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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with confusion. She had been...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with confusion. She had been receiving outpatient treatment for uncomplicated pyelonephritis but stopped taking her antibiotics three days ago. On examination, her blood pressure is 85/55 mmHg and her temperature is 40.2 ºC. Laboratory results show leukocytosis, elevated C-reactive protein (CRP), and procalcitonin. Which cytokine is most likely responsible for her fever?

      Your Answer: Interleukin 6 (IL-6)

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

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  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old woman is currently experiencing menopausal symptoms and seeks advice from her...

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    • A 55-year-old woman is currently experiencing menopausal symptoms and seeks advice from her GP regarding treatment options. She has been having irregular periods for a few months and is bothered by reduced libido, vaginal dryness, night sweats, and hot flushes. Initially, she expresses interest in an oestrogen-only HRT based on her friend's experience, but after reviewing her medical history, the GP recommends a combined HRT instead. What is the contraindication that led the GP to suggest this alternative treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Presence of a uterus

      Explanation:

      Women with a uterus taking HRT need a preparation with progestogen to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. SSRIs can be used as a non-hormonal option for menopausal symptoms. Smoking and uncontrolled hypertension are contraindications to HRT use, but migraines with aura are not. COCP has different contraindications than HRT.

      Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.

      The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.

      HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.

      HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.

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  • Question 3 - A 23-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his roommate after...

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    • A 23-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his roommate after experiencing difficulty speaking and breathing for the past hour. The man had recently returned from a one-week vacation and had been feeling well. Before heading out for his regular Saturday football game, he had some homemade pineapple jam. The man has no significant medical history and has not been hospitalized recently. There is no significant family history. The attending physician recognizes the condition and begins treatment immediately. The emergency medicine resident explains the situation to the roommate. What is the most likely mechanism that has been affected in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Release of the acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction

      Explanation:

      The symptoms presented by this man are consistent with a diagnosis of Clostridium botulinum toxicity, which occurs when contaminated food is ingested. The bacteria responsible for this condition, Clostridium botulinum, thrive in the anaerobic environment of home-canned food. The toxin produced by these bacteria prevents the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, resulting in neuromuscular impairment.

      1: The Clostridium botulinum toxin does not affect the muscarinic or nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. Autoantibodies to the muscarinic receptors are responsible for the destruction of these receptors in myasthenia gravis.
      2: The spread of depolarization along the myelinated axon at the nodes of Ranvier is not affected by the Clostridium botulinum toxin.
      3: The influx of calcium ions into the presynaptic terminal through voltage-gated calcium channels triggers the release of neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft. Autoantibodies to these calcium channels are responsible for the Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome.
      4: The Clostridium botulinum toxin prevents the release of acetylcholine by cleaving the SNARE protein complex, which is necessary for the fusion of the pre-formed synaptic vesicles with the presynaptic membrane.
      5: The process of loading, docking, priming, fusion, and endocytosis of synaptic vesicles is not affected by the Clostridium botulinum toxin.

      Understanding Botulism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Botulism is a rare but serious illness caused by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. This gram-positive anaerobic bacillus produces botulinum toxin, a neurotoxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine, leading to flaccid paralysis and other symptoms. There are seven serotypes of the bacterium, labeled A-G. Botulism can result from eating contaminated food, particularly tinned food, or from intravenous drug use.

      The neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum often affects bulbar muscles and the autonomic nervous system. Symptoms of botulism include diplopia, ataxia, and bulbar palsy. Patients are usually fully conscious with no sensory disturbance, but they experience flaccid paralysis.

      Treatment for botulism involves administering botulism antitoxin and providing supportive care. However, the antitoxin is only effective if given early, as once the toxin has bound, its actions cannot be reversed. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention immediately if botulism is suspected.

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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her GP clinic to see the nurse for...

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    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her GP clinic to see the nurse for a follow-up evaluation of a deep cut injury that happened 4 weeks ago while preparing food, requiring multiple stitches. She has no significant medical history and is in good health. The nurse observes that the wound appears smaller than before and that a pale scar has begun to develop. The nurse informs the patient that this is a positive sign, but that this stage of the healing process takes the longest time.

      Which stage of the healing process is the nurse likely referring to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Remodelling

      Explanation:

      The remodelling phase of wound healing is the lengthiest, lasting from six weeks to a year. Given that the injury happened a few weeks ago, it is probable that the patient is currently in this stage of the healing process.

      The Four Phases of Wound Healing

      Wound healing is a complex process that involves four distinct phases: haemostasis, inflammation, regeneration, and remodelling. During the haemostasis phase, the body works to stop bleeding by constricting blood vessels and forming a clot. This is followed by the inflammation phase, during which immune cells migrate to the wound site to fight infection and release growth factors that stimulate the production of new tissue. Fibroblasts, which are cells that produce collagen, also migrate to the wound site during this phase.

