of both pathways occurs during the activation of factor 10. Fibrinogen is transformed into fibrin by thrombin. Plasminogen is converted to plasmin during fibrinolysis, which breaks down fibrin.

      The Coagulation Cascade: Two Pathways to Fibrin Formation

      The coagulation cascade is a complex process that leads to the formation of a blood clot. There are two pathways that can lead to fibrin formation: the intrinsic pathway and the extrinsic pathway. The intrinsic pathway involves components that are already present in the blood and has a minor role in clotting. It is initiated by subendothelial damage, such as collagen, which leads to the formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12. This complex activates Factor 11, which in turn activates Factor 9. Factor 9, along with its co-factor Factor 8a, forms the tenase complex, which activates Factor 10.

      The extrinsic pathway, on the other hand, requires tissue factor released by damaged tissue. This pathway is initiated by tissue damage, which leads to the binding of Factor 7 to tissue factor. This complex activates Factor 9, which works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10. Both pathways converge at the common pathway, where activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Thrombin hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin and also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.

      Finally, fibrinolysis occurs, which is the process of clot resorption. Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate this process. It is important to note that certain factors are involved in both pathways, such as Factor 10, and that some factors are vitamin K dependent, such as Factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. The intrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while the extrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the prothrombin time (PT).

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old patient diagnosed with severe sepsis is admitted to the ICU. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient diagnosed with severe sepsis is admitted to the ICU. Despite the implementation of the sepsis 6 bundle, the patient's condition deteriorates and bleeding is discovered at all peripheral venous cannula sites. The patient's respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min, heart rate is 124 beats/min, and blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg. A coagulation profile is requested and the results show a prolonged prothrombin time, a decreased fibrinogen level and a significantly elevated D-dimer. What is the probable cause of the bleeding based on these results and the clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)

      Explanation:

      DIC is a severe and life-threatening complication that typically presents as a late sign of sepsis. The coagulation profile can confirm the diagnosis by revealing specific abnormalities, such as a prolonged prothrombin time indicating a bleeding tendency, depleted fibrinogen levels due to clot formation, and elevated D-dimer levels indicating the body’s efforts to dissolve clots.

      Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

      Under normal conditions, the coagulation and fibrinolysis processes work together to maintain hemostasis. However, in cases of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One of the critical factors in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. TF is normally not in contact with the circulation but is exposed after vascular damage or in response to cytokines and endotoxins. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, leading to the activation of the intrinsic pathway and the formation of clots.

      DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy. Diagnosis of DIC typically involves a blood test that shows decreased platelet count and fibrinogen levels, prolonged prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time, and increased fibrinogen degradation products. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia may also be present, leading to the formation of schistocytes.

      Overall, understanding the pathophysiology and diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective management of this potentially life-threatening condition.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 29 - In the majority of cases of transfusion reaction caused by Rh antibodies, what...

    Incorrect

    • In the majority of cases of transfusion reaction caused by Rh antibodies, what is the probable Rh grouping of the mother, father, and child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The mother is Rh-negative, the father Rh-positive, and the baby Rh-positive

      Explanation:

      Transfusion Reactions and the Role of Rh Factor

      A transfusion reaction can occur when Rh-positive blood is given to a person who is Rh-negative and has been previously exposed to Rh-positive blood. This exposure can result in the development of anti-Rh antibodies, which can cause a reaction when Rh-positive blood is introduced into the body. In addition to transfusions, the Rh factor can also play a role in pregnancy. If a mother is Rh-negative and the father and baby are Rh-positive, there is a risk of a transfusion reaction occurring in the fetus or newborn, leading to a condition known as hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN). It is important to take preventative measures to avoid transfusion reactions and HDFN, such as ensuring blood compatibility and administering Rh immune globulin to Rh-negative mothers during pregnancy. the role of the Rh factor can help prevent these potentially dangerous reactions.

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      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old individual undergoes a lump excision procedure and upon examination of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old individual undergoes a lump excision procedure and upon examination of a histological section, a clump of Reed Sternberg cells is identified by the pathologist. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hodgkins lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Risk Factors

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life. There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus.

      The most common symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes. This is usually painless, non-tender, and asymmetrical, and is most commonly seen in the neck, followed by the axillary and inguinal regions. In some cases, alcohol-induced lymph node pain may be present, but this is seen in less than 10% of patients. Other symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever (Pel-Ebstein). A mediastinal mass may also be present, which can cause symptoms such as coughing. In some cases, Hodgkin’s lymphoma may be found incidentally on a chest x-ray.

      When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia may be present, which can be caused by factors such as hypersplenism, bone marrow replacement by HL, or Coombs-positive haemolytic anaemia. Eosinophilia may also be present, which is caused by the production of cytokines such as IL-5. LDH levels may also be raised.

      In summary, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life and is associated with risk factors such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus. Symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include lymphadenopathy, weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever. When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia, eosinophilia, and raised LDH levels may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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