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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her risk for familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Her father and older brother have been diagnosed with the condition, and she previously declined testing but is now reconsidering. Her mother's side of the family has no history of illness. What is the probability that she has FAP? Select ONE answer.
Your Answer: 25%
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Understanding the Inheritance Probability of Autosomal-Dominant Traits
Autosomal-dominant traits are genetic conditions that only require one affected gene to be inherited in order for the trait to be displayed. In the case of a patient whose father has Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP), a rare autosomal-dominant condition, there is a 50% chance that she has inherited the affected gene from her father. This is because her father has one affected gene and one unaffected gene, and there is an equal chance of either gene being passed down to his offspring.
It is important to note that there is no 100% chance of being affected by an autosomal-dominant condition unless the parent is homozygous, meaning they carry two affected genes and no unaffected genes. This is unlikely in the case of FAP.
On the other hand, a 25% chance of being affected is associated with autosomal-recessive conditions, but only if both parents are carriers of the affected gene. In the case of autosomal-dominant traits, there is always some risk of inheriting the condition if one parent is affected.
To determine a more specific probability of inheritance, a Punnett square can be used to calculate the possible outcomes. In the case of FAP, the patient has a 50% chance of inheriting the affected gene from her father. Therefore, understanding the inheritance probability of autosomal-dominant traits is crucial in predicting the likelihood of passing on the condition to future generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner three weeks after an Eastern Mediterranean holiday with her family, during which they ate out a lot. She complains of malaise, lack of appetite, jaundice and dark urine. She thinks she was febrile at the start, but the fever subsided once the jaundice appeared. On examination, she has a palpable liver and is tender in the right upper quadrant.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Bilirubin 132 µmol /l < 21 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 4104 IU/l < 40 IU/l
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 3476 U/l < 33 U/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 184 IU/l 40–129 IU/l
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Flu-like Symptoms and Jaundice
Hepatitis A is a vaccine-preventable infection commonly acquired during travel. It spreads through contaminated food and presents with flu-like symptoms followed by jaundice and dark urine. Biliary colic may cause right upper quadrant pain but is unlikely to cause fever or significantly raised liver transaminase levels. Hepatitis B is transmitted through sexual contact, needle sharing, blood transfusions, organ transplantation, or from mother to child during delivery. Pancreatic carcinoma presents with weight loss, obstructive jaundice, mid-epigastric or back pain, and disproportionately raised alkaline phosphatases levels. Salmonella enteritidis causes food poisoning with diarrhea, fever, and colicky abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with persistent fatigue, poor appetite, occasional sweats and a feeling of upper abdominal discomfort. He smokes 15 cigarettes per day, drinks up to 10 units of alcohol a week. He has no change in bowel habit. His records show that he injected heroin for a short period of time in his twenties.
He had an urgent ultrasound scan which shows a mass in his liver which has now been biopsied and reported as hepatocellular cancer of the liver.
What is the greatest risk factor for hepatocellular primary liver cancer in this 60-year-old man?Your Answer: Hepatitis C infection
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A infection
Explanation:Hepatitis C and Liver Cancer
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that often goes undiagnosed for up to 20 years, making it a significant risk for those who engage in needle sharing and drug use. This infection can lead to cirrhosis of the liver, which increases the risk of developing primary liver cancer. In fact, around 80% of hepatocellular carcinoma cases are caused by viral infections with either hepatitis C or hepatitis B.
While gallstones and caffeine intake are not associated with an increased risk of liver cancer, previous cholecystectomy and chronic infection with hepatitis B can increase the risk. Statin use and hepatitis A infection, on the other hand, are not associated with an increased risk.
It is crucial to consider hepatitis C testing for at-risk populations and to maintain a low index of suspicion for liver cancer in those with a hepatitis C diagnosis. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for those with liver cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old male presents with generalised fatigue and upper abdominal discomfort with some weight loss over the last six months.
He has otherwise been well but admits to consuming 10 units of alcohol per day.
On examination you note 2 cm hepatomegaly.
Liver function tests show an:
ALT 100 IU/L (5-35)
AST 210 IU/L (1-31)
Alkaline Phosphatase 250 IU/L (45-105)
MCV 110 fL (80-96)
Which of the following is the most likely cause of his presentation?Your Answer: Metastatic liver disease
Correct Answer: Viral hepatitis
Explanation:Understanding Alcoholic Hepatitis
Alcoholic hepatitis is a condition that occurs due to prolonged and heavy consumption of alcohol, leading to progressive liver inflammation. The symptoms of this condition include a subacute onset of fever, hepatomegaly, leukocytosis, and marked impairment of liver function. The liver exhibits characteristic centrilobular ballooning necrosis of hepatocytes, neutrophilic infiltration, large mitochondria, and Mallory hyaline inclusions. In addition, steatosis (fatty liver) and cirrhosis are common in patients with alcoholic hepatitis.Proper management and cessation of alcohol consumption can help improve the prognosis of patients with alcoholic hepatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man with a history of chronic constipation presents with acute perianal pain. The pain has been present for a week and is exacerbated during defecation. He also notes a small amount of bright red blood on the paper when he wipes himself.