      The regeneration phase is characterized by the production of new tissue, including blood vessels and collagen. This phase can last several weeks and is critical for the formation of granulation tissue, which is a type of tissue that forms at the wound site and helps to promote healing. Finally, during the remodelling phase, the body works to remodel the new tissue and form a scar. This phase can last up to a year or longer and involves the differentiation of fibroblasts into myofibroblasts, which help to facilitate wound contraction.

      Overall, wound healing is a complex process that involves multiple phases and a variety of different cell types. By understanding these phases, researchers and clinicians can develop new treatments and therapies to help promote healing and reduce the risk of complications.

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  • Question 5 - When setting up a screening program, which of the following is not a...

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    • When setting up a screening program, which of the following is not a crucial criterion according to Wilson and Junger?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The condition should be potentially curable

      Explanation:

      Screening for a particular condition should meet certain criteria, known as the Wilson and Junger criteria. Firstly, the condition being screened for should be a significant public health concern. Secondly, there should be an effective treatment available for those who are diagnosed with the disease. Thirdly, facilities for diagnosis and treatment should be accessible. Fourthly, there should be a recognizable early stage of the disease. Fifthly, the natural progression of the disease should be well understood. Sixthly, there should be a suitable test or examination available. Seventhly, the test or examination should be acceptable to the population being screened. Eighthly, there should be a clear policy on who should be treated. Ninthly, the cost of screening and subsequent treatment should be economically balanced. Finally, screening should be an ongoing process rather than a one-time event.

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  • Question 6 - A 75-year-old male is admitted to the ICU with a fever, headache, vomiting,...

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    • A 75-year-old male is admitted to the ICU with a fever, headache, vomiting, and a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13. The medical team suspects herpes simplex encephalitis and orders an MRI while starting the appropriate treatment. What is the likely mechanism of action of the drug administered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Competitively inhibits viral DNA polymerases

      Explanation:

      acyclovir is a highly specific antiviral agent that targets viral DNA polymerase with greater affinity than cellular DNA polymerase. It works by incorporating into the DNA and causing chain termination due to the missing 2′ and 3′ carbons. To become active, acyclovir must first be converted to acyclovir monophosphate by the virus-specific enzyme thymidine kinase (TK), and then to its active triphosphate form by human enzymes. acyclovir is effective against most herpesvirus species.

      Penicillins prevent peptidoglycan cross-linking by binding to penicillin-binding-proteins, leading to cell lysis and making them bactericidal. They can be given with β-lactamase inhibitors to prevent antibiotic breakdown, such as co-amoxiclav (amoxicillin with clavulanic acid).

      Quinolones are topoisomerase inhibitors that inhibit DNA synthesis and are bactericidal. However, they can cause tendon rupture as a side effect.

      Aminoglycosides bind to the 30S subunit, causing mRNA misreading. Gentamicin is an example used to treat various bacterial infections, but it can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity.

      Macrolides like clindamycin bind to the 50S subunit, inhibiting translocation. Clindamycin is primarily used to treat anaerobic infections caused by susceptible anaerobic bacteria, including dental, respiratory, skin, and soft tissue infections, as well as peritonitis.

      Antiviral agents are drugs used to treat viral infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms of the virus, such as inhibiting viral DNA polymerase or neuraminidase. Some common antiviral agents include acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin, amantadine, oseltamivir, foscarnet, interferon-α, and cidofovir. Each drug has its own mechanism of action and indications for use, but they all aim to reduce the severity and duration of viral infections.

      In addition to these antiviral agents, there are also specific drugs used to treat HIV, a retrovirus. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), protease inhibitors (PI), and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) are all used to target different aspects of the HIV life cycle. NRTIs work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is needed for the virus to replicate. PIs inhibit a protease enzyme that is necessary for the virus to mature and become infectious. NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing the virus from replicating. These drugs are often used in combination to achieve the best possible outcomes for HIV patients.

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  • Question 7 - A 62-year-old female visits a medical facility for evaluation after reporting to her...

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    • A 62-year-old female visits a medical facility for evaluation after reporting to her doctor about a lump in her right breast. Upon conducting a mammography and biopsy of the breast tissue, it is confirmed that she has invasive ductal carcinoma.

      Which oncogene is primarily linked to this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HER2/neu

      Explanation:

      Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.

      In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.

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  • Question 8 - An infant is born with exomphalos. What embryological structure is responsible for the...

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    • An infant is born with exomphalos. What embryological structure is responsible for the development of this defective muscle layer in the abdominal wall?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mesoderm

      Explanation:

      The mesoderm is responsible for the development of connective tissue and muscles.

      Embryological Layers and Their Derivatives

      Embryonic development involves the formation of three primary germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. Each layer gives rise to specific tissues and organs in the developing embryo. The ectoderm forms the surface ectoderm, which gives rise to the epidermis, mammary glands, and lens of the eye, as well as the neural tube, which gives rise to the central nervous system (CNS) and associated structures such as the posterior pituitary and retina. The neural crest, which arises from the neural tube, gives rise to a variety of structures including autonomic nerves, cranial nerves, facial and skull bones, and adrenal cortex. The mesoderm gives rise to connective tissue, muscle, bones (except facial and skull), and organs such as the kidneys, ureters, gonads, and spleen. The endoderm gives rise to the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal tract, liver, pancreas, thyroid, parathyroid, and thymus.

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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old woman comes to your clinic with symptoms of depression, weight gain,...

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    • A 65-year-old woman comes to your clinic with symptoms of depression, weight gain, and dry skin. You suspect that she might be experiencing hypothyroidism.

      What is the origin of the organ responsible for her symptoms, from an embryological perspective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endoderm

      Explanation:

      The thyroid, parathyroid, and thymus glands are all derived from the endodermal layer of the germ layer. Conversely, the ectoderm gives rise to the nails and lens of the eye, while the neural crest tissue is responsible for the development of the nervous system. Finally, the mesoderm is responsible for the formation of muscle and connective tissues.

      Embryological Layers and Their Derivatives

      Embryonic development involves the formation of three primary germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. Each layer gives rise to specific tissues and organs in the developing embryo. The ectoderm forms the surface ectoderm, which gives rise to the epidermis, mammary glands, and lens of the eye, as well as the neural tube, which gives rise to the central nervous system (CNS) and associated structures such as the posterior pituitary and retina. The neural crest, which arises from the neural tube, gives rise to a variety of structures including autonomic nerves, cranial nerves, facial and skull bones, and adrenal cortex. The mesoderm gives rise to connective tissue, muscle, bones (except facial and skull), and organs such as the kidneys, ureters, gonads, and spleen. The endoderm gives rise to the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal tract, liver, pancreas, thyroid, parathyroid, and thymus.

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  • Question 10 - A 36-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and overall sluggishness. She...

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    • A 36-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and overall sluggishness. She informs her doctor that she has been following a new diet for the past month, which involves severely limiting her calorie intake and consuming only white rice. Upon examination, the doctor observes that she has difficulty moving her eyes, an unsteady gait, and seems disoriented.

      What are the organs that are typically affected by the vitamin deficiency responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brain and heart

      Explanation:

      The brain and heart, which are highly aerobic tissues, are impacted by thiamine deficiency, leading to conditions like Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome and wet beriberi. This is because thiamine plays a crucial role in the breakdown of sugars and amino acids. On the other hand, vitamin D deficiency affects bones, while vitamin A deficiency affects the eyes.

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

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  • Question 11 - A 26-year-old man from Sub Saharan Africa comes to the clinic with complaints...

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    • A 26-year-old man from Sub Saharan Africa comes to the clinic with complaints of lymphadenopathy and weight loss. The doctor suspects tuberculosis and performs a lymph node biopsy. Which staining agent is most likely to aid in identifying the causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ziehl-Neelsen stain

      Explanation:

      Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used for mycobacteria, not Gram staining. Van Gieson and Masson trichrome are for connective tissues, while Von Kossa identifies tissue mineralisation.

      Understanding Tuberculosis: The Pathophysiology and Risk Factors

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The pathophysiology of tuberculosis involves the migration of macrophages to regional lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. This complex leads to the formation of a granuloma, which is a collection of epithelioid histiocytes with caseous necrosis in the center. The inflammatory response is mediated by a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. While healthy individuals can contain the disease, immunocompromised individuals are at risk of developing disseminated (miliary) TB.

      Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. These include having lived in Asia, Latin America, Eastern Europe, or Africa for years, exposure to an infectious TB case, and being infected with HIV. Immunocompromised individuals, such as diabetics, patients on immunosuppressive therapy, malnourished individuals, or those with haematological malignancies, are also at risk. Additionally, silicosis and apical fibrosis increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. Understanding the pathophysiology and risk factors of tuberculosis is crucial in preventing and treating this infectious disease.

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  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old woman undergoes surgery for ovarian cancer and subsequently starts adjuvant chemotherapy...

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    • A 67-year-old woman undergoes surgery for ovarian cancer and subsequently starts adjuvant chemotherapy including paclitaxel. The drug works by disrupting tubulin, a protein that forms microtubules. What is the most accurate explanation of the typical role of these structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guide movement during intracellular transport and help bind internal organelles

      Explanation:

      Microtubules play a crucial role in guiding intracellular transport and binding internal organelles. They also contribute to the cell’s cytoskeleton, which provides its shape. Although not directly involved in DNA translation, microtubules are essential for DNA segregation during cell division.

      Transmembrane proteins, such as ion channels, are responsible for transporting substances across the cell membrane.

      The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for synthesizing the lipid membrane.

      The docking and fusion of vesicles with their target organelles are facilitated by proteins called SNAREs, which are present on the surface of both the vesicles and the target organelles.

