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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man is found to have a right-sided colon cancer and a significant family history of colorectal and ovarian cancer. Upon genetic testing, he is diagnosed with hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) caused by a mutation in the MSH2 gene. What is the role of this gene?
Your Answer: Signal transduction
Correct Answer: DNA mismatch repair
Explanation:Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of blood in his stools. The blood is bright red and occurs during defecation, but it is not painful. He has been feeling more tired lately, but he has not experienced night sweats, weight loss, loss of appetite, or changes in bowel habits.
The patient has a history of liver cirrhosis and underwent an oesophageal endoscopy two years ago, but he cannot recall the results. He is a known alcoholic and attends AA.
Upon examination, the patient appears pale with conjunctival pallor, and ascites is present.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Colorectal carcinoma
Correct Answer: Haemorrhoids
Explanation:Haemorrhoids in Portal Hypertension
A likely diagnosis for a patient with a history of portal hypertension, ascites, endoscopy, and cirrhotic liver is haemorrhoids. Portal hypertension causes pressure to be passed on to the middle and inferior rectal veins, leading to their dilation and the development of haemorrhoids. While haemorrhoids are common in the general population, significant blood loss is rare. However, in patients with established cirrhosis, large amounts of blood can be lost through these varices.
An anal fissure is unlikely in this case, as there is no history of straining or a low-fibre diet, and they are typically painful. While colorectal carcinoma is an important diagnosis to consider, painless bright fresh blood is more likely to be caused by haemorrhoids in patients with a strong history of portal hypertension. In malignancy, fresh blood is less common, and a change in bowel habit is often a prominent feature.
A perianal haematoma is a thrombosed haemorrhoid that typically presents with severe pain, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this case. The patient’s presentation of painless bleeding further supports the diagnosis of haemorrhoids in the context of portal hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gonorrhoeae and prescribed ceftriaxone. She later presents at the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, elevated white blood cell count, and signs of severe colitis. What is the most probable causative organism for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Campylobacter
Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile
Explanation:The correct answer is C. difficile, as it is the causative organism in pseudomembranous colitis that can occur after recent use of broad-spectrum antibiotics like ceftriaxone. These antibiotics can disrupt the gut flora, allowing C. difficile to thrive. Other antibiotics that can cause C. difficile include PPI, clindamycin, and fluoroquinolones.
Campylobacter, Escherichia coli, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are incorrect answers. Campylobacter infections are typically caused by undercooked chicken, untreated water, or international travel. E. coli infections are usually caused by contact with infected feces, unwashed foods, or unclean water. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a sexually transmitted disease that is spread through unprotected sex, not through recent use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. The patient in this case does not have symptoms of gonorrhoeae and there is no indication of unprotected sex after the antibiotic prescription.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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After an oesophagogastrectomy, the surgeons will connect the remaining oesophagus to the stomach. Which layer is not included in the composition of the oesophageal wall?
Your Answer: Muscularis propria
Correct Answer: Serosa
Explanation:Due to the absence of a serosa layer, the oesophageal wall may not provide a strong grip for sutures.
Anatomy of the Oesophagus
The oesophagus is a muscular tube that is approximately 25 cm long and starts at the C6 vertebrae, pierces the diaphragm at T10, and ends at T11. It is lined with non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium and has constrictions at various distances from the incisors, including the cricoid cartilage at 15cm, the arch of the aorta at 22.5cm, the left principal bronchus at 27cm, and the diaphragmatic hiatus at 40cm.
The oesophagus is surrounded by various structures, including the trachea to T4, the recurrent laryngeal nerve, the left bronchus and left atrium, and the diaphragm anteriorly. Posteriorly, it is related to the thoracic duct to the left at T5, the hemiazygos to the left at T8, the descending aorta, and the first two intercostal branches of the aorta. The arterial, venous, and lymphatic drainage of the oesophagus varies depending on the location, with the upper third being supplied by the inferior thyroid artery and drained by the deep cervical lymphatics, the mid-third being supplied by aortic branches and drained by azygos branches and mediastinal lymphatics, and the lower third being supplied by the left gastric artery and drained by posterior mediastinal and coeliac veins and gastric lymphatics.
The nerve supply of the oesophagus also varies, with the upper half being supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve and the lower half being supplied by the oesophageal plexus of the vagus nerve. The muscularis externa of the oesophagus is composed of both smooth and striated muscle, with the composition varying depending on the location.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse presents with recurrent epigastric pain. An OGD reveals the presence of varices in the lower esophagus. To prevent variceal bleeding, which medication would be the most suitable prophylactic option?
Your Answer: Omeprazole
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:A non-cardioselective β blocker (NSBB) is the appropriate medication for prophylaxis against oesophageal bleeding in patients with varices. NSBBs work by causing splanchnic vasoconstriction, which reduces portal blood flow. Omeprazole, warfarin, and unfractionated heparin are not suitable options for this purpose.
Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.
To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 73-year-old man with chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) is admitted to your ward. He presents with dyspnea and inability to lie flat. What physical examination findings would indicate a possible diagnosis of cor pulmonale, or right-sided heart failure secondary to COPD?
Your Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND)
Correct Answer: Smooth hepatomegaly
Explanation:Understanding Hepatomegaly and Its Common Causes
Hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver, which can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is cirrhosis, which can lead to a decrease in liver size in later stages. In this case, the liver is non-tender and firm. Malignancy, such as metastatic spread or primary hepatoma, can also cause hepatomegaly. In this case, the liver edge is hard and irregular. Right heart failure can also lead to an enlarged liver, which is firm, smooth, and tender. It may even be pulsatile.
Aside from these common causes, hepatomegaly can also be caused by viral hepatitis, glandular fever, malaria, abscess (pyogenic or amoebic), hydatid disease, haematological malignancies, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis.
Understanding the causes of hepatomegaly is important in diagnosing and treating the underlying condition. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman is suspected of having a femoral hernia. Where is it most likely to be clinically identifiable?
Your Answer: Mid point of the inguinal ligament
Correct Answer: Below and lateral to the pubic tubercle
Explanation:Femoral hernias emerge from the femoral canal situated below and to the side of the pubic tubercle. These hernias are more common in women due to their unique pelvic anatomy. Repairing femoral hernias is crucial as they pose a significant risk of strangulation.
Understanding the Femoral Canal
The femoral canal is a fascial tunnel located at the medial aspect of the femoral sheath. It contains both the femoral artery and femoral vein, with the canal lying medial to the vein. The borders of the femoral canal include the femoral vein laterally, the lacunar ligament medially, the inguinal ligament anteriorly, and the pectineal ligament posteriorly.
The femoral canal plays a significant role in allowing the femoral vein to expand, which facilitates increased venous return to the lower limbs. However, it can also be a site of femoral hernias, which occur when abdominal contents protrude through the femoral canal. The relatively tight neck of the femoral canal places these hernias at high risk of strangulation, making it important to understand the anatomy and function of this structure. Overall, understanding the femoral canal is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating potential issues related to this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a fall and head injury he sustained while walking home. He has a history of multiple similar admissions related to alcohol excess. During his hospital stay, his blood sugar levels remain consistently high and he appears disheveled. There is no significant past medical history.
What could be the probable reason for the patient's elevated blood glucose levels?Your Answer: Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: Destruction of islets of Langerhans cells
Explanation:Chronic pancreatitis can cause diabetes as it destroys the islet of Langerhans cells in the pancreas. This patient has a history of recurrent admissions due to alcohol-related falls, indicating excessive alcohol intake, which is the most common risk factor for chronic pancreatitis. A high sugar diet alone should not consistently elevated blood sugar levels if normal insulin control mechanisms are functioning properly. Gastrointestinal bleeding and the stress response to injury would not immediately raise blood sugar levels. In this case, the patient’s alcohol intake suggests chronic pancreatitis as the cause of elevated blood sugar levels rather than type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis
Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities.
Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays and CT scans are used to detect pancreatic calcification, which is present in around 30% of cases. Functional tests such as faecal elastase may also be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.
Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants. While there is limited evidence to support the use of antioxidants, one study suggests that they may be beneficial in early stages of the disease. Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of chronic pancreatitis is crucial for effective management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 57-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and type II diabetes presents to the emergency department with dull chest pain accompanied by sweating and nausea. He is promptly administered oxygen, aspirin, morphine, metoclopramide, atenolol, and nitrates.
Upon examination, angiography reveals significant blockage in all four coronary vessels. As a result, he is scheduled for an urgent coronary artery bypass graft, which will necessitate the removal of a vein from his lower limb.
Which nerve is most frequently affected during a vein harvest for CABG?Your Answer: Saphenous nerve
Explanation:During a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), the great saphenous vein is often harvested. However, this procedure can lead to damage of the saphenous nerve, which runs closely alongside the vein in the medial aspect of the leg. Saphenous neuralgia, characterized by numbness, heightened sensitivity, and pain in the saphenous nerve distribution area, can result from such injury. Other nerves are not typically affected during a vein harvest for CABG.
During surgical procedures, there is a risk of nerve injury caused by the surgery itself. This is not only important for the patient’s well-being but also from a legal perspective. There are various operations that carry the risk of nerve damage, such as posterior triangle lymph node biopsy, Lloyd Davies stirrups, thyroidectomy, anterior resection of rectum, axillary node clearance, inguinal hernia surgery, varicose vein surgery, posterior approach to the hip, and carotid endarterectomy. Surgeons must have a good understanding of the anatomy of the area they are operating on to minimize the incidence of nerve lesions. Blind placement of haemostats is not recommended as it can also cause nerve damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of these lesions is most closely associated with Barrett's esophagus?
Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Adenocarcinoma is strongly linked to Barretts oesophagus, which elevates the risk of developing the condition by 30 times.
Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus. The most common presenting symptom is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss, vomiting, and other possible features such as odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, and cough.
To diagnose oesophageal cancer, upper GI endoscopy with biopsy is used, and endoscopic ultrasound is preferred for locoregional staging. CT scanning of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is used for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT may be used for detecting occult metastases if metastases are not seen on the initial staging CT scans. Laparoscopy is sometimes performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.
Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. In addition to surgical resection, many patients will be treated with adjuvant chemotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 11
Correct
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A 30-year-old male is diagnosed with carcinoid syndrome. What hormone is secreted by carcinoids?
Your Answer: Serotonin
Explanation:The rule of thirds for carcinoids is that one-third of cases involve multiple tumors, one-third affect the small bowel, and one-third result in metastasis or the development of a second tumor. It is important to note that carcinoids secrete serotonin, and carcinoid syndrome only occurs when there are liver metastases present, as the liver typically metabolizes the hormone released from primary lesions.
Carcinoid tumours are a type of cancer that can cause a condition called carcinoid syndrome. This syndrome typically occurs when the cancer has spread to the liver and releases serotonin into the bloodstream. In some cases, it can also occur with lung carcinoid tumours, as the mediators are not cleared by the liver. The earliest symptom of carcinoid syndrome is often flushing, but it can also cause diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and right heart valvular stenosis (or left heart involvement in bronchial carcinoid). Additionally, other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may be secreted, leading to conditions like Cushing’s syndrome. Pellagra, a rare condition caused by a deficiency in niacin, can also develop as the tumour diverts dietary tryptophan to serotonin.
To investigate carcinoid syndrome, doctors may perform a urinary 5-HIAA test or a plasma chromogranin A test. Treatment for the condition typically involves somatostatin analogues like octreotide, which can help manage symptoms like diarrhoea. Cyproheptadine may also be used to alleviate diarrhoea. Overall, early detection and treatment of carcinoid tumours can help prevent the development of carcinoid syndrome and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is receiving an angiogram to investigate gastrointestinal bleeding. During the procedure, the radiologist inserts the catheter into the coeliac axis. What is the usual spinal level where this vessel originates from the aorta?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: T12
Explanation:The coeliac axis is positioned at T12 and branches off the aorta at an almost horizontal angle. It comprises three significant branches.
Branches of the Abdominal Aorta
The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.
The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.
The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.
Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 13
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated for an abdominal mass. She delivered her first child vaginally and without any issues. Biopsy results indicate the presence of differentiated fibroblasts in sheets, which is indicative of a desmoid tumor. What is a potential risk factor for this type of tumor?
Your Answer: APC mutations
Explanation:Desmoid tumours are more likely to occur in individuals with APC mutations.
Pancreatic and hepatic cancer have been linked to CA-199.
Breast cancer is strongly linked to BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations.
Burkitt’s lymphoma, a high-grade B-cell neoplasm, is associated with translocation of the C-myc gene.
Desmoid tumours are growths that arise from musculoaponeurotic structures and are made up of clonal proliferations of myofibroblasts. They are typically firm and have a tendency to infiltrate surrounding tissue. These tumours are often seen in patients with familial adenomatous polyposis coli, and are most commonly found in women after childbirth in the rectus abdominis muscle. Bi allelic APC mutations are usually present in desmoid tumours.
The preferred treatment for desmoid tumours is radical surgical resection, although radiotherapy and chemotherapy may be considered in some cases. Non-surgical therapy is generally less effective than surgical resection. In certain cases of abdominal desmoids, observation may be preferred as some tumours may spontaneously regress. However, desmoids have a high likelihood of local recurrence. These tumours consist of sheets of differentiated fibroblasts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 14
Correct
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Which enzyme is primarily responsible for breaking down starch into sugars?
Your Answer: Amylase
Explanation:Amylase is an enzyme that converts starch into sugars.
Enzymes play a crucial role in the breakdown of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal system. Amylase, which is present in both saliva and pancreatic secretions, is responsible for breaking down starch into sugar. On the other hand, brush border enzymes such as maltase, sucrase, and lactase are involved in the breakdown of specific disaccharides. Maltase cleaves maltose into glucose and glucose, sucrase cleaves sucrose into fructose and glucose, while lactase cleaves lactose into glucose and galactose. These enzymes work together to ensure that carbohydrates are broken down into their simplest form for absorption into the bloodstream.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old boy with no significant medical history is brought to the ER by his mother due to a week-long crying spell and passing bright red stools. The patient cries loudly upon palpation of the right lower quadrant. Meckel's diverticulum is confirmed through a positive technetium-99m scan. What is the embryological source of this abnormality?
Your Answer: Fetal umbilical vein
Correct Answer: Omphalomesenteric duct
Explanation:The correct answer is omphalomesenteric duct, which is the precursor to Meckel’s diverticulum. Meckel’s diverticulum is a true diverticulum that forms due to the persistence of this duct and may contain gastric or pancreatic tissue. It is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract and can present with various symptoms.
Auerbach plexus is an incorrect answer. Its absence is associated with Hirschsprung disease or achalasia.
Fetal umbilical vein is also incorrect. It becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis within the falciform ligament of the liver.
Pleuroperitoneal membrane is another incorrect answer. A congenital defect in this structure can lead to a left-sided diaphragmatic hernia in infants.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum of the small intestine that is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. It occurs in 2% of the population, is 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve, and is 2 inches long. It is usually asymptomatic but can present with abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, or intestinal obstruction. Investigation includes a Meckel’s scan or mesenteric arteriography. Management involves removal if narrow neck or symptomatic, with options between wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically lined by ileal mucosa but ectopic gastric, pancreatic, and jejunal mucosa can also occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his doctor for the third time complaining of general fatigue and feeling mentally cloudy. Upon conducting another blood test, the doctor discovers that the patient has extremely low levels of vitamin B12. The diagnosis is pernicious anemia caused by antibodies against intrinsic factor. What are the cells in the gastrointestinal tract responsible for secreting intrinsic factor?
