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  • Question 1 - A senior citizen visits her physician with a complaint of painful sensation on...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen visits her physician with a complaint of painful sensation on the outer part of her thigh. The doctor diagnoses her with meralgia paraesthetica.
      Which nerve provides sensation to the lateral aspect of the thigh?

      Your Answer: Femoral nerve

      Correct Answer: Branch of the lumbar plexus

      Explanation:

      Nerves of the Lower Limb: Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica and Other Neuropathies

      Meralgia paraesthetica is a type of entrapment neuropathy that affects the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh. This nerve arises directly from the lumbar plexus, which is a network of nerves located in the lower back. Compression of the nerve can cause numbness, tingling, and pain in the upper lateral thigh. Treatment options include pain relief and surgical decompression.

      While meralgia paraesthetica affects the lateral cutaneous nerve, other nerves in the lower limb have different functions. The pudendal nerve, for example, supplies sensation to the external genitalia, anus, and perineum, while the obturator nerve innervates the skin of the medial thigh. The sciatic nerve, on the other hand, innervates the posterior compartment of the thigh and can cause burning sensations and shooting pains if compressed. Finally, the femoral nerve supplies the anterior compartment of the thigh and gives sensation to the front of the thigh.

      Understanding the different nerves of the lower limb and the types of neuropathies that can affect them is important for diagnosing and treating conditions like meralgia paraesthetica. By working with healthcare professionals, individuals can find relief from symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.5
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  • Question 2 - Which of the following characteristics is absent in a corticospinal lesion? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following characteristics is absent in a corticospinal lesion?

      Your Answer: Cogwheel rigidity

      Explanation:

      Neurological Features of Extrapyramidal and Pyramidal Involvement

      Cogwheel rigidity is a characteristic of extrapyramidal involvement, specifically in the basal ganglia. This type of rigidity is commonly observed in individuals with parkinsonism. On the other hand, pyramidal (corticospinal) involvement is characterized by increased tone, exaggerated spinal reflexes, and extensor plantar responses. These features are distinct from Cogwheel rigidity and are indicative of a different type of neurological involvement. the differences between extrapyramidal and pyramidal involvement can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old female comes to the clinic with sudden onset of left foot...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female comes to the clinic with sudden onset of left foot drop. Upon examination, it is found that she has weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and eversion. There is also a loss of sensation over the dorsum of her foot. All reflexes are present and plantars flexor. Which nerve is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Peroneal Neuropathy

      Peroneal neuropathy is a condition that typically manifests as sudden foot drop. When a patient is examined, the weakness in the foot and ankle is limited to dorsiflexion of the ankle and toes, as well as eversion of the ankle. However, the ankle reflex (which is mediated by the tibial nerve) and the knee reflex (which is mediated by the femoral nerve) remain intact. In terms of sensory involvement, the lower two-thirds of the lateral leg and the dorsum of the foot may be affected.

      It is important to note that peroneal neuropathy is distinct from other nerve issues that may affect the lower leg and foot. For example, sciatic nerve problems may result in impaired knee flexion, while tibial nerve lesions may lead to weakness in foot flexion and pain on the plantar surface. By the specific symptoms and signs of peroneal neuropathy, healthcare providers can make an accurate diagnosis and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      58.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty swallowing, and unsteadiness of gait. Upon neurological assessment, he is found to have nystagmus with the quick phase towards the right side and ataxia of the right upper and lower limbs. He reports no hearing loss. There is a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the face, and the left side of the limbs and trunk. The patient exhibits drooping of the right side of the palate upon eliciting the gag reflex, as well as right-sided ptosis and miosis.

      Which vessel is most likely to be affected by thromboembolism given these clinical findings?

      Your Answer: The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      Arterial Territories and Associated Syndromes

      The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery is commonly associated with lateral medullary syndrome, which presents with symptoms such as palatal drooping, dysphagia, and dysphonia. The right anterior choroidal artery, which supplies various parts of the brain, can cause contralateral hemiparesis, loss of sensation, and homonymous hemianopia when occluded. Similarly, occlusion of the left anterior choroidal artery can result in similar symptoms. The right labyrinthine artery, a branch of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, can cause unilateral deafness and vertigo when ischemia occurs. Finally, the right anterior inferior cerebellar artery can lead to ipsilateral facial paresis, vertigo, nystagmus, and hearing loss, as well as facial hemianaesthesia due to trigeminal nerve nucleus involvement. Understanding these arterial territories and associated syndromes can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6514.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient attends the neurology clinic following a referral from the GP due...

    Incorrect

    • A patient attends the neurology clinic following a referral from the GP due to difficulty with eating and chewing food. A neurologist performs a cranial nerve assessment and suspects a lesion of the right trigeminal nerve.
      Which of the following is a clinical feature of a trigeminal nerve palsy in an elderly patient?

      Your Answer: Paralysis of the right buccinator muscle

      Correct Answer: Bite weakness on the right

      Explanation:

      Common Symptoms of Cranial Nerve Lesions

      Cranial nerves are responsible for various functions in the head and neck region. Damage to these nerves can result in specific symptoms that can help identify the location and extent of the lesion. Here are some common symptoms of cranial nerve lesions:

      1. Bite weakness on the right: The masticatory muscles are served by the motor branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. Therefore, weakness in biting on the right side can indicate damage to this nerve.

      2. Loss of taste in anterior two-thirds of the tongue: The facial nerve carries taste fibers from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Damage to this nerve can result in a loss of taste sensation in this region.

      3. Paralysis of the right buccinator muscle: The muscles of facial expression, including the buccinator, are supplied by the motor fibers carried in the facial nerve. Paralysis of this muscle on the right side can indicate damage to the facial nerve.

      4. Hyperacusis: The stapedius muscle, which is innervated by the facial nerve, helps dampen down loud noise by attenuating transmission of the acoustic signal in the middle ear. Damage to the facial nerve can result in hyperacusis, a condition where sounds are perceived as too loud.

      5. Loss of taste in posterior third of the tongue: The glossopharyngeal nerve supplies the posterior third of the tongue. Damage to this nerve can result in a loss of taste sensation in this region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and fever. During the examination, you observe that she is wearing sunglasses due to the bright lights worsening her headache. Kernig's sign is positive, and you suspect meningitis. Which of the following statements regarding the cranial meninges is accurate?

      Your Answer: A subdural haematoma lies in the plane between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Layers of the Meninges and Intracranial Hemorrhage

      The meninges are the three layers of protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord. The outermost layer is the dura mater, followed by the arachnoid mater, and the innermost layer is the pia mater. Each layer serves a specific function in protecting the central nervous system.

      Subdural hematomas occur between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, often as a result of venous bleeding. The pia mater is the outermost layer closest to the skull, while the dura mater consists of two layers and is richly innervated, causing pain when stretched. Extradural hematomas occur between the endosteal layer of the dura mater and the skull, often due to trauma and bleeding from the middle meningeal artery.

      Subarachnoid hematomas form on the outside of the dura mater and are caused by arterial bleeding in the subarachnoid space. Intracerebral bleeds occur within the brain parenchyma itself and are unrelated to the meninges.

      Understanding the various meningeal layers is crucial in identifying and treating different types of intracranial hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 58-year-old man visits his GP complaining of constant fatigue and frontal hair...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man visits his GP complaining of constant fatigue and frontal hair loss. He has a medical history of high blood pressure and asthma and takes salbutamol, amlodipine, and simvastatin. He appears to be in good health, and his neurological examination is unremarkable. The auto-antibody screen is negative, and his creatine kinase (CK) level is 1,000 U/l (normal range: 22-198 U/l). What is the most likely cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Rhabdomyolysis

      Correct Answer: Statin therapy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Differential Diagnosis of Elevated CK Levels

      Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels can indicate a variety of underlying conditions. When considering an elevated CK, it is important to take a detailed medication history as statin therapy, which is a common medication, can cause CK levels to rise in up to 5% of patients. Other common causes of mildly elevated CK include hypothyroidism, steroid use, and alcohol excess.

      Polymyositis is a potential differential diagnosis for a patient with elevated CK and fatigue, but it typically presents with objective proximal muscle weakness. The CK levels are often considerably higher than in the scenario described. Dermatomyositis, which features dermatological features alongside myositis, may present with papules on the hands, periorbital edema, flagellate erythema, or nailfold hemorrhages, none of which are present in this history.

      Extensive exercise can cause elevated CK levels, but it does not usually raise levels to the extent seen in this scenario. Rhabdomyolysis, which is a common cause of elevated CK, often occurs in elderly patients who have experienced a fall and long lie. However, there is no such history in this case, and CK levels in these patients are usually significantly higher.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of elevated CK levels requires a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, medication use, and presenting symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      87.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A senior citizen visits his GP with a complaint of left facial weakness....

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen visits his GP with a complaint of left facial weakness. He reports difficulty in removing food from his mouth while eating. Which muscle is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Masseter

      Correct Answer: Buccinator

      Explanation:

      Facial Nerve and its Branches: Muscles of Facial Expression

      The facial nerve, also known as the seventh cranial nerve, is responsible for providing motor function to the muscles of facial expression through its five branches: temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, and cervical. Additionally, it supplies special sensation, such as taste, through the chorda tympani.

      One of the muscles affected by a lesion of the facial nerve is the buccinator muscle, which is responsible for emptying food residue from the vestibule when it contracts. On the other hand, the temporalis, medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid, and masseter muscles are supplied by the mandibular nerve, a branch of the trigeminal nerve. Lesions of this nerve would not lead to facial paralysis.

      Understanding the facial nerve and its branches is crucial in diagnosing and treating facial paralysis and other related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      40.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In what way does an ion affect the overall membrane potential of a...

    Correct

    • In what way does an ion affect the overall membrane potential of a neuron?

      Your Answer: By its valence, concentration gradient and membrane permeability

      Explanation:

      The causes of clubbing are varied and complex. Clubbing is a medical condition that affects the fingers and toes, causing them to become enlarged and rounded. Although the exact cause of clubbing is not fully understood, it is commonly associated with respiratory, gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular disorders.

      Among the cardiovascular causes of clubbing, two main conditions stand out: infective endocarditis and tetralogy of Fallot. Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart disorder that is characterized by four malformations in the heart. These include ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, over-riding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy.

      As a result of these malformations, oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in the patient’s body, leading to low blood oxygen saturation. This can cause a range of symptoms, including sudden cyanosis followed by syncope, which is commonly referred to as tet spells in children. In older children, squatting can help relieve these symptoms by reducing circulation to the legs and relieving syncope.

      Understanding the causes of clubbing is important, particularly for medical examinations, as it can help identify underlying conditions that may require further investigation and treatment. By recognizing the signs and symptoms of clubbing, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and support to patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      97.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 48-year-old man presents with slurred speech. Upon examination, he displays bilateral partial...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man presents with slurred speech. Upon examination, he displays bilateral partial ptosis and frontal balding. Additionally, he experiences difficulty releasing his grip after shaking hands. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myotonia dystrophica

      Explanation:

      Myotonic Dystrophy: A Progressive Multi-System Disorder

      Myotonic dystrophy is a genetic disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is caused by a mutation in the DMPK gene on chromosome 19, which leads to a CTG repeat. The length of this repeat determines the age of onset and severity of symptoms. Myotonic dystrophy can affect skeletal muscles, the heart, gastrointestinal and uterine smooth muscles, the eyes, and the endocrine and central nervous systems.

      Symptoms of myotonic dystrophy include ptosis, frontal balding, cataracts, cardiomyopathy, impaired intellect, testicular atrophy, diabetes mellitus, and dysarthria. The age of onset can range from birth to old age, with some patients presenting with symptoms in late adulthood. There is no cure for the weakness that is the main cause of disability, but medications such as phenytoin, quinine, or procainamide may be helpful for myotonia.

      It is important to differentiate myotonic dystrophy from other conditions that present with similar symptoms. Myotonia congenita, for example, presents in childhood with myotonia but does not have the other features associated with myotonic dystrophy. Duchenne muscular dystrophy also presents in childhood and has a much shorter life expectancy. Eaton-Lambert syndrome and myasthenia gravis are other conditions that can cause weakness but do not have the characteristic features of myotonic dystrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      64.2
      Seconds

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Neurology (6/10) 60%
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