      Microtubules: Components of the Cytoskeleton

      Microtubules are cylindrical structures found in the cytoplasm of all cells except red blood cells. They are composed of alternating α and β tubulin subunits that polymerize to form protofilaments. Microtubules are polarized, having a positive and negative end. They play a crucial role in guiding movement during intracellular transport and binding internal organelles.

      Molecular transport is facilitated by attachment proteins called dynein and kinesin, which move up and down the microtubules. Dynein moves in a retrograde fashion, down the microtubule towards the centre of the cell (+ve → -ve), while kinesin moves in an anterograde fashion, up the microtubule away from the centre, towards the periphery (-ve → +ve).

      In summary, microtubules are essential components of the cytoskeleton that help maintain cell shape and facilitate intracellular transport. Dynein and kinesin play a crucial role in molecular transport by moving up and down the microtubules.

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  • Question 13 - One of your colleagues in her early thirties has been experiencing fever, multiple...

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    • One of your colleagues in her early thirties has been experiencing fever, multiple episodes of vomiting, and a sudden onset desquamating rash on her body for a few hours. She had a long shift in the labour theatre and forgot to change her tampon for almost a day. As time passes, her condition deteriorates, and she is transferred to the Emergency Department with an altered sensorium.

      Upon examination, the patient's blood pressure is 70/40 mmHg, pulse rate is 130 beats/min, respiratory rate is 30/minute, and temperature is 40ºC.

      What is the probable organism and toxin responsible for her current state?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus - TSST 1 toxin

      Explanation:

      The TSST-1 superantigen toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is the cause of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome. The patient’s symptoms and medical history suggest a diagnosis of TSS, which is often associated with tampon use. Treatment typically involves obtaining blood and urine cultures and initiating empiric antibiotic therapy.

      Shiga toxin produced by Escherichia coli is not related to TSS. While E. coli can cause mild infections and urinary tract infections, toxin-producing strains are responsible for severe gastrointestinal disease.

      PA toxin produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not associated with TSS, although this organism is commonly associated with nosocomial infections and can be multidrug-resistant.

      Pneumolysin produced by Streptococcus pneumoniae is not associated with TSS, as this organism is primarily known to cause pneumonia.

      Understanding Staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome

      Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome is a severe reaction to staphylococcal exotoxins, specifically the TSST-1 superantigen toxin. It gained attention in the 1980s due to cases related to infected tampons. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention have established diagnostic criteria for this syndrome, which includes fever, hypotension, a diffuse erythematous rash, desquamation of the rash (especially on the palms and soles), and involvement of three or more organ systems. These organ systems may include the gastrointestinal system, mucous membranes, kidneys, liver, blood platelets, and the central nervous system.

      The management of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome involves removing the source of infection, such as a retained tampon, and administering intravenous fluids and antibiotics. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if any of the symptoms of this syndrome are present.

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  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by the police after...

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    • A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by the police after he was reported by a bar for violent behavior. He was involved in a physical altercation with another patron and also assaulted the police officers who intervened. He claims to have special powers to protect people at the bar. Despite his agitation, he allows the doctor to examine him. On examination, his pupils are dilated and he has a heart rate of 105 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 19 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 145/94 mmHg. What treatment options are available for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Explanation:

      The individual displayed symptoms consistent with amphetamine or cocaine intoxication, including agitated behavior and the potential for cardiac arrest and seizures. Treatment options may include benzodiazepines or alpha-blockers to manage the effects of cocaine, while flumazenil may be used for benzodiazepine intoxication. N-acetylcysteine is effective in treating paracetamol overdose by replenishing glutathione levels, and naloxone is used to manage opioid overdose, such as with heroin.

      The management of overdoses and poisonings involves specific treatments for each toxin. For example, in cases of paracetamol overdose, activated charcoal may be given if ingested within an hour, and N-acetylcysteine or liver transplantation may be necessary. Salicylate overdose may require urinary alkalinization with IV bicarbonate or haemodialysis. Opioid/opiate overdose can be treated with naloxone, while benzodiazepine overdose may require flumazenil, although this is only used in severe cases due to the risk of seizures. Tricyclic antidepressant overdose may require IV bicarbonate to reduce the risk of seizures and arrhythmias, while lithium toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline or haemodialysis. Warfarin overdose can be treated with vitamin K or prothrombin complex, while heparin overdose may require protamine sulphate. Beta-blocker overdose may require atropine or glucagon. Ethylene glycol poisoning can be treated with fomepizole or ethanol, while methanol poisoning may require the same treatment or haemodialysis. Organophosphate insecticide poisoning can be treated with atropine, and digoxin overdose may require digoxin-specific antibody fragments. Iron overdose may require desferrioxamine, and lead poisoning may require dimercaprol or calcium edetate. Carbon monoxide poisoning can be treated with 100% oxygen or hyperbaric oxygen, while cyanide poisoning may require hydroxocobalamin or a combination of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate.

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  • Question 15 - A 2-year-old girl is brought to a pediatrician by her mother due to...

