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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male has two episodes of weakness affecting the right arm and leg each lasting ten minutes, both within the space of 2 days. He did not attend the emergency department after the first episode. His only significant past medical history is hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine 5mg OD. He has experienced one similar episode to this one year ago, but did not seek medical attention. His son is present who informs you that the patient has lost a significant amount of weight in the last year. On further questioning, he reports some haemoptysis lately. His blood pressure in the department was 170/90 mmHg initially.
His bloods reveal:
Hb 115 g/l
Platelets 149 * 109/l
WBC 13.1 * 109/l
Na+ 132 mmol/l
K+ 5.3 mmol/l
Creatinine 111 ”mol/l
CRP 15 mg/l
ECG: Sinus tachycardia, rate 104/min
What is the most appropriate management for this gentleman?Your Answer: Aspirin and dipyridamole + TIA clinic referral
Correct Answer: Admit for CT head + aspirin
Explanation:This question assesses the candidate’s understanding of TIA risk stratification. The individual meets the criteria for crescendo TIAs, having experienced two TIAs within a week. This necessitates prompt evaluation and imaging. Admission is recommended for any patient with a score of more than 4 on the ABCD2 scale or crescendo TIA.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, and sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax).
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy with aspirin 300 mg unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis, specialist review is necessary. Urgent assessment is required within 24 hours for patients who have had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment is necessary as soon as possible within 7 days for patients who have had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. Neuroimaging and carotid imaging are recommended, and antithrombotic therapy is necessary. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl comes in for a check-up. She was diagnosed with asthma two years ago by her pediatrician. She is currently taking a salbutamol inhaler, using 2 puffs 3 times a day, and a low-dose beclomethasone inhaler. She also takes oral montelukast. However, she still experiences a night time cough and has to use her blue inhaler most days. Unfortunately, the addition of montelukast has not provided much relief. On examination today, her chest is clear with no wheeze and a near-normal peak flow. What should be the next step in her management?
Your Answer: Add regular oral prednisolone until symptoms are controlled
Correct Answer: Stop montelukast and add salmeterol
Explanation:For children between the ages of 5 and 16 with asthma that is not being effectively managed with a combination of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA), low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS), and a leukotriene receptor antagonist, it is recommended to add a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) to the treatment plan and discontinue the use of the leukotriene receptor antagonist.
Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of increasing shortness of breath, especially during physical activity. He has also been experiencing a persistent dry cough for the past 8 weeks. The doctor suspects pulmonary fibrosis and orders spirometry testing.
The patient's predicted spirometry values are as follows:
FEV1 4.25L
FVC 5.10L
Transfer capacity (TLCO) Normal
What are the probable spirometry findings for this individual?Your Answer: FEV1 = 2.79, FVC = 3.11, TLCO = Increased
Correct Answer: FEV1 = 2.79, FVC = 3.34, TLCO = Decreased
Explanation:Once the predicted values are obtained, the FEV1:FVC ratio can be evaluated. If this ratio is less than 70, it indicates a potential issue.
Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.
The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.
Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.
The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An older woman with advanced breast cancer has been discharged from the hospital for palliative care at home. She was prescribed oral morphine at a dose of 10mg four times a day to manage her pain from bony metastases. This dosage was effective in controlling her pain.
However, the patient's condition has worsened, and she is now experiencing difficulty swallowing, making it impossible to take the medication orally. The GP has recommended converting the morphine to a subcutaneous injection, which will be administered by the district nurses.
What is the appropriate subcutaneous morphine dose for this patient?Your Answer: 7.5mg four times daily
Correct Answer: 5mg four times daily
Explanation:To convert from oral to subcutaneous morphine, divide the oral dose by two. In this case, the recommended subcutaneous morphine dose is 5mg four times daily, which is equivalent to 10mg of oral morphine four times daily. As the patient’s pain is currently well controlled, there is no need to adjust the analgesia dose.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man is scheduled for a follow-up after a positive faecal occult blood test as part of the national screening programme. While discussing colonoscopy, he inquires about the percentage of patients with a positive faecal occult blood test who have colorectal cancer. What is the most precise response?
Your Answer: 55 - 75%
Correct Answer: 5 - 15%
Explanation:The likelihood of having an adenoma increases with a positive result on a faecal occult blood test.
Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.
Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with schizophrenia is brought to the clinic by one of his caregivers. He is currently taking clozapine and procyclidine. The caregiver reports that he seems more fatigued than usual and generally not feeling well. She also suspects that he may have gained weight. What is the most crucial examination to conduct?
Your Answer: Liver function tests
Correct Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:Monitoring FBC is crucial to detect agranulocytosis/neutropenia, a potentially fatal adverse reaction of clozapine. Additionally, patients taking this medication often experience weight gain.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A nurse updates you on a 32-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant. The patient's blood pressure reading is 155/90 mmHg, up from 152/85 mmHg two days ago. A 24-hour urine collection shows a urinary protein excretion of 0.7g / 24 hours. The patient was previously healthy before pregnancy. Following oral labetalol administration, what is the next step in managing this situation?
Your Answer: IV hydralazine
Correct Answer: Plan delivery of the foetus within 48 hours
Explanation:Pregnant women who have mild or moderate gestational hypertension, are beyond 37 weeks of pregnancy, and exhibit pre-eclampsia symptoms, should be advised to deliver their baby within 24 to 48 hours as per the existing recommendations.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 21-year-old man is brought to his GP by his mother, who reports a six-month history of weight loss, apathy and poor self-care. He withdrew from college soon after starting his course, and now spends most of his time alone in his room playing video games. He has recently accused his mother of trying to poison him. During the interview, he appears suspicious and hesitant to speak with you.
What is the most probable cause of this presentation?Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for the patient in this vignette is schizophrenia. Early symptoms of schizophrenia can include social withdrawal and behavioral changes, which may go unnoticed before the onset of delusions and hallucinations. The patient’s belief that his mother is trying to poison him needs to be explored to confirm whether it is an actual delusion. While illicit drug use can cause psychotic symptoms similar to schizophrenia, the gradual onset and progression of symptoms in this case suggest a diagnosis of schizophrenia rather than amphetamine misuse. Depression can also cause delusions, but depressive delusions are usually congruent with the mood and tend to have themes of guilt or hopelessness. The combination of symptoms presented in this vignette cannot be safely explained by normal teenage behavior. While schizotypal disorder can resemble schizophrenia, it does not have the characteristic symptoms seen in this vignette.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP with bloody discharge from her left nipple. She is extremely worried as she has discovered a small lump on the same breast while examining it after noticing the discharge. She has no medical history and does not take any regular medication. She mentions that her sister had breast cancer a few years ago. She denies any injury to the area. She has never given birth and still has regular periods. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fibroadenoma
Correct Answer: Duct papilloma
Explanation:The presence of blood-stained discharge and a small lumpy mass in this patient suggests that they may have duct papilloma. This condition typically affects middle-aged women and develops in the lactiferous ducts beneath the nipple, causing a lumpy mass and bloody discharge. While fat necrosis can also occur in women with large breasts, it is less likely in this case as the patient has not reported any trauma. Fibroadenoma, on the other hand, is not associated with bloody nipple discharge and is typically found in younger women as a firm, non-tender mass. Fibroadenosis, which causes painful and lumpy breasts, is most commonly seen in middle-aged women and may worsen before menstruation.
Breast Disorders: Common Features and Characteristics
Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Fibroadenoma is a non-tender, highly mobile lump that is common in women under the age of 30. Fibroadenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by lumpy breasts that may be painful, especially before menstruation. Breast cancer is a hard, irregular lump that may be accompanied by nipple inversion or skin tethering. Paget’s disease of the breast is associated with a reddening and thickening of the nipple/areola, while mammary duct ectasia is characterized by dilatation of the large breast ducts, which may cause a tender lump around the areola and a green nipple discharge. Duct papilloma is characterized by local areas of epithelial proliferation in large mammary ducts, while fat necrosis is more common in obese women with large breasts and may mimic breast cancer. Breast abscess, on the other hand, is more common in lactating women and is characterized by a red, hot, and tender swelling. Lipomas and sebaceous cysts may also develop around the breast tissue.
Common Features and Characteristics of Breast Disorders
Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Each of these disorders has its own unique features and characteristics that can help identify them. Understanding these features and characteristics can help women identify potential breast disorders and seek appropriate medical attention. It is important to note that while some breast disorders may be benign, others may be malignant or premalignant, and further investigation is always warranted. Regular breast exams and mammograms can also help detect breast disorders early, increasing the chances of successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking emergency contraception after forgetting to take 2 doses of her regular contraceptive pill. She reports engaging in sexual activity approximately 48 hours ago. Her medical history includes eczema and severe asthma. Although she missed her pill, she is hesitant to switch to a different form of contraception as she typically has no issues with her current pill but simply forgot to bring it with her while staying at her boyfriend's for the weekend. What is the most suitable emergency contraception option to suggest to her?
Your Answer: Ulipristal (EllaOne)
Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel
Explanation:Levonorgestrel is the correct choice, as the patient has expressed reluctance to try a different form of contraception. It is important to prioritize pregnancy prevention while also discussing the benefits of long-acting reversible contraception and allowing the patient time to consider it. While ulipristal and levonorgestrel are both oral options, ulipristal should be used cautiously in patients with severe asthma. As the patient is still within the 72-hour window for levonorgestrel use and has missed two doses of her oral contraceptive pill, levonorgestrel is the preferred option.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 7 year-old girl from Sierra Leone presents with a 2 week history of painful left leg. She is homozygous for sickle cell disease. On examination the child is febrile at 39.8ÂșC and there is bony tenderness over the left tibial shaft. Investigations are:
Hb 6.9 g/dL
Blood culture Gram positive cocci
X-ray left tibia: Osteomyelitis - destruction of bony cortex with periosteal reaction.
What is the most likely responsible pathogen?Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: Non-typhi Salmonella
Explanation:Non-typhi salmonella (NTS) is known to cause blood and bone infections, particularly in children with sickle cell disease and malaria. The exact reason for this susceptibility is not fully understood, but it may be due to the bacteria’s affinity for iron, which is made available through haemolysis. Other bacteria such as E.coli and P. aeruginosa are not commonly associated with sickle cell disease, and Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive coccus. Aplastic anaemia and parvovirus can be ruled out as causes, as the child’s haemoglobin level is normal and parvovirus does not cause osteomyelitis.
Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children, with vertebral osteomyelitis being the most common form in adults. Risk factors include sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis results from the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%. Treatment for osteomyelitis involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin. Clindamycin is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin.
In summary, osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream or spreading from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is more common in children and adults with certain risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause, and MRI is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis. Treatment involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Correct
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A 3-month-old girl is brought to the morning clinic by her father. Since yesterday she has been taking reduced feeds and has been 'not her usual self'. On examination the baby appears well but has a low-grade temperature of 38.2ÂșC. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:The latest NICE guidelines classify any infant under 3 months old with a temperature exceeding 38ÂșC as a ‘red’ feature, necessitating immediate referral to a paediatrician. While some seasoned GPs may opt not to adhere to this recommendation, it is crucial to stay informed about recent examination guidelines.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer.
The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visits the Gastroenterology Clinic with concerns about his tongue. He has noticed unusual patterns on his tongue that have been present for a while, but he is worried about tongue cancer as he has been a heavy smoker for the past 20 years. What is the most suitable initial management option for this patient?
Your Answer: Excision biopsy
Correct Answer: None
Explanation:Geographic Tongue: A Benign Condition Requiring No Medical Intervention
Geographic tongue, also known as benign migratory glossitis, is a common condition that affects up to 3% of the general population. While some patients may experience a burning sensation when consuming hot or spicy foods, most are asymptomatic. The diagnosis of geographic tongue can usually be confirmed from history and physical examination alone, and no medical intervention is required.
Surgical correction is not warranted for geographic tongue, as it is a benign condition of no clinical significance. Aspiration for cytology is also not appropriate, as the diagnosis can be made without further investigation. Excision biopsy may actually cause harm, as histological findings are identical to those seen in pustular psoriasis.
A full blood count is not necessary for the diagnosis of geographic tongue. Instead, the condition can be identified through the elongation of rete ridges, hyperparakeratosis and acanthosis at the periphery, loss of filiform papillae, and migration and clustering of neutrophils within the epithelium towards the centre of the lesions. The predominant inflammatory infiltrates in the lamina propria is neutrophils with an admixture of chronic inflammatory cells.
In summary, geographic tongue is a benign condition that requires no medical intervention. Diagnosis can be made through history and physical examination alone, and further investigation may cause harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of an itchy rash on his face and upper chest that has been bothering him for three weeks. He has a history of HIV but has not been taking his antiretroviral medications as prescribed. During the examination, the doctor observes redness on the eyebrows, nasolabial folds, and upper chest, as well as excoriations around the rash. What is the best initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: UV therapy
Correct Answer: Topical ketoconazole
Explanation:Seborrhoeic dermatitis is the likely diagnosis for this man’s rash, especially given his medical history of HIV. The recommended first-line treatment for this condition is topical ketoconazole. While oral fluconazole may be useful for treating fungal infections and preventing them in HIV patients, it is not effective for seborrhoeic dermatitis. Oral prednisolone is only used for short periods to treat severe inflammatory skin diseases like atopic dermatitis and is not indicated for seborrhoeic dermatitis. Although topical steroids like hydrocortisone can be used to treat seborrhoeic dermatitis, they are not the preferred initial treatment.
Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.
For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient visits your clinic with a complaint of fishy-smelling vaginal discharge. You suspect bacterial vaginosis and decide to prescribe metronidazole. The patient has no known drug allergies and is generally healthy, except for taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). What is the most crucial advice you should provide her regarding the potential side effects of metronidazole?
Your Answer: Metronidazole could cause liver problems
Correct Answer: She should abstain from alcohol whilst taking metronidazole
Explanation:Taking metronidazole and alcohol together can result in a disulfiram-like reaction, so patients should be cautioned against consuming alcohol while on the medication. Metronidazole is not associated with cholestasis, hepatotoxicity, or QT prolongation. As an enzyme inhibitor, metronidazole enhances the efficacy of the COCP. While Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare side effect of metronidazole, a photosensitive rash is not typically observed.
Metronidazole is an antibiotic that functions by producing reactive cytotoxic metabolites within bacteria. This medication can cause adverse effects such as a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol and an increased anticoagulant effect when taken with warfarin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a 12-year history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease presents with dysphagia. Upon endoscopy, an obstructive lesion is observed that is highly suspicious of oesophageal cancer. What is the expected result of the biopsy?
Your Answer: Leiomyoma
Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s esophagus are linked to the development of oesophageal adenocarcinoma.
Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.
Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.
The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.
Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.
Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.
Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with acute cholecystitis and is set to undergo a cholecystectomy in 4 days. She is currently managing her type 1 diabetes with a daily dose of 20 units of long acting insulin in the morning. What is the appropriate once-daily dose of insulin for her to take the day before her surgery?
Your Answer: 10 Units
Correct Answer: 16 Units
Explanation:Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are asked to review an elderly nursing home resident who has generalised inflammation of his oropharynx and is finding it difficult to eat. His past history of note includes the use of a steroid inhaler for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). On examination, there are areas of erythema and a number of white plaques accompanied by some white, curd-like material.
Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oropharyngeal candidiasis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Oral Lesions: Candidiasis, HIV Infection, Hairy Leukoplakia, Darier’s Disease, and Leukoedema
Oral lesions can present in various forms and have different underlying causes. In the case of an elderly man with long-term use of a steroid inhaler for COPD, poor oral hygiene, and possibly poorly fitting prosthetics, the most likely diagnosis is oropharyngeal candidiasis. This yeast-like fungal infection can be treated with antifungal medication, applied to the oral mucosa and any removable oral prostheses, and soaking the latter in an antifungal denture-soaking solution.
HIV infection can also cause oral lesions, primarily in patients with advanced disease. Candidiasis is a common opportunistic infection in these patients, but hairy leukoplakia, associated with Epstein-Barr virus, can also occur. Hairy leukoplakia presents as painless white lesions on the tongue or buccal mucosa, with a characteristic hairy appearance that cannot be scraped off.
Darier’s disease is a rare genetic disorder that causes greasy hyperkeratotic papules in seborrhoeic regions, nail abnormalities, and mucous membrane changes. Mucosal lesions are found in approximately 15% of patients, appearing as white papules with a central depression, most commonly in the mouth.
Leukoedema is a benign condition characterized by a blue, grey, or white appearance of the oral mucosa, with wrinkled, streaky lesions, mostly found on the inside of the cheeks. It is more common and pronounced in smokers.
In summary, the differential diagnosis of oral lesions includes candidiasis, HIV infection, hairy leukoplakia, Darier’s disease, and leukoedema. A thorough examination and consideration of the patient’s medical history can help determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to you with her husband. Her husband complains of frequently waking up in the middle of the night and experiencing difficulty in breathing. She also notes that he feels excessively tired during the day and often dozes off while reading the newspaper. You suspect moderate sleep apnoea and decide to refer him for further evaluation. The patient is curious about the treatment options available. What is the primary treatment for moderate sleep apnoea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
Explanation:Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome
Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition where the upper airway becomes partially or completely blocked during sleep, leading to interrupted breathing and reduced oxygen levels in the body. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. The condition is often characterized by excessive snoring and periods of apnoea, which can be reported by the patient’s partner.
OSAHS can have several consequences, including daytime somnolence, compensated respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. To assess sleepiness, healthcare professionals may use tools such as the Epworth Sleepiness Scale or the Multiple Sleep Latency Test. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies, ranging from monitoring pulse oximetry to full polysomnography.
Management of OSAHS typically involves weight loss and continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as the first line of treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, healthcare professionals may consider them in certain cases.
