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  • Question 1 - Barbara is a 64-year-old woman who presents to your clinic with a one-month...

    Incorrect

    • Barbara is a 64-year-old woman who presents to your clinic with a one-month history of difficulty swallowing both liquids and solids. She also reports pain while swallowing. Barbara is otherwise feeling well. She has a past medical history of hypertension and is a non-smoker.

      Upon examination, Barbara's throat appears normal, and there are no other abnormalities detected on neurological and abdominal examination.

      What is the most suitable course of action for managing Barbara's condition?

      Your Answer: Prescribe analgesia and review in 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Urgent direct access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy within 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Odynophagia is a worrying symptom that can be indicative of oesophageal cancer. According to NICE guidelines, individuals with dysphagia or those aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should be urgently referred for direct access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy within 2 weeks to assess for oesophageal cancer.

      In Albert’s case, as he is presenting with dysphagia and odynophagia, urgent upper GI endoscopy within 2 weeks is the appropriate course of action. While blood tests such as FBC and CRP may provide some clues towards a cancer diagnosis, the priority is to rule out malignancy through endoscopy.

      Referral to speech and language therapy would not be appropriate at this stage, as the focus is on diagnosing or ruling out cancer. Prescribing analgesia may provide some relief for odynophagia, but it would not address the underlying issue of dysphagia or the need to investigate for malignancy.

      While a barium swallow may be useful in investigating dysphagia and odynophagia, urgent upper GI endoscopy is the most appropriate investigation to assess for oesophageal cancer.

      Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus. The most common presenting symptom is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss, vomiting, and other possible features such as odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, and cough.

      To diagnose oesophageal cancer, upper GI endoscopy with biopsy is used, and endoscopic ultrasound is preferred for locoregional staging. CT scanning of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is used for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT may be used for detecting occult metastases if metastases are not seen on the initial staging CT scans. Laparoscopy is sometimes performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.

      Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. In addition to surgical resection, many patients will be treated with adjuvant chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - Sarah is a 36-year-old woman who has been experiencing dyspepsia symptoms for a...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 36-year-old woman who has been experiencing dyspepsia symptoms for a few months. Her GP prescribed omeprazole 20 mg once daily, which has provided some relief. However, her symptoms return once she stops taking the medication. What would be the most appropriate next step in Sarah's treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Request a stool test for H. pylori

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, patients with dyspepsia should be assessed for red flag symptoms and offered lifestyle advice before trying either a PPI or ‘test and treat’ approach. If one approach fails, the other can be attempted. In this scenario, as the patient has not been tested for H. pylori, a stool test should be performed before considering other options. An endoscopy may be necessary if symptoms persist despite optimal management in primary care. An FBC may be performed if there is concern for malignancy. Changing from omeprazole to lansoprazole is unlikely to be effective as they have the same mechanism of action. Before prescribing 40 mg omeprazole, H. pylori should be excluded.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.

      For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.

      Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - A 47-year-old man has been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and CLO testing...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man has been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and CLO testing during gastroscopy confirms the presence of Helicobacter pylori. What is the best course of action for eradicating Helicobacter pylori?

      Your Answer: Lansoprazole + clindamycin + metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Lansoprazole + amoxicillin + clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems

      Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.

      The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.

      The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a history of diarrhoea for the past eight...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a history of diarrhoea for the past eight weeks and fresh rectal bleeding for the past few weeks. She has a past medical history of irritable bowel syndrome and frequently experiences bloating, which has worsened in recent weeks. She started a new job two months ago, which has been stressful. On examination, there is abdominal tenderness but no other abnormal signs.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe GTN ointment and review in a month

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Rectal Bleeding and Diarrhoea

      This woman is experiencing persistent diarrhoea and rectal bleeding, which cannot be attributed to irritable bowel syndrome. According to NICE guidelines, she requires urgent referral for suspected cancer pathway referral within two weeks. This is because she is under 50 years of age and has rectal bleeding with unexplained symptoms such as abdominal pain, weight loss, and iron-deficiency anaemia.

      Prescribing GTN ointment or loperamide would not be appropriate in this case as they would only delay diagnosis and not address the underlying issue. Carcinoembryonic antigen testing is useful for assessing prognosis and monitoring treatment in colorectal cancer patients, but it should only be ordered after malignancy has been confirmed. Similarly, TTG testing for coeliac disease is good practice for patients with IBS-like symptoms, but it would not be appropriate in the presence of rectal bleeding of unknown origin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old man presents with persistent fatigue, poor appetite, occasional sweats and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with persistent fatigue, poor appetite, occasional sweats and a feeling of upper abdominal discomfort. He smokes 15 cigarettes per day, drinks up to 10 units of alcohol a week. He has no change in bowel habit. His records show that he injected heroin for a short period of time in his twenties.