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    • A 2-year-old girl is brought to a pediatrician by her mother due to a persistent runny nose and cough for the past six months. Despite being treated with antibiotics for an upper respiratory tract infection, the symptoms have not improved. During the examination, the pediatrician observes that the girl has frontal bossing, a flattened nasal bridge, and a protruding tongue. The child's growth is also below average, but there is no corneal clouding. Further investigation reveals low levels of iduronate sulfatase enzyme activity, confirming the diagnosis. The pediatrician informs the mother that this is a genetically inherited condition and that treatment will involve replacing the defective enzyme. What is the correct name of the condition that this girl is suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: This disease is transmitted by carrier mothers to half of their sons but not daughters

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a metabolic disease, specifically one of the lysosomal storage diseases such as Hurler syndrome or Hunter syndrome. Hurler syndrome is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern and is characterized by corneal clouding due to low alpha-L-iduronidase activity. Hunter syndrome, on the other hand, does not involve corneal clouding and is diagnosed through low iduronate sulfatase activity.

      1: This transmission pattern is seen in mitochondrial myopathies, a group of genetically inherited diseases with a mitochondrial pattern of inheritance.
      2: Autosomal dominant diseases only require one affected parent to transmit the disease, examples include Huntington disease, Marfan syndrome, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis.
      3: X-linked dominant diseases are transmitted by affected mothers to half of their sons and daughters, but not by fathers. Examples include fragile X syndrome, Alport syndrome, and vitamin D-resistant rickets.
      4: X-linked recessive diseases are transmitted by carrier mothers to half of their sons, but not their daughters. Examples include Hunter syndrome, ocular albinism, G6PD deficiency, and Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
      5: Autosomal recessive diseases require both parents to be carriers of the defective gene for the disease to be transmitted. Examples include cystic fibrosis, Kartagener syndrome, sickle cell anemia, and Hunter syndrome.

      Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Types and Deficiencies

      Inherited metabolic disorders are a group of genetic disorders that affect the body’s ability to process certain substances. These disorders can be categorized into different types based on the specific substance that is affected. One type is glycogen storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of glycogen in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, and hepatomegaly.

      Another type is lysosomal storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in lysosomal metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of various substances within lysosomes, resulting in symptoms such as hepatosplenomegaly, developmental delay, and optic atrophy. Examples of lysosomal storage diseases include Gaucher’s disease, Tay-Sachs disease, and Fabry disease.

      Finally, mucopolysaccharidoses are a group of disorders caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in the breakdown of glycosaminoglycans. This can lead to the accumulation of these substances in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as coarse facial features, short stature, and corneal clouding. Examples of mucopolysaccharidoses include Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome.

      Overall, inherited metabolic disorders can have a wide range of symptoms and can affect various organs and systems in the body. Early diagnosis and treatment are important in managing these disorders and preventing complications.

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  • Question 16 - Most of the signals carried within the brain are excitatory, with a neurotransmitter...

    Incorrect

    • Most of the signals carried within the brain are excitatory, with a neurotransmitter causing activation of the postsynaptic neuron. Glutamate is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter within the brain.

      Activation of which of the following receptors by glutamate causes immediate activation of the postsynaptic neuron in individuals of a slightly different age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: AMPA receptor

      Explanation:

      Glutamate mediates fast excitatory neurotransmission in the CNS through the activation of AMPA receptors. These receptors are the only ones capable of producing immediate postsynaptic activation, which is considered fast neurotransmission. Other neurotransmitters, such as nicotinic, alpha, and beta receptors, target different receptors for their effects.

      Glutamate is an amino acid that is not considered essential as it can be produced by the body. It plays a crucial role in metabolism, particularly in the clearance of excess nitrogen from the body. Glutamate can also act as an energy source in the cell and is used in the synthesis of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA. However, loss of the enzyme responsible for this conversion can result in stiff person syndrome, a neurological disorder characterized by muscle stiffness and spasms. Glutamate also acts as an excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system and plays a role in long-term potentiation, which is important in memory and learning. However, high levels of glutamate may contribute to excitotoxicity following a stroke. Glutamate can bind to various receptors, including NMDA, AMPA, Kainate, and Metabotropic types I, II, and III, to have actions on the postsynaptic membrane.

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  • Question 17 - Which of the following antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      The 30S ribosomal unit is the target of aminoglycosides, which hinder protein synthesis.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

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  • Question 18 - An intercalating medical student conducts a case-control study for her dissertation, examining the...

    Incorrect

    • An intercalating medical student conducts a case-control study for her dissertation, examining the life-long exposure to marijuana in groups of patients with and without COPD.

      What type of bias is this study most susceptible to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recall bias

      Explanation:

      Critical appraisal of papers is essential for doctors to practice evidence-based medicine, as mandated by the GMC. Detecting potential sources of bias in research is a crucial aspect of this skill, which is commonly tested in medical school finals. Recall bias is a significant concern in case-control studies, as patients with COPD may be more likely to remember their past marijuana use and its extent, potentially skewing the results. Other types of bias include detection bias, observer bias, and publication bias.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

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  • Question 19 - When two medical conditions are related through the presence of a confounding factor,...

