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Question 1
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. They report that she has had an upper respiratory tract infection for the past few days. Upon arrival, she complains of an increased headache. Upon examination, she exhibits neck stiffness and a positive Kernig's sign.
The following investigations were conducted:
Investigation Result Normal value
White cell count (WCC) 16.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Creatinine 98 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Lumbar puncture Gram-negative diplococci –
What is the next step in management?Your Answer: Stat dose of cefotaxime
Explanation:Management of Meningococcal Meningitis in Children: Prioritizing Antibiotic Administration
Meningococcal meningitis is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent morbidity and mortality. The first step in management is administering a stat dose of third-generation cephalosporin antibiotics, such as cefotaxime or ceftriaxone, as early as possible after lumbar puncture. If lumbar puncture cannot be performed within 30 minutes of admission, empirical treatment should be considered.
While other interventions, such as intubation and mechanical ventilation, correction of electrolyte abnormalities, and imaging studies like CT or MRI scans, may be necessary at some point in management, they should not take precedence over administering antibiotics. Urgent CT or MRI scans are only indicated if there are clinical signs and symptoms of raised intracranial pressure or complications of meningitis.
In summary, the priority in managing meningococcal meningitis in children is administering antibiotics as early as possible to prevent the rapid dissemination of the disease and its associated morbidity and mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 14-month-old boy is referred to paediatrics by his GP due to concerns that he is still not attempting to 'pull to stand'. He was born at 28 weeks by emergency cesarean section due to foetal distress and weighed 1.2kg at birth.
On examination, he appears healthy and engaged. He responds to his name and has 8 meaningful words. He can drink from a cup using both hands. When put on the floor, he commando crawls to move around. Upper limb tone is normal however lower limb tone is significantly increased.
Based on this patient's symptoms, where in the brain/nervous system has damage occurred?Your Answer: Upper motor neurons in the periventricular white matter
Explanation:Damage to upper motor neurons is the cause of spastic cerebral palsy.
Understanding Cerebral Palsy
Cerebral palsy is a condition that affects movement and posture due to damage to the motor pathways in the developing brain. It is the most common cause of major motor impairment and affects 2 in 1,000 live births. The causes of cerebral palsy can be antenatal, intrapartum, or postnatal. Antenatal causes include cerebral malformation and congenital infections such as rubella, toxoplasmosis, and CMV. Intrapartum causes include birth asphyxia or trauma, while postnatal causes include intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, and head trauma.
Children with cerebral palsy may exhibit abnormal tone in early infancy, delayed motor milestones, abnormal gait, and feeding difficulties. They may also have associated non-motor problems such as learning difficulties, epilepsy, squints, and hearing impairment. Cerebral palsy can be classified into spastic, dyskinetic, ataxic, or mixed types.
Managing cerebral palsy requires a multidisciplinary approach. Treatments for spasticity include oral diazepam, oral and intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin type A, orthopedic surgery, and selective dorsal rhizotomy. Anticonvulsants and analgesia may also be required. Understanding cerebral palsy and its management is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is the causative agent of roseola in toddlers?
Your Answer: Parvovirus B19
Correct Answer: Human herpes virus 6
Explanation:Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.
In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.
It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 3-month-old baby was brought to the emergency department three days ago with a purpuric rash, fever, vomiting, and reduced wet nappies. During the assessment, the baby had a seizure which resolved on its own. The baby was admitted and tested for meningitis. A lumbar puncture was done and the laboratory results showed elevated protein levels, increased white cells, and a gram-positive organism. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this infant?
Your Answer: IV amoxicillin and IV cefotaxime
Explanation:In the case of suspected or confirmed bacterial meningitis in children under 3 months old, corticosteroids should not be used. For an infant with lumbar puncture results indicating bacterial meningitis, a combination of IV amoxicillin and IV cefotaxime is the appropriate antibiotic choice to cover both gram positive and gram negative bacteria until a specific pathogen is identified. Prescribing only amoxicillin would not provide sufficient coverage. It is crucial to administer antibiotics in this situation and not withhold treatment.
Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A father brings his 7-year-old daughter to the GP. The father reports that he has been struggling to manage his daughter's behaviour. He describes instances of her not following instructions, arguing frequently, and even getting into physical altercations. The GP refers the daughter to a paediatrician who may consider starting her on methylphenidate. What is a potential side effect of this medication?
Your Answer: Stunted growth
Explanation:Methylphenidate may cause stunted growth as a side effect.
A small percentage of patients taking methylphenidate may experience restricted growth, which is believed to be caused by a decrease in appetite. It is recommended that patients under the age of 10 have their weight and height monitored regularly. Other potential side effects of this medication include insomnia, weight loss, anxiety, nausea, and pain.
In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.
NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.
Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.
As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A concerned father brings his 6-year-old daughter to see the GP, worried about her walking and balance. The child learned to walk around 2 years old, much the same as her older brother. However, over the last few months, her dad has noticed that she has become reluctant to walk and often trips or falls when she does.
On examination, the child is of average build but has disproportionately large calves. When asked to walk across the room she does so on her tiptoes. Gowers test is positive.
What investigation is considered most appropriate to confirm the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Genetic analysis
Explanation:A diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) can now be made through genetic testing instead of a muscle biopsy. The symptoms and history described strongly suggest DMD, which is a genetic disorder that causes muscle wasting and weakness. Classic features of DMD include calf hyperplasia and a positive Gowers test. Most individuals with DMD will require a wheelchair by puberty, and management is primarily conservative. CT imaging of the legs is not typically used for diagnosis, and while a high creatine kinase can indicate muscular dystrophy in children, genetic testing is more definitive. Muscle function testing is useful for monitoring disease progression but not for initial diagnosis.
Understanding Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It affects the dystrophin genes that are essential for normal muscular function. The disorder is characterized by progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Other features include calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when a child uses their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.
To diagnose Duchenne muscular dystrophy, doctors typically look for elevated levels of creatinine kinase in the blood. However, genetic testing has now replaced muscle biopsy as the preferred method for obtaining a definitive diagnosis. Unfortunately, there is currently no effective treatment for Duchenne muscular dystrophy, so management is largely supportive.
The prognosis for Duchenne muscular dystrophy is poor. Most children with the disorder are unable to walk by the age of 12 years, and patients typically survive to around the age of 25-30 years. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is also associated with dilated cardiomyopathy, which can further complicate the management of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl is brought to the attention of a psychiatrist by her father with complaints of difficulty concentrating at home and at school. She is reported by the teachers to be easily distracted which is adversely affecting her learning. She also shows repeated outbursts of anger and her father thinks she has 'too much energy'. The psychiatrist diagnoses her with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and starts her on methylphenidate (Ritalin).
What parameter must be monitored every 6 months in this patient?Your Answer: Weight and height
Explanation:Regular monitoring of weight and height is recommended every 6 months for patients taking methylphenidate, a stimulant medication. This is important as the drug may cause appetite suppression and growth impairment in children. Additionally, blood pressure and pulse should also be monitored regularly.
In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.
NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.
Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.
As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 4-month old baby presents with a murmur and cyanosis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Correct Answer: Fallot's tetralogy
Explanation:Causes of Cyanotic Congenital Cardiac Disease
Cyanotic congenital cardiac disease is a condition that causes a lack of oxygen in the body, resulting in a blue or purple discoloration of the skin. The most common cause of this condition that does not present in the first few days of life is Fallot’s tetralogy. However, transposition of the great arteries is almost as common, but it presents in the first few days. Other causes of cyanotic congenital cardiac disease include tricuspid atresia, single ventricle, and transposition of the great vessels. As the condition progresses, Eisenmenger’s syndrome may develop due to the switch to right to left flow associated with deteriorating VSD. It is important to identify and treat these conditions early to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her parents after she was woken up from sleep at night with unilateral jerking movements of the left face and upper limb lasting for 2 minutes. During the episode, she did not lose consciousness. This has only happened once before a few nights ago.
A neurological examination is unremarkable, and her temperature is 37.5ºC and her heart rate is 90 bpm. She is slightly drowsy. Another episode occurs and an EEG is performed, which shows centrotemporal spikes.
She has no past medical history.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
Correct Answer: Benign rolandic epilepsy
Explanation:The child’s symptoms and medical history suggest that they have benign rolandic epilepsy, which is characterized by partial seizures occurring at night. This type of epilepsy typically affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 and is confirmed by an EEG showing centrotemporal spikes. The seizures originate from the central sulcus of the brain in a region called the Rolandic fissure. Although the child is drowsy, postictal states can occur in benign rolandic epilepsy as well. The prognosis for this condition is usually excellent, with most children outgrowing it. Febrile convulsions, generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy, and infantile spasms are not applicable to this case.
Benign rolandic epilepsy is a type of epilepsy that usually affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. This condition is characterized by seizures that typically occur at night and are often partial, causing sensations in the face. However, these seizures may also progress to involve the entire body. Despite these symptoms, children with benign rolandic epilepsy are otherwise healthy and normal.
Diagnosis of benign rolandic epilepsy is typically confirmed through an electroencephalogram (EEG), which shows characteristic centrotemporal spikes. Fortunately, the prognosis for this condition is excellent, with seizures typically ceasing by adolescence. While the symptoms of benign rolandic epilepsy can be concerning for parents and caregivers, it is important to remember that this condition is generally not associated with any long-term complications or developmental delays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant comes for a routine antenatal check-up. During her last visit, she was advised to get vaccinated but cannot recall which ones. She has received all her childhood and school vaccinations but has not had any immunizations since becoming pregnant. What vaccines should be offered to her?
Your Answer: influenzae and hepatitis B vaccine
Correct Answer: Pertussis and influenzae vaccine
Explanation:Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks should be offered both influenzae and pertussis vaccines to protect the foetus and prevent the spread of pertussis. A hepatitis B booster is not necessary with either vaccine.
Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.
Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.
Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.
To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.
Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.
Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old infant is brought to the ward following a visit to the emergency department due to seizures. The parents present a video of the contractions that seem to resemble colic. They also express worry about their child's development, noting a change. An EEG and MRI head are conducted, revealing hypsarrhythmia and an abnormality, respectively. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Infantile colic
Correct Answer: West's syndrome
Explanation:West’s syndrome is characterized by infantile spasms, which can be mistaken for colic by families. However, it is crucial to recognize that there is an underlying pathology indicated by abnormal EEG and MRI results, with hypsarrhythmia being a classic feature of West’s syndrome. While seizures in babies may resemble infantile colic or pseudo seizures, the presence of abnormal EEG readings confirms a brain pathology. There is no evidence of infection or fever to suggest febrile convulsions. Partial seizures with sensory auras are often associated with temporal lobe seizures.
Understanding Infantile Spasms
Infantile spasms, also known as West syndrome, is a form of epilepsy that typically occurs in infants between 4 to 8 months old, with a higher incidence in male infants. This condition is often associated with a serious underlying condition and has a poor prognosis. The characteristic feature of infantile spasms is the salaam attacks, which involve the flexion of the head, trunk, and arms followed by the extension of the arms. These attacks last only 1-2 seconds but can be repeated up to 50 times.
Infants with infantile spasms may also experience progressive mental handicap. To diagnose this condition, an EEG is typically performed, which shows hypsarrhythmia in two-thirds of infants. Additionally, a CT scan may be used to identify any diffuse or localized brain disease, which is present in 70% of cases, such as tuberous sclerosis.
Unfortunately, infantile spasms carry a poor prognosis. However, there are treatment options available. Vigabatrin is now considered the first-line therapy, and ACTH is also used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a 3-month-old infant who has a significant, solitary ventricular septal defect (VSD). What clinical manifestation might be observed?
Your Answer: Quiet P2 component
Correct Answer: Laterally displaced apex beat
Explanation:Painless haematuria, or blood in the urine, is the most common symptom reported by individuals with bladder cancer.
This should be taken seriously and prompt a thorough history and examination, with a view for urgent referral to urology.
Other indicators include smoking, a palpable mass, and occupational exposure to aniline dyes.
However, the latter is becoming increasingly rare.
Age is also a factor, with men over the age of 50 having a greater risk.It is important to note that alcohol intake is not linked to bladder cancer, but smoking has a very strong association.
In terms of occupation, those who work with aniline dyes and rubber are more predisposed to bladder cancer.
On the other hand, urinary frequency is a non-specific symptom that can occur in prostate conditions and urinary tract infections, and therefore would not in isolation point to bladder cancer.In summary, the indicators of bladder cancer is crucial in identifying and treating the disease early on.
Painless haematuria, smoking, a palpable mass, and occupational exposure to aniline dyes are all factors to consider, while age and alcohol intake are less significant.
It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are present. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl has been referred to the enuresis clinic by her pediatrician due to ongoing bedwetting. Her mother has expressed concern as the girl has never had a dry night. The pediatrician has provided advice on diet, fluid intake, and toileting habits, but the bedwetting persists despite the use of a reward system. The mother has contacted the enuresis clinic for further intervention. What is the likely intervention that will be provided?
