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  • Question 1 - A 26 year old male from Eastern Europe has been experiencing night sweats,...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old male from Eastern Europe has been experiencing night sweats, fevers, and decreased weight for several months. He also has a chronic cough which at times consists of blood. He is reviewed at the clinic and a calcified lesion was detected in his right lung with enlarged calcified right hilar lymph nodes. His leukocytes are just below normal range and there is a normochromic normocytic anaemia. Acid-fast bacilli (AFB) are found in one out of five sputum samples. Sputum is sent for extended culture.   Which diagnosis fits best with his signs and symptoms?

      Your Answer: Old tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Active pulmonary tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Classic clinical features associated with active pulmonary TB are as follows (elderly individuals with TB may not display typical signs and symptoms):
      – Cough
      – Weight loss/anorexia
      – Fever
      – Night sweats
      – Haemoptysis
      – Chest pain (can also result from tuberculous acute pericarditis)
      – Fatigue

      Test:
      Acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear and culture – Using sputum obtained from the patient.
      AFB stain is quick but requires a very high organism load for positivity, as well as the expertise to read the stained sample. This test is more useful in patients with pulmonary disease.
      Obtain a chest radiograph to evaluate for possible associated pulmonary findings. If chest radiography findings suggest TB and a sputum smear is positive for AFB, initiate treatment for TB.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      61
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is not associated with right axis deviation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not associated with right axis deviation?

      Your Answer: Chronic lung disease

      Correct Answer: Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome with right-sided accessory pathway

      Explanation:

      Causes for right axis deviation:
      -Right ventricular hypertrophy and Left posterior fascicular block
      -Lateral myocardial infarction.
      -Acute or chronic lung diseases: Pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), cor pulmonale.
      -Congenital heart disease (e.g., dextrocardia, secundum atrial septal defect).
      -Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
      -Ventricular ectopic rhythms (e.g., ventricular tachycardia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain. Which of the following is the pain most likely linked to?

      Your Answer: Meconium ileus equivalent syndrome

      Explanation:

      Meconium ileus equivalent (MIE) can be defined as a clinical manifestation in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients caused by acute intestinal obstruction by putty-like faecal material in the cecum or terminal ileum. A broader definition includes a more chronic condition in CF patients with abdominal pain and a coecal mass which may eventually pass spontaneously. The condition occurs only in CF patients with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI). It has not been seen in other CF patients nor in non-CF patients with EPI. The frequency of these symptoms has been reported as 2.4%-25%.

      The treatment should primarily be non-operative. Specific treatment with N-acetylcysteine, administrated orally and/or as an enema is recommended. Enemas with the water soluble contrast medium, meglucamine diatrizoate (Gastrografin), provide an alternative form for treatment and can also serve diagnostic purposes. It is important that the physician is familiar with this disease entity and the appropriate treatment with the above mentioned drugs. Non-operative treatment is often effective, and dangerous complications following surgery can thus be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 4 year old child was brought in by his mother with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old child was brought in by his mother with complaints of vesicular eruption over his palms, soles and oral mucosa for the last 5 days. He was slightly febrile. There were no other signs. The most likely causative organism in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Adenovirus

      Correct Answer: Coxsackie

      Explanation:

      This patient is most likely suffering from hand, foot mouth disease which is caused by coxsackie virus A16. Its incubation period ranges from 5-7 days and only symptomatic treatment is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?...

    Incorrect

    • Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peripheral asymmetric oligoarthropathy

      Explanation:

      Most patients with psoriatic arthritis present with monoarthritis or asymmetric oligoarthritis. The most common form of the disease is the one involving a few joints of the peripheral skeleton with a distinct asymmetry of symptoms. Involvement of the smaller joints of the hands and feet, especially distal interphalangeal joints, seems to be a characteristic feature. Arthritis mutilans is a rare and severe complication of psoriatic arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50 yr. old smoker with a history of hypertension presented with acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 yr. old smoker with a history of hypertension presented with acute severe chest pain and acute myocardial infarction was diagnosed. Which of the following is a contraindication for thrombolysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History of likely ischaemic stroke within the past month

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications for fibrinolytic use in STEMI

      Prior intracranial haemorrhage (ICH)
      Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
      Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
      Ischemic stroke within 3 months
      Suspected aortic dissection
      Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
      Significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within 3 months
      Intracranial or intraspinal surgery within 2 months
      Severe uncontrolled hypertension (unresponsive to emergency therapy)
      For streptokinase, prior treatment within the previous 6 months

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old man, following a fall at home, presents to his GP with...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man, following a fall at home, presents to his GP with acute localised chest pain, associated chronic postural lower back pain and chronic fatigue. On examination, he appears mildly anaemic and dehydrated, and has bruises over his arms and legs despite denying previous trauma. Furthermore, he has marked tenderness over his left lower rib cage, compatible with injured ribs, and tenderness over his lower lumbar spine. The rest of his clinical examination is normal. In order to establish a diagnosis of multiple myeloma, based on the patient's symptomology, which of the following combination of criteria is required?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy and radiographic survey demonstrating lytic lesions

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of multiple myeloma (MM) is based on the confirmation of (a) one major criterion and one minor criterion or (b) three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of multiple myeloma.

      Major criteria:
      1. >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Monoclonal band of paraprotein on electrophoresis: >35g/L for IgG, 20g/L for IgA, or >1g of light chains excreted in the urine per day

      Minor criteria:
      1. 10–30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Abnormal monoclonal band but levels less than listed above
      3. Lytic bone lesions observed radiographically
      4. Immunosuppression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman was on a camping holiday in Spain. She awoke at...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman was on a camping holiday in Spain. She awoke at three o’clock one morning with severe neck pain radiating down into her left shoulder and down to her forearm. The next day it spread to the dorsal aspect of the forearm. She was otherwise well. Her symptoms resolved after 24 hours. She noticed that after a week she was unable to wind down the car window with her left arm. On examination of the left arm there was wasting of brachioradialis, shoulder, biceps and winging of left scapula. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amyotrophic neuralgia

      Explanation:

      This patient present with the classical symptoms of Amyotrophic neuralgia, characterised by sudden onset of pain in the shoulders that radiate down to the forearms and later resolve spontaneously but is followed by muscle wasting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old female in her second week post delivery presents for review with...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female in her second week post delivery presents for review with her husband. He is worried due to her depressed mood and her poor interaction with the baby. He describes her mood three days ago being much different. She was talking in a rapid and incoherent fashion about the future. The mother denies any hallucinations but states that her child has been brought into a 'very bad world'. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange urgent admission

      Explanation:

      The given clinical scenario warrants urgent admission and psychiatric evaluation as the mother seems to be suffering from puerperal psychosis.

      Post-partum mental health problems can range from the ‘baby-blues’ to puerperal psychosis.

      The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale may be used to screen for depression:
      A 10-item questionnaire, with a maximum score of 30
      indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week
      score > 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’
      sensitivity and specificity > 90%. It includes a question about self-harm

      Postpartum psychosis has a complex multifactorial origin. Risk factors include a history of bipolar disorder, history of postpartum psychosis in a previous pregnancy, a family history of psychosis or bipolar disorder, a history of schizoaffective disorder or schizophrenia and discontinuation of psychiatric medications during pregnancy.
      Incidence rate: 2.6 per 1000 births.
      Onset usually within the first 2-3 weeks following birth
      Symptoms of puerperal psychosis include confusion, lack of touch with reality, disorganized thought pattern and behaviour, odd effect, sleep disturbances, delusions, paranoia, appetite disturbances, a noticeable change in the level of functioning from baseline, hallucinations and suicidal or homicidal ideation.
      The safety of the patient and new-born is of utmost importance, and thus, immediate hospitalization is warranted if there is a risk of harm to either one.
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe – whilst they are secreted in breast milk it is not thought to be harmful to the infant
      There is around a 20% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 41 year old man who has had two episodes of pneumonia in...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old man who has had two episodes of pneumonia in succession and an episode of haemoptysis is observed to have paroxysms of coughing and increasing wheezing. A single lesion which is well-defined is seen in the lower right lower lobe on a chest x-ray. There is no necrosis but biopsy shows numerous abnormal cells, occasional nuclear pleomorphism and absent mitoses. Which diagnosis fits the clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoid

      Explanation:

      Bronchial carcinoids are uncommon, slow growing, low-grade, malignant neoplasms, comprising 1-2% of all primary lung cancers.
      It is believed to be derived from surface of bronchial glandular epithelium. Mostly located centrally, they produce symptoms and signs of bronchial obstruction such as localized wheeze, non resolving recurrent pneumonitis, cough, chest pain, and fever. Haemoptysis is present in approximately 50% of the cases due to their central origin and hypervascularity.
      Central bronchial carcinoids are more common than the peripheral type and are seen as endobronchial nodules or hilar/perihilar mass closely related to the adjacent bronchus. Chest X-ray may not show the central lesion depending on how small it is.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the following is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nodular sclerosing

      Explanation:

      The most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) is nodular sclerosing.

      HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.

      According to the histological classification, there are four types of HL:

      1. Nodular sclerosing: most common (around 70%), more common in women, associated with lacunar cells, good prognosis

      2. Mixed cellularity: Around 20%, associated with a large number of Reed-Sternberg cells, good prognosis

      3. Lymphocyte-predominant: Around 5%, Reed-Sternberg cells with nuclei surrounded by a clear space found, best prognosis

      4. Lymphocyte-depleted: rare, worst prognosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65 yr. old previously well man was referred due to an abnormal...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 yr. old previously well man was referred due to an abnormal heart sound which was detected during a medical check up. On examination he looked well. His blood pressure was 120/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 68 bpm which was regular. His jugular venous pressure was not elevated and he didn't have ankle oedema. He had an early diastolic murmur, best heard at the left sternal edge, which was more clear in expiration when the patient leant forward. His lungs were clear. His FBC, Urea and electrolytes, LFTs and lipid profile were normal. His ECG showed sinus rhythm. His chest X-ray was normal. Echocardiography showed mild to moderate aortic regurgitation with normal left ventricular size and normal function. Which of the following is the most appropriate way of managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start him on an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Although this patient’s left ventricular function is normal at the time of examination, there is chance of deterioration of it due to aortic regurgitation. It is found that ACE inhibitors slow the development of left ventricular dysfunction. So this patient should be started on an ACE inhibitor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 30 yr. old male was brought in with a history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 yr. old male was brought in with a history of a stab injury to left chest. He was complaining of chest pain. On examination he was tachycardic, hypotensive and had an elevated JVP, pulsus paradoxus and muffled heart sounds. Respiratory examination was unremarkable. Which of the following is most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Becks triad (hypotension, elevated systemic venous pressure, often with jugular venous distention and muffled heart sounds) is a characteristic collection of clinical findings found in cardiac tamponade. Pulsus paradoxus is also associated with it. The history and clinical findings in this scenario are compatible with the diagnosis of cardica tamponade. The normal respiratory examination excludes tension pneumothorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 39-year-old professor presents with visual problems. He has had very poor vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old professor presents with visual problems. He has had very poor vision in the dark for a long time but is now worried as he is developing 'tunnel vision'. He states his grandfather had a similar problem and went blind in his 50's. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa

      Explanation:

      Retinitis pigmentosa primarily affects the peripheral retina resulting in tunnel vision. Night blindness is often the initial sign. Tunnel vision occurs due to loss of the peripheral retina (occasionally referred to as funnel vision).
      Fundoscopy exam reveals black bone spicule-shaped pigmentation in the peripheral retina, and mottling of the retinal pigment epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 72 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension for 15 years, presented with gradual onset difficulty in breathing on exertion and bilateral ankle swelling for the past 3 months. On examination he had mild ankle oedema. His JVP was not elevated. His heart sounds were normal but he had bibasal crepitations on auscultation. Which of the following clinical signs has the greatest sensitivity in detecting heart failure in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Third heart sound

      Explanation:

      The presence of a third heart sound is the most sensitive indicator of heart failure. All of the other signs can be found in heart failure with varying degrees.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      Infective causes of hair loss include:
      Dissecting cellulitis
      Fungal infections (such as tinea capitis)
      Folliculitis
      Secondary syphilis
      Demodex folliculorum
      Lupus erythematosus (hair loss may be permanent due to scarring of the hair follicles).
      Psoriasis and seborrheic dermatitis commonly involve the scalp but do not produce hair loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase in B2-microglobulin levels

      Explanation:

      The immunological changes in HIV include depletion in CD4+ T cell, cytokine dysregulation and immune dysfunction. The dominant immunologic feature of HIV infection is progressive depletion of the helper T cell (CD4+ T cell), which reverses the normal CD4:CD8 ratio and subsequently lead to immunodeficiency. Other imuunological changes include:
      increased B2-microglobulin
      decreased IL-2 production
      polyclonal B-cell activation
      decreased NK cell function
      reduced delayed hypersensitivity responses

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is northern blotting used for? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is northern blotting used for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Detect RNA

      Explanation:

      Northern blotting’s purpose is to measure the size and amount of RNA transcribed from a specific gene of interest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old gentleman with a history of chronic renal failure due to diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman with a history of chronic renal failure due to diabetes comes to the clinic for review. He has reported increasing bone and muscle aches over the past few weeks.   Medications include ramipril, amlodipine and indapamide for blood pressure control, atorvastatin for lipid management, and insulin for control of his blood sugar. On examination his BP is 148/80 mmHg, his pulse is 79 and regular. His BMI is 28.   Investigations show: Haemoglobin 10.7 g/dl (13.5-17.7) White cell count 8.2 x 10(9)/l (4-11) Platelets 202 x 10(9)/l (150-400) Serum sodium 140 mmol/l (135-146) Serum potassium 5.0 mmol/l (3.5-5) Creatinine 192 μmol/l (79-118) Calcium 2.18 mmol/l (2.2-2.67) Phosphate 1.9 mmol/l (0.7-1.5)   He has tried following a low phosphate diet.   Which of the following would be the next most appropriate step in controlling his phosphate levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sevelamer

      Explanation:

      Sevelamer is a phosphate-binding drug that can lower raised serum phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Because of its aluminium-related side-effects, aluminium hydroxide is no longer the drug of choice.
      The other options are calcium-containing salts that may increase risks of tissue calcification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which one of the following medications is most useful for helping to prevent...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following medications is most useful for helping to prevent attacks of Meniere’s disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Betahistine

      Explanation:

      Betahistine is a histamine analogue that has been the mainstay treatment drug for Meniere’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25 yr. old male presented with an episode of syncope. His examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 yr. old male presented with an episode of syncope. His examination findings were normal. He gave a history of sudden cardiac death of a close relative. His ECG showed incomplete right bundle-branch block and ST-segment elevations in the anterior precordial leads. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brugada syndrome

      Explanation:

      Brugada syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by sudden cardiac death. The positive family history and characteristic ECG findings are in favour of Brugada syndrome. Usually the physical findings are normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria

      Explanation:

      Sunlight, especially its ultraviolet radiation component, can cause increased or additional types of damage in predisposed individuals, such as those taking certain phototoxic drugs, or those with certain conditions associated with photosensitivity, including:
      – Psoriasis
      – Atopic eczema
      – Erythema multiforme
      – Seborrheic dermatitis
      – Autoimmune bullous diseases (immunobullous diseases)
      – Mycosis fungoides
      – Smith–Lemli–Opitz syndrome
      – Porphyria cutanea tarda
      Also, many conditions are aggravated by strong light, including:
      – Systemic lupus erythematosus
      – Sjögren’s syndrome
      – Sinear Usher syndrome
      – Rosacea
      – Dermatomyositis
      – Darier’s disease
      – Kindler-Weary syndrome
      Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) belongs to the group inborn errors of metabolism and most patients with AIP are not light sensitive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is associated with heterochromia in congenital disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is associated with heterochromia in congenital disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Horner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Heterochromia (difference in iris colour) is seen in congenital Horner’s syndrome, as well as anhidrosis. Other features of non-congenital Horner’s include miosis, ptosis and enophthalmos.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 26-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant had a recent ultrasound that shows...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant had a recent ultrasound that shows the foetus large for dates. She has an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) which was requested due to a combination of her Asian ethnicity and background of obesity. The following results are obtained: (Time (hours) : Blood glucose (mmol/l)), 0 : 9.2, 2 : 14.2. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start insulin