Abdominal examination is unremarkable but rectal examination is not possible due to pain.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fissure
Explanation:Understanding Fissures: Symptoms and Treatment
Perianal pain that worsens during defecation and is accompanied by fresh bleeding is a common symptom of fissures. However, due to the pain associated with rectal examination, visualizing the fissure is often not possible. Most fissures are located in the midline posteriorly and can be treated with GTN cream during the acute phase, providing relief in two-thirds of cases. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for fissures can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and manage their condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old teacher has recently been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection, following a referral to the local gastroenterologist.
You have not yet received their clinic letter but the patient says that they explained to him that he will be starting treatment soon and wanted to ask you a few questions about the likely success.
Which of the following factors is associated with a good response to interferon alpha in patients with hepatitis C?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of cirrhosis
Explanation:Factors Affecting Response to Interferon Alpha in Hepatitis C Treatment
A high viral load, obesity, old age, cirrhosis, continued alcohol use, immune deficiency, poor adherence to treatment, and significant steatosis on liver biopsy are all factors that can affect the response rate to interferon alpha in hepatitis C treatment. Patients with genotype 1 infection and a high viral load are particularly at risk for a poor response to interferon alpha. On the other hand, patients with genotypes 2 or 3 infection and a short duration of disease have a better chance of responding well to treatment. The recommended duration of therapy also varies depending on the genotype. It is important to address these factors when considering treatment options for hepatitis C patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to her doctor with jaundice, anorexia, nausea, and mild tenderness in the right upper abdomen. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and feeling ill. What is the probable reason for her jaundice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Viral hepatitis
Explanation:Liver Disorders During Pregnancy: Causes and Consequences
During pregnancy, the liver can be affected by various disorders that can have serious consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Here are some of the most common liver disorders that can occur during pregnancy:
1. Viral Hepatitis: Hepatitis B is the most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy, especially in developing countries. While most viral hepatitis infections are not affected by pregnancy, hepatitis E can be fatal for pregnant women.
2. Acute Fatty Liver of Pregnancy: This rare disorder can progress to liver failure and usually occurs late in pregnancy. Early delivery can lead to complete recovery.
3. Gallstones: This is the second most common abdominal emergency in pregnant women and can cause severe pain in the right upper quadrant.
4. Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: This disorder is characterized by itching and elevated serum bile acids and can lead to serious complications for the fetus, including stillbirth.
5. Pre-eclamptic Liver Disease and HELLP Syndrome: Jaundice may occur in 3-10% of pre-eclamptic pregnancies, and prompt delivery is the most effective treatment for HELLP syndrome.
It is important for pregnant women to be aware of these liver disorders and to seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications for both the mother and the fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with jaundiced sclera that developed over a period of 2 days. She had been fasting for religious reasons during this time and has no past medical history of jaundice. The patient is asymptomatic and her abdominal examination is unremarkable. Upon blood testing, her FBC and reticulocyte count are normal, as well as her blood film. She has predominantly unconjugated bilirubin levels of 50 µmol/L (normal range 3 - 17) and otherwise normal LFTs. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure
Explanation:If a person has an increased serum bilirubin concentration with normal liver function tests, it may indicate Gilbert’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by a rise in bilirubin in response to physiological stress and may cause mild jaundice during fasting. However, it doesn’t require treatment or monitoring and cannot progress to chronic liver disease. Therefore, reassurance is the most appropriate option, and hospital admission or ultrasound scanning is unnecessary. Additionally, as Gilbert’s syndrome is not associated with upper GI malignancies, a 2-week wait clinic is not required. Repeating liver function tests in 48 hours would not change the management plan for this condition.
Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.
To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man is being discharged from the hospital after a flare-up of ulcerative proctosigmoiditis. His symptoms improved after a 5-day course of intravenous corticosteroids, which had since been tapered down to oral prednisolone before discharge.
He contacts you, concerned that he was not informed by the discharging team whether he should continue taking prednisolone to prevent a relapse or not. He is running out of medication soon and is unsure of what to do. You reach out to the on-call gastroenterologist for guidance.
What would be the recommended first-line treatment for maintaining remission?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Daily rectal +/- oral mesalazine
Explanation:The first-line treatment for maintaining remission in patients with ulcerative colitis who have proctitis or proctosigmoiditis is a daily rectal aminosalicylate, with the addition of an oral aminosalicylate if necessary. Topical and/or oral aminosalicylates are also the first-line treatment for inducing and maintaining remission in mild-moderate ulcerative colitis, with the route of administration depending on the location of the disease. If aminosalicylates fail to induce remission, a short-term course of oral or topical corticosteroids may be added. Severe colitis requires hospital admission and treatment with IV corticosteroids, with the addition of IV ciclosporin if necessary. Surