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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism experiences a collapse during her yoga class. She has been reporting occasional chest pains and difficulty breathing during exercise in the past few weeks. During her physical examination, an ejection systolic murmur is detected at the right upper sternal edge, and her second heart sound is faint. Additionally, she has a slow-rising pulse. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Aortic valve regurgitation
Correct Answer: Bicuspid aortic valve
Explanation:Differentiating Aortic and Mitral Valve Disorders
When evaluating a patient with a heart murmur, it is important to consider the characteristics of the murmur and associated symptoms to determine the underlying valve disorder. In a patient under 70 years old, a slow-rising and weak pulse with a history of collapse is indicative of critical stenosis caused by a bicuspid aortic valve. On the other hand, calcific aortic stenosis is more common in patients over 70 years old and presents differently. Aortic valve regurgitation is characterized by a murmur heard during early diastole and a collapsing pulse, but it is less likely to cause syncope. Mitral valve regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur at the apex with a laterally displaced apex beat, but it may present with congestive heart failure rather than syncope or angina. Mitral valve prolapse may cause a mid-systolic click, but a pan-systolic murmur at the apex may be present if there is coexisting mitral regurgitation. By understanding the unique features of each valve disorder, clinicians can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 42-year-old man is admitted with a 30-min history of severe central ‘crushing’ chest pain radiating down the left arm. He is profusely sweating and looks ‘grey’. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia and 3-mm ST elevation in V3–V6.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Give the patient aspirin, ticagrelor and low-molecular-weight heparin, followed by a primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
Explanation:Treatment Options for ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI)
When a patient presents with a ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial. The gold standard treatment for a STEMI is a primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), which should be performed as soon as possible. In the absence of contraindications, all patients should receive aspirin, ticagrelor, and low-molecular-weight heparin before undergoing PCI.
Delaying PCI by treating the pain with sublingual glyceryl trinitrate (GTN), aspirin, and oxygen, and reviewing the patient in 15 minutes is not recommended. Similarly, giving the patient aspirin, ticagrelor, and low molecular weight heparin without performing PCI is incomplete management.
Thrombolysis therapy can be performed on patients without access to primary PCI. However, if primary PCI is available, it is the preferred treatment option.
It is important to note that waiting for cardiac enzymes is not recommended as it would only result in a delay in definitive management. Early and appropriate treatment is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with STEMI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman patient presents with a subacute history of lethargy and low-grade fever. Among other findings, full clinical examination reveals retinal haemorrhages with pale centres, painful red raised lesions on the hands and feet and subcentimetre, non-tender, raised papules on the palms and soles of the feet.
What is the underlying condition?Your Answer: Endocarditis
Explanation:Clinical Signs and Diagnosis of Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis
Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) is a condition caused by Streptococcus viridans, an oral commensal, and presents with malaise, weakness, and low-grade fever. Diagnosis is often delayed due to non-specific presentation, but it should be suspected in any febrile or unwell patient with a new or changing murmur. The three classic clinical signs of SBE are finger clubbing, Roth spots, and Osler’s nodes, along with Janeway lesions, which are subcentimeter, non-tender, raised papules on the palms and soles of the feet. Confirmation of SBE usually requires three separate sets of blood cultures taken in a 24-hour period, ideally during times the patient is febrile.
While Janeway lesions may be found in systemic lupus erythaematosus (SLE), the combination of the three described findings is unique to SBE. Tuberculosis does not present with the above constellation of findings but would be expected to present with chronic cough, haemoptysis, fever, and night sweats. Subacute meningococcal septicaemia typically gives a non-blanching petechial rash in the context of fulminating sepsis and does not present subacutely as described here. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) patients may have subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules on the extensor surfaces of the limbs, but RA does not give the findings described.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Correct
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You are called to see a 62-year-old man who has suddenly deteriorated after pacemaker insertion. He has sudden-onset shortness of breath and is cold and clammy. On examination, his blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, pulse 100 bpm and regular. His jugular venous pressure (JVP) is markedly elevated and his heart sounds are muffled. You give him oxygen and plasma volume expanders intravenously (iv).
Which of the following is the next most appropriate intervention?Your Answer: Prepare for pericardiocentesis
Explanation:Management of Cardiac Tamponade
Cardiac tamponade is a medical emergency that requires urgent intervention. The condition is characterized by a large amount of fluid in the pericardial sac, which can lead to compression of the heart and subsequent haemodynamic instability.
The first step in managing cardiac tamponade is to perform pericardiocentesis, which involves draining the fluid from the pericardial sac. Delaying this procedure can result in cardiac arrest and death.
While echocardiography can aid in diagnosis, it should not delay the initiation of pericardiocentesis. Similarly, a chest X-ray is not necessary for management. Swann-Ganz catheter insertion and inotropic support are also not recommended as they do not address the underlying cause of the condition.
In summary, prompt recognition and treatment of cardiac tamponade is crucial for patient survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is seen at cardiology outpatients 6 weeks after an anterior myocardial infarction. His wife complains that she cannot sleep at night due to his constant coughing and throat clearing.
Which medication is likely causing these symptoms?Your Answer: Atenolol
Correct Answer: Perindopril
Explanation:Common Side-Effects of Cardiovascular Medications
Cardiovascular medications are commonly prescribed to manage various heart conditions. However, they can also cause side-effects that can affect a patient’s quality of life. Here are some common side-effects of popular cardiovascular medications:
Perindopril: This medication can cause a dry, persistent cough, as well as hyperkalaemia, fatigue, dizziness, and hypotension.
Amiodarone: Side-effects of this medication include dizziness, visual disturbance, unco-ordination, tremors, paraesthesia, deranged liver function tests (LFTs), deranged thyroid function tests (TFTs), and lung fibrosis.
Atenolol: β-blockers like atenolol can cause fatigue, Raynaud’s phenomenon, bronchospasm, change in bowel habit, and sexual dysfunction.
Atorvastatin: Statins like atorvastatin can cause myopathy/myositis, derangement of glucose control, and deranged LFTs.
Candesartan: Angiotensin receptor blockers like candesartan can cause dizziness, headache, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose orthostatic hypotension. They are often prescribed to patients who are intolerant of ACE inhibitors due to dry cough.
In conclusion, patients taking cardiovascular medications should be aware of these potential side-effects and report any concerns to their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy is discovered following a street brawl where he was stabbed. He has a stab wound on the left side of his chest, specifically the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line. His blood pressure (BP) is 70 mmHg systolic, his heart sounds are muffled, and his jugular veins are distended, with a prominent x descent and an absent y descent.
What is the most appropriate way to characterize the boy's condition?Your Answer: Beck’s triad
Explanation:Cardiac Terminology: Beck’s Triad, Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy, Virchow’s Triad, Cushing Syndrome, and Kussmaul’s Sign
Beck’s Triad: A combination of muffled or distant heart sounds, low systolic blood pressure, and distended neck veins. This triad is associated with cardiac tamponade.
Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy: A non-ischaemic cardiomyopathy triggered by emotional stress, resulting in sudden weakening or dysfunction of a portion of the myocardium. It is also known as broken heart syndrome.
Virchow’s Triad: A triad that includes hypercoagulability, endothelial/vessel wall injury, and stasis. These factors contribute to a risk of thrombosis.
Cushing Syndrome: A condition caused by prolonged use of corticosteroids, resulting in signs and symptoms such as hypertension and central obesity. However, low blood pressure is not a typical symptom.
Kussmaul’s Sign: A paradoxical rise in jugular venous pressure on inspiration due to impaired filling of the right ventricle. This sign is commonly associated with constrictive pericarditis or restrictive cardiomyopathy. In cardiac tamponade, the jugular veins have a prominent x descent and an absent y descent, whereas in constrictive pericarditis, there will be a prominent x and y descent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and is noted to have an irregular pulse. He reports intermittent palpitations over the past two months, which come on around four to five times weekly and are troublesome. He has diet-controlled type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms atrial fibrillation (AF) with a rate of 82 bpm. He has no chest pain and is not in overt cardiac failure. He is otherwise well and enjoys hill walking.
What is the appropriate new pharmacological therapy for the patient’s condition?Your Answer: Bisoprolol and aspirin
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol and apixaban
Explanation:Drug combinations for treating atrial fibrillation: A guide
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common heart condition that requires treatment to control heart rate and prevent stroke. Here are some drug combinations that may be used to manage AF:
Bisoprolol and apixaban: This combination is recommended for patients who need both rate control and anticoagulation. Bisoprolol is a standard ß-blocker used for rate control, while apixaban is an anticoagulant that lowers the risk of stroke.
Digoxin and warfarin: Digoxin may be used for rate control in elderly patients with non-paroxysmal AF who lead a sedentary lifestyle. However, in this scenario, bisoprolol is a better choice for rate control since the patient enjoys hill walking. Warfarin is appropriate for anticoagulation.
Bisoprolol and aspirin: Aspirin monotherapy is no longer recommended for stroke prevention in patients with AF. Bisoprolol should be used as first line for rate control.
Digoxin and aspirin: Similar to the previous combination, aspirin monotherapy is no longer recommended for stroke prevention in patients with AF. Digoxin may be used for rate control in elderly patients with non-paroxysmal AF who lead a sedentary lifestyle. However, in this scenario, bisoprolol is a better choice for rate control since the patient enjoys hill walking.
Warfarin alone: Even though the patient’s heart rate is currently controlled, he has a history of symptomatic paroxysmal episodes of AF and will need an agent for rate control, as well as warfarin for anticoagulation.
In summary, the choice of drug combination for managing AF depends on the patient’s individual needs and preferences, as well as their risk factors for stroke. It is important to discuss the options with a healthcare professional to make an informed decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to the hospital with sudden central chest pain. An ECG is done and shows ST elevation, indicating an infarct on the inferior surface of the heart. The patient undergoes primary PCI, during which a blockage is discovered in a vessel located within the coronary sulcus.
What is the most probable location of the occlusion?Your Answer: Anterior interventricular (left anterior descending) artery
Correct Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:Identifying the Affected Artery in a Myocardial Infarction
Based on the ECG findings of ST elevation in the inferior leads and the primary PCI result of an occlusion within the coronary sulcus, it is likely that the right coronary artery has been affected. The anterior interventricular artery does not supply the inferior surface of the heart and does not lie within the coronary sulcus. The coronary sinus is a venous structure and is unlikely to be the site of occlusion. The right (acute) marginal artery supplies a portion of the inferior surface of the heart but does not run within the coronary sulcus. Although the left coronary artery lies within the coronary sulcus, the ECG findings suggest an infarction of the inferior surface of the heart, which is evidence for a right coronary artery event.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 66-year-old patient with a history of heart failure is given intravenous fluids while on the ward. You receive a call from a nurse on the ward reporting that the patient is experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Upon examination, you order an urgent chest X-ray.
What finding on the chest X-ray would be most indicative of pulmonary edema?Your Answer: Patchy perihilar shadowing
Explanation:Interpreting Chest X-Ray Findings in Heart Failure
Chest X-rays are commonly used to assess patients with heart failure. Here are some key findings to look out for:
– Patchy perihilar shadowing: This suggests alveolar oedema, which can arise due to fluid overload in heart failure. Intravenous fluids should be given slowly, with frequent re-assessment for signs of peripheral and pulmonary oedema.
– Cardiothoracic ratio of 0.5: A ratio of >0.5 on a postero-anterior (PA) chest X-ray may indicate heart failure. A ratio of 0.5 or less is considered normal.
– Patchy shadowing in lower zones: This may suggest consolidation caused by pneumonia, which can complicate heart failure.
– Prominent lower zone vessels: In pulmonary venous hypertension, there is redistribution of blood flow to the non-dependent upper lung zones, leading to larger vessels in the lower zones.
– Narrowing of the carina: This may suggest enlargement of the left atrium, which sits directly under the carina in the chest. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and difficulty breathing. He had been hospitalized four weeks ago for acute coronary syndrome and was discharged on bisoprolol, simvastatin, aspirin, and ramipril. During the examination, a narrow complex tachycardia is observed. What is the absolute contraindication in this scenario?
Your Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Verapamil and Beta Blockers: A Dangerous Combination
Verapamil is a type of medication that blocks calcium channels in the heart, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and a slower heart rate. However, it also has negative effects on the heart’s ability to contract, making it a highly negatively inotropic drug. Additionally, it may impair the conduction of electrical signals between the atria and ventricles of the heart.
According to the British National Formulary (BNF), verapamil should not be given to patients who are already taking beta blockers. This is because the combination of these two drugs can lead to dangerously low blood pressure and even asystole, a condition where the heart stops beating altogether.
Therefore, it is important for healthcare professionals to carefully consider a patient’s medication history before prescribing verapamil. If a patient is already taking beta blockers, alternative treatments should be considered to avoid the potentially life-threatening consequences of combining these two drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Correct
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A newborn baby is found to have a heart murmur that is later identified as Ebstein's anomaly. Is it possible that a medication taken by the mother during pregnancy could have played a role in causing this congenital heart defect?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium Exposure During Pregnancy Linked to Ebstein’s Anomaly
Exposure to lithium during pregnancy has been found to be linked to the development of Ebstein’s anomaly in newborns. Ebstein’s anomaly is a rare congenital heart defect that affects the tricuspid valve, which separates the right atrium and right ventricle of the heart. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including shortness of breath, fatigue, and heart palpitations.
Studies have shown that women who take lithium during pregnancy are at an increased risk of having a child with Ebstein’s anomaly. Lithium is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder, and while it can be an effective treatment, it is important for women who are pregnant or planning to become pregnant to discuss the risks and benefits of taking lithium with their healthcare provider.
It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential risks associated with lithium use during pregnancy and to closely monitor pregnant women who are taking this medication. Early detection and treatment of Ebstein’s anomaly can improve outcomes for affected infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 38-year-old man comes for his 6-week post-myocardial infarction (MI) follow-up. He was discharged without medication. His total cholesterol is 9 mmol/l, with triglycerides of 1.2 mmol/l. He is a non-smoker with a blood pressure of 145/75. His father passed away from an MI at the age of 43.
What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient?Your Answer: High-dose atorvastatin
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Patient with Hypercholesterolemia and Recent MI
When treating a patient with hypercholesterolemia and a recent myocardial infarction (MI), it is important to choose the most appropriate treatment option. In this case, high-dose atorvastatin is the best choice due to the patient’s high cholesterol levels and family history. It is crucial to note that medication should have been prescribed before the patient’s discharge.
While dietary advice can be helpful, it is not the most urgent treatment option. Ezetimibe would only be prescribed if a statin were contraindicated. In this high-risk patient, low-dose atorvastatin is not sufficient, and high-dose atorvastatin is required, provided it is tolerated. If cholesterol control does not improve with high-dose atorvastatin, ezetimibe can be added at a later check-up. Overall, the priority is to control the patient’s high cholesterol levels with medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 65-year-old insurance broker with mitral stenosis is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He reports increasing shortness of breath on exertion and general fatigue over the past six months. Additionally, he notes swelling in his feet and ankles at the end of the day. What is the first-line intervention for symptomatic mitral stenosis with a mobile undistorted mitral valve and no left atrial thrombus or mitral regurgitation?
Your Answer: Balloon valvuloplasty
Explanation:Treatment Options for Mitral Valve Disease
Mitral valve disease can be managed through various treatment options depending on the severity and type of the condition. Balloon valvuloplasty is the preferred option for symptomatic patients with mitral stenosis, while mitral valve repair is the preferred surgical management for mitral regurgitation. Aortic valve replacement is an option if the aortic valve is faulty. Mitral valve replacement with a metallic valve requires high levels of anticoagulation, and therefore repair is preferred if possible. The Blalock–Taussig shunt is a surgical method for palliation of cyanotic congenital heart disease. Mitral valve repair may be considered in patients with mitral stenosis if the valve anatomy is unsuitable for balloon valvuloplasty. However, if the patient has severe symptomatic mitral stenosis with signs of heart failure, mitral valve replacement would be the first line of treatment.
Treatment Options for Mitral Valve Disease
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up. He reports feeling well today but has a history of chronic respiratory tract infections and lung issues. He is immunocompetent.
During the examination, his temperature and blood pressure are normal. His heart rate is regular and his breathing is effortless. The GP detects a diastolic murmur with a snap that is most audible at the right fifth intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary ciliary dyskinesia
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis for a Patient with Chronic Respiratory Infections and a Heart Murmur
Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia: A Congenital Syndrome of Ciliary Dysfunction
The patient described in the case likely has primary ciliary dyskinesia, also known as Kartagener’s syndrome, which is a congenital syndrome of ciliary dysfunction. This disorder affects the proper beating of Ciliary, leading to the accumulation of infectious material within the respiratory tree and abnormal cell migration during development, resulting in situs inversus. Additionally, abnormal Ciliary can lead to non-motile sperm and infertility.
Other Possible Diagnoses
Although the GP noticed a diastolic murmur suggestive of mitral stenosis, the patient does not have symptoms of congestive heart failure. Asthma could be associated with chronic lung and respiratory tract infections, but it would not explain the heart murmur. Squamous cell lung cancer is less likely in a man who is 40 years old with a normal respiratory examination and would not explain the heart murmur. Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension usually causes progressive breathlessness, a dry cough, and fine inspiratory crepitations on examination, rather than the picture here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman undergoes cardiac catheterisation. A catheter is inserted in her right femoral vein in the femoral triangle and advanced through the iliac veins and inferior vena cava to the right side of the heart so that right chamber pressures can be recorded.
What two other structures pass within the femoral triangle?Your Answer: Femoral artery, femoral nerve
Explanation:Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle
The femoral triangle is a triangular area on the anterior aspect of the thigh, formed by the crossing of various muscles. Within this area, the femoral vein, femoral artery, and femoral nerve lie medial to lateral (VAN). It is important to note that the inguinal lymph nodes and saphenous vein are not part of the femoral triangle. Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is crucial for medical professionals when performing procedures in this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset palpitation and chest pain that began 1 hour ago. The palpitation is constant and is not alleviated or aggravated by anything. She is worried that something serious is happening to her. She recently experienced conflict at home with her husband and left home the previous day to stay with her sister. She denies any medication or recreational drug use. Past medical history is unremarkable. Vital signs are within normal limits, except for a heart rate of 180 bpm. Electrocardiography shows narrow QRS complexes that are regularly spaced. There are no visible P waves preceding the QRS complexes. Carotid sinus massage results in recovery of normal sinus rhythm.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Tachycardia
Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) is a sudden-onset tachycardia with a heart rate of 180 bpm, regularly spaced narrow QRS complexes, and no visible P waves preceding the QRS complexes. Carotid sinus massage or adenosine administration can diagnose PSVT, which is commonly caused by atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia.
Sinus tachycardia is characterized by normal P waves preceding each QRS complex. Atrial flutter is less common than atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia and generally does not respond to carotid massage. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by irregularly spaced QRS complexes and does not respond to carotid massage. Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia is associated with wide QRS complexes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of palpitations. Upon examination, her pulse rate is found to be 180 bpm and she appears warm and well perfused. Her blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg, respiratory rate is 20/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on air. Chest auscultation reveals no signs of cardiac failure, but an ECG shows a narrow complex tachycardia. Despite attempts at carotid massage and Valsalva manoeuvre, the rhythm disturbance persists. What is the appropriate initial management?
Your Answer: DC cardioversion
Correct Answer: IV adenosine
Explanation:Management of Narrow Complex Supraventricular Tachycardia
When a patient presents with narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia, the initial management would be to administer IV adenosine, provided there are no contraindications such as asthma. This medication creates a transient conduction delay, which may terminate the tachycardia or slow down the heart rate enough to identify the underlying rhythm. This information is crucial in determining the optimal antiarrhythmic therapy for the patient.
However, if the patient experiences chest pain, hypotension, SBP <90 mmHg, or evidence of cardiac failure, then DC cardioversion would be necessary. It is important to note that if the patient is not haemodynamically compromised, IV adenosine is the preferred initial management for narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage this condition and provide the best possible care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A patient in their 60s with idiopathic pericarditis becomes increasingly unwell, with hypotension, jugular venous distention and muffled heart sounds on auscultation. Echocardiogram confirms a pericardial effusion.
At which of the following sites does this effusion occur?Your Answer: Between the visceral pericardium and the myocardium
Correct Answer: Between the visceral pericardium and the parietal pericardium
Explanation:Understanding the Site of Pericardial Effusion
Pericardial effusion is a condition where excess fluid accumulates in the pericardial cavity, causing compression of the heart. To understand the site of pericardial effusion, it is important to know the layers of the pericardium.
The pericardium has three layers: the fibrous pericardium, the parietal pericardium, and the visceral pericardium. The pericardial fluid is located in between the visceral and parietal pericardium, which is the site where a pericardial effusion occurs.
It is important to note that pericardial effusion does not occur between the parietal pericardium and the fibrous pericardium, the visceral pericardium and the myocardium, the fibrous pericardium and the mediastinal pleura, or the fibrous pericardium and the central tendon of the diaphragm.
In summary, pericardial effusion occurs at the site where pericardial fluid is normally produced – between the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium. Understanding the site of pericardial effusion is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 60-year-old man presents to cardiology outpatients after being lost to follow-up for 2 years. He has a significant cardiac history, including two previous myocardial infarctions, peripheral vascular disease, and three transient ischemic attacks. He is also a non-insulin-dependent diabetic. Upon examination, his JVP is raised by 2 cm, he has peripheral pitting edema to the mid-calf bilaterally, and bilateral basal fine inspiratory crepitations. His last ECHO, which was conducted 3 years ago, showed moderately impaired LV function and mitral regurgitation. He is currently taking bisoprolol, aspirin, simvastatin, furosemide, ramipril, and gliclazide. What medication could be added to improve his prognosis?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Heart Failure Medications: Prognostic and Symptomatic Benefits
Heart failure is a prevalent disease that can be managed with various medications. These medications can be divided into two categories: those with prognostic benefits and those with symptomatic benefits. Prognostic medications help improve long-term outcomes, while symptomatic medications provide relief from symptoms.
Prognostic medications include selective beta-blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin II antagonists, and spironolactone. In the RALES trial, spironolactone was shown to reduce all-cause mortality by 30% in patients with heart failure and an ejection fraction of less than 35%.
Symptomatic medications include loop diuretics, digoxin, and vasodilators such as nitrates and hydralazine. These medications provide relief from symptoms but do not improve long-term outcomes.
Other medications, such as nifedipine, sotalol, and naftidrofuryl, are used to manage other conditions such as angina, hypertension, and peripheral and cerebrovascular disorders, but are not of prognostic benefit in heart failure.
Treatment for heart failure can be tailored to each individual case, and heart transplant remains a limited option for certain patient groups. Understanding the benefits and limitations of different medications can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about the best course of treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 54-year-old man, with a family history of ischaemic heart disease, has been diagnosed with angina. His total cholesterol level is 6.5 mmol/l. He has been prescribed a statin and given dietary advice. What dietary modification is most likely to lower his cholesterol level?
Your Answer: Replace saturated fats with polyunsaturated fats
Explanation:Lowering Cholesterol Levels: Dietary Changes to Consider
To lower cholesterol levels, it is important to make dietary changes. One effective change is to replace saturated fats with polyunsaturated fats. Saturated fats increase cholesterol levels, while unsaturated fats lower them. It is recommended to reduce the percentage of daily energy intake from fat, with a focus on reducing saturated fats. Increasing intake of foods such as pulses, legumes, root vegetables, and unprocessed cereals can also help lower cholesterol. Using a margarine containing an added stanol ester can increase plant stanol intake, which can also reduce cholesterol. However, reducing intake of dairy products and meat alone may not be as effective as replacing them with beneficial unsaturated fats. It is important to avoid replacing polyunsaturated fats with saturated fats, as this can raise cholesterol levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus presented to the Emergency Department with diaphoresis, severe central chest pain, and breathlessness. An ECG showed ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Where is the probable location of the responsible arterial stenosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:Coronary Arteries and Their Associated Leads
The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries. Each artery supplies a specific area of the heart and can be identified by the leads on an electrocardiogram (ECG).
The right coronary artery supplies the inferior part of the left ventricle, interventricular septum, and right ventricle. The circumflex artery predominantly supplies the left free wall of the left ventricle and would be picked up by leads I, aVL, and V5–6. The left anterior descending artery supplies the septum, apex, and anterior wall of the left ventricle and would be picked up by leads V1–4.
Proximal aortic stenosis is very rare and would cause problems of perfusion in distal organs before reducing enough blood supply to the heart to cause a myocardial infarction. The left main stem splits into both the circumflex and left anterior descending arteries. Acute occlusion at this location would be catastrophic and a person is unlikely to survive to hospital. It would be picked up by leads V1–6, I, and aVL.