      Explanation:

      Insulin remains the standard of care for the treatment of uncontrolled gestational diabetes. Tight control maintained in the first trimester and throughout pregnancy plays a vital role in decreasing poor fetal outcomes, including structural anomalies, macrosomia, hypoglycaemia of the new-born, adolescent and adult obesity, and diabetes.
      The baby is already large for dates so nutritional therapy can not be used alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 21-year-old woman presents with painful vesicles in her right ear and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with painful vesicles in her right ear and a fever for some time. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes zoster

      Explanation:

      Herpes zoster oticus is a viral infection of the inner, middle, and external ear. It manifests as severe otalgia with associated cutaneous vesicular eruption, usually of the external canal and pinna. When associated with facial paralysis, the infection is called Ramsay Hunt syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon. She has undergone mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast. Out of the following, which factor is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Young age

      Explanation:

      Poor prognostic factors for breast cancer include:
      1. Young age (<40 years)
      2. Premenopausal at the time of diagnosis
      3. Increased tumour size
      4. High-grade tumour
      5. Oestrogen and progesterone receptor-negative tumour
      6. Positive lymph node status

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lupus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma, exposure to a causative agents including: molluscum contagiosum, warts and toxicodendron dermatitis or secondary to scratching rather than an infective or chemical cause include vitiligo, psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen nitidus, pityriasis rubra pilaris, and keratosis follicularis (Darier disease).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for the past four hours. He is a known alcoholic who has abstained from drinking for the past three days. On examination, he is sweating, agitated and disorientated. His temperature is 37.7°C, pulse 112 bpm regular and blood pressure is 150/76 mmHg. Blood investigations performed in the emergency department reveal: FBC: Normal U&E: Normal Plasma glucose: 4.6 mmol/l (3.6-6) Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate treatment for this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral lorazepam

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal, which should be treated as a medical emergency. 
      Delirium tremens is a hyperadrenergic state and is often associated with tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnoea, tremor, and mydriasis.
      Treatment:
      – The most common and validated treatment for alcohol withdrawal is benzodiazepine: first-line treatment includes oral lorazepam.
      – If the symptoms persist, or the medication is refused, parenteral lorazepam, haloperidol or olanzapine should be given.
      – Central-acting, alpha-2 agonists such as clonidine and dexmedetomidine should not be used alone for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.
      – It is also recommended to avoid using alcohol, antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, beta-adrenergic receptor blockers, and baclofen for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal as there are not enough studies to support the safety of these.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 33-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain associated with weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain associated with weakness of his arms and legs. Which one of the following urine tests would best indicate lead toxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coproporphyrin

      Explanation:

      Lead poisoning is characterised by abdominal pain, fatigue, constipation, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), and blue lines on gum margin in 20% of the adult patients (very rare in children).

      For diagnosis, the level of lead in blood is usually considered with levels greater than 10 mcg/dL being significant. Furthermore, the blood film shows microcytic anaemia and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. Urinary coproporphyrin is increased (urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased). Raised serum and urine levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid may also be seen, making it sometimes difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Hepatitis C is what kind of virus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Hepatitis C is what kind of virus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A variable RNA virus

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C is a single-stranded positive sense RNA virus. It is variable because of the high rate of error of RNA-dependent RNA polymerase and the pressure from the host immune system has caused HCV to evolve and develop seven genetic lineages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
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