      He had an urgent ultrasound scan which shows a mass in his liver which has now been biopsied and reported as hepatocellular cancer of the liver.

      What is the greatest risk factor for hepatocellular primary liver cancer in this 60-year-old man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A infection

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C and Liver Cancer

      Hepatitis C is a viral infection that often goes undiagnosed for up to 20 years, making it a significant risk for those who engage in needle sharing and drug use. This infection can lead to cirrhosis of the liver, which increases the risk of developing primary liver cancer. In fact, around 80% of hepatocellular carcinoma cases are caused by viral infections with either hepatitis C or hepatitis B.

      While gallstones and caffeine intake are not associated with an increased risk of liver cancer, previous cholecystectomy and chronic infection with hepatitis B can increase the risk. Statin use and hepatitis A infection, on the other hand, are not associated with an increased risk.

      It is crucial to consider hepatitis C testing for at-risk populations and to maintain a low index of suspicion for liver cancer in those with a hepatitis C diagnosis. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for those with liver cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man visits the GP clinic complaining of rectal bleeding that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits the GP clinic complaining of rectal bleeding that has been ongoing for two days. He has experienced eight episodes of diarrhoea in the past 24 hours, with visible blood mixed with stool. He also reports feeling nauseous and having abdominal pain. The patient has a medical history of ulcerative colitis, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes, and is currently taking mesalazine enteric coated 800 mg twice daily, amlodipine 10 mg once daily, and metformin 500mg twice daily.

      During the examination, the patient appears pale and has a temperature of 38ºC. His heart rate is 108/min, and his blood pressure is 112/74 mmHg. The abdominal exam reveals generalised tenderness and guarding, but no rebound tenderness.

      What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent hospital admission

      Explanation:

      The appropriate course of action for a severe flare-up of ulcerative colitis is urgent hospital admission for IV corticosteroids. This is based on the Truelove and Witts’ severity index, which indicates that the patient is experiencing a severe flare-up due to symptoms such as opening their bowels more than 6 times per day and systemic upset (e.g. fever and tachycardia). NICE guidelines recommend immediate hospital admission for assessment and treatment with IV corticosteroids. It should be noted that a short course of oral steroids or rectal mesalazine may be used for mild to moderate flare-ups, while loperamide and dose increases of mesalazine are not appropriate for managing severe flare-ups.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old man complains of fatigue and unexplained weight loss during the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man complains of fatigue and unexplained weight loss during the past few months. He has been suffering from ulcerative colitis since his early 30s. His liver function tests show abnormalities.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biliary tract carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Ulcerative Colitis and Deranged Liver Function

      Ulcerative colitis (UC) is associated with various conditions, including primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), which confers a high risk for cholangiocarcinoma. Therefore, a patient with UC and deranged liver function is likely to have cancer, specifically cholangiocarcinoma. Gallstones, chronic pancreatitis, and small bowel lymphoma are less likely diagnoses due to their lack of association with UC and/or absence of relevant symptoms. Primary biliary cholangitis is a possibility, but its incidence is not increased in patients with UC. Overall, cholangiocarcinoma should be considered as a potential diagnosis in a patient with UC and deranged liver function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - Many elderly patients with colorectal cancer present with advanced disease. Early diagnosis is...

    Incorrect

    • Many elderly patients with colorectal cancer present with advanced disease. Early diagnosis is essential.
      Select from the list the single elderly patient who satisfies the criteria for urgent referral (2-week rule).

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 65-year-old man who has had loose stools for 6 weeks but no rectal bleeding

      Explanation:

      Identifying Symptoms of Colorectal Cancer: Referral Recommendations and Differential Diagnosis

      Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients over 50 years old with unexplained rectal bleeding or over 60 years old with a change in bowel habit should be referred for an appointment within 2 weeks for suspected colorectal cancer. However, other conditions can also cause similar symptoms, and differential diagnosis is important to ensure appropriate management.

      Rectal Bleeding in a Multiparous Woman

      Rectal bleeding is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions, including haemorrhoids. In a 40-year-old multiparous woman, routine referral would be appropriate if piles could not be identified.

      Change in Bowel Habit in a 60-Year-Old Man

      A change in bowel habit in a 60-year-old man is more likely to be caused by an acute infection, such as enterohaemorrhagic E. coli or Shigella. Investigations should be directed to finding the cause.

      Constipation in an 80-Year-Old Woman

      Constipation is a common symptom in the elderly, and dietary factors may play a role. In an 80-year-old woman with intermittent constipation and no teeth, the symptom is likely to be longstanding and not indicative of colorectal cancer.