    Incorrect

    • When two medical conditions are related through the presence of a confounding factor, the association is said to be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indirect

      Explanation:

      Association and Causation: Understanding the Difference

      Association refers to the relationship between two variables where one is more commonly found in the presence of the other. However, not all associations are causal. There are three types of association: spurious, indirect, and direct. Spurious associations are those that arise by chance and are not real, while indirect associations are due to the presence of another factor, also known as a confounding variable. Direct associations, on the other hand, are true associations not linked by a third variable.

      To establish causation, the Bradford Hill Causal Criteria are used. These criteria include strength, temporality, specificity, coherence, and consistency. The strength of the association is an important factor in determining causation, as a stronger association is more likely to be truly causal. Temporality refers to whether the exposure precedes the outcome, while specificity asks whether the suspected cause is associated with a specific outcome or disease. Coherence considers whether the association fits with other biological knowledge, and consistency looks at whether the same association is found in many studies.

      Understanding the difference between association and causation is important in research and decision-making. While an association may suggest a relationship between two variables, it does not necessarily mean that one causes the other. By using the Bradford Hill Causal Criteria, researchers can determine whether an association is truly causal and make informed decisions based on their findings.

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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old woman has been referred to an endocrinologist due to her symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has been referred to an endocrinologist due to her symptoms of muscle aches, weight gain, menorrhagia, and fatigue. After undergoing a series of blood tests, including an evaluation of thyroid function, she was diagnosed with hypothyroidism and found to have anti-thyroid peroxidase (anti-TPO) antibodies. The endocrinologist informed her that she likely has Hashimoto's thyroiditis and will require long-term replacement of thyroxine with a synthetic analogue of this hormone. What is the mechanism of action of the drug she is expected to be prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activates nuclear receptors

      Explanation:

      Levothyroxine activates nuclear receptors within the nucleus to stimulate DNA replication and protein synthesis. It does not act via ligand-gated ion channels or tyrosine kinase inhibitors, as those are transmembrane proteins that respond to extracellular signals. Inhibiting nuclear receptors is also not the mechanism of action for levothyroxine.

      Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.

      It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.

      The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.

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  • Question 21 - Your coworker Dr S approaches you and requests your assistance. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • Your coworker Dr S approaches you and requests your assistance. She has been experiencing dysuria, frequent urination, and has also observed a small amount of blood in her urine. She asks if you could prescribe her a course of Trimethoprim as it has worked for her in the past. She mentions that her GP practice is always overcrowded and this would be a time-saver for everyone. What would be the most appropriate action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Explain that it would be unprofessional for you to prescribe for a friend and suggests she sees her own GP

      Explanation:

      GMC Guidelines on Prescribing for Friends, Family, and Colleagues

      The General Medical Council (GMC) has issued guidelines on prescribing and managing medicines and devices. According to the guidelines, doctors should avoid prescribing medication for themselves or individuals with whom they have a close personal relationship. The GMC expects all medical professionals to adhere to these guidelines.

      The GMC’s guidance on prescribing and managing medicines and devices is clear in its stance on treating friends, family, and colleagues. The council believes that doctors should avoid prescribing medication for themselves or individuals with whom they have a close personal relationship. This is to ensure that medical professionals maintain a high level of objectivity and impartiality when treating patients. The GMC expects all medical professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that they provide the best possible care to their patients.

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  • Question 22 - A 56-year-old man comes to the ER with a red and painful leg....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the ER with a red and painful leg. During this process, known as leucocyte extravasation, his innate immune system is activated, causing white blood cells (leucocytes) to migrate out of the circulation system and towards the infection site.

      What are the four stages involved in this process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chemoattraction, rolling, tight adhesion, transmigration

      Explanation:

      Leucocyte extravasation involves four stages: chemoattraction, rolling, tight adhesion, and transmigration. The process of opsonization marks foreign particles for phagocytosis, while cell lysis breaks down cell membranes. Agglutination clusters pathogens together using antibodies to facilitate phagocytosis. These three processes are all part of the complement system. During phagocytosis, a cell, such as a macrophage, engulfs a solid particle.

      Leucocyte Extravasation: The Process of White Blood Cells Leaving Blood Vessels

      Leucocyte extravasation is a process that involves the movement of white blood cells from the bloodstream to the affected tissue. This process occurs in four stages: chemoattraction, rolling, tight adhesion, and transmigration. During chemoattraction and rolling, macrophages in the affected tissue release cytokines that attract circulating white blood cells and cause the endothelium to express cellular adhesion molecules. In the tight adhesion stage, white blood cells express integrins in response to the cytokines, which bind to ICAM proteins on endothelial cells. Finally, in the transmigration stage, PECAM proteins on both endothelial cells and white blood cells interact and facilitate the migration of the white blood cells through the endothelium. This process is crucial for the immune response to infections and injuries.