Understanding the specific areas of the heart supplied by each coronary artery and their associated leads on an ECG can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old patient is evaluated in the Pre-Assessment Clinic before undergoing elective surgery for varicose veins. The patient is in good health, with the only significant medical history being well-controlled hypertension with lisinopril. During the examination, the clinician hears an early opening snap in diastole when listening to the patient's heart. What is the most probable cause of this finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Common Heart Murmurs and Their Characteristics
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here are some common heart murmurs and their characteristics:
Mitral Stenosis: This condition causes a mid-diastolic murmur that is best heard with the bell of the stethoscope over the apex while the patient is lying in the left lateral position. Severe mitral stenosis can also cause a quiet first heart sound and an early opening snap.
Pulmonary Stenosis: Pulmonary stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur.
Ventricular Septal Defect: This condition causes a pan-systolic murmur.
Mitral Valve Prolapse: Mitral valve prolapse may cause a mid-systolic click, followed by a late systolic murmur.
Right Bundle Branch Block: This condition is a cause of wide splitting of the second heart sound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A woman is evaluated in the Emergency Department for acute-onset shortness of breath. The doctor notices that the patient’s jugular veins distend when she inspires, even while sitting upright.
Which of the following processes could explain this observation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patient has constrictive pericarditis
Explanation:Understanding the Relationship between Neck Veins and Various Medical Conditions
The appearance of neck veins can provide valuable information about a patient’s health. Here are some examples of how different medical conditions can affect the appearance of neck veins:
1. Constrictive pericarditis: This condition restricts the heart’s ability to expand, leading to higher pressures within the right heart. This can cause jugular venous distension, which is more pronounced during inspiration (Kussmaul’s sign).
2. Dehydration: A decrease in intravascular blood volume can cause flattened neck veins.
3. Venous insufficiency: Incompetent venous valves can lead to venous stasis and pooling of blood in the lower extremities. This can cause syncope due to decreased venous return to the heart.
4. Budd-Chiari syndrome and hepatic vein thrombosis: These conditions involve blood clots in the hepatic vein or inferior vena cava, which prevent blood from returning to the right heart from the abdomen and lower extremities. This decreases the pressure in the right heart and allows blood to drain more easily from the jugular and neck veins, resulting in flattened neck veins.
Understanding the relationship between neck veins and various medical conditions can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is brought by ambulance to Accident and Emergency. He presents with central crushing chest pain and has ST-segment elevation present on an electrocardiogram (ECG). You are at a District General Hospital without access to percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), and you will not be able to transfer the patient across for PCI in time.
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to thrombolysis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brain neoplasm
Explanation:Relative and Absolute Contraindications to Thrombolysis
Thrombolysis is a treatment option for patients with ongoing cardiac ischemia and presentation within 12 hours of onset of pain. However, it is important to consider both relative and absolute contraindications before administering thrombolysis.
Cerebral neoplasm is the only absolute contraindication, while advanced liver disease, severe hypertension (not meeting absolute contraindication values), active peptic ulceration, and pregnancy or recent delivery are all relative contraindications.
Primary PCI is the preferred treatment option if available, but thrombolysis can be used as an alternative if necessary. The benefit of thrombolysis decreases over time, and a target time of less than 30 minutes from admission is recommended. Thrombolysis should not be given if the onset of pain is more than 24 hours after presentation.
It is important to carefully consider contraindications before administering thrombolysis to ensure patient safety and optimal treatment outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her Accident and Emergency with visual loss. She has known persistently uncontrolled hypertension, previously managed in the community. Blood tests are performed as follows:
Investigation Patient Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 148 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 2.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/
Chloride (Cl–) 100 mEq/l 96–106 mEq/l
What is the next most appropriate investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aldosterone-to-renin ratio
Explanation:Investigating Hypertension in a Young Patient: The Importance of Aldosterone-to-Renin Ratio
Hypertension in a young patient with hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia can be caused by renal artery stenosis or an aldosterone-secreting adrenal adenoma. To determine the cause, measuring aldosterone levels alone is not enough. Both renin and aldosterone levels should be measured, and the aldosterone-to-renin ratio should be evaluated. If hyperaldosteronism is confirmed, CT or MRI of the adrenal glands is done to locate the cause. If both are normal, adrenal vein sampling may be performed. MR angiogram of renal arteries is not a first-line investigation. Similarly, CT angiogram of renal arteries should not be the first choice. 24-hour urine metanephrine levels are not useful in this scenario. The electrolyte abnormalities point towards elevated aldosterone levels, not towards a phaeochromocytoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 65 year old man with a BMI of 29 was diagnosed with borderline hypertension during a routine check-up with his doctor. He is hesitant to take any medications. What dietary recommendations should be given to help lower his blood pressure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Consume a diet rich in fruits and vegetables
Explanation:Tips for a Hypertension-Friendly Diet
Maintaining a healthy diet is crucial for managing hypertension. Here are some tips to help you make the right food choices:
1. Load up on fruits and vegetables: Consuming a diet rich in fruits and vegetables can reduce blood pressure by 2-8 mmHg in hypertensive patients. It can also aid in weight loss, which further lowers the risk of hypertension.
2. Limit cholesterol intake: A reduction in cholesterol is essential for patients with ischaemic heart disease, and eating foods that are low in fat and cholesterol can reduce blood pressure.
3. Moderate alcohol consumption: Men should have no more than two alcoholic drinks daily to lower their risk of hypertension.
4. Eat oily fish twice a week: Eating more fish can help lower blood pressure, but having oily fish twice weekly is advised for patients with ischaemic heart disease, not hypertension alone.
5. Watch your sodium intake: Restricting dietary sodium is recommended and can lower blood pressure. A low sodium diet contains less than 2 g of sodium daily. Aim for a maximum of 7 g of dietary sodium daily.
By following these tips, you can maintain a hypertension-friendly diet and reduce your risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old man passed away from a massive middle cerebral artery stroke. He had no previous medical issues. Upon autopsy, it was discovered that his heart weighed 400 g and had normal valves and coronary arteries. The atria and ventricles were not enlarged. The right ventricular walls were normal, while the left ventricular wall was uniformly hypertrophied to 20-mm thickness. What is the probable reason for these autopsy results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Essential hypertension
Explanation:Differentiating Cardiac Conditions: Causes and Risks
Cardiac conditions can have varying causes and risks, making it important to differentiate between them. Essential hypertension, for example, is characterized by uniform left ventricular hypertrophy and is a major risk factor for stroke. On the other hand, atrial fibrillation is a common cause of stroke but does not cause left ventricular hypertrophy and is rarer with normal atrial size. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, which is more common in men and often has a familial tendency, typically causes asymmetric hypertrophy of the septum and apex and can lead to arrhythmogenic or unexplained sudden cardiac death. Dilated cardiomyopathies, such as idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy, often have no clear precipitant but cause a dilated left ventricular size, increasing the risk for a mural thrombus and an embolic risk. Finally, tuberculous pericarditis is difficult to diagnose due to non-specific features such as cough, dyspnoea, sweats, and weight loss, with typical constrictive pericarditis findings being very late features with fluid overload and severe dyspnoea. Understanding the causes and risks associated with these cardiac conditions can aid in their proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Examine the cardiac catheter data provided below for a patient. Which of the following clinical scenarios is most consistent with the given information?
Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg) End systolic/End diastolic
Superior vena cava 74 -
Inferior vena cava 72 -
Right atrium 73 5
Right ventricle 74 20/4
Pulmonary artery 74 20/5
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 15
Left ventricle 98 210/15
Aorta 99 125/75Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 17-year-old boy who presents after an episode of exercise-induced syncope
Explanation:Left Ventricular Pressure and Cardiac Conditions
Left ventricular pressures that exhibit a sharp decline between the LV and aortic systolic pressures are indicative of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. This condition is consistent with the catheter data obtained from the patient. However, the data are not consistent with other cardiac conditions such as cyanotic congenital heart disease, post-MI VSD or mitral regurgitation, mitral stenosis, or mitral regurgitation. Although aortic stenosis may also present with a left ventricular outflow obstruction, it is not typically associated with exercise-induced syncope. These findings suggest that the patient’s symptoms are likely due to hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old woman attends her general practice for a medication review. She is currently taking aspirin, simvastatin, atenolol, captopril and furosemide. The general practitioner (GP) performs an examination and notes an irregular pulse with a rate of 100 bpm. The GP makes a referral to the Cardiology Department with a view to establishing whether this woman’s atrial fibrillation (AF) is permanent or paroxysmal and to obtaining the appropriate treatment for her.
Which of the following is the most recognised risk factor for the development of AF?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:Understanding Risk Factors for Atrial Fibrillation
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, shortness of breath, and fatigue. It is most commonly associated with alcohol consumption, chest disease, and hyperthyroidism. Other risk factors include hypertension, pericardial disease, congenital heart disease, cardiomyopathy, valvular heart disease, and coronary heart disease. AF can be classified as paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent, and may be diagnosed incidentally through an electrocardiogram (ECG) finding.
Once diagnosed, management includes investigating with a 12-lead ECG, echocardiogram, and thyroid function tests. The main objectives are rate control, rhythm control, and reducing the risk of thromboembolic disease. Rhythm control can be achieved through electrical cardioversion or drug therapy, while rate control is managed using medications such as digoxin, β-blockers, or rate-limiting calcium antagonists. Warfarin is indicated for patients with risk factors for stroke, and the risk of ischaemic stroke is calculated using the CHADS2vasc scoring system. Novel oral anticoagulants are also available as an alternative to warfarin in certain patients.
While hyperthyroidism is a recognized risk factor for AF, obesity and smoking are also associated with an increased risk of developing the condition. Pneumothorax, however, is not a recognized risk factor for AF. Understanding these risk factors can help individuals take steps to reduce their risk of developing AF and manage the condition if diagnosed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with chest tightness. The tightness started about a day ago, however today it is worse and associated with shortness of breath and dizziness.
Upon examination, there is a slow rising carotid pulse and systolic murmur which radiates to carotids 3/6. Examination is otherwise unremarkable without calf tenderness. The patient does not have any significant past medical history apart from type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension which are both well controlled.
What is the best diagnostic investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Diagnostic Investigations for Cardiac Conditions
When a patient presents with signs and symptoms of a cardiac condition, various diagnostic investigations may be performed to determine the underlying cause. In the case of a patient with chest tightness, the first-line investigation is usually an electrocardiogram (ECG) to rule out acute coronary syndrome. However, if the patient is suspected of having aortic stenosis (AS), the best diagnostic investigation is an echocardiogram and Doppler to measure the size of the aortic valve. A normal aortic valve area is more than 2 cm2, while severe AS is defined as less than 1 cm2.
Other diagnostic investigations for cardiac conditions include a coronary angiogram to assess the patency of the coronary arteries and potentially perform an angioplasty to insert a stent if any narrowing is found. Exercise tolerance tests can also be useful in monitoring patients with a cardiac history and heart failure classification. However, a D-dimer test, which is used to diagnose pulmonary embolism, would not be indicated in a patient with suspected AS unless there were additional features suggestive of a pulmonary embolism, such as calf tenderness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain. The pain is exacerbated by lying down, relieved by sitting forward, and radiates to the left shoulder. He has recently undergone two cycles of radiotherapy for prostate cancer. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 96/52 mmHg (normal <120/80 mmHg), his jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated, and his pulse is 98 bpm, which appears to fade on inspiration. Heart sounds are faint. The electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals low-voltage QRS complexes.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent pericardiocentesis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing cardiac tamponade, which is caused by fluid in the pericardial sac compressing the heart and reducing ventricular filling. This is likely due to pericarditis caused by recent radiotherapy. Beck’s triad of low blood pressure, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds are indicative of tamponade. Urgent pericardiocentesis is necessary to aspirate the pericardial fluid using a 20 ml syringe and 18G needle under echocardiographic guidance. An ECG should be obtained to rule out MI and PE. GTN spray is used to manage MI, but it is not part of the treatment for tamponade. DC cardioversion is used for unstable cardiac arrhythmias, not tamponade. A fluid challenge with 1 liter of sodium chloride is not recommended as it may worsen the tamponade. LMWH is used to manage pulmonary embolus, but it is not appropriate for tamponade and may worsen the condition if the cause is haemopericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central crushing chest pain that spreads to his arm and jaw. Upon examination, his ECG reveals ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, with reciprocal changes in I and aVL. Based on this information, which of the following vessels is most likely obstructed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:Differentiating Myocardial Infarctions Based on ECG Changes
Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes can help differentiate the location of the MI and guide appropriate management. Here are the ECG changes expected in different types of MI:
Right Coronary Artery (RCA) Infarction: An inferior MI affects the RCA in 80% of cases, with ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, and reciprocal changes in leads I and aVL.