      Anal Fissure in a 70-Year-Old Man

      Anal fissure is a possible cause of rectal bleeding in a 70-year-old man. Further investigation is needed to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions.

      Identifying Symptoms of Colorectal Cancer: Referral Recommendations and Differential Diagnosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - Primary sclerosing cholangitis is most commonly associated with which of the following conditions?...

    Incorrect

    • Primary sclerosing cholangitis is most commonly associated with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a condition that affects the bile ducts, causing inflammation and fibrosis. The cause of this disease is unknown, but it is often associated with ulcerative colitis, with 4% of UC patients having PSC and 80% of PSC patients having UC. Crohn’s disease and HIV are also less common associations.

      Symptoms of PSC include cholestasis, jaundice, pruritus, raised bilirubin and ALP levels, right upper quadrant pain, and fatigue. To diagnose PSC, doctors typically use endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP), which show multiple biliary strictures giving a ‘beaded’ appearance. A positive p-ANCA test may also be indicative of PSC.

      Liver biopsy may show fibrous, obliterative cholangitis, often described as ‘onion skin’, but it has a limited role in diagnosis. Complications of PSC include an increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma (in 10% of cases) and colorectal cancer.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, associations, and diagnostic methods for PSC is crucial for early detection and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 23-year-old patient visits the GP complaining of fatigue, bloating, and abdominal discomfort...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old patient visits the GP complaining of fatigue, bloating, and abdominal discomfort that has been ongoing for several months. Upon examination, no abnormalities are found. Blood tests reveal mild normocytic anemia and positive IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGA).

      What would be the most suitable course of action for the next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue gluten-containing diet and refer for intestinal biopsy

      Explanation:

      The gold standard for diagnosing coeliac disease is endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all patients suspected of having the condition based on serology results. Therefore, the correct course of action for this patient presenting with abdominal discomfort, bloating, and fatigue, along with a positive tTGA blood test and likely anaemia, is to continue consuming gluten and refer for intestinal biopsy. It is important for patients to consume gluten in their diet for at least 6 weeks prior to serology testing and biopsy. Commencing iron tablets is not the most appropriate action as the anaemia is likely secondary to malabsorption resulting from coeliac disease. Initiating a gluten-free diet is also not appropriate until a diagnosis has been confirmed, as it may result in a false negative result on biopsy.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.

      To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.

      In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old woman has chronic diarrhoea and is suspected to have irritable bowel...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman has chronic diarrhoea and is suspected to have irritable bowel syndrome. What is the most suitable test to diagnose bile acid malabsorption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: SeHCAT (tauroselcholic [75 selenium] acid) test

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Bile Acid Malabsorption and Coeliac Disease

      Bile acids play a crucial role in the absorption of lipids, and their malabsorption can lead to gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhoea, bloating, and faecal incontinence. Bile acid malabsorption can be classified into three types, with primary idiopathic malabsorption being particularly common in patients with irritable bowel syndrome. Crohn’s disease and certain surgeries or diseases can also cause bile acid malabsorption.

      The SeHCAT test is a diagnostic tool that tracks the retention and loss of bile acids through the enterohepatic circulation. A capsule containing radiolabeled 75 SeHCAT is ingested, and the percentage retention of SeHCAT at seven days is calculated. A value less than 15% indicates excessive bile acid loss and suggests bile acid malabsorption.

      Faecal fat estimation is a standard test for malabsorption, but it is not specific for bile acids. Anti-transglutaminase antibodies are found in coeliac disease, and higher levels of these antibodies suggest a diagnosis of that condition. Small bowel biopsy is performed to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease. The urea breath test is a rapid diagnostic procedure used in retesting for infections by Helicobacter pylori, which requires the triple-therapy regimen for treatment.

      In summary, the SeHCAT test, faecal fat estimation, anti-transglutaminase antibodies, small bowel biopsy, and urea breath test are all diagnostic tools that can aid in the diagnosis of bile acid malabsorption and coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of long-standing intermittent abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of long-standing intermittent abdominal distension and bloating, which changes with her menstrual cycle, and is interspersed with bouts of loose motions. She works as a teacher in a busy school and finds work stressful. She has previously taken a course of fluoxetine for depression or anxiety. Examination of the abdomen is normal.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Gastrointestinal Disorders: Differential Diagnosis

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a prevalent gastrointestinal disorder affecting 10-20% of the UK population, with a higher incidence in females and those with underlying anxiety. Symptoms include abdominal pain or discomfort, bloating, and change in bowel habit lasting for at least six months. Defecation may provide relief, while eating can exacerbate symptoms. Other common symptoms include lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder problems. Diagnosis is based on clinical presentation, as examination and investigations are typically normal.

      Ulcerative colitis is a potential differential diagnosis if the patient presents with pain or blood in their stool. However, the long history of symptoms without significant systemic illness, normal examination, and links to stress/menstruation in this case suggest IBS. Normal inflammatory markers would support this diagnosis.

      Chronic pancreatitis is characterized by persistent inflammation or damage, often linked to alcohol excess. The primary symptom is significant pain, which is not present in this case.

      Diverticulitis is an acute presentation, with left iliac fossa pain, change in bowel habit, bleeding per rectum, and systemic illness. The chronic course, combination of symptoms, and normal examination make this diagnosis unlikely.

      Peptic ulcer disease is also unlikely, as it typically causes pain linked to eating, nausea or vomiting, and is acute or progressive in nature. While stress can be a trigger, it is not the primary cause of this disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and lack...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and lack of energy. His recent blood test showed macrocytosis and a low haemoglobin level, indicating a folic acid deficiency. He requests dietary recommendations from the physician to address this issue.
      What is the most suitable food item to suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinach

      Explanation:

      Folate Content in Common Foods

      Folate, also known as vitamin B9, is an essential nutrient that is important for cell growth and development. While it is found naturally in many foods, it is also added to processed foods and supplements in the form of folic acid. Here is a breakdown of the folate content in some common foods:

      Spinach: With 194 μg of folic acid per 100g, spinach is the richest source of folate on this list.

      Egg: While eggs contain 47 μg of folic acid per 100g, they only provide around a quarter of the folate per 100g that is found in spinach.

      Carrot: Carrots contain about 21 μg of folic acid per 100g, less than half the amount of folate found in eggs and only around 11% of the amount provided by spinach.

      Milk: Cow’s milk contains 5-7 μg of folic acid per 100g, making it the second-lowest source of folate in this range of options.

      Apple: Apples provide the lowest source of folate in this range of options, with only about 3 μg of folic acid per 100g.

      It is important to note that women who are pregnant or breastfeeding require more folate and should take a daily supplement of 400 micrograms. While many food manufacturers fortify their products with folic acid, wholegrain products already contain natural folate. Folate deficiency can occur due to poor intake, excessive alcohol consumption, or malnutrition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his primary...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his primary care physician complaining of loose non-bloody stools and abdominal discomfort for the past 6 days. He has not been taking any regular medication and his disease has been quiescent for many years. A colonoscopy performed 5 years ago showed proctitis. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits and his abdomen is diffusely soft with no peritonism. A stool culture is negative. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mesalazine suppository

      Explanation:

      For a patient experiencing mild-to-moderate symptoms of distal ulcerative colitis, the recommended first-line treatment is topical (rectal) aminosalicylates, such as mesalazine suppositories. This is particularly effective for patients with left-sided disease, such as proctitis or proctosigmoiditis. While budesonide foam enema is sometimes used as an additional treatment for mild-to-moderate disease, it is generally less effective at inducing remission. Oral azathioprine is not recommended for inducing remission, but may be used to maintain remission in patients who have had multiple inflammatory exacerbations or if remission is not maintained by aminosalicylates alone. Oral mesalazine is less effective than topical mesalazine for mild or moderate proctitis, but may be offered as an additional treatment if symptoms persist after 4 weeks of topical mesalazine. For patients with pancolitis or extensive disease, oral mesalazine may be offered as a first-line treatment.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - A 46-year-old gentleman presents with lower gastrointestinal symptoms. He has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old gentleman presents with lower gastrointestinal symptoms. He has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and has suffered with infrequent bouts of abdominal bloating and loose stools on and off for years. These are usually managed with mebeverine and loperamide. The diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome was a clinical one and the only investigation he has had in the past were blood tests.

      Over the last four weeks he has noticed that this has changed and that his bowels have been persistently loose and significantly more frequent than usual. He has no family history of bowel problems.

      On examination he is systemically well with no fever. His abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses. Rectal examination reveals nothing focal. His weight is stable.

      Which of the following investigations should you offer your patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Faecal occult blood

      Explanation:

      Investigating Acute Bowel Symptoms in a Patient with Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      When a patient with a history of irritable bowel syndrome presents with acute bowel symptoms, it is important to investigate the underlying cause. However, certain investigations may not be appropriate in this context. For example, an abdominal ultrasound scan is not helpful in investigating bowel symptoms. Similarly, CEA tumour marker testing is a specialist investigation and not suitable for primary care. Ca125 is a marker for ovarian cancer and not relevant in this scenario.

      According to NICE guidelines, testing for occult blood in faeces should be offered to assess for colorectal cancer in adults aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or in those under 60 with changes in their bowel habit or iron-deficiency anaemia. Stool mc+s may be requested, but it would not be helpful in risk stratifying the patient for urgent referral for colorectal cancer if an infective aetiology is not suspected. Therefore, it is important to choose appropriate investigations based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - The treatment room nurse requests your assistance in evaluating a 67-year-old male patient...