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  • Question 23 - Which of the following poses the most significant threat to the external validity...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following poses the most significant threat to the external validity of a research?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Representativeness of the sample

      Explanation:

      Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.

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  • Question 24 - Sarah is a 12-year-old girl who has been experiencing recurrent infections. She has...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 12-year-old girl who has been experiencing recurrent infections. She has been diagnosed with multiple episodes of pneumonia and sinusitis. Her sputum cultures have grown Streptococcus pneumonia in the past. Additionally, she had two episodes of meningitis caused by Neisseria meningitidis.

      Sarah is currently experiencing another chest infection, and her sputum cultures have grown Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

      Her blood tests are as follows:

      - Hb 150 g/L (Female: 115-160)
      - Platelets 320 * 109/L (150-400)
      - WBC 7.5 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - Neuts 4.5 * 109/L (2.0-7.0)
      - Lymphs 2.0 * 109/L (1.0-3.5)
      - Mono 0.6 * 109/L (0.2-0.8)
      - Eosin 0.4 * 109/L (0.0-0.4)

      An isolated IgG level was measured and has returned normal. However, you are concerned that Sarah may have an underlying immunoglobulin deficiency based on her pattern of infections. Which immunoglobulin is likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgM

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of whitish discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of whitish discharge from the urethra and a burning sensation during urination. He reports having multiple unprotected sexual encounters. gonorrhoeae is diagnosed after appropriate testing and he is treated with ceftriaxone intramuscularly. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits cell wall formation

      Explanation:

      The main treatment for gonorrhoeae is a single dose of IM ceftriaxone, which belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics that inhibit cell wall formation. Azithromycin may also be prescribed to treat co-infection with Chlamydia. Quinolones, which inhibit DNA synthesis, are not recommended due to increased resistance. Sulphonamides work by inhibiting folic acid formation, while macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogramins, aminoglycosides, and tetracyclines work by inhibiting protein synthesis. Although azithromycin may be used as an add-on therapy for co-infection with Chlamydia, it is not the primary treatment for gonorrhoeae and is administered orally. Rifampicin, on the other hand, works by inhibiting RNA synthesis.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

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  • Question 26 - In the Vaughan Williams classification of antiarrhythmics, what class of agent does disopyramide...

    Incorrect

    • In the Vaughan Williams classification of antiarrhythmics, what class of agent does disopyramide belong to? Is it a Class Ia, Ib, Ic, II, or IV agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class Ia agent

      Explanation:

      The Vaughan Williams Classification of Antiarrhythmics

      The Vaughan Williams classification is a widely used system for categorizing antiarrhythmic drugs based on their mechanism of action. The classification system is divided into four classes, each with a different mechanism of action. Class I drugs block sodium channels, Class II drugs are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists, Class III drugs block potassium channels, and Class IV drugs are calcium channel blockers.

      Class Ia drugs, such as quinidine and procainamide, increase the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. However, quinidine toxicity can cause cinchonism, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, tinnitus, and thrombocytopenia. Procainamide may also cause drug-induced lupus.

      Class Ib drugs, such as lidocaine and mexiletine, decrease the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. Class Ic drugs, such as flecainide and propafenone, have no effect on the duration of the action potential but still block sodium channels.

      Class II drugs, such as propranolol and metoprolol, are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists that decrease the heart rate and contractility of the heart.

      Class III drugs, such as amiodarone and sotalol, block potassium channels, which prolongs the duration of the action potential.

      Class IV drugs, such as verapamil and diltiazem, are calcium channel blockers that decrease the influx of calcium ions into the heart, which slows down the heart rate and reduces contractility.

      It should be noted that some common antiarrhythmic drugs, such as adenosine, atropine, digoxin, and magnesium, are not included in the Vaughan Williams classification.

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  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old male refugee arrives at the emergency department complaining of night sweats...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male refugee arrives at the emergency department complaining of night sweats and a productive cough that has been ongoing for 2 weeks. Upon performing a chest X-ray, signs of tuberculosis are detected. The patient is prescribed a combination of antibiotics, including rifampicin. How does rifampicin work to combat the bacteria's protein synthesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits RNA polymerase

      Explanation:

      Rifampin causes cell death by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which leads to the suppression of RNA synthesis.

      Rifampicin disrupts DNA synthesis by halting the action of RNA polymerase, resulting in the suppression of RNA synthesis and cell death.

      Quinolones inhibit DNA gyrase to function.

      Tetracyclines and aminoglycosides inhibit the 30s subunit to work.

      Macrolides work by inhibiting the 50s subunit of bacteria, leading to their death.

      Beta lactams, such as penicillin, disrupt cell wall synthesis to function.

      Understanding Rifampicin: An Antibiotic for Treating Infections

      Rifampicin is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat various infections, including tuberculosis. It is often prescribed in combination with other medications to effectively combat the disease. Rifampicin can also be used as a prophylactic treatment for individuals who have been in close contact with tuberculosis or meningitis.

