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  • Question 1 - What term describes a lack of pulses but regular coordinated electrical activity on...

    Correct

    • What term describes a lack of pulses but regular coordinated electrical activity on an ECG?

      Your Answer: Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pulseless Electrical Activity

      Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA) occurs when there is a lack of pulse despite normal electrical activity on the ECG. This can be caused by poor intrinsic myocardial contractility or a variety of remediable factors. These factors include hypoxemia, hypovolemia, severe acidosis, tension pneumothorax, pericardial tamponade, hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, poisoning with a calcium channel blocker, or hypothermia. Additionally, PEA may be caused by a massive pulmonary embolism. It is important to identify and address the underlying cause of PEA in order to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old patient presents for an annual review. He has no significant past...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old patient presents for an annual review. He has no significant past medical history. He is a smoker and has a family history of ischaemic heart disease: body mass index (BMI) 27.4, blood pressure (BP) 178/62 mmHg, fasting serum cholesterol 7.9 mmol/l (normal value < 5.17 mmol/l), triglycerides 2.2 mmol/l (normal value < 1.7 mmol/l), fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/l (normal value 3.9–5.6 mmol/l).
      Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for his cholesterol?

      Your Answer: Start atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease

      The primary prevention of cardiovascular disease (CVD) involves identifying and managing risk factors such as high cholesterol, smoking, hypertension, and family history of heart disease. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of these risk factors.

      Start Atorvastatin: NICE recommends offering atorvastatin 20 mg to people with a 10% or greater 10-year risk of developing CVD. Atorvastatin is preferred over simvastatin due to its superior efficacy and side-effect profile.

      Reassure and Repeat in One Year: NICE advises using the QRISK2 risk assessment tool to assess CVD risk and starting treatment if the risk is >10%.

      Dietary Advice and Repeat in Six Months: Dietary advice should be offered to all patients, including reducing saturated fat intake, increasing mono-unsaturated fat intake, choosing wholegrain varieties of starchy food, reducing sugar intake, eating fruits and vegetables, fish, nuts, seeds, and legumes.

      Start Bezafibrate: NICE advises against routinely offering fibrates for the prevention of CVD to people being treated for primary prevention.

      Start Ezetimibe: Ezetimibe is not a first-line treatment for hyperlipidaemia, but people with primary hypercholesterolaemia should be considered for ezetimibe treatment.

      Overall, a combination of lifestyle changes and medication can effectively manage cardiovascular risk factors and prevent the development of CVD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 57-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of palpitations...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of palpitations and shortness of breath. She is speaking in broken sentences and appears distressed, with visible sweating. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 70/30, heart rate 180 bpm, respiratory rate 28, and sats 98% on air. Upon auscultation, there are crepitations at both lung bases. The patient reports experiencing crushing chest pain during the assessment. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals a regular broad complex tachycardia. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Loading dose of intravenous (iv) amiodarone 300 mg

      Correct Answer: Sedation and synchronised direct current (DC) shock

      Explanation:

      Management of Ventricular Tachycardia with a Pulse: Choosing the Right Intervention

      When faced with a patient in ventricular tachycardia (VT) with a pulse, the presence of adverse signs is a crucial factor in determining the appropriate intervention. Adverse signs such as syncope, chest pain, heart failure, and altered consciousness indicate imminent risk of deterioration and potential cardiac arrest. In such cases, prompt direct current (DC) cardioversion is necessary, and sedation may be required if the patient is conscious.

      While drug therapy may be an option in the absence of adverse signs, it is unlikely to work quickly enough in the presence of such signs. For instance, an amiodarone loading dose may not be effective in a patient with heart failure and shock. Similarly, beta blockers like iv metoprolol are not indicated in the acute management of VT with a pulse.

      In contrast, immediate precordial thump has limited utility and is only indicated in a witnessed monitored cardiac arrest. A fluid challenge may be given, but it is unlikely to address the underlying problem. Therefore, in the presence of adverse signs, DC shock is the best option for managing VT with a pulse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      80.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 75-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with chest pain. The man...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with chest pain. The man reports the pain as crushing in nature, exacerbated by exertion, particularly when climbing stairs in his home. The pain is typically relieved by rest, but he has experienced several episodes while watching television in the past two weeks. He has no other medical history and is generally in good health.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to hospital for admission for observation and urgent elective angiogram

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Management for a Patient with Unstable Angina

      Unstable angina is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. In the case of a patient displaying textbook signs of unstable angina, such as crushing chest pain occurring at rest, admission to the hospital is necessary. Sending the patient home with only glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray is not appropriate, as the patient is at high risk of having a myocardial infarction (MI). Instead, the patient should be seen by Cardiology for consideration of an urgent elective angiogram.

      Prescribing ramipril and simvastatin is not indicated unless there is evidence of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, including exercise recommendation, is also not appropriate for a patient with unstable angina. The immediate problem should be addressed first, which is the need for an angiogram.

      It is important to differentiate between unstable and stable angina. Unstable angina presents with symptoms at rest, indicating a significant worsening of the patient’s cardiac disease. On the other hand, stable angina only presents with symptoms on exertion.