Your Answer: Desmopressin
Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm
Explanation:When a child experiences nocturnal enuresis, an enuresis alarm is typically the first option if general advice has not been effective. According to NICE guidelines, this is the primary approach. It may be worthwhile to consider a more appealing reward system to motivate the child, as they may not be incentivized if the prize is not deemed valuable. However, it is assumed that the mother can adequately motivate their child, so this may not be the chosen route for the clinic. If the initial intervention is unsuccessful, it is unlikely that repeating it will yield different results. If the enuresis alarm is not effective, pharmacological interventions such as desmopressin, oxybutynin, and unlicensed tolterodine may be considered, with desmopressin being the usual choice.
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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As a junior doctor at a pediatric clinic, your next patient is a 4-year-old boy who appears agitated and tearful. His mother reports that he has been eating less than usual for the past few days. During your examination, you observe numerous blisters on his palms and around his lips. Additionally, he has a fever. What is the best course of action based on the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Send blood cultures
Correct Answer: Advise symptomatic treatment only
Explanation:Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral illness caused by the coxsackievirus A16. It is easily spread between children, especially at nurseries, and is self-limiting. The child may experience some general malaise, but the vesicles do not cause discomfort. It is important to differentiate from chicken pox, as the lesions are isolated to the palms, soles, and mouth and heal without crusting. A stat dose of benzylpenicillin is not necessary, as the lesions are vesicles rather than a rash. Blood cultures are not needed, as they will not affect the management of the disease. Steroids, whether in cream or oral form, are not a recognized treatment for hand, foot and mouth disease. Hydrocortisone cream may be considered for an eczematous rash, but it is not appropriate for this diagnosis.
Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children
Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries. The symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, as well as oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.
Symptomatic treatment is the only management option for hand, foot and mouth disease. This includes general advice about hydration and analgesia, as well as reassurance that there is no link to disease in cattle. Children do not need to be excluded from school, but the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better. If there is a suspected large outbreak, it is advised to contact the Health Protection Agency for further guidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 4-month-old is brought to the emergency department with a suspected UTI and responds well to antibiotics within 48 hours. An ultrasound may be necessary to determine if this is a typical or atypical UTI. What is the most common indicator of an atypical UTI?
Your Answer: Poor urine flow
Explanation:If an infant under 6 months shows signs of an atypical UTI, it is important to schedule an ultrasound scan during their acute admission. Atypical UTI may be indicated by symptoms such as poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to appropriate antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms. However, raised white blood cells alone do not necessarily indicate septicaemia, and abdominal pain is a common symptom of UTI but does not necessarily indicate an atypical UTI.
Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. Presentation in childhood depends on age, with infants showing poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, younger children showing abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria, and older children showing dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. NICE guidelines recommend checking urine samples in children with symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, unexplained fever of 38°C or higher, or an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell. Urine collection should be done through clean catch or urine collection pads, and invasive methods should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible. Management includes referral to a paediatrician for infants less than 3 months old, admission to hospital for children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI, and oral antibiotics for 3-10 days for children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 6-year-old boy that has been brought in by his mother with a sudden onset of fever and a sore throat this morning. His mother informs you that he is prone to tonsillitis and would like some antibiotics as they had worked well previously.
On examination he is alert, sitting upright and unaided with a slight forward lean. He has a temperature of 38.5 ºC, heart rate of 130/min, respiratory rate is normal. There is no cyanosis or use of accessory muscles, but you do note a mild inspiratory fine-pitched stridor.
What would be the most appropriate next course of action?Your Answer: Examine her throat, calculate her CENTOR score and discuss possible admission with the on call paediatrician
Correct Answer: Arrange an urgent admission to hospital
Explanation:If acute epiglottitis is suspected, do not attempt to examine the throat. Instead, contact the paediatrician on call and arrange for the child to be reviewed and admitted to the hospital on the same day. This condition can be life-threatening and requires urgent assessment and treatment in secondary care. Hospital transfer should be done by a blue light ambulance. Treatment usually involves intravenous antibiotics after securing the airway, which may require intubation. Nebulised adrenaline may also be used to stabilise the airway, and intravenous steroids are often given. It would be clinically unsafe to advise expectant management or prescribe immediate or delayed antibiotics for this condition.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl is brought to the Accident and Emergency department by her parents. On a background of high-grade fever and lethargy over the last 12 hours, the child had an episode of jerking of the limbs, frothing at the mouth and incontinence of urine. She has failed to recover full consciousness after the episode. At presentation, she is poorly responsive to name-calling, but responsive to pain. She is however maintaining her airway and oxygen saturation is 95% on air. Limited neurological examination is unremarkable. Non-contrast computerised tomography (CT) scan of the brain is normal. Lumbar puncture is performed and reveals a slightly raised opening pressure, moderately increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein, CSF lymphocytosis and normal glucose.