      The mechanism of action of Rifampicin involves inhibiting bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. This action helps to stop the growth and spread of bacteria in the body.

      However, Rifampicin is known to be a potent CYP450 liver enzyme inducer, which can cause hepatitis in some individuals. Additionally, it can cause orange secretions and flu-like symptoms. Therefore, it is important to use Rifampicin only as prescribed by a healthcare professional and to monitor any adverse effects that may occur.

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  • Question 28 - A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his son, complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his son, complaining of severe chest pain. An immediate ECG shows widespread ST elevation in the anterolateral chest leads. He is given aspirin, prasugrel, morphine, metoclopramide, and nitrates and is taken to the PCI lab. The attending cardiologist recommends starting him on abciximab to prevent further ischemic events. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Heparin activates antithrombin III, while Prasugrel inhibits P2Y12 ADP and Abciximab inhibits glycoprotein IIb/IIIa. Dabigatran and Rivaroxaban both directly inhibit thrombin and factor X, respectively.

      Monoclonal antibodies are becoming increasingly important in the field of medicine. They are created using a technique called somatic cell hybridization, which involves fusing myeloma cells with spleen cells from an immunized mouse to produce a hybridoma. This hybridoma acts as a factory for producing monoclonal antibodies.

      However, a major limitation of this technique is that mouse antibodies can be immunogenic, leading to the formation of human anti-mouse antibodies. To overcome this problem, a process called humanizing is used. This involves combining the variable region from the mouse body with the constant region from a human antibody.

      There are several clinical examples of monoclonal antibodies, including infliximab for rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s, rituximab for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis, and cetuximab for metastatic colorectal cancer and head and neck cancer. Monoclonal antibodies are also used for medical imaging when combined with a radioisotope, identifying cell surface markers in biopsied tissue, and diagnosing viral infections.

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  • Question 29 - A 19-year-old college student visits her doctor complaining of a sore throat, accompanied...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old college student visits her doctor complaining of a sore throat, accompanied by a high fever and fatigue that has persisted for three weeks. During the examination, the doctor notes swollen cervical lymph nodes and confirms the presence of infectious mononucleosis through an antibody test. What is the specific cell surface protein that the Epstein-Barr virus attaches to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CD21

      Explanation:

      Cell Surface Proteins and Their Functions

      Cell surface proteins play a crucial role in identifying and distinguishing different types of cells. The table above lists the most common cell surface markers associated with particular cell types, such as CD34 for haematopoietic stem cells and CD19 for B cells. Meanwhile, the table below describes the major clusters of differentiation (CD) molecules and their functions. For instance, CD3 is the signalling component of the T cell receptor (TCR) complex, while CD4 is a co-receptor for MHC class II and is used by HIV to enter T cells. CD56, on the other hand, is a unique marker for natural killer cells, while CD95 acts as the FAS receptor and is involved in apoptosis.

      Understanding the functions of these cell surface proteins is crucial in various fields, such as immunology and cancer research. By identifying and targeting specific cell surface markers, researchers can develop more effective treatments for diseases and disorders.

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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old father brings in his 4-year-old daughter, Lily, who was recently diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old father brings in his 4-year-old daughter, Lily, who was recently diagnosed with maple syrup disease after he noticed discoloured urine in her potty. The father is seeking information on how to manage her condition.

      What is the recommended treatment for Lily's maple syrup disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Restricting leucine, isoleucine and valine in the diet

      Explanation:

      To treat maple syrup urine disease, it is necessary to limit the intake of leucine, isoleucine, and valine in the diet. This condition is caused by a deficiency of the branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complex enzyme, which leads to a reduced metabolism of these amino acids. If left untreated, the accumulation of these amino acids can cause severe acidosis, seizures, coma, brain swelling, and even death. However, other branched-chain amino acids are not affected and do not need to be restricted. Foods rich in calcium and iron do not need to be limited as well.

      Understanding Maple Syrup Urine Disease

      Maple syrup urine disease is a genetic disorder that occurs when the body is unable to break down certain amino acids, specifically leucine, isoleucine, and valine. This is due to a deficiency in the branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complex. As a result, there is an increase in alpha-ketoacids in the blood, which can lead to severe neurological defects, ketoacidosis, and even death if left untreated. One of the most noticeable symptoms of this disease is sweet-smelling urine that resembles maple syrup.

      The treatment for maple syrup urine disease involves restricting the intake of leucine, isoleucine, and valine in the diet. This can help prevent the buildup of harmful substances in the body and reduce the risk of complications. It is important for individuals with this condition to work closely with a healthcare provider and a registered dietitian to ensure that they are getting the nutrients they need while avoiding foods that could be harmful. By understanding the causes and consequences of maple syrup urine disease, individuals can take steps to manage their condition and improve their overall health and well-being.

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