      Sending the patient for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is not necessary unless there is evidence of an MI. The pain experienced due to angina will alleviate itself most commonly at rest, unless the angina is unstable. Therefore, an urgent elective angiogram is the appropriate management for a patient with unstable angina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - At 15 years of age a boy develops rheumatic fever. Thirty-five years later,...

    Incorrect

    • At 15 years of age a boy develops rheumatic fever. Thirty-five years later, he is admitted to hospital with weight loss, palpitations, breathlessness and right ventricular hypertrophy. On examination he is found to have an audible pan systolic murmur.
      Which heart valve is most likely to have been affected following rheumatic fever?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid

      Correct Answer: Mitral

      Explanation:

      Rheumatic Heart Disease and Valve Involvement

      Rheumatic heart disease is a condition that results from acute rheumatic fever and causes progressive damage to the heart valves over time. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve, with damage patterns varying by age. Younger patients tend to have regurgitation, while those in adolescence have a mix of regurgitation and stenosis, and early adulthood onwards tend to have pure mitral stenosis. Aortic valve involvement can also occur later in life. In this case, the patient is likely experiencing mitral regurgitation, causing palpitations and breathlessness. While the pulmonary valve can be affected, it is rare, and tricuspid involvement is even rarer and only present in advanced stages. Aortic valve involvement can produce similar symptoms, but with different murmurs on examination. When the aortic valve is involved, all leaflets are affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of headache, dizziness, and claudication....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of headache, dizziness, and claudication. Upon measuring his blood pressure, it is found that he has hypertension in his upper limbs and hypotension in his lower limbs. What other finding is most likely to be present in this case?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Notching of the inferior margins of the ribs

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Cardiovascular Disorders in Adults

      Cardiovascular disorders are a leading cause of morbidity and mortality in adults. Among the most common causes of these disorders are aortic coarctation, patent ductus arteriosus, aortic valvular stenosis, pulmonary valvular stenosis, and vasculitis involving the aortic arch.

      Notching of the Inferior Margins of the Ribs: Aortic Coarctation
      Aortic coarctation is caused by stenosis in the aortic arch, leading to hypertension proximal to and hypotension distal to the stenotic segment. Enlarged intercostal arteries produce notching of the inferior margins of the ribs, which is diagnostic of this condition.

      Chronic Cor Pulmonale: Patent Ductus Arteriosus
      Patent ductus arteriosus leads to shunting of blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery, eventually causing chronic cor pulmonale and right-sided heart failure.

      Systolic Hypotension: Aortic Valvular Stenosis
      Aortic valvular stenosis is caused by a congenitally malformed valve, usually a valve with two cusps or a single cusp. It manifests with systolic hypotension, recurrent syncope, and hypertrophy/dilation of the left ventricle.

      Chronic Cor Pulmonale and Heart Failure: Pulmonary Valvular Stenosis
      Pulmonary valvular stenosis is a rare form of congenital heart disease that leads to chronic cor pulmonale and heart failure.

      Ischemia in the Upper Body: Vasculitis Involving the Aortic Arch
      Vasculitis involving the aortic arch is found in Takayasu arthritis, causing chronic inflammatory changes in the aortic arch and its branches. This condition leads to stenosis of these arteries, resulting in signs and symptoms of ischemia in the upper part of the body. It is also known as pulseless disease due to weak or absent radial pulses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old man was brought to the Emergency Department following a car accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man was brought to the Emergency Department following a car accident. Upon examination, there are no visible signs of external bleeding, but his blood pressure is 90/40 mmHg and his heart rate is 120 bpm. He presents with distended neck veins and muffled heart sounds.

      What is the most probable echocardiogram finding in this case?

      Your Answer: Haemothorax

      Correct Answer: Pericardial effusion

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Trauma Patient with Beck’s Triad

      When a trauma patient presents with hypotension, tachycardia, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds, the clinician should suspect pericardial effusion, also known as cardiac tamponade. This condition occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial space, compressing the heart and impairing its function. In the context of chest trauma, pericardial effusion is a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment.

      Other conditions that may cause similar symptoms but have different underlying mechanisms include mitral regurgitation, pneumothorax, haemothorax, and pleural effusion. Mitral regurgitation refers to the backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium due to a faulty mitral valve. While it can be detected on an echocardiogram, it is unlikely to cause Beck’s triad as it does not involve fluid accumulation outside the heart.

      Pneumothorax is the presence of air in the pleural space, which can cause lung collapse and respiratory distress. A tension pneumothorax, in which air accumulates under pressure and shifts the mediastinum, can also compress the heart and impair its function. However, it would not be visible on an echocardiogram, which focuses on the heart and pericardium.

      Haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural space, usually due to chest trauma or surgery. Like pneumothorax, it can cause respiratory compromise and hypovolemia, but it does not affect the heart directly and would not cause Beck’s triad.

      Pleural effusion is a generic term for any fluid accumulation in the pleural space, which can be caused by various conditions such as infection, cancer, or heart failure. While it may cause respiratory symptoms and chest pain, it does not affect the heart’s function and would not cause Beck’s triad or be visible on an echocardiogram.

      In summary, a trauma patient with Beck’s triad should be evaluated for pericardial effusion as the most likely cause, but other conditions such as tension pneumothorax or haemothorax should also be considered depending on the clinical context. An echocardiogram can help confirm or rule out pericardial effusion and guide further management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old man, who recently immigrated to the United Kingdom from Eastern Europe,...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man, who recently immigrated to the United Kingdom from Eastern Europe, presents to his general practitioner with a history of intermittent dizzy spells. He reports having limited exercise capacity since childhood, but this has not been investigated before. Upon examination, the patient appears slight, has a dusky blue discoloration to his lips and tongue, and has finger clubbing. A murmur is also heard. The GP refers him to a cardiologist.

      The results of a cardiac catheter study are as follows:

      Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg)
      End systolic/End diastolic
      Superior vena cava 58 -
      Inferior vena cava 52 -
      Right atrium (mean) 56 10
      Right ventricle 55 105/9
      Pulmonary artery - 16/8
      Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 9
      Left atrium 97 -
      Left ventricle 84 108/10
      Aorta 74 110/80

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fallot's tetralogy

      Explanation:

      Fallot’s Tetralogy

      Fallot’s tetralogy is a congenital heart defect that consists of four features: ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an over-riding aorta. To diagnose this condition, doctors look for specific indicators. A step-down in oxygen saturation between the left atrium and left ventricle indicates a right to left shunt at the level of the ventricles, which is a sign of ventricular septal defect. Pulmonary stenosis is indicated by a significant gradient of 89 mmHg across the pulmonary valve, which is calculated by subtracting the right ventricular systolic pressure from the pulmonary artery systolic pressure. Right ventricular hypertrophy is diagnosed by high right ventricular pressures and a right to left shunt, as indicated by the oxygen saturations. Finally, an over-riding aorta is identified by a further step-down in oxygen saturation between the left ventricle and aorta. While this could also occur in cases of patent ductus arteriosus with right to left shunting, the presence of the other features of Fallot’s tetralogy makes an over-riding aorta the most likely cause of reduced oxygen saturation due to admixture of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle entering the left heart circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      62.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old female with Down's syndrome presents with a systolic murmur on clinical...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female with Down's syndrome presents with a systolic murmur on clinical examination. What is the most prevalent cardiac anomaly observed in individuals with Down's syndrome that could account for this murmur?

      Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Endocardial Cushion Defects

      Endocardial cushion defects, also referred to as atrioventricular (AV) canal or septal defects, are a group of abnormalities that affect the atrial septum, ventricular septum, and one or both of the AV valves. These defects occur during fetal development when the endocardial cushions, which are responsible for separating the heart chambers and forming the valves, fail to develop properly. As a result, there may be holes or gaps in the septum, or the AV valves may not close properly, leading to a mix of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the heart. This can cause a range of symptoms, including shortness of breath, fatigue, poor growth, and heart failure. Treatment for endocardial cushion defects typically involves surgery to repair the defects and improve heart function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 62-year-old salesman is found to have a blood pressure (BP) of 141/91...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old salesman is found to have a blood pressure (BP) of 141/91 mmHg on a routine medical check. Two months later, his BP was 137/89 mmHg. He leads a physically active life, despite being a heavy smoker. He is not diabetic and his cholesterol levels are low. There is no past medical history of note.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Lifestyle advice and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Lifestyle advice and reassess every year

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Management and Lifestyle Advice

      Managing hypertension requires careful consideration of various factors, including cardiovascular risk, age, and other risk factors. The 2011 NICE guidelines recommend further investigation and assessment for those with a BP of 140/90 mmHg or higher and for those at high risk. Once diagnosed, lifestyle advice and annual reassessment are recommended, with drug therapy considered based on the number of risk factors present.

      For patients with cardiovascular risk factors, lifestyle advice and education on reducing cardiovascular risk are crucial. This includes support for smoking cessation, as smoking is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease. Patients with high risk, such as the elderly or heavy smokers, should be monitored annually.

      While pharmacological treatment may be necessary, thiazide diuretics are no longer used first-line for hypertension management. For patients over 55, calcium channel blockers are recommended as first-line treatment. ACE inhibitors would not be used first-line in patients over 55.

      In summary, managing hypertension requires a comprehensive approach that considers various factors, including cardiovascular risk, age, and other risk factors. Lifestyle advice and annual reassessment are crucial for patients with hypertension, with drug therapy considered based on the number of risk factors present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old man is referred to the Cardiology Clinic for a check-up. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is referred to the Cardiology Clinic for a check-up. On cardiac auscultation, an early systolic ejection click is found. A blowing diastolic murmur is also present and best heard over the third left intercostal space, close to the sternum. S1 and S2 heart sounds are normal. There are no S3 or S4 sounds. He denies any shortness of breath, chest pain, dizziness or episodes of fainting.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mixed aortic stenosis and regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Bicuspid aortic valve without calcification

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between cardiac conditions based on murmurs and clicks

      Bicuspid aortic valve without calcification is a common congenital heart malformation in adults. It is characterized by an early systolic ejection click and can also present with aortic regurgitation and/or stenosis, resulting in a blowing early diastolic murmur and/or systolic ejection murmur. However, if there is no systolic ejection murmur, it can be assumed that there is no valvular stenosis or calcification. Bicuspid aortic valves are not essentially associated with stenosis and only become symptomatic later in life when significant calcification is present.

      On the other hand, a bicuspid aortic valve with significant calcification will result in aortic stenosis and an audible systolic ejection murmur. This can cause chest pain, shortness of breath, dizziness, or syncope. The absence of a systolic murmur in this case excludes aortic stenosis.

      Mixed aortic stenosis and regurgitation can also be ruled out if there is no systolic ejection murmur. An early systolic ejection click without an ejection murmur or with a short ejection murmur is suggestive of a bicuspid aortic valve.

      Aortic regurgitation alone will not cause an early systolic ejection click. This is often associated with aortic or pulmonary stenosis or a bicuspid aortic valve.

      Lastly, aortic stenosis causes a systolic ejection murmur, while flow murmurs are always systolic in nature and not diastolic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      35.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of hypertension visits his primary care...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of hypertension visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. He mentions experiencing a painful, burning sensation in his legs when he walks long distances and feeling cold in his lower extremities. He has no history of dyslipidaemia. Upon examination, his temperature is 37.1 °C; the blood pressure in his left arm is 174/96 mmHg, heart rate 78 bpm, respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. He has 1+ dorsalis pedis pulses bilaterally, and his lower extremities are cool to the touch. Cardiac auscultation does not reveal any murmurs, rubs, or gallops. His abdominal examination is unremarkable, and no bruits are heard on auscultation. Renal function tests show a creatinine level of 71 μmol/l (50–120 μmol/l), which is his baseline. What is the most likely defect present in this patient?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Coarctation of the Aorta, Patent Ductus Arteriosus, Renal Artery Stenosis, Atrial Septal Defect, and Bilateral Lower Extremity Deep Vein Thrombosis are all cardiovascular conditions that have distinct symptoms and characteristics.

      Coarctation of the Aorta is characterized by hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities. Patients may also experience lower extremity claudication due to low oxygen delivery. Chest X-rays may reveal notching of the ribs. Treatment involves surgical resection of the narrowed lumen.

      Patent Ductus Arteriosus refers to a persistent open lumen in the ductus arteriosus, causing a left-to-right shunt. A constant, machine-like murmur is detected on cardiac auscultation. If left untreated, it can lead to Eisenmenger syndrome and reverse to become a cyanotic right-to-left shunt.

      Renal Artery Stenosis causes decreased blood flow to the kidneys, leading to fluid retention and hypertension. A bruit is typically heard on auscultation of the abdomen, and creatinine levels may be elevated due to decreased renal perfusion.

      Atrial Septal Defect is a congenital abnormality that causes a left-to-right shunt. It can be detected by a fixed, widely split S2 on cardiac auscultation. If left untreated, it can lead to pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure.

      Bilateral Lower Extremity Deep Vein Thrombosis refers to blood clots in the deep veins of the legs, causing lower extremity swelling, warmth, and erythema. It does not cause hypertension, claudication, or cool lower extremities. Lower extremity arterial insufficiency may cause claudication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      75.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old patient comes to her doctor for a routine check-up. During the...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old patient comes to her doctor for a routine check-up. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured in both arms, and the readings are as follows:
      Right arm 152/100
      Left arm 138/92
      What should be the next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Ask the patient to start ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Explanation:

      Proper Management of High Blood Pressure Readings

      In order to properly manage high blood pressure readings, it is important to follow established guidelines. If a patient displays a blood pressure of over 140/90 in one arm, the patient should have ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) in order to confirm the presence or lack of hypertension, in accordance with NICE guidelines.

      It is important to note that a diagnosis of hypertension cannot be made from one blood pressure recording. However, if hypertension is confirmed, based upon the patients’ age, amlodipine would be the antihypertensive of choice.

      When measuring blood pressure in both arms (as it should clinically be done), the higher of the two readings should be taken. Asking the patient to come back in one week to re-record blood pressure sounds reasonable, but it is not in accordance with the NICE guidelines.

      Lastly, it is important to note that considering the patients’ age, ramipril is second line and should not be the first choice for treatment. Proper management of high blood pressure readings is crucial for the overall health and well-being of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath on exertion, and reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath on exertion, and reports that she sleeps on three pillows at night to avoid shortness of breath. Past medical history of note includes two recent transient ischaemic attacks which have resulted in transient speech disturbance and minor right arm weakness. Other non-specific symptoms include fever and gradual weight loss over the past few months. On auscultation of the heart you notice a loud first heart sound, and a plopping sound in early diastole. General examination also reveals that she is clubbed.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 6.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Haemoglobin 101 g/dl
      (normochromic normocytic) 115–155 g/l
      Platelets 195 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      White cell count (WCC) 11.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 85 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Chest X-ray Unusual intra-cardiac calcification
      within the left atrium

      Which of the following fits best with the likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Correct Answer: Left atrial myxoma

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Conditions: Differentiating Left Atrial Myxoma from Other Pathologies