What is the most important step in management?Your Answer: IV acyclovir
Explanation:The child in question is suffering from viral encephalitis, which is typically treated with IV acyclovir. The recommended dosage is 5 mg/kg every 8 hours for 5 days, or 10 mg/kg every 8 hours for at least 14 days in cases of encephalitis. Encephalitis should be suspected when a patient presents with altered behavior, decreased consciousness, focal neurology, or seizures, along with a viral prodrome of fever and lethargy. The most common cause of encephalitis is the herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1), with other common causes including cytomegalovirus (CMV), Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), and Japanese encephalitis. Diagnostic tests should include a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, inflammatory markers, blood glucose, blood cultures, and serum for viral polymerase chain reaction (PCR). A CT scan of the brain is necessary to rule out structural brain lesions and raised intracranial pressure. Lumbar puncture is then performed. Mortality in untreated viral encephalitis is high, so IV acyclovir should be started within 30 minutes of the patient arriving. Intubation and ventilation may be necessary in severe cases, but in this case, acyclovir is the most appropriate treatment. While MRI may aid in diagnosis, CSF analysis is sufficient, and IV cefotaxime and IV mannitol are not the most urgent steps in management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 4-day-old male infant is presenting with progressive abdominal distension. He has not had a bowel movement since birth. Digital rectal examination results in the expulsion of explosive feces. No additional information is obtained from abdominal examination or blood tests.
What is the conclusive measure for diagnosis?Your Answer: Contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
Correct Answer: Suction-assisted full-thickness rectal biopsies
Explanation:Diagnostic Procedures for Hirschsprung’s Disease
Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that causes functional intestinal obstruction due to the absence of ganglion cells in the distal colon. Diagnosis of this condition requires specific diagnostic procedures. One such procedure is suction-assisted full-thickness rectal biopsies, which demonstrate the lack of ganglion cells in Auerbach’s plexus. Other diagnostic procedures, such as contrast-enhanced CT scans, ultrasound of the hernial orifices, upper GI fluoroscopy studies, and sigmoidoscopy with rectal mucosal biopsies, are not as effective in diagnosing Hirschsprung’s disease. It is important to accurately diagnose this condition to ensure appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 4-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents as they are concerned about a possible heart condition. The baby was born full-term and has had no major health issues except for a mild cold. After examining the child, the consultant paediatrician suspects the presence of a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).
What is a clinical feature that would indicate the presence of a PDA in this infant?Your Answer: Right-to-left shunting
Correct Answer: Wide pulse pressure
Explanation:Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is a condition where the ductus arteriosus fails to close, causing a left-to-right shunt of blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery. This can lead to a spectrum of clinical effects, including a continuous murmur, increased pressure in diastole, and widened pulse pressures. Larger PDAs can cause dilation and cardiac failure, and may be associated with prematurity, female infants, congenital rubella syndrome, and Down’s syndrome. PDAs should be closed if detected to prevent complications such as pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 3-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She reports a 3 hour history of a non-blanching rash all over his body. She also mentions that he has been more fussy than usual and has been refusing to eat.
Upon examination, the baby has a temperature of 38.9ºC and a non-blanching petechial rash with overall hypotonia. The anterior fontanelle is also bulging.
Based on the likely diagnosis and appropriate investigation, what would be the most suitable initial management option?Your Answer: IV cefotaxime and IV amoxicillin
Explanation:When dealing with suspected or confirmed bacterial meningitis in children under 3 months old, it is not recommended to use corticosteroids. Instead, the most appropriate treatment option would be a combination of IV cefotaxime and IV amoxicillin. IV cefotaxime is effective in covering for pneumococcal and haemophilus influenzae, but since children under 3 months are at risk of listeria monocytogenes as a cause of bacterial meningitis, amoxicillin is necessary to provide adequate coverage. It is important to note that IV dexamethasone is typically given to patients with bacterial meningitis to reduce the risk of neurological complications, but this is not recommended for children under 3 months old.
Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcus should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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