Your Answer: Chief cells
Correct Answer: Parietal cells
Explanation:The cause of pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune response that targets intrinsic factor and possibly gastric parietal cells, leading to their destruction. These cells are responsible for producing intrinsic factor, which is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine.
Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.
Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman experiences repeated episodes of biliary colic. How much bile enters the duodenum in a day, approximately?
Your Answer: 150 mL
Correct Answer: 500 mL
Explanation:The small bowel receives a daily supply of bile ranging from 500 mL to 1.5 L, with the majority of bile salts being reused through the enterohepatic circulation. The contraction of the gallbladder results in a lumenal pressure of around 25 cm water, which can cause severe pain in cases of biliary colic.
Bile is a liquid that is produced in the liver at a rate of 500ml to 1500mL per day. It is made up of bile salts, bicarbonate, cholesterol, steroids, and water. The flow of bile is regulated by three factors: hepatic secretion, gallbladder contraction, and sphincter of oddi resistance. Bile salts are absorbed in the terminal ileum and are recycled up to six times a day, with over 90% of all bile salts being recycled.
There are two types of bile salts: primary and secondary. Primary bile salts include cholate and chenodeoxycholate, while secondary bile salts are formed by bacterial action on primary bile salts and include deoxycholate and lithocholate. Deoxycholate is reabsorbed, while lithocholate is insoluble and excreted.
Gallstones can form when there is an excess of cholesterol in the bile. Bile salts have a detergent action and form micelles, which have a lipid center that transports fats. However, excessive amounts of cholesterol cannot be transported in this way and will precipitate, resulting in the formation of cholesterol-rich gallstones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 18
Correct
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Samantha is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing painless obstructive jaundice. Upon investigation, a malignancy is discovered. The surgeon recommends a Whipple's procedure to remove the malignancy.
What type of malignancy is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Ductal adenocarcinoma is the most frequently occurring type of pancreatic cancer, particularly in the head of the pancreas. Endocrine tumors of the pancreas are uncommon.
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.
Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.
Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe back pain and no medical history except for a penicillin allergy. Following an MRI, she is diagnosed with osteomyelitis and prescribed a 6-week course of two antibiotics. However, a few days into treatment, she reports abdominal pain and diarrhea. Stool samples reveal the presence of Clostridium difficile toxins, leading to a diagnosis of pseudomembranous colitis. Which antibiotic is the most likely culprit for causing the C. difficile colitis?
Your Answer: Gentamicin
Correct Answer: Clindamycin
Explanation:The use of clindamycin as a treatment is linked to a significant risk of developing C. difficile infection. This antibiotic is commonly associated with Clostridium difficile colitis. Doxycycline has the potential to cause sensitivity to sunlight and birth defects, while trimethoprim can lead to high levels of potassium in the blood and is also harmful to developing fetuses. Vancomycin, on the other hand, can cause red man syndrome and is among the medications used to treat Clostridium difficile colitis.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with a 6-day history of abdominal pain, nausea, severe diarrhoea, fever, and malaise. He had received treatment for community-acquired pneumonia with ceftriaxone 3 weeks ago which has since resolved. Upon examination, he displays a fever of 38.4°C and abdominal distension and tenderness. Blood tests reveal a raised white cell count, leading to suspicion of Clostridium difficile infection.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral vancomycin
Explanation:The recommended treatment for Clostridium difficile infections is antibiotics, with oral vancomycin being the first line option. IV metronidazole is only used in severe cases and in combination with oral vancomycin. Bezlotoxumab, a monoclonal antibody, may be used to prevent recurrence but is not currently considered cost-effective. Oral clarithromycin is not the preferred antibiotic for this type of infection. Conservative treatment with IV fluids and antipyretics is not appropriate and antibiotics should be administered.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A healthy 56-year-old woman attends her flexible sigmoidoscopy as part of the UK's national screening program. While performing the procedure, the surgeon observes and biopsies several polyps for further analysis. Additionally, the patient has multiple hyperpigmented macules on her lips.
During her follow-up visit, the patient is informed that the type of polyp found in her bowel increases her risk of developing cancers in other parts of her body.
What is the name of the benign colorectal tumor that the patient has?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peutz-Jeghers polyps
Explanation:Understanding Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of numerous hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract, particularly in the small bowel. In addition, patients with this syndrome may also have pigmented freckles on their lips, face, palms, and soles.
While the polyps themselves are not cancerous, individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of developing other types of gastrointestinal tract cancers. In fact, around 50% of patients will have died from another gastrointestinal tract cancer by the age of 60 years.
Common symptoms of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome include small bowel obstruction, which is often due to intussusception, as well as gastrointestinal bleeding. Management of this condition is typically conservative unless complications develop. It is important for individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome to undergo regular screening and surveillance to detect any potential cancerous growths early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A woman in her 50s presents to the emergency department with an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The coeliac trunk supplies the arterial blood to the upper gastrointestinal tract. However, which gastrointestinal structure receives its primary blood supply from the superior mesenteric artery instead of the coeliac trunk?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proximal jejunum
Explanation:The coeliac trunk provides blood supply to the foregut, which includes all structures from the gastro-oesophageal junction to the duodenal-jejunal flexure. However, the superior mesenteric artery’s jejunal branches supply blood to the entire jejunum.
Branches of the Abdominal Aorta
The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.
The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.
The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.
Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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During a sigmoid colectomy for colonic cancer in a 56-year-old man, which structure is most vulnerable to damage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left ureter
Explanation:The left ureter is the structure that is most commonly encountered and at the highest risk of damage by a careless surgeon, although all of these structures are at risk.
The colon begins with the caecum, which is the most dilated segment of the colon and is marked by the convergence of taenia coli. The ascending colon follows, which is retroperitoneal on its posterior aspect. The transverse colon comes after passing the hepatic flexure and becomes wholly intraperitoneal again. The splenic flexure marks the point where the transverse colon makes an oblique inferior turn to the left upper quadrant. The descending colon becomes wholly intraperitoneal at the level of L4 and becomes the sigmoid colon. The sigmoid colon is wholly intraperitoneal, but there are usually attachments laterally between the sigmoid and the lateral pelvic sidewall. At its distal end, the sigmoid becomes the upper rectum, which passes through the peritoneum and becomes extraperitoneal.
The arterial supply of the colon comes from the superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery, which are linked by the marginal artery. The ascending colon is supplied by the ileocolic and right colic arteries, while the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery. The descending and sigmoid colon are supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The venous drainage comes from regional veins that accompany arteries to the superior and inferior mesenteric vein. The lymphatic drainage initially follows nodal chains that accompany supplying arteries, then para-aortic nodes.
The colon has both intraperitoneal and extraperitoneal segments. The right and left colon are part intraperitoneal and part extraperitoneal, while the sigmoid and transverse colon are generally wholly intraperitoneal. The colon has various relations with other organs, such as the right ureter and gonadal vessels for the caecum/right colon, the gallbladder for the hepatic flexure, the spleen and tail of pancreas for the splenic flexure, the left ureter for the distal sigmoid/upper rectum, and the ureters, autonomic nerves, seminal vesicles, prostate, and urethra for the rectum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents with a sizable abdominal aortic aneurysm. While undergoing a laparotomy for scheduled surgical intervention, the medical team discovers that the aneurysm is situated much closer to the origin of the SMA. While dissecting the area, a transverse vessel running across the aorta sustains damage. What is the most probable identity of this vessel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left renal vein
Explanation:During the repair of a juxtarenal aneurysm, intentional ligation of the left renal vein may be necessary as it travels over the aorta.
The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the 12th thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the fourth lumbar vertebrae. It is located in the abdomen and is surrounded by various organs and structures. The posterior relations of the abdominal aorta include the vertebral bodies of the first to fourth lumbar vertebrae. The anterior relations include the lesser omentum, liver, left renal vein, inferior mesenteric vein, third part of the duodenum, pancreas, parietal peritoneum, and peritoneal cavity. The right lateral relations include the right crus of the diaphragm, cisterna chyli, azygos vein, and inferior vena cava (which becomes posterior distally). The left lateral relations include the fourth part of the duodenum, duodenal-jejunal flexure, and left sympathetic trunk. Overall, the abdominal aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to various organs in the abdomen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male presents with yellow discoloration of his skin. He reports having had the flu for the past week but is otherwise in good health. He vaguely remembers his uncle experiencing similar episodes of yellow skin. What is the probable diagnosis and what is the mode of inheritance for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Gilbert’s Syndrome is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. It causes unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia during periods of stress, such as fasting or infection.
Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.
To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man has been experiencing abdominal discomfort and distension for the past two days. He has not had a bowel movement in a week and has not passed gas in two days. He seems sluggish and has a temperature of 35.5°C. His pulse is 56 BPM, and his abdomen is not tender. An X-ray of his abdomen reveals enlarged loops of both small and large bowel. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudo-obstruction
Explanation:Pseudo-Obstruction and its Causes
Pseudo-obstruction is a condition that can be caused by various factors, including hypothyroidism, hypokalaemia, diabetes, uraemia, and hypocalcaemia. In the case of hypothyroidism, the slowness and hypothermia of the patient suggest that this may be the underlying cause of the pseudo-obstruction. However, other factors should also be considered.
It is important to note that pseudo-obstruction is a condition that affects the digestive system, specifically the intestines. It is characterized by symptoms that mimic those of a bowel obstruction, such as abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. However, unlike a true bowel obstruction, there is no physical blockage in the intestines.
To diagnose pseudo-obstruction, doctors may perform various tests, including X-rays, CT scans, and blood tests. Treatment options may include medications to stimulate the intestines, changes in diet, and surgery in severe cases.
Overall, it is important to identify the underlying cause of pseudo-obstruction in order to provide appropriate treatment and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following genes is not involved in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence of colorectal cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: src
Explanation:Additional genes implicated include MCC, DCC, c-yes, and bcl-2.
Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of cancer-related deaths. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with odynophagia and undergoes an upper GI endoscopy. During the procedure, a reddish area is observed protruding into the esophagus from the gastroesophageal junction. What is the most probable pathological cause for this phenomenon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metaplasia
Explanation:Metaplasia is the most probable diagnosis for this condition, indicating Barretts oesophagus. However, biopsies are necessary to rule out dysplasia.
Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.
The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.
The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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The action of which one of the following brush border enzymes leads to the production of glucose and galactose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lactase
Explanation:Enzymes play a crucial role in the breakdown of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal system. Amylase, which is present in both saliva and pancreatic secretions, is responsible for breaking down starch into sugar. On the other hand, brush border enzymes such as maltase, sucrase, and lactase are involved in the breakdown of specific disaccharides. Maltase cleaves maltose into glucose and glucose, sucrase cleaves sucrose into fructose and glucose, while lactase cleaves lactose into glucose and galactose. These enzymes work together to ensure that carbohydrates are broken down into their simplest form for absorption into the bloodstream.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male presents with sudden and severe abdominal pain. He has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease and takes nitrates, atenolol and amlodipine for it. Upon examination, his pulse is irregularly irregular and measures 115 bpm, his blood pressure is 104/72 mmHg, and his temperature is 37.4°C. The abdomen is diffusely tender and bowel sounds are absent. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mesenteric ischaemia
Explanation:Narrowing Down the Differential Diagnosis for Acute Abdomen
When presented with a patient experiencing an acute abdomen, the differential diagnosis can be extensive. However, by taking note of the key points in the patient’s history and conducting a thorough examination, one can narrow down the potential causes. In the case of a man with absent bowel sounds, atrial fibrillation, and a history of ischemic heart disease, the most likely cause of his presentation is mesenteric ischemia. This is due to the fact that he is not obstructed and has vascular disease. For further information on acute mesenteric ischemia, Medscape provides a helpful resource. By utilizing these tools and resources, healthcare professionals can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with acute abdominal symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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