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  • Question 1 - A middle-aged staff grade doctor in general medicine is convinced that he failed...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged staff grade doctor in general medicine is convinced that he failed his membership exams due to unjust treatment by the examiners. He has repeatedly sent letters and emails of grievance to the College and the Medical Director and he consistently feels victimized. He has encountered comparable problems in all of his past positions. Despite this, he performs well in his job and has a positive rapport with his patients. He does not exhibit any signs of psychosis. How would you characterize his demeanor?

      Your Answer: Overvalued paranoid ideas

      Explanation:

      Paranoid Overvalued Ideas

      Paranoid overvalued ideas are a type of thought pattern that arises from a self-referential interpretation of events and interactions with others. Individuals with this condition tend to assume that they are being treated unfairly and will often react strongly to any perceived discrimination. Unlike psychotic disorders associated with persecutory delusions, paranoid overvalued ideas do not typically involve psychotic symptoms or impair day-to-day functioning.

      An overvalued idea is a thought that takes precedence over all other ideas due to the associated feeling tone. This type of idea can maintain its precedence permanently or for an extended period of time. the nature of paranoid overvalued ideas is crucial for identifying and treating individuals who may be struggling with this condition. By recognizing the signs and symptoms of this thought pattern, mental health professionals can provide targeted interventions to help individuals overcome their negative thought patterns and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A 23-year-old female medical student arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female medical student arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis, a fever and weakness. She had been experiencing headache, myalgia and nausea for the past 3 days, but felt slightly better yesterday before feeling much worse today. She had recently travelled to Uganda for her elective and did not receive any of the recommended travel vaccines. Upon examination, she is bradycardic, weak all over and visibly jaundiced.

      What is the most appropriate description of the infection that this student is currently suffering from?

      Your Answer: Zoonotic protozoal infection

      Correct Answer: Zoonotic viral infection

      Explanation:

      The probable cause of the patient’s illness is yellow fever, which is a zoonotic infection. The symptoms, temporary relief, and recent travel to a region with a high incidence of yellow fever all point to this diagnosis. Yellow fever is a viral disease that is transmitted by the Aedes mosquito and can infect other primates as well. It is recommended that individuals traveling to yellow fever-prone areas receive the yellow fever vaccine before departure.

      Yellow Fever: A Viral Hemorrhagic Fever Spread by Mosquitos

      Yellow fever is a type of viral hemorrhagic fever that is spread by Aedes mosquitos. The incubation period for this zoonotic infection is typically between 2 to 14 days. While some individuals may experience only mild flu-like symptoms lasting less than a week, the classic description of yellow fever involves a sudden onset of high fever, rigors, nausea, and vomiting. Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, may also develop. After a brief remission, jaundice, haematemesis, and oliguria may occur. In severe cases, individuals may experience jaundice and haematemesis. Councilman bodies, which are inclusion bodies, may also be seen in the hepatocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - As an observer in the colorectal surgical department, you spend a morning watching...

    Correct

    • As an observer in the colorectal surgical department, you spend a morning watching a colonoscopy list. A number of patients who arrive during the morning are individuals with Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC), who are being screened to detect any early signs of colorectal cancer. What is the lifetime risk of developing colorectal cancer for individuals with this condition?

      Your Answer: 90%

      Explanation:

      Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      7.9
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  • Question 4 - A new drug is being trialled for joint pain and its pharmacology and...

    Incorrect

    • A new drug is being trialled for joint pain and its pharmacology and pharmacokinetics are being reviewed. A patient in their 40s receives drug X of 500mg strength with the initial plasma concentration being recorded as 8.0mg/L. Calculate the drug’s volume of distribution.

      60L
      6%
      65.5L
      4%
      62.5L
      83%
      64L
      6%
      63L
      1%

      In order to calculate volume of distribution you must be familiar with the equation.

      Vd = Dose/Plasma concentration

      Since the units here all related we don’t have to change anything but ensure that the units are compatible before plugging them into the formula. Here the drug dose was 500mg and the concentration was 8.0mg/L.
      500mg/8.0mg/L = 62.5L?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 62.5L

      Explanation:

      To determine the volume of distribution, one should be acquainted with the formula Vd = Dose/Plasma concentration. It is important to ensure that the units used are compatible before substituting them into the equation. For instance, if the drug dose is 500mg and the concentration is 8.0mg/L, the volume of distribution would be 62.5L.

      Understanding Volume of Distribution in Pharmacology

      The volume of distribution (VD) is a concept in pharmacology that refers to the theoretical volume that a drug would occupy to achieve the same concentration as it currently has in the blood plasma. The VD is used to determine how a drug is distributed in the body and can be classified as low, medium, or high. Low VD drugs are confined to the plasma, while medium VD drugs are distributed in the extracellular space, and high VD drugs are distributed in the tissues.