Overall, understanding OSAHS and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female comes to an after-hours general practitioner complaining of worsening fever, chest pain that worsens when inhaling, and a productive cough with blood-streaked sputum. She reports that she had symptoms of a dry cough, myalgia, and lethargy a week ago, but this week her symptoms have changed to those she is presenting with today. Her chest x-ray shows a cavitating lesion with a thin wall on the right side and an associated pleural effusion. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Causes of Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various infectious agents. Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is the most common type of pneumonia and is caused by different microorganisms. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which accounts for around 80% of cases. Other infectious agents that can cause CAP include Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, atypical pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and viruses.
Klebsiella pneumoniae is another microorganism that can cause pneumonia, but it is typically found in alcoholics. Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as pneumococcus, is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is characterized by a rapid onset, high fever, pleuritic chest pain, and herpes labialis (cold sores).
In summary, pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents, with Streptococcus pneumoniae being the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is important to identify the causative agent to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male is admitted to hospital after an overdose of paracetamol. He waited until his children had gone to school and his wife had left for work before taking 100 tablets. He did not drink any alcohol and rarely has any. He had taken annual leave from the steady job in a factory and had left a note. His wife had forgotten something so returned from work earlier than usual and found him semi-conscious.
After treatment for his physical health he tells you that he does not regret the attempt but feels bad that he has put his children through enough seeing him in hospital. He is not religious. His wife is not very supportive of him and thinks he is 'attention-seeking'. He has no other family or friends locally. He has struggled with symptoms of depression for a number of months and has never sought help, but otherwise is physically well.
During your assessment, you want to ascertain any protective factors.
Which of the following is a protective factor in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She has children at home
Explanation:Completed suicide can be prevented by certain protective factors such as having social support, religious beliefs, having children at home, and regretting a previous attempt. It is important to note that the duration of mental illness is not a determining factor, but having a mental illness, especially depression, increases the risk. Alcohol misuse is also a risk factor, but in this scenario, the fact that the person does not drink much alcohol is not particularly protective. The individual in the scenario lacks social support and is not religious, making those options incorrect. However, having children present at home is a protective factor.
Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors
Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old female comes to the cardiology clinic complaining of persistent shortness of breath that is hindering her daily activities. She has a medical history of dilated cardiomyopathy and is currently taking candesartan, bisoprolol, and furosemide. An echocardiogram reveals a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%. What would be the most suitable long-term treatment to enhance this patient's prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:The initial management for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction involves prescribing an ACE inhibitor (or ARB, as in this patient’s case) and a beta-blocker. However, since the patient’s symptoms are not under control despite taking these medications, it is recommended to add spironolactone (a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist) to their treatment plan.
Bendroflumethiazide is not a suitable long-term management option for heart failure, as thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics are not recommended.
Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, is contraindicated for chronic heart failure.
Dobutamine, an inotrope, may be used in acute decompensated heart failure but is not appropriate for stable management of chronic heart failure.
Ramipril is not a suitable option for this patient as they are already taking candesartan, another angiotensin II receptor blocker.Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents to her General Practitioner complaining of pain to the left knee which is worse after running. The knee is stiff in the morning and sometimes locks. There is a knee effusion present on examination and an X-ray shows a loose body in the knee joint.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans
Explanation:Common Causes of Knee Pain in Adolescents and Young Adults
Knee pain is a common complaint among adolescents and young adults. There are several possible causes of knee pain, including osteochondritis dissecans, chondromalacia patellae, Osgood-Schlatter disease, osteoarthritis, and patellar dislocation.
Osteochondritis dissecans occurs when the articular cartilage separates from the joint surface, typically in the knee joint. This condition is common in teenagers and young adults and can cause vague, achy joint pain that worsens with activity. Other symptoms may include swelling, locking, catching, and giving way. Diagnosis is confirmed with an X-ray and magnetic resonance imaging can help with management and prognosis.
Chondromalacia patellae is characterized by abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella. This condition is a common cause of chronic knee pain in teenagers and young adults. Symptoms include anterior knee pain that worsens after sitting for a prolonged period or walking down stairs. Diagnosis is made through examination and a positive shrug test.
Osgood-Schlatter disease is a cause of knee pain in young adolescents, particularly sporty boys. It is caused by overuse of the quadriceps, which strains the patellar ligament attachment to the tibia. Symptoms include pain inferior to the patella that worsens with activity and improves with rest. Diagnosis is usually clinical and treatment involves simple analgesics and ice packs.
Osteoarthritis is a disease of older age caused by degeneration of the articular cartilage. It is often seen in weight-bearing areas such as the knee and hip, but is unlikely in young adults.
Patellar dislocation is most common in teenage girls and often occurs during sports. Symptoms include sudden pain and an inability to weight bear on the affected side. Examination reveals a dislocated patella, often laterally, and an associated osteochondral fracture may be seen on an X-ray.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male is admitted with acute severe asthma. The initial treatment of 100% oxygen, nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers and IV hydrocortisone is initiated. However, there is no improvement. What should be the next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV magnesium sulphate
Explanation:The routine use of non-invasive ventilation in asthmatics is not supported by current guidelines.
Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.
Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes in with a tremor. What distinguishing characteristic would indicate a diagnosis of essential tremor instead of Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tremor is worse when the arms are outstretched
Explanation:Typical symptoms of Parkinson’s include bradykinesia, postural instability, and initially unilateral symptoms. On the other hand, alcohol can alleviate essential tremor symptoms.
Understanding Essential Tremor
Essential tremor, also known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. The most common symptom is a postural tremor, which worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the leading cause of head tremors, known as titubation.
When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a lifelong condition, but with proper management, individuals can lead a normal life. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options, those with essential tremor can take control of their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old-woman, who rarely visits the clinic, complains of heartburn and acid reflux for the past 3 weeks. She comes back after taking a PPI for 1 week with some relief. Her BMI is 27 kg/m2. What is the most suitable next step in her treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue the PPI and review in 2 weeks
Explanation:Management of New-Onset Dyspepsia in a Middle-Aged Patient
When a middle-aged patient presents with new-onset dyspepsia, it is important to take a thorough clinical history to rule out more serious conditions such as malignancy. A 4-week course of full-dose PPI is typically recommended, although there is no clear evidence on whether this or Helicobacter pylori testing should be done first. If PPIs are used, a 2-week washout period is necessary before testing for H. pylori to avoid false-negative results.
While alginate preparations like GavisconÂź can be used to inhibit gastric acid reflux, it may be more appropriate to increase the PPI dose if the patient has already experienced some improvement with this medication. However, if the patient exhibits ‘red flag’ symptoms like gastrointestinal bleeding, anorexia, weight loss, dysphagia, or the presence of an epigastric mass, urgent endoscopy is necessary. Endoscopy is also recommended for patients over 55 with persistent, unexplained dyspepsia that has not responded well to PPIs.
Finally, while this patient’s BMI is on the higher end of the healthy range, referral to a dietician is unlikely to be necessary unless there are specific concerns about weight loss measures. Overall, a comprehensive approach to managing new-onset dyspepsia in middle-aged patients involves careful consideration of symptoms, medication options, and potential underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic anaemia. The patient is suspected to have a folate deficiency.
Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding folate deficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It increases the risk of a neural tube defect in the foetus.
Explanation:Understanding Folic Acid Deficiency: Causes and Effects
Folic acid deficiency is a serious condition that can have detrimental effects on fetal development and overall health. In this article, we will explore the causes and effects of folic acid deficiency.
Causes of Folic Acid Deficiency
Reduced intake is the most common cause of folic acid deficiency. This can occur due to an inadequate diet or malabsorption. Excessive urinary production, drugs, and excessive requirements can also contribute to folic acid deficiency.
Effects of Folic Acid Deficiency
Folic acid deficiency is associated with neural tube defects in the fetus, which can lead to serious developmental issues. It can also increase the risk of abruption of the placenta and spontaneous abortion. In severe cases, megaloblastic anemia can develop, but this typically takes more than two years after complete cessation of folic acid intake.
Treatment of Folic Acid Deficiency
Methotrexate-induced folic acid deficiency can be corrected with concomitant folic acid therapy. Folinic acid is also effective in treating toxicity caused by methotrexate. Intestinal bacterial overgrowth is not a common cause of folic acid deficiency.
Distinguishing Folic Acid Deficiency from Vitamin B12 Deficiency
Abnormal neurological findings are associated with vitamin B12 deficiency, but not necessarily with folic acid deficiency. Patients with megaloblastic anemia typically do not exhibit neurological symptoms, which suggests that folic acid deficiency is the cause.
In conclusion, folic acid deficiency is a serious condition that can have significant effects on fetal development and overall health. It is important to understand the causes and effects of this condition in order to prevent and treat it effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with lung cancer is currently on MST 30 mg bd for pain management. What dosage of oral morphine solution should be prescribed for his breakthrough pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10 mg
Explanation:The breakthrough dose should be 10 mg, which is one-sixth of the total daily morphine dose of 60 mg (30 mg taken twice a day).
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of cough and wheeze, following a week of mild fever and coryzal symptoms. The infant appears otherwise healthy and has no significant medical history. Upon respiratory examination, diffuse wheezing is noted. Vital signs reveal:
Respiratory rate 52/min
Blood pressure 92/54 mmHg
Temperature 38.2ÂșC
Heart rate 120 bpm
Oxygen saturation 96% on room air
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this infant's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supportive management only
Explanation:If the patient’s respiratory distress worsened or their feeding was impacted, they would be admitted. It is important to note that amoxicillin is not effective in treating bronchiolitis, but may be used for uncomplicated community-acquired pneumonia or acute otitis media. Dexamethasone is commonly used for croup, but this diagnosis is unlikely as the patient does not have a barking cough, hoarse voice, or inspiratory stridor. Inhaled racemic adrenaline is also used for croup. Nebulised salbutamol is not necessary for this patient as they are stable and require only supportive management.
Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.
Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male college student visits the first seizure clinic after his roommate expresses concern that he had a seizure early in the morning following a night out. This is the first seizure he has ever experienced. He does not consume alcohol or use recreational drugs, but he did feel sleep-deprived and dizzy before the seizure. The roommate provides a video that shows the seizure to be tonic-clonic in nature, affecting the arms and legs, with no incontinence, tongue-biting, or postictal drowsiness. Blood tests, lumbar puncture, CT head, MRI brain, and electroencephalogram (EEG) are all normal.
What is the recommended duration for this patient to refrain from driving?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:After a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, patients with normal brain imaging and EEG cannot drive for a period of 6 months. However, if the seizure is most likely a result of vasovagal syncope due to exhaustion and sleep deprivation, it may not be an epileptic seizure and may not have associated symptoms such as incontinence, tongue-biting or postictal confusion. In such cases, the patient must still adhere to the 6-month driving ban. The options of 1 month and 3 months are incorrect as they are not valid periods for a driving ban for any type of seizure.
The DVLA has guidelines for drivers with neurological disorders. Those with epilepsy/seizures must not drive and must inform the DVLA. The length of time off driving varies depending on the type and frequency of seizures. Those with syncope may need time off driving depending on the cause and number of episodes. Those with other conditions such as stroke, craniotomy, pituitary tumor, narcolepsy/cataplexy, and chronic neurological disorders should inform the DVLA and may need time off driving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A teenage boy presents with bizarre delusions, a blunted affect and tangential thought processes.
Which one of the following characteristics would indicate an unfavourable prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A prolonged premorbid history of social withdrawal
Explanation:Understanding Prognostic Factors in Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a complex mental illness that can have a significant impact on a person’s life. While there is no cure for schizophrenia, early diagnosis and treatment can help manage symptoms and improve outcomes. Understanding prognostic factors can also be helpful in predicting the course of the illness and developing appropriate treatment plans.
One important factor to consider is the premorbid history of the patient. A prolonged history of social withdrawal is predictive of more severe and long-lasting psychopathology. Additionally, a family history of schizophrenia in first-degree relatives can have a negative impact on prognosis, while a history in second-degree relatives has little significance.
The onset of illness is also an important factor to consider. In schizophrenia, a sudden onset of illness has a more favourable prognosis than an insidious one. However, if the patient presents with catatonic symptoms, this is actually an indicator of a relatively good prognosis.