      Left atrial myxoma is a cardiac condition characterized by heart sounds, systemic embolization, and intracardiac calcification seen on X-ray. Echocardiography is used to confirm the diagnosis, and surgery is usually curative. However, other cardiac pathologies can present with similar symptoms, including rheumatic heart disease, mitral stenosis, mitral regurgitation, and infective endocarditis. It is important to differentiate between these conditions to provide appropriate treatment. This article discusses the key features of each pathology to aid in diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old moderately obese man is brought to the Emergency Department with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old moderately obese man is brought to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe chest pain and shortness of breath. Upon physical examination, a pericardial tamponade is suspected and confirmed by an electrocardiogram (ECG) showing total electrical alternans and an echocardiogram revealing pericardial effusion. Which jugular vein is typically the most reliable indicator of central venous pressure (CVP)?

      Your Answer: Left internal

      Correct Answer: Right internal

      Explanation:

      The Best Vein for Measuring Central Venous Pressure

      Pericardial tamponade can lead to compression of the heart by the pericardium, resulting in decreased intracardiac diastolic pressure and reduced blood flow to the right atrium. This can cause distension of the jugular veins, making the right internal jugular vein the best vein for measuring central venous pressure (CVP). Unlike the right external vein, which joins the right internal vein at an oblique angle, the right internal vein has a straight continuation with the right brachiocephalic vein and the superior vena cava, making CVP measurement more accurate. On the other hand, the left internal jugular vein makes an oblique union with the left brachiocephalic vein and the external jugular veins, making it a less reliable indicator of CVP. Similarly, the left external vein also joins the left internal vein at an oblique angle, making CVP reading less reliable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What are the components of Virchow's triad? ...

    Correct

    • What are the components of Virchow's triad?

      Your Answer: Venous stasis, injury to veins, blood hypercoagulability

      Explanation:

      Virchow’s Triad and Its Three Categories of Thrombosis Factors

      Virchow’s triad is a concept that explains the three main categories of factors that contribute to thrombosis. These categories include stasis, injuries or trauma to the endothelium, and blood hypercoagulability. Stasis refers to abnormal blood flow, which can be caused by various factors such as turbulence, varicose veins, and stasis. Injuries or trauma to the endothelium can be caused by hypertension or shear stress, which can damage veins or arteries. Blood hypercoagulability is associated with several conditions such as hyperviscosity, deficiency of antithrombin III, nephrotic syndrome, disseminated malignancy, late pregnancy, and smoking.

      It is important to note that current thrombosis or past history of thrombosis and malignancy are not included in the triad. Malignancy is a specific procoagulant state, so it is covered under hypercoagulability. Virchow’s triad and its three categories of thrombosis factors can help healthcare professionals identify and manage patients who are at risk of developing thrombosis. By addressing these factors, healthcare professionals can help prevent thrombosis and its associated complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 72-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine check-up and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine check-up and is found to have a systolic murmur heard loudest in the aortic region. The murmur increases in intensity with deep inspiration and does not radiate. What is the most probable abnormality in this patient?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Explanation:

      Systolic Valvular Murmurs

      A systolic valvular murmur can be caused by aortic/pulmonary stenosis or mitral/tricuspid regurgitation. It is important to note that the location where the murmur is heard loudest can be misleading. For instance, if it is aortic stenosis, the murmur is expected to radiate to the carotids. However, the significant factor to consider is that the murmur is heard loudest on inspiration. During inspiration, venous return to the heart increases, which exacerbates right-sided murmurs. Conversely, expiration reduces venous return and exacerbates left-sided murmurs. To remember this useful fact, the mnemonic RILE (Right on Inspiration, Left on Expiration) can be used.

      If a systolic murmur is enhanced on inspiration, it must be a right-sided murmur, which could be pulmonary stenosis or tricuspid regurgitation. However, in this case, only pulmonary stenosis is an option. systolic valvular murmurs and their characteristics is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old insurance broker with mitral stenosis is seen in the Cardiology Clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old insurance broker with mitral stenosis is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He reports increasing shortness of breath on exertion and general fatigue over the past six months. Additionally, he notes swelling in his feet and ankles at the end of the day. What is the first-line intervention for symptomatic mitral stenosis with a mobile undistorted mitral valve and no left atrial thrombus or mitral regurgitation?

      Your Answer: Mitral valve repair

      Correct Answer: Balloon valvuloplasty

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Mitral Valve Disease

      Mitral valve disease can be managed through various treatment options depending on the severity and type of the condition. Balloon valvuloplasty is the preferred option for symptomatic patients with mitral stenosis, while mitral valve repair is the preferred surgical management for mitral regurgitation. Aortic valve replacement is an option if the aortic valve is faulty. Mitral valve replacement with a metallic valve requires high levels of anticoagulation, and therefore repair is preferred if possible. The Blalock–Taussig shunt is a surgical method for palliation of cyanotic congenital heart disease. Mitral valve repair may be considered in patients with mitral stenosis if the valve anatomy is unsuitable for balloon valvuloplasty. However, if the patient has severe symptomatic mitral stenosis with signs of heart failure, mitral valve replacement would be the first line of treatment.

      Treatment Options for Mitral Valve Disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that has worsened over the past 2 days. She also reported feeling ‘a little run down’ with a sore throat a week ago. She has history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. She reports diffuse chest pain that feels better when she leans forward. On examination, she has a temperature of 37.94 °C and a blood pressure of 140/84 mmHg. Her heart rate is 76 bpm. A friction rub is heard on cardiac auscultation, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates ST segment elevation in nearly every lead. Her physical examination and blood tests are otherwise within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely aetiology of her chest pain?

      Your Answer: Post-myocardial infarction syndrome (Dressler syndrome)

      Correct Answer: Post-viral complication

      Explanation:

      Pericarditis as a Post-Viral Complication: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardium, can occur as a post-viral complication. Patients typically experience diffuse chest pain that improves when leaning forward, and a friction rub may be heard on cardiac auscultation. Diffuse ST segment elevations on ECG can be mistaken for myocardial infarction. In this case, the patient reported recent viral symptoms and then developed acute pericardial symptoms.

      While systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can cause pericarditis, other symptoms such as rash, myalgia, or joint pain would be expected, along with a positive anti-nuclear antibodies test. Uraemia can also cause pericarditis, but elevated blood urea nitrogen would be present, and this patient has no history of kidney disease. Dressler syndrome, or post-myocardial infarction pericarditis, can cause diffuse ST elevations, but does not represent transmural infarction. Chest radiation can also cause pericarditis, but this patient has no history of radiation exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old male with a nine year history of type 2 diabetes is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with a nine year history of type 2 diabetes is currently taking metformin 1 g twice daily and gliclazide 160 mg twice daily. He has gained weight over the past year and his HbA1c has worsened from 59 to 64 mmol/mol (20-42). The doctor is considering treating him with either insulin or pioglitazone. The patient is curious about the potential side effects of pioglitazone.

      What is a common side effect of pioglitazone therapy?

      Your Answer: Lactic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Fluid retention

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Diabetes Medications

      Pioglitazone, a medication used to treat diabetes, can lead to fluid retention in approximately 10% of patients. This side effect can be worsened when taken with other drugs that also cause fluid retention, such as NSAIDs and calcium antagonists. Additionally, weight gain associated with pioglitazone is due to both fat accumulation and fluid retention. It is important to note that pioglitazone is not recommended for patients with cardiac failure.

      Metformin, another commonly prescribed diabetes medication, can cause lactic acidosis as a side effect. This is a known risk and should be monitored closely by healthcare providers.

      Sulphonylureas, a class of medications used to stimulate insulin production, may cause a rash that is sensitive to sunlight.

      Finally, statins and fibrates, medications used to lower cholesterol levels, have been associated with myositis, a condition that causes muscle inflammation and weakness. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 21 - Examine the cardiac catheter data provided below for a patient. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Examine the cardiac catheter data provided below for a patient. Which of the following clinical scenarios is most consistent with the given information?

      Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg) End systolic/End diastolic
      Superior vena cava 74 -
      Inferior vena cava 72 -
      Right atrium 73 5
      Right ventricle 74 20/4
      Pulmonary artery 74 20/5
      Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 15
      Left ventricle 98 210/15
      Aorta 99 125/75

      Your Answer: A 16-year-old with finger clubbing and central cyanosis

      Correct Answer: A 17-year-old boy who presents after an episode of exercise-induced syncope

      Explanation:

      Left Ventricular Pressure and Cardiac Conditions

      Left ventricular pressures that exhibit a sharp decline between the LV and aortic systolic pressures are indicative of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. This condition is consistent with the catheter data obtained from the patient. However, the data are not consistent with other cardiac conditions such as cyanotic congenital heart disease, post-MI VSD or mitral regurgitation, mitral stenosis, or mitral regurgitation. Although aortic stenosis may also present with a left ventricular outflow obstruction, it is not typically associated with exercise-induced syncope. These findings suggest that the patient’s symptoms are likely due to hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 22 - A 66-year-old patient with a history of heart failure is given intravenous fluids...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old patient with a history of heart failure is given intravenous fluids while on the ward. You receive a call from a nurse on the ward reporting that the patient is experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Upon examination, you order an urgent chest X-ray.
      What finding on the chest X-ray would be most indicative of pulmonary edema?

      Your Answer: Patchy shadowing bilaterally in the lower zones

      Correct Answer: Patchy perihilar shadowing

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Chest X-Ray Findings in Heart Failure

      Chest X-rays are commonly used to assess patients with heart failure. Here are some key findings to look out for:

      – Patchy perihilar shadowing: This suggests alveolar oedema, which can arise due to fluid overload in heart failure. Intravenous fluids should be given slowly, with frequent re-assessment for signs of peripheral and pulmonary oedema.
      – Cardiothoracic ratio of 0.5: A ratio of >0.5 on a postero-anterior (PA) chest X-ray may indicate heart failure. A ratio of 0.5 or less is considered normal.
      – Patchy shadowing in lower zones: This may suggest consolidation caused by pneumonia, which can complicate heart failure.
      – Prominent lower zone vessels: In pulmonary venous hypertension, there is redistribution of blood flow to the non-dependent upper lung zones, leading to larger vessels in the lower zones.
      – Narrowing of the carina: This may suggest enlargement of the left atrium, which sits directly under the carina in the chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 23 - A 57-year-old male with a known history of rheumatic fever and frequent episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male with a known history of rheumatic fever and frequent episodes of pulmonary oedema is diagnosed with pulmonary hypertension. During examination, an irregularly irregular pulse was noted and auscultation revealed a loud first heart sound and a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur. What is the most probable cause of this patient's pulmonary hypertension?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Valve Disorders: Mitral Stenosis, Mitral Regurgitation, Aortic Regurgitation, Pulmonary Stenosis, and Primary Pulmonary Hypertension

      Cardiac valve disorders are conditions that affect the proper functioning of the heart valves. Among these disorders are mitral stenosis, mitral regurgitation, aortic regurgitation, pulmonary stenosis, and primary pulmonary hypertension.

      Mitral stenosis is a narrowing of the mitral valve, usually caused by rheumatic fever. Symptoms include palpitations, dyspnea, and hemoptysis. Diagnosis is aided by electrocardiogram, chest X-ray, and echocardiography. Management may be medical or surgical.

      Mitral regurgitation is a systolic murmur that presents with a sustained apex beat displaced to the left and a left parasternal heave. On auscultation, there will be a soft S1, a loud S2, and a pansystolic murmur heard at the apex radiating to the left axilla.

      Aortic regurgitation presents with a collapsing pulse with a wide pulse pressure. On palpation of the precordium, there will be a sustained and displaced apex beat with a soft S2 and an early diastolic murmur at the left sternal edge.

      Pulmonary stenosis is associated with a normal pulse, with an ejection systolic murmur radiating to the lung fields. There may be a palpable thrill over the pulmonary area.

      Primary pulmonary hypertension most commonly presents with progressive weakness and shortness of breath. There is evidence of an underlying cardiac disease, meaning the underlying pulmonary hypertension is more likely to be secondary to another disease process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old male patient presents with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, the jugular...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male patient presents with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, the jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated at 7 cm above the sternal angle and there are large V-waves. On auscultation of the heart, a soft pansystolic murmur is audible at the left sternal edge.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and their Characteristics

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during the cardiac cycle. They can be caused by a variety of conditions, including valve disorders. Here are some common heart murmurs and their characteristics:

      Tricuspid Regurgitation: This condition leads to an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) with large V-waves and a pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Other features include pulsatile hepatomegaly and left parasternal heave.

      Tricuspid Stenosis: Tricuspid stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur heard best at the left sternal border.

      Pulmonary Stenosis: Pulmonary stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur in the second left intercostal space.

      Mitral Regurgitation: Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur at the apex, which radiates to the axilla.

      Mitral Stenosis: Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex, and severe cases may have secondary pulmonary hypertension (a cause of tricuspid regurgitation).

      Knowing the characteristics of these murmurs can aid in their diagnosis and management. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional if you suspect you may have a heart murmur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 25 - A 68-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic with worsening central crushing chest...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic with worsening central crushing chest pain that only occurs during physical activity and never at rest. He is currently taking bisoprolol 20 mg per day, ramipril, omeprazole, glyceryl trinitrate (GTN), and atorvastatin. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Commence isosorbide mononitrate and arrange an outpatient angiogram

      Explanation:

      Management of Stable Angina: Adding Isosorbide Mononitrate and Arranging Outpatient Angiogram

      For a patient with stable angina who is already taking appropriate first-line medications such as bisoprolol and GTN, the next step in management would be to add a long-acting nitrate like isosorbide mononitrate. This medication provides longer-term vasodilation compared to GTN, which is only used when required. This can potentially reduce the frequency of angina symptoms.

      An outpatient angiogram should also be arranged for the patient. While stable angina does not require an urgent angiogram, performing one on a non-urgent basis can provide more definitive management options like stenting if necessary.

      Increasing the dose of ramipril or statin is not necessary unless there is evidence of worsening hypertension or high cholesterol levels, respectively. Overall, the management of stable angina should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 26 - A 61-year-old man experiences persistent, intense chest pain that spreads to his left...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man experiences persistent, intense chest pain that spreads to his left arm. Despite taking multiple antacid tablets, he finds no relief. He eventually seeks medical attention at the Emergency Department and is diagnosed with a heart attack. He is admitted to the hospital and stabilized before being discharged five days later.
      About three weeks later, the man begins to experience a constant, burning sensation in his chest. He returns to the hospital, where a friction rub is detected during auscultation. Additionally, his heart sounds are muffled.
      What is the most likely cause of this complication, given the man's medical history?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune phenomenon