    Incorrect

    • The treatment room nurse requests your assistance in evaluating a 67-year-old male patient who has been experiencing a non-healing skin ulcer in his natal cleft. Despite various attempts, there has been no improvement in the condition. The patient has a medical history of angina, benign prostatic hypertrophy, and asthma. Which medication among his current prescriptions is the most probable cause of this non-healing ulcer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicorandil

      Explanation:

      Nicorandil can lead to anal ulceration. This is because ulceration is a known side effect of nicorandil, which can cause ulcers in the skin, mucosa, and eyes. It can also cause gastrointestinal ulcers that may result in complications such as perforation, haemorrhage, fistula, or abscess. If ulceration occurs, nicorandil treatment should be discontinued, and alternative medication should be considered.

      Nicorandil is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina. It works by activating potassium channels, which leads to vasodilation. This process is achieved through the activation of guanylyl cyclase, which results in an increase in cGMP. However, there are some adverse effects associated with the use of nicorandil, including headaches, flushing, and the development of ulcers on the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes. Additionally, gastrointestinal ulcers, including anal ulceration, may also occur. It is important to note that nicorandil should not be used in patients with left ventricular failure.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - At what age is ulcerative colitis commonly diagnosed? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age is ulcerative colitis commonly diagnosed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bimodal: 15-25 years + 55-65 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ulcerative Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum and spreads continuously without going beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, and extra-intestinal features. Diagnosis is done through colonoscopy and biopsy, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa, and inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria. Extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease include arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Ulcerative colitis is linked with sacroiliitis, and a barium enema can show the whole colon affected by an irregular mucosa with loss of normal haustral markings.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner three weeks after an Eastern...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner three weeks after an Eastern Mediterranean holiday with her family, during which they ate out a lot. She complains of malaise, lack of appetite, jaundice and dark urine. She thinks she was febrile at the start, but the fever subsided once the jaundice appeared. On examination, she has a palpable liver and is tender in the right upper quadrant.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Bilirubin 132 µmol /l < 21 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 4104 IU/l < 40 IU/l
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 3476 U/l < 33 U/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 184 IU/l 40–129 IU/l
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Flu-like Symptoms and Jaundice

      Hepatitis A is a vaccine-preventable infection commonly acquired during travel. It spreads through contaminated food and presents with flu-like symptoms followed by jaundice and dark urine. Biliary colic may cause right upper quadrant pain but is unlikely to cause fever or significantly raised liver transaminase levels. Hepatitis B is transmitted through sexual contact, needle sharing, blood transfusions, organ transplantation, or from mother to child during delivery. Pancreatic carcinoma presents with weight loss, obstructive jaundice, mid-epigastric or back pain, and disproportionately raised alkaline phosphatases levels. Salmonella enteritidis causes food poisoning with diarrhea, fever, and colicky abdominal pain.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old man complains of frequent palpitations. These usually occur when he eats...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man complains of frequent palpitations. These usually occur when he eats and subside abruptly after he finishes eating. They are not accompanied by chest pain, but, on occasion, he also feels lightheaded. He has no reflux symptoms or dyspepsia. He is otherwise well and on presentation his blood pressure is 136/84 mmHg, his pulse is in sinus rhythm, and examination of his heart and abdomen are normal. His electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.
      What is the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 hour portable electrocardiogram (ECG)

      Explanation:

      The Most Appropriate Investigation for Palpitations and Dizziness: A Cardiac Investigation

      When a patient presents with palpitations and dizziness, a cardiac cause is often suspected. While the association with food may be a red herring, the combination of symptoms suggests a need for further investigation. An ECG or examination of the pulse may not reveal an underlying cause unless the patient is experiencing symptoms at that exact moment. Therefore, a 24 hour portable ECG is often recommended to assess the cardiac rhythm over a longer period of time.

      A chest X-ray is unlikely to be helpful in the absence of chest pain or respiratory symptoms. Similarly, an endoscopy may be indicated for dyspeptic symptoms, but the history of palpitations and dizziness suggests a cardiac cause. H. pylori testing is only relevant for dyspeptic symptoms, and thyroid function tests are important for anyone experiencing palpitations, as hyperthyroidism can be a cause.

      In summary, when a patient presents with palpitations and dizziness, a cardiac investigation is the most appropriate first step. A 24 hour portable ECG can provide valuable information about the cardiac rhythm over a longer period of time.