Finally, MRI changes are associated with more severe symptoms and clinical course in people with schizophrenia. While it is not fully clear whether these changes are fixed or progress over time, they can be an important factor to consider in developing a treatment plan.
Overall, understanding these prognostic factors can help clinicians develop appropriate treatment plans and provide better support for patients with schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old law student visits his primary care physician complaining of ear pain. He suspects that this is related to the same issue causing dryness in his scalp and beard, as well as eczema-like patches in his nasolabial folds. He has been using non-prescription topical treatments to manage these symptoms but seeks guidance for his earache. What is the probable diagnosis that connects all of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Seborrhoeic dermatitis can lead to common complications such as otitis externa and blepharitis. The patient is experiencing eczema-like plaques and dry skin in areas rich in sebum, which he has been treating with over-the-counter antifungal shampoos. However, his complaint of earache may be due to otitis externa, which is associated with seborrhoeic dermatitis. A full ear examination should be performed to rule out other diagnoses. Contact dermatitis is unlikely to present in this distribution and would not cause otalgia. Eczema herpeticum is a severe primary infection by herpes-simplex-virus 1 or 2, commonly seen in children with atopic eczema. Guttate psoriasis commonly affects children after Streptococcal upper respiratory tract infection and will clear over the course of ,3 months without treatment. Irritant dermatitis is unlikely to cause such focal areas of irritation.
Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.
For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic heart failure due to ischaemic cardiomyopathy is being evaluated. He was discharged from the hospital two weeks ago after experiencing a heart attack. An echocardiogram conducted during his hospitalization revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%, but no valve issues were identified.
Despite his current regimen of furosemide, ramipril, carvedilol, aspirin, and simvastatin, he continues to experience shortness of breath with minimal exertion, such as walking 30 meters. On examination, his chest is clear, and there is only slight peripheral edema. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add an aldosterone antagonist
Explanation:The 2010 NICE guidelines have been revised to recommend the use of both angiotensin-2 receptor blockers and hydralazine in combination with a nitrate as second-line treatments for heart failure, in addition to aldosterone antagonists. However, considering the patient’s recent myocardial infarction, the most appropriate option would be an aldosterone antagonist, as per the NICE guidelines. For further information, please refer to the guidelines.
Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents with multiple, ring-shaped, papular rashes on his legs. He has recently noticed a red, raised intra-oral lesion.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Lichen Planus, Erythema Multiforme, Psoriasis, Ringworm, and Tinea Versicolor
Lichen Planus: A skin condition that affects cutaneous and mucosal surfaces, characterised by flat-topped plaques and papules with a purple hue and white striae. It can be treated with topical steroids and immunomodulators.
Erythema Multiforme: A skin condition characterised by targetoid lesions with a central depression, usually starting on the acral extensor surfaces and progressing to involve the trunk and back. It can be caused by medications, infections, or underlying conditions.
Psoriasis: An autoimmune chronic skin condition presenting with erythematous plaques and greyscale on the extensor surfaces of extremities. It is not associated with intra-oral mucosal lesions.
Ringworm: A fungal skin infection characterised by erythematous, scaly patches on the skin surface of the trunk, back, and extremities. It can lead to the formation of pustules or vesicles.
Tinea Versicolor: A fungal skin infection characterised by pale or dark, copper-coloured patches on the arms, neck, and trunk. It does not involve mucosal surfaces.
Understanding Different Skin Conditions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner complaining of pallor, fatigue, weakness, palpitations and dyspnoea on exertion. Her symptoms have developed rapidly over the past two weeks. A blood test and bone marrow biopsy reveal a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).
What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chemotherapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Leukaemia
Acute leukaemia, specifically acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), is characterized by an increase in undifferentiated blast cells in the bone marrow and blood, leading to marrow failure. The traditional treatment approach for AML involves three components: induction, consolidation, and maintenance chemotherapy. Combination chemotherapy is used to eradicate blast cells, with maintenance chemotherapy given to eliminate any remaining disease.
Iron transfusions may be necessary to treat anaemia or platelet deficiency, but they are not a direct treatment for acute leukaemia. Patients with leukaemia are at risk of graft-versus-host disease, so they are given irradiated blood components.
Intravenous immunoglobulins are not a treatment for acute leukaemia but may be used to prevent infection in patients with hypogammaglobulinaemia resulting from cancer treatment.
Radiotherapy is not a first-line treatment for acute leukaemia, but it may be used to treat disease that has spread to the brain or spinal cord. Total body radiotherapy can also be used before a stem-cell transplant to reduce the risk of transplant rejection.
Stem-cell transplants can be allogeneic (from a matched or partially matched donor) or autologous (from the patient’s own stem cells) and are used after remission induction with chemotherapy. The goal is to restore the body’s ability to produce normal blood cells and can be curative, but it is not a first-line treatment.
Understanding Treatment Options for Acute Leukaemia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with schizophrenia who is on chlorpromazine experiences an oculogyric crisis. Which side effect of antipsychotic medication does this exemplify?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute dystonia
Explanation:Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 37
Incorrect
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As a foundation year two doctor in general practice, you encounter a thirty-four-year-old priest who reports knee pain without any history of trauma. Upon examination, you note stable observations and slight swelling with pain and tenderness overlying the knee. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infrapatellar bursitis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this gentleman’s condition is infrapatellar bursitis, which is often associated with kneeling, particularly in clergymen. Although prepatellar bursitis may also be a possible cause, it is more commonly observed in housemaids who kneel in a more upright position. Osteoarthritis, which is characterized by knee pain and a feeling of instability, is more prevalent in individuals over the age of forty-five, making it less likely for this patient. Cruciate ligament damage, meniscal tear, and ruptured bursa are also potential causes, but they are typically associated with a history of trauma.
Knee problems are common among older adults, and it is important to be aware of the key features of each condition. Osteoarthritis of the knee is often seen in patients over 50 years of age who are overweight. This condition can cause severe pain, intermittent swelling, crepitus, and limited movement. Infrapatellar bursitis, also known as Clergyman’s knee, is associated with kneeling, while prepatellar bursitis, or Housemaid’s knee, is associated with more upright kneeling. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by twisting of the knee, and patients may have heard a popping noise. Rapid onset of knee effusion and a positive draw test are also common features. Posterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by anterior force applied to the proximal tibia, such as during a car accident. Collateral ligament injuries can cause tenderness over the affected ligament and knee effusion. Meniscal lesions may be caused by twisting of the knee and can cause locking and giving-way, as well as tenderness along the joint line.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. He is currently taking ramipril for his high blood pressure. What is the most appropriate medication to help manage his heart failure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Comparing Beta Blockers for Heart Failure: Efficacy and Evidence
Beta blockers are a class of medications commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. Among them, bisoprolol and carvedilol have the strongest evidence of efficacy in reducing mortality rates in heart failure patients, according to data from the CIBIS and CASA-2 trials. Atenolol, although cardioselective, has less evidence to support its use in heart failure. Labetalol is primarily used for hypertension in pregnancy, while propranolol has the most evidence of benefit after a myocardial infarction but is not always preferred due to its twice-daily dosing. Sotalol, a first-generation beta blocker, is not cardioselective and is not recommended for heart failure. Overall, the choice of beta blocker for heart failure should be based on the available evidence and individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man complains of pain in his right eye that worsens with movement. Upon examination, a relative afferent pupillary defect is observed. What is the most probable reason for his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man is seen by his General Practitioner for his annual hypertension review. He agrees to be referred to the local smoking cessation service, as he is currently experiencing chest pain.
Which of the following medications will need to be monitored closely on cessation of smoking?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Theophylline
Explanation:The Effect of Smoking Cessation on Asthma Medications
Smoking cessation can have a significant impact on the management of asthma and the use of certain medications. Here is a breakdown of how smoking cessation affects different asthma medications:
Theophylline: Smoking induces the hepatic enzyme CYP1A2, which plays a major role in metabolizing theophylline. Therefore, quitting smoking can lead to higher plasma levels of theophylline and potentially fatal arrhythmias. Patients need to have their plasma theophylline concentration levels monitored closely and may require a reduced dose after quitting smoking.
Budesonide/formoterol: Neither budesonide nor formoterol are metabolized by CYP1A2, so there is no need for close monitoring following smoking cessation. Asthma control should improve after quitting smoking, and the inhaler dose should be reviewed as part of stepwise management.
Montelukast: Montelukast is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system but not CYP1A2, so smoking cessation does not affect its level.
Prednisolone: Prednisolone is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system, but CYP1A2 is not involved. Therefore, smoking cessation does not affect its metabolism.
Salbutamol: Smoking cessation can improve asthma control, leading to less frequent use of salbutamol or other reliever inhalers. There is no need to monitor this closely as reducing the as-required use of this medication poses no risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a blistering rash around his left eye that is causing him pain. Upon examination, a vesicular rash is observed covering the left trigeminal nerve dermatome. The patient reports no current eye symptoms or signs. What factor is most likely to indicate future eye involvement?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of the rash on the tip of his nose
Explanation:Hutchinson’s sign is a reliable indicator of potential ocular involvement.
Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.
Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman, who is known to have rheumatoid arthritis, complains that she has had recurrent haemoptysis for over five years. She has never smoked and only takes a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent. According to her, she coughs up phlegm every day and at times this contains streaks of fresh blood. She has no known respiratory disease, but tends to get frequent chest infections that are relieved by a course of antibiotics.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Understanding Bronchiectasis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by permanent and irreversible dilatations of the bronchial walls. It can be caused by various factors, including cystic fibrosis, immune system deficiencies, lung infections, foreign body aspiration, and smoking. Common symptoms of bronchiectasis include high sputum production, recurrent chest infections, and haemoptysis. A high-resolution computed tomography (HR-CT) scan of the lungs is usually used to diagnose bronchiectasis. Treatment involves a multidisciplinary approach, including chest physiotherapy, patient education, antibiotic treatment, and bronchodilators. While treatment of the underlying cause may be necessary, it does not provide reversal of the existing bronchiectasis. Other conditions, such as atypical pneumonia, lung cancer, tuberculosis, and pulmonary embolism, may have similar symptoms but require different diagnoses and treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman, who is a non-smoker, presents with back pain. A bone scan shows multiple lesions highly suggestive of metastases. Clinical examination is normal apart from unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy. Excision biopsy of an affected lymph node shows adenocarcinoma. Which of the following investigations should be prioritised to find the site of the primary?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mammography
Explanation:When a patient presents with metastatic bone disease from an unknown primary, it is important to identify the primary source in order to guide treatment and determine prognosis. Tumours that commonly metastasize to bone include those of the lungs, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.
In cases where the patient has unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy, metastatic breast carcinoma is highly likely. Other potential causes of unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy include lymphoma, primary malignancy, melanoma, or metastases from non-breast primary malignancy.
While there are various investigations that can be performed, mammography should be the first examination of choice. If the mammogram is negative, other investigations may be pursued to identify alternative occult sites.
It is important to note that identifying the primary source is useful even in cases of metastatic disease, as it can guide treatment and provide insight into prognosis. Therefore, mammography plays a crucial role in the diagnosis of metastatic breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is admitted to Resus with a suspected anterior myocardial infarction. An ECG on arrival confirms the diagnosis and thrombolysis is prepared. The patient is stable and his pain is well controlled with intravenous morphine. Clinical examination shows a blood pressure of 140/84 mmHg, pulse 90 bpm and oxygen saturations on room air of 97%. What is the most appropriate management with regards to oxygen therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No oxygen therapy
Explanation:There are now specific guidelines regarding the use of oxygen during emergency situations. Please refer to the provided link for more information.
Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with a long-standing history of schizophrenia is being seen by his psychiatrist. He was admitted to the psychiatry unit six months ago due to delusions that he was being tracked by spies. At the time of admission, he was taking quetiapine, but it was changed to aripiprazole 400 mg monthly depot. Recently, he has been expressing to his wife that he believes his food is poisoned. His wife thinks that his new medication is not effective. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Clozapine is the appropriate choice for patients with schizophrenia who have not responded adequately to at least two antipsychotics. In this case, the patient has already tried quetiapine and aripiprazole without success, making clozapine a suitable option. However, it requires careful monitoring and titration. Continuing aripiprazole is not recommended as the patient has been on the highest dose for six months and is still experiencing delusional ideas. Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic that can be used for schizophrenia, but atypical antipsychotics are preferred due to fewer side effects. Lorazepam is not a long-term antipsychotic and is only useful for managing severe agitation in patients with schizophrenia.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with symptoms of nausea and vomiting. An F1 administers metoclopramide, but 20 minutes later the patient reports feeling as though his eyes are stuck in an abnormal position and he cannot move them. What is the likely cause of this man's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute dystonia
Explanation:The administration of metoclopramide can result in extrapyramidal side effects, with acute dystonia being the earliest and most common. This can lead to oculogyric crises, particularly in young individuals. Long-term side effects may include akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. The patient’s history does not suggest an allergic reaction, as there were no symptoms such as facial or lip swelling, breathing or circulatory issues, or the presence of a rash.
Metoclopramide is a medication that is commonly used to manage nausea. It works by blocking D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, which helps to alleviate feelings of sickness. In addition to its antiemetic properties, metoclopramide also has other uses, such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis caused by diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics to treat migraines, which can cause gastroparesis and slow the absorption of pain medication.
However, metoclopramide can have some adverse effects, such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. These side effects are particularly problematic in children and young adults. It is important to note that metoclopramide should not be used in cases of bowel obstruction, but it may be helpful in cases of paralytic ileus.
Although metoclopramide primarily works as a D2 receptor antagonist, its mechanism of action is quite complex. It also acts as a mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist and 5-HT4 receptor agonist. The antiemetic effects of metoclopramide are due to its D2 receptor antagonist activity in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, while its gastroprokinetic effects are mediated by both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. At higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist activity also comes into play.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male patient complains of a painful rash on his forehead that has been present for one day. The patient has no significant medical history. Upon examination, a vesicular rash is observed on the right side in the distribution of the ophthalmic nerve. There is no discharge or pus, and no ocular involvement is present. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral acyclovir for 7-10 days
Explanation:In the case of herpes zoster ophthalmicus, topical antiviral treatment is not recommended. The first line of treatment is oral acyclovir, which should be initiated promptly and continued for 7-10 days. If there are any indications of ocular involvement, the patient should be referred to an ophthalmologist immediately. While steroids can be administered concurrently, they do not decrease the likelihood of post-herpetic neuralgia. Topical mupirocin is not an appropriate treatment option.
Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.
Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old non-smoker with no significant medical history presents to their GP with a cough producing green sputum, fatigue, and shortness of breath that has lasted for several days. During chest examination, coarse crackles are heard in the lower right zone. The patient's observations are as follows: respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation of 97% on air, heart rate of 80 beats per minute, blood pressure of 110/75 mmHg, temperature of 38.1ÂșC, and an abbreviated mental test score of 10/10. The patient is not on any regular medication and has no allergies. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discharge with oral amoxicillin
Explanation:The recommended first-line antibiotic for patients with low severity community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is oral amoxicillin. Therefore, it is appropriate to discharge this patient with oral amoxicillin as they present with symptoms of CAP, including a new cough, temperature, purulent sputum, and focal chest signs. While a chest x-ray could confirm the diagnosis, it is not usually necessary for suspected CAP managed in primary care. The patient’s CRB-65 score is 0, indicating that they can be managed in the community. Hospitalization may be required for patients with higher scores or clinical factors that increase the risk of complications, but this is not the case for this patient. Discharge with oral clarithromycin or doxycycline is not appropriate as there is no indication that amoxicillin is unsuitable as the first-line antibiotic.
Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A child is admitted with wheeze and an urticarial rash, which began 10 minutes after ingestion of amoxicillin for a chest infection.
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 1
Explanation:Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Mechanisms
Hypersensitivity reactions are exaggerated immune responses that can cause tissue damage and disease. There are five types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with a different mechanism and clinical presentation.
Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE) and mast cell degranulation, leading to the release of histamine and other mediators. This type of reaction is responsible for allergies and anaphylaxis and is treated with antihistamines, epinephrine, and steroids.
Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions are antibody-mediated and involve the interaction of antibodies with antigens on target cells. Examples include haemolytic anaemia of the newborn and Goodpasture Syndrome.
Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions are immune complex-mediated and occur when immune complexes are deposited in tissues, leading to inflammation. Examples include rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus.
Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions are delayed and involve the activation of sensitised T-helper cells, leading to the accumulation of macrophages and cytotoxic T-cells. Examples include chronic transplant rejection and contact dermatitis.
Type 5 hypersensitivity reactions are receptor-mediated or autoimmune and occur when antibodies bind to cell surface receptors. Examples include Grave’s disease and myasthenia gravis.
Understanding the mechanisms of hypersensitivity reactions is important for diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a risk factor for gastric cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: History of duodenal ulceration
Explanation:Gastric Cancer: Risk Factors, Features, Investigations, and Management
Gastric cancer is a relatively uncommon cancer, accounting for only 2% of all cancer diagnoses in developed countries. It is more prevalent in older individuals, with half of patients being over 75 years old, and has a higher incidence in males. Risk factors for gastric cancer include Helicobacter pylori infection, atrophic gastritis, dietary factors such as salt and nitrate consumption, smoking, and blood group.
Symptoms of gastric cancer can be vague and include abdominal pain, dyspepsia, weight loss, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and dysphagia. Overt upper gastrointestinal bleeding is rare. If the cancer has spread to the lymph nodes, Virchow’s node and Sister Mary Joseph’s node may be affected.
Diagnosis of gastric cancer is typically made through oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy with biopsy. Signet ring cells may be present in gastric cancer, and a higher number of these cells is associated with a worse prognosis. Staging is done through CT scans.
Management of gastric cancer depends on the extent and location of the cancer. Surgical options include endoscopic mucosal resection, partial gastrectomy, and total gastrectomy. Chemotherapy may also be used.
Overall, gastric cancer is a relatively rare cancer with specific risk factors and symptoms. Early diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial for improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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