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dressler Syndrome

      Dressler syndrome is a condition that occurs several weeks after a myocardial infarction (MI) and results in fibrinous pericarditis with fever and pleuropericardial chest pain. It is believed to be an autoimmune phenomenon, rather than a result of viral, bacterial, or fungal infections. While these types of infections can cause pericarditis, they are less likely in the context of a recent MI. Chlamydial infection, in particular, does not cause pericarditis. Understanding the underlying cause of pericarditis is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of Dressler syndrome.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain that worsens when lying down, is relieved by sitting forward, and radiates to his left shoulder. He has a history of prostate cancer and has recently completed two cycles of radiotherapy. On examination, his blood pressure is 96/52 mmHg (normal <120/80 mmHg), his JVP is elevated, and his pulse is 98 bpm with a decrease in amplitude during inspiration. Heart sounds are faint. The ECG shows low-voltage QRS complexes. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Urgent pericardiocentesis

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing cardiac tamponade, which is caused by fluid in the pericardial sac compressing the heart and reducing ventricular filling. This is likely due to pericarditis caused by recent radiotherapy. Beck’s triad of low blood pressure, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds are indicative of tamponade. Urgent pericardiocentesis is necessary to aspirate the pericardial fluid, preferably under echocardiographic guidance. A fluid challenge with sodium chloride is not recommended as it may worsen the pericardial fluid. Ibuprofen is not effective in severe cases of pericardial effusion. GTN spray, morphine, clopidogrel, and aspirin are useful in managing myocardial infarction, which is a differential diagnosis to rule out. LMWH is not appropriate for tamponade and may worsen the condition if caused by haemopericardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with chest tightness. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with chest tightness. The tightness started about a day ago, however today it is worse and associated with shortness of breath and dizziness.
      Upon examination, there is a slow rising carotid pulse and systolic murmur which radiates to carotids 3/6. Examination is otherwise unremarkable without calf tenderness. The patient does not have any significant past medical history apart from type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension which are both well controlled.
      What is the best diagnostic investigation?

      Your Answer: Coronary angiogram

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Investigations for Cardiac Conditions

      When a patient presents with signs and symptoms of a cardiac condition, various diagnostic investigations may be performed to determine the underlying cause. In the case of a patient with chest tightness, the first-line investigation is usually an electrocardiogram (ECG) to rule out acute coronary syndrome. However, if the patient is suspected of having aortic stenosis (AS), the best diagnostic investigation is an echocardiogram and Doppler to measure the size of the aortic valve. A normal aortic valve area is more than 2 cm2, while severe AS is defined as less than 1 cm2.

      Other diagnostic investigations for cardiac conditions include a coronary angiogram to assess the patency of the coronary arteries and potentially perform an angioplasty to insert a stent if any narrowing is found. Exercise tolerance tests can also be useful in monitoring patients with a cardiac history and heart failure classification. However, a D-dimer test, which is used to diagnose pulmonary embolism, would not be indicated in a patient with suspected AS unless there were additional features suggestive of a pulmonary embolism, such as calf tenderness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 29 - An 80-year-old man with aortic stenosis came for his annual check-up. During the...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man with aortic stenosis came for his annual check-up. During the visit, his blood pressure was measured at 110/90 mmHg and his carotid pulse was slow-rising. What is the most severe symptom that indicates a poor prognosis in aortic stenosis?

      Your Answer: Orthostatic dizziness

      Correct Answer: Syncope

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Mortality Risk in Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a serious condition that can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion and potentially fatal outcomes. Here are some common symptoms and their associated mortality risks:

      – Syncope: This is a major concern and indicates the need for valve replacement, regardless of valve area.
      – Chest pain: While angina can occur due to reduced diastolic coronary perfusion time and increased left ventricular mass, it is not as significant as syncope in predicting mortality.
      – Cough: Aortic stenosis typically does not cause coughing.
      – Palpitations: Unless confirmed to be non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, palpitations do not increase mortality risk.
      – Orthostatic dizziness: Mild decreased cerebral perfusion can cause dizziness upon standing, but this symptom alone does not confer additional mortality risk.

      It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if they occur, as aortic stenosis can be a life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain. The pain is exacerbated by lying down, relieved by sitting forward, and radiates to the left shoulder. He has recently undergone two cycles of radiotherapy for prostate cancer. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 96/52 mmHg (normal <120/80 mmHg), his jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated, and his pulse is 98 bpm, which appears to fade on inspiration. Heart sounds are faint. The electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals low-voltage QRS complexes.
      What is the most appropriate initial management for this condition?

      Your Answer: Urgent pericardiocentesis

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing cardiac tamponade, which is caused by fluid in the pericardial sac compressing the heart and reducing ventricular filling. This is likely due to pericarditis caused by recent radiotherapy. Beck’s triad of low blood pressure, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds are indicative of tamponade. Urgent pericardiocentesis is necessary to aspirate the pericardial fluid using a 20 ml syringe and 18G needle under echocardiographic guidance. An ECG should be obtained to rule out MI and PE. GTN spray is used to manage MI, but it is not part of the treatment for tamponade. DC cardioversion is used for unstable cardiac arrhythmias, not tamponade. A fluid challenge with 1 liter of sodium chloride is not recommended as it may worsen the tamponade. LMWH is used to manage pulmonary embolus, but it is not appropriate for tamponade and may worsen the condition if the cause is haemopericardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      17.1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (11/29) 38%
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