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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man presents with indigestion that has been troubling him for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with indigestion that has been troubling him for the past two months. He reports no prior history of these symptoms and states that he has been able to eat and drink normally. However, he has noticed a recent weight loss. He denies any abdominal pain or changes in bowel habits. On examination, his abdomen appears normal. Laboratory tests, including a full blood count, renal function, liver function, and C-reactive protein, are all within normal limits. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal and erect x ray today

      Explanation:

      Urgent Upper Gastrointestinal Endoscopy for Stomach Cancer Assessment

      Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is necessary within two weeks for individuals experiencing dysphagia to assess for stomach cancer. Additionally, patients aged 55 or over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also undergo this procedure. A directed admission is not required, and x-rays are unnecessary as the patient doesn’t have an acute abdomen. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends endoscopy over an ultrasound scan. This history necessitates an urgent investigation, and a routine referral to gastroenterology would not be appropriate. It is important to note that knowledge of the patient’s H Pylori status would not alter the need for urgent OGD, and referral should not be delayed for this reason.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - A 42-year-old male presents with jaundice and pruritus. He has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male presents with jaundice and pruritus. He has a history of ulcerative colitis and is currently taking sulfasalazine. He reports feeling increasingly tired and has noticed a yellow tint to his eyes. On examination, he has scratch marks on his skin, hepatomegaly, and his blood pressure is 136/88 mmHg with a pulse rate of 74. Blood tests reveal elevated levels of bilirubin, ALT, and ALP. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gallstones

      Explanation:

      Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis in Patients with Ulcerative Colitis

      Patients with elevated ALP levels may be incidentally picked up and require further investigation. However, those who are symptomatic may present with jaundice, pruritus, fatigue, and abdominal pain. Clinically, patients may also have hepatomegaly and be jaundiced.

      In the case of a patient with ulcerative colitis, the likelihood of primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is significantly increased. Approximately 3% of UC sufferers have PSC, and 80% of those with PSC have UC. While gallstones in the common bile duct and liver cysts of hydatid disease can present with similar symptoms, the history of UC makes PSC a more likely diagnosis. Haemolytic anaemia and osteomalacia can cause elevated ALP levels, but they would not account for the cholestatic liver function and hepatomegaly seen in PSC.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old woman with chronic left iliac fossa pain and alternating bowel habit...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with chronic left iliac fossa pain and alternating bowel habit is diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. She has been treated with a combination of antispasmodics, laxatives and anti-motility agents for 6 months but there has been no significant improvement in her symptoms. What is the most appropriate next step according to recent NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low-dose tricyclic antidepressant

      Explanation:

      NICE suggests that psychological interventions should be taken into account after a period of 12 months. Tricyclic antidepressants are recommended over selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

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  • Question 23 - A concerned man visits your clinic as he participated in the routine bowel...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned man visits your clinic as he participated in the routine bowel cancer screening program and received a positive faecal occult blood test (FOBt) result. He inquires if this indicates that he has bowel cancer. What is the estimated percentage of patients with a positive FOBt result who are subsequently diagnosed with bowel cancer during colonoscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10%

      Explanation:

      Colorectal Cancer Screening with FIT Test

      Overview:
      Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS provides home-based screening for older adults through the Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT). Although a one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England, it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was further exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. However, the trial showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used in future bowel screening programmes.

      Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
      The NHS offers a national screening programme every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests as it only detects human haemoglobin, not animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. Although a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      Colonoscopy:
      Approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer.

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  • Question 24 - A 38-year-old female with ulcerative colitis is discovered to have anti-smooth muscle antibodies.

    What...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female with ulcerative colitis is discovered to have anti-smooth muscle antibodies.

      What is the most suitable subsequent test for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Order an urgent endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Next Investigation for Women with Suspected Autoimmune Hepatitis

      The most appropriate next investigation for this woman is to conduct liver function tests (LFTs) to assess if there are any features of autoimmune hepatitis. This includes checking for raised levels of bilirubin, aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alanine aminotransferase (ALT), and alkaline phosphatase. If any of these levels are elevated, further diagnostic imaging or a liver biopsy may be required to confirm the diagnosis.

      Autoimmune hepatitis is often seen in individuals with other autoimmune disorders such as ulcerative colitis. Therefore, it is important to conduct these tests to determine the underlying cause of the woman’s symptoms and provide appropriate treatment.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 25 - A 48-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting an increase in breast size over...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting an increase in breast size over the past few years. He has alcoholic cirrhosis and continues to consume one bottle of vodka daily. He is prescribed furosemide for oedema but takes no other medications.
      What is the probable reason for this patient's gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Altered oestrogen metabolism

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Gynaecomastia in Cirrhosis

      Gynaecomastia in cirrhosis is a complex condition with various potential causes. One of the most likely culprits is the disordered metabolism of sex steroids, which can result in excess levels of oestrogens. As liver function decreases, plasma testosterone concentrations also decrease, often leading to associated symptoms such as testicular atrophy and loss of body hair.