      Several factors influence the VD of a drug, including liver and renal failure, pregnancy, dehydration, large molecules, high plasma protein, hydrophilicity, and high charge. For instance, drugs with high plasma protein binding tend to have a low VD because they are confined to the plasma. On the other hand, drugs that are highly hydrophilic or charged tend to have a low VD because they cannot penetrate cell membranes.

      Examples of high VD drugs include tricyclic antidepressants, morphine, digoxin, phenytoin, chloroquine, and salicylates. These drugs are distributed widely in the body and can penetrate cell membranes. In contrast, low VD drugs include heparin, insulin, and warfarin, which are confined to the plasma due to their large size or high plasma protein binding. Understanding the VD of a drug is crucial in determining its pharmacokinetics and optimizing its therapeutic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old patient presents to the neurology clinic with recurrent episodes of vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents to the neurology clinic with recurrent episodes of vision loss, one instance of urinary incontinence, and left arm tingling. The neurologist suspects a demyelinating disease. Which specific cell is responsible for myelinating axons in the central nervous system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oligodendrocytes

      Explanation:

      The CNS relies on oligodendrocytes to produce myelin, while Schwann cells are responsible for myelin production in the PNS. Oligodendrocytes can myelinate up to 50 axons each, and are often mistaken for Schwann cells. Multiple sclerosis is a disease that affects oligodendrocytes in the CNS. Microglia are specialized phagocytes in the CNS, while astrocytes provide structural support and remove excess potassium ions from the extracellular space.

      The nervous system is composed of various types of cells, each with their own unique functions. Oligodendroglia cells are responsible for producing myelin in the central nervous system (CNS) and are affected in multiple sclerosis. Schwann cells, on the other hand, produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and are affected in Guillain-Barre syndrome. Astrocytes provide physical support, remove excess potassium ions, help form the blood-brain barrier, and aid in physical repair. Microglia are specialised CNS phagocytes, while ependymal cells provide the inner lining of the ventricles.

      In summary, the nervous system is made up of different types of cells, each with their own specific roles. Oligodendroglia and Schwann cells produce myelin in the CNS and PNS, respectively, and are affected in certain diseases. Astrocytes provide physical support and aid in repair, while microglia are specialised phagocytes in the CNS. Ependymal cells line the ventricles. Understanding the functions of these cells is crucial in understanding the complex workings of the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 6 - A 63-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of blood in...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of blood in his stools. The blood is bright red and occurs during defecation, but it is not painful. He has been feeling more tired lately, but he has not experienced night sweats, weight loss, loss of appetite, or changes in bowel habits.

      The patient has a history of liver cirrhosis and underwent an oesophageal endoscopy two years ago, but he cannot recall the results. He is a known alcoholic and attends AA.

      Upon examination, the patient appears pale with conjunctival pallor, and ascites is present.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemorrhoids

      Explanation:

      Haemorrhoids in Portal Hypertension

      A likely diagnosis for a patient with a history of portal hypertension, ascites, endoscopy, and cirrhotic liver is haemorrhoids. Portal hypertension causes pressure to be passed on to the middle and inferior rectal veins, leading to their dilation and the development of haemorrhoids. While haemorrhoids are common in the general population, significant blood loss is rare. However, in patients with established cirrhosis, large amounts of blood can be lost through these varices.

      An anal fissure is unlikely in this case, as there is no history of straining or a low-fibre diet, and they are typically painful. While colorectal carcinoma is an important diagnosis to consider, painless bright fresh blood is more likely to be caused by haemorrhoids in patients with a strong history of portal hypertension. In malignancy, fresh blood is less common, and a change in bowel habit is often a prominent feature.

      A perianal haematoma is a thrombosed haemorrhoid that typically presents with severe pain, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this case. The patient’s presentation of painless bleeding further supports the diagnosis of haemorrhoids in the context of portal hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 7 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to a pediatrician's office. He recently came back...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to a pediatrician's office. He recently came back from a family vacation in Australia and has developed a severe sunburn on his face and arms. The boy has always had freckles on his face, arms, and legs, and his parents have noticed that his skin gets worse when exposed to sunlight.

      During the examination, the doctor observes that the boy's skin is dry and scaly, and there are irregular dark spots on it.

      Based on the symptoms, what is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the underlying cause of the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Defect in nucleotide excision repair

      Explanation:

      Xeroderma pigmentosum is typically diagnosed when a defect in nucleotide excision repair is identified. Similarly, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer is often associated with a defect in mismatch repair. Scurvy, on the other hand, is caused by a deficiency in vitamin C.