Left Circumflex Artery (LCX) Infarction: LCX infarction presents with ST elevation in leads I, aVL, V5, and V6 (lateral leads), and reciprocal changes in the inferior leads II, III, and aVF.
Left Coronary Artery (LCA) Infarction: If the clot is in the LCA before bifurcation, ST changes are expected in leads I, aVL, and V1–V6 (anterolateral leads).
Posterior Descending Artery (PDA) Infarction: PDA infarction gives ECG changes in keeping with a posterior MI, such as ST depression in the anterior leads.
Left Anterior Descending Artery (LAD) Infarction: LAD runs in the anterior of the heart, almost parallel to the septum, and then lateralizes. Therefore, in an LAD infarction, ST changes are expected in leads V1–V6 (anteroseptal leads).
In conclusion, recognizing the ECG changes in different types of MI can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with rheumatic fever has ongoing shortness of breath following her infection. You suspect she may have mitral stenosis.
What is the most suitable surface anatomical landmark to listen for this murmur?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: At the apex beat
Explanation:Surface Locations for Cardiac Auscultation
Cardiac auscultation is a crucial part of a physical examination to assess the heart’s function. The surface locations for cardiac auscultation are essential to identify the specific valve sounds. Here are the surface locations for cardiac auscultation:
1. Apex Beat: The mitral valve is best heard over the palpated apex beat. If it cannot be felt, then it should be assumed to be in the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line.
2. Fifth Intercostal Space, Mid-Axillary Line: This location is too lateral to hear a mitral valve lesion in a non-dilated ventricle.
3. Second Intercostal Space, Left of the Sternum: The pulmonary valve is located in the second intercostal space, left of the sternum.
4. Fourth Intercostal Space, Left of the Sternum: The tricuspid valve is located in the fourth intercostal space, left of the sternum.
5. Xiphisternum: The xiphisternum is not used as a marker for cardiac auscultation, though it is used to guide echocardiography for certain standard views.
Knowing the surface locations for cardiac auscultation is crucial to identify the specific valve sounds and assess the heart’s function accurately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of increasing exertional dyspnoea accompanied by bilateral peripheral oedema. He reports feeling extremely fatigued lately. During the physical examination, his lungs are clear, but he has ascites. On auscultation of his heart sounds, you detect a holosystolic murmur with a high pitch at the left sternal edge, extending to the right sternal edge. What is the probable reason for this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs and Symptoms
Tricuspid regurgitation is characterized by signs of right heart failure, such as dyspnea and peripheral edema, and a classical murmur. The backflow of blood to the right atrium leads to right heart dilation, weakness, and eventually failure, resulting in ascites and poor ejection fraction causing edema.
Mitral regurgitation has a similar murmur to tricuspid regurgitation but is heard best at the apex.
Aortic regurgitation is identified by an early diastolic decrescendo murmur at the left sternal edge.
Aortic stenosis does not typically result in ascites, and its murmur is ejection systolic.
Pulmonary stenosis is characterized by a mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur best heard over the pulmonary post and not a holosystolic murmur at the left sternal edge.
Understanding Heart Murmurs and Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of palpitations and shortness of breath. She is speaking in broken sentences and appears distressed, with visible sweating. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 70/30, heart rate 180 bpm, respiratory rate 28, and sats 98% on air. Upon auscultation, there are crepitations at both lung bases. The patient reports experiencing crushing chest pain during the assessment. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals a regular broad complex tachycardia. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sedation and synchronised direct current (DC) shock
Explanation:Management of Ventricular Tachycardia with a Pulse: Choosing the Right Intervention
When faced with a patient in ventricular tachycardia (VT) with a pulse, the presence of adverse signs is a crucial factor in determining the appropriate intervention. Adverse signs such as syncope, chest pain, heart failure, and altered consciousness indicate imminent risk of deterioration and potential cardiac arrest. In such cases, prompt direct current (DC) cardioversion is necessary, and sedation may be required if the patient is conscious.
While drug therapy may be an option in the absence of adverse signs, it is unlikely to work quickly enough in the presence of such signs. For instance, an amiodarone loading dose may not be effective in a patient with heart failure and shock. Similarly, beta blockers like iv metoprolol are not indicated in the acute management of VT with a pulse.
In contrast, immediate precordial thump has limited utility and is only indicated in a witnessed monitored cardiac arrest. A fluid challenge may be given, but it is unlikely to address the underlying problem. Therefore, in the presence of adverse signs, DC shock is the best option for managing VT with a pulse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with severe crushing pain in his chest and left shoulder that has been ongoing for 2 hours. Despite taking sublingual nitroglycerin, the pain persists, and his electrocardiogram shows ST elevation in multiple leads. Due to preexisting renal impairment, primary percutaneous intervention (PCI) is not an option, and he is started on medical management in the Coronary Care Unit. The following day, his serum cardiac enzymes are found to be four times higher than the upper limit of normal, and his electrocardiographic changes remain.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transmural infarction
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Myocardial Infarction and Angina
When a patient presents with elevated serum cardiac enzymes and typical myocardial pain, it is likely that a myocardial infarction has occurred. If the ST elevation is limited to a few leads, it is indicative of a transmural infarction caused by the occlusion of a coronary artery. On the other hand, severely hypotensive patients who are hospitalized typically experience a more generalized subendocardial infarction.
Unstable angina, which is characterized by chest pain at rest or with minimal exertion, does not cause a rise in cardiac enzymes or ST elevation. Similarly, Prinzmetal angina, which is caused by coronary artery spasm, would not result in a marked increase in serum enzymes.
Stable angina, which is chest pain that occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest or medication, is not associated with ST elevation or a rise in cardiac enzymes.
Subendocardial infarction, which affects most ECG leads, usually occurs in the setting of shock. It is important to differentiate between the different types of myocardial infarction and angina in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has been hospitalized with crushing chest pain. An ECG trace shows ischaemia of the inferior part of the heart. What is the term that best describes the artery or arterial branch that provides blood supply to the inferior aspect of the heart?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior interventricular branch
Explanation:Coronary Artery Branches and Circulation Dominance
The coronary artery is responsible for supplying blood to the heart muscles. It branches out into several smaller arteries, each with a specific area of the heart to supply. Here are some of the main branches of the coronary artery:
1. Posterior Interventricular Branch: This branch supplies the inferior aspect of the heart, with ischaemic changes presenting in leads II, III and aVF. In 90% of the population, it arises as a branch of the right coronary artery, while in 10%, it arises as a branch of the left coronary artery.
2. Circumflex Branch: This branch supplies the anterolateral area of the heart.
3. Left Coronary Artery: This artery gives off two branches – the left anterior descending artery supplying the anteroseptal and anteroapical parts of the heart, and the circumflex artery supplying the anterolateral heart. In 10% of the population, the left coronary artery gives off a left anterior interventricular branch that supplies the inferior part of the heart.
4. Marginal Branch: This branch is a branch of the right coronary artery supplying the right ventricle.
5. Right Coronary Artery: This artery branches out into the marginal artery and, in 90% of the population, the posterior interventricular branch. These individuals are said to have a right dominant circulation.
Understanding the different branches of the coronary artery and the circulation dominance can help in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old intravenous (IV) drug user presents with pyrexia (39.8 °C) and general malaise. On examination, you identify a pansystolic murmur at the lower left sternal edge. You also notice that he has vertical red lines running along his nails and he tells you that he has been experiencing night sweats.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infective endocarditis
Explanation:Distinguishing Infective Endocarditis from Other Conditions: A Guide for Medical Professionals
When a patient presents with a new murmur and pyrexia, it is important to consider infective endocarditis as a potential diagnosis until proven otherwise. To confirm the diagnosis, the patient should undergo cultures, IV antibiotics, an electrocardiogram (ECG), and an echocardiogram (ECHO). It is worth noting that intravenous drug users (IVDUs) are more likely to experience endocarditis of the tricuspid valve, which would produce a pan-systolic murmur.
It is important to distinguish infective endocarditis from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. For example, aortic stenosis would produce an ejection systolic murmur, and patients would not experience pyrexia, night sweats, or splinter hemorrhages. Similarly, mitral stenosis would produce a diastolic decrescendo murmur, and patients would not experience pyrexia or night sweats.
IVDU-associated hepatitis C would not explain the murmur, and a hepatitis C screening test would be necessary to confirm this diagnosis. Tricuspid regurgitation would explain the murmur, but not the pyrexia or night sweats. Therefore, the presence of these symptoms together would be most suggestive of an acute infective endocarditis.
In summary, when a patient presents with a new murmur and pyrexia, it is important to consider infective endocarditis as a potential diagnosis and rule out other conditions that may present with similar symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman attends a new patient health check at the General Practice surgery she has recently joined. She mentions she occasionally gets episodes of palpitations and light-headedness and has done so for several years. Her pulse is currently regular, with a rate of 70 bpm, and her blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg. A full blood count is sent, which comes back as normal. The general practitioner requests an electrocardiogram (ECG), which shows a widened QRS complex with a slurred upstroke and a shortened PR interval.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome
Explanation:Common Cardiac Conditions and Their ECG Findings
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is a condition that affects young people and is characterized by episodes of syncope and palpitations. It is caused by an accessory pathway from the atria to the ventricles that bypasses the normal atrioventricular node. The ECG shows a slurred upstroke to the QRS complex, known as a delta wave, which reflects ventricular pre-excitation. Re-entry circuits can form, leading to tachyarrhythmias and an increased risk of ventricular fibrillation.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is an inherited condition that presents in young adulthood and is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in the young. Symptoms include syncope, dyspnea, palpitations, and abnormal ECG findings, which may include conduction abnormalities, arrhythmias, left ventricular hypertrophy, and ST or T wave changes.
First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval and may be caused by medication, electrolyte imbalances, or post-myocardial infarction. It may also be a normal variant in young, healthy individuals.
Ebstein’s anomaly typically presents in childhood and young adulthood with fatigue, palpitations, cyanosis, and breathlessness on exertion. The ECG shows right bundle branch block and signs of atrial enlargement, such as tall, broad P waves.
Mobitz type II atrioventricular block is a type of second-degree heart block that is characterized by a stable PR interval with some non-conducted beats. It often progresses to complete heart block. Mobitz type I (Wenckebach) block, on the other hand, is characterized by a progressively lengthening PR interval, followed by a non-conducted beat and a reset of the PR interval back to a shorter value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old man has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath, tiredness, intermittent chest pain and leg swelling for the past 6 months. He recently underwent an echocardiogram as an outpatient which revealed evidence of heart failure. As the FY1 on the Medical Assessment Unit, you have been tasked with taking the patient's medical history. He has a history of hypertension and gout and is currently taking diltiazem (calcium-channel blocker) 60 mg po bd, furosemide (diuretic) 20 mg po od, Spironolactone 25mg od, allopurinol 100 mg po od, paracetamol 1 g po qds prn, and lisinopril 20 mg po od. Considering his likely diagnosis of heart failure, which medication should be discontinued?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diltiazem
Explanation:Medications for Heart Failure: Understanding their Effects
Heart failure is a complex condition that requires careful management, including the use of various medications. In this context, it is important to understand the effects of each drug and how they can impact the patient’s health. Here is a brief overview of some commonly used medications for heart failure and their effects:
Diltiazem: This calcium-channel blocker can be used to treat angina and hypertension. However, it is advisable to stop calcium-channel blockers in patients with heart disease, as they can reduce the contractility of the heart, exacerbating the condition.
Spironolactone: This drug can help alleviate leg swelling by reducing water retention. It is also one of the three drugs in heart failure that have been shown to reduce mortality, along with ACE inhibitors and b-blockers.
Allopurinol: This medication is used in the prevention of gout long term and has no detrimental effect on the heart.
Paracetamol: This drug does not have an effect on the heart.
Lisinopril: This ACE inhibitor is used in the treatment of hypertension and the prophylactic treatment of angina. Stopping this medication is likely to worsen heart failure. Like spironolactone and b-blockers, ACE inhibitors have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure, although the mechanisms behind this effect are not fully understood.
In summary, understanding the effects of medications for heart failure is crucial for optimizing patient care and improving outcomes. Healthcare providers should carefully consider each drug’s benefits and risks and tailor treatment to the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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