      While furosemide is not typically associated with gynaecomastia, spironolactone therapy used in cirrhosis treatment can be a contributing factor. Excess energy intake from alcohol is also a common issue in alcohol-related cirrhosis, as patients may substitute alcohol for food and suffer from nutritional deficiencies.

      Although bodybuilders taking anabolic steroids may report gynaecomastia, there is no indication in the patient’s history to suggest this as a cause. Additionally, it is important to note that low testosterone levels, rather than excess levels, are typically associated with gynaecomastia. By understanding the various potential causes of this condition, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat gynaecomastia in cirrhosis patients.

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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old nurse had a needlestick injury six months ago. She did not...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old nurse had a needlestick injury six months ago. She did not present immediately to Occupational Health but eventually came because she began to feel tired and lethargic. She has a raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level, anti-hepatitis B surface antibodies and anti-hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibodies. Low levels of HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA) are detected. A liver biopsy reveals early inflammatory changes.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis C infection

      Explanation:

      Explanation of Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis

      Hepatitis C virus (HCV) ribonucleic acid (RNA) is detected in a patient, indicating active hepatitis C infection. The presence of anti-HCV antibodies and an 8-month history since exposure confirms that the infection is now chronic. Liver biopsy may show varying degrees of inflammation, fibrosis, and cirrhosis, with this patient exhibiting early inflammatory changes.

      Autoimmune hepatitis, which is associated with antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA), is not consistent with the presence of anti-HCV antibodies and HCV RNA. Chronic hepatitis B infection is also ruled out, as the patient’s anti-hepatitis B antibodies are likely due to vaccination. Functional symptoms may cause tiredness and lethargy, but the patient’s deranged liver function tests and positive hepatitis C antibodies indicate an underlying diagnosis of hepatitis C.

      Understanding Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old patient who has been experiencing fatigue has a positive IgA tissue...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient who has been experiencing fatigue has a positive IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) result. What is the initial management plan for this patient in regards to the test result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to gastroenterology

      Explanation:

      As part of a coeliac screen, IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) is one of the blood tests conducted along with total IgA and possibly anti-endomysial antibodies. According to the 2015 NICE guidance on Coeliac Disease, patients who test positive for this should be referred to gastroenterology for an intestinal endoscopy and biopsy to confirm the condition. Only after confirmation should the patient start a gluten-free diet under the guidance of a dietician.

      Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet

      Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten-containing cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats must be avoided. However, some patients with coeliac disease can tolerate oats. Gluten-free foods include rice, potatoes, and corn. Compliance with a gluten-free diet can be checked by testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies.

      Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which is why they are offered the pneumococcal vaccine. Coeliac UK recommends that patients with coeliac disease receive the pneumococcal vaccine and have a booster every five years. influenza vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.

      Overall, managing coeliac disease requires strict adherence to a gluten-free diet and regular immunisation to prevent infections.

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  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old man presents with a four week history of retrosternal burning particularly...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a four week history of retrosternal burning particularly after large meals. He also complains of episodes of epigastric discomfort usually during the night. He has no nausea or vomiting, has had no black stools and his weight has been steady for the last few years.

      He smokes five cigarettes per day and drinks up to 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination of the abdomen he has mild epigastric tenderness with no masses palpable. He has been buying antacid tablets which give short periods of relief of his symptoms only.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a routine upper GI endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Management of Dyspepsia in a Patient Under 55 Years Old

      Until recently, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommended referral for all new onset dyspepsia in patients over 55 years old. However, current guidelines state that referral is only necessary if other symptoms are present. In the case of a patient under 55 years old with no alarm symptoms, treatment to relieve symptoms should be offered.

      According to NICE guidance, a four-week course of a full dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) such as omeprazole is recommended. It is also advisable to check the patient’s Helicobacter pylori status and haemoglobin level. If the patient is found to have iron deficiency anaemia, further investigation would be necessary.

      In summary, the management of dyspepsia in a patient under 55 years old involves offering treatment to relieve symptoms and checking for Helicobacter pylori status and haemoglobin level. Referral is only necessary if other symptoms are present or if iron deficiency anaemia is detected.

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  • Question 29 - A 27 year old woman presents with intermittent abdominal bloating, pain and diarrhea...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old woman presents with intermittent abdominal bloating, pain and diarrhea for the past 3 months. She denies any rectal bleeding, weight loss or family history of bowel disease. On examination, her abdomen appears normal. Along with a full blood count (FBC), urea & electrolytes (U&E), coeliac screen, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP), what initial investigation would be most helpful in differentiating between irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) in a primary care setting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Faecal calprotectin

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends the use of faecal calprotectin in primary care to distinguish between IBS and IBD. This protein is released in the bowel during inflammation and can be detected in a stool sample. Its use can reduce the need for invasive diagnostic testing and referral of patients with typical IBS symptoms. However, a positive result doesn’t confirm IBD and patients should be referred to secondary care for further investigation.

      NICE has also provided guidance on the diagnostic criteria for IBS and the necessary investigations. They suggest conducting FBC, ESR, CRP, and coeliac screen (TTG). However, they advise against performing ultrasound, sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy, barium study, thyroid function test, stool microscopy and culture, and faecal occult blood and hydrogen breath test.

      Understanding Diarrhoea: Causes and Characteristics

      Diarrhoea is defined as having more than three loose or watery stools per day. It can be classified as acute if it lasts for less than 14 days and chronic if it persists for more than 14 days. Gastroenteritis, diverticulitis, and antibiotic therapy are common causes of acute diarrhoea. On the other hand, irritable bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, colorectal cancer, and coeliac disease are some of the conditions that can cause chronic diarrhoea.

      Symptoms of gastroenteritis may include abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diverticulitis is characterized by left lower quadrant pain, diarrhoea, and fever. Antibiotic therapy, especially with broad-spectrum antibiotics, can also cause diarrhoea, including Clostridioides difficile infection. Chronic diarrhoea may be caused by irritable bowel syndrome, which is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Ulcerative colitis may cause bloody diarrhoea, crampy abdominal pain, and weight loss. Crohn’s disease may cause crampy abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and malabsorption. Colorectal cancer may cause diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia, and weight loss. Coeliac disease may cause diarrhoea, abdominal distension, lethargy, and weight loss.

      Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis. It is important to seek medical attention if diarrhoea persists for more than a few days or is accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, severe abdominal pain, or blood in the stool.

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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old woman presents with complaints of 'heartburn'. She has a medical history...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with complaints of 'heartburn'. She has a medical history of angina and type 2 diabetes. Her current medications include clopidogrel 75 mg OD, bisoprolol 5 mg OD, ramipril 7.5 mg OD, atorvastatin 20 mg ON, and metformin 500 mg TDS. She quit smoking five years ago when her angina was diagnosed and doesn't consume alcohol.

      The patient reports experiencing retrosternal burning that worsens after meals and occasionally causes a 'sickly' feeling in the back of her mouth. She has been experiencing symptoms predominantly during the day but occasionally at night as well. She denies any dysphagia or odynophagia and her weight is stable. She has not experienced any vomiting and her bowel habits are normal with no rectal bleeding or black stools.

      The patient reports having similar symptoms on and off for many years and saw a colleague about three to four months ago with the same symptoms. She tried an over-the-counter alginate antacid PRN, which provided slight relief. She has been using the alginate preparation once or twice a day on average. Over the last three to four months, she has experienced symptoms every day. Her colleague had conducted some investigations, which showed a normal full blood count and negative Helicobacter pylori stool antigen testing.

      Given her history of angina, the differential diagnosis includes this condition, but the patient's anginal pains are clearly different. The most likely diagnosis is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD). General and abdominal examination today are normal.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently under the 2 week wait referral system

      Explanation:

      Treatment of GORD with PPIs and Antacids

      When managing GORD patients, mild symptoms occurring less than once a week can be treated with antacids as needed. However, for patients with more frequent symptoms, especially those experiencing daily discomfort, a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is recommended. Referral for endoscopy is usually unnecessary unless there are alarm features such as unintentional weight loss, dysphagia, GI bleeding, persistent vomiting, or signs of anemia.

      Initial treatment for GORD involves a high dose PPI for eight weeks (for endoscopically proven oesophagitis) or four weeks for uninvestigated reflux. The PPI should be taken once daily 30-60 minutes before the first meal of the day. Lansoprazole is an example of a suitable PPI that doesn’t interact with other medications. If there is a partial response, the dose can be increased to twice daily, and the timing of the dose can be adjusted if nocturnal symptoms are troublesome.

      If there is no response to PPI treatment, reconsideration of the diagnosis and specialist referral may be necessary. An H2 receptor antagonist can be added to a PPI for patients who have a partial response to PPI treatment. It is important to note that there have been concerns about an interaction between clopidogrel and some PPIs (such as omeprazole) due to a shared metabolic pathway. However, the BNF doesn’t suggest any issue with patients taking Lansoprasole with clopidogrel.

      Overall, the treatment of GORD involves a stepwise approach, starting with antacids and progressing to PPIs and other medications as needed. Regular monitoring and adjustment of treatment can help manage symptoms and improve patient outcomes.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (1/3) 33%
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