      Double-stranded breaks in DNA can be repaired through a process called non-homologous end joining. This involves a DNA ligase forming a complex with XRCC4 to join the two ends of the DNA fragments. On the other hand, single-stranded damage can be repaired through different mechanisms. Base excision repair involves a DNA glycosylase removing the damaged base, with the gap being recognized by AP endonuclease before the missing base is resynthesized by a DNA polymerase. Nucleotide excision repair, on the other hand, recognizes and removes bulky DNA adducts caused by UV light before the missing segment is resynthesized by a DNA polymerase. Mismatch repair inspects newly formed DNA, looking for and removing mispaired nucleotides. Defects in these repair mechanisms have been linked to various genetic disorders such as xeroderma pigmentosum and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 8 - A child in cardiac arrest is administered adrenaline as part of their treatment....

    Incorrect

    • A child in cardiac arrest is administered adrenaline as part of their treatment. Adrenaline is frequently utilized in the management of cardiac arrest due to its impact on blood pressure and coronary perfusion.

      Which receptors do you anticipate being activated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: α-1, α-2, β-1, β-2

      Explanation:

      Compared to alpha receptors, beta receptors are more strongly affected by adrenaline. Adrenaline also acts on both α-1 and α-2 receptors.

      Inotropes are drugs that primarily increase cardiac output and are different from vasoconstrictor drugs that are used for peripheral vasodilation. Catecholamine type agents are commonly used in inotropes and work by increasing cAMP levels through adenylate cyclase stimulation. This leads to intracellular calcium ion mobilisation and an increase in the force of contraction. Adrenaline works as a beta adrenergic receptor agonist at lower doses and an alpha receptor agonist at higher doses. Dopamine causes dopamine receptor-mediated renal and mesenteric vascular dilatation and beta 1 receptor agonism at higher doses, resulting in increased cardiac output. Dobutamine is a predominantly beta 1 receptor agonist with weak beta 2 and alpha receptor agonist properties. Noradrenaline is a catecholamine type agent and predominantly acts as an alpha receptor agonist and serves as a peripheral vasoconstrictor. Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that acts specifically on the cardiac phosphodiesterase and increases cardiac output.

      The cardiovascular receptor action of inotropes varies depending on the drug. Adrenaline and noradrenaline act on alpha and beta receptors, with adrenaline acting as a beta adrenergic receptor agonist at lower doses and an alpha receptor agonist at higher doses. Dobutamine acts predominantly on beta 1 receptors with weak beta 2 and alpha receptor agonist properties. Dopamine acts on dopamine receptors, causing renal and spleen vasodilation and beta 1 receptor agonism at higher doses. The minor receptor effects are shown in brackets. The effects of receptor binding include vasoconstriction for alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors, increased cardiac contractility and heart rate for beta-1 receptors, and vasodilation for beta-2 receptors. D-1 receptors cause renal and spleen vasodilation, while D-2 receptors inhibit the release of noradrenaline. Overall, inotropes are a class of drugs that increase cardiac output through various receptor actions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
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  • Question 9 - A child undergoes a challenging craniotomy for fulminant mastoiditis and abscess. While performing...

    Incorrect

    • A child undergoes a challenging craniotomy for fulminant mastoiditis and abscess. While performing the surgery, the trigeminal nerve is severely affected in Meckel's cave. What is the least probable deficit that the child will experience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaesthesia over the entire ipsilateral side of the face

      Explanation:

      The sensory fibres of the trigeminal nerve do not provide innervation to the angle of the jaw, which means that this area is not affected by this type of injury. However, since the trigeminal nerve is responsible for providing motor innervation to the muscles of mastication, an injury in close proximity to the motor fibres may result in some degree of compromise in muscle function.

      The trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with profuse bleeding from her...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with profuse bleeding from her arm due to an injury. Upon examination, a 6 cm transverse laceration is observed across the anterior aspect of her elbow. When exploring the cubital fossa, where would you expect to find the brachial artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral to the median nerve

      Explanation:

      The median nerve is usually located medial to the brachial artery.

      The Antecubital Fossa: Anatomy and Clinical Significance

      The antecubital fossa is a depression located on the anterior aspect of the arm, between the arm and forearm. It is an important area for medical professionals as it is where venous blood samples are typically taken from. The borders of the antecubital fossa are the brachioradialis muscle laterally, the pronator teres medially, and a line between the medial and lateral epicondyles superiorly.

      There are both deep and superficial structures found in the antecubital fossa. Deep structures include the radial nerve, tendon of the biceps muscle, brachial artery, and medial nerve. Superficial structures consist of a network of veins, including the cephalic vein and basilic vein, which come together as the median cubital vein.

      The main clinical relevance of the antecubital fossa is its use for blood sampling and cannulation. However, it is also important to have a working knowledge of the anatomy as structures can become damaged. Excessive straining of the biceps tendon can cause it to rupture, leading to a ‘Popeye sign’. Damage to the medial nerve can also occur, resulting in muscle paralysis in the forearm and hand. Overall, understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the antecubital fossa is crucial for medical professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
General Principles (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal System (1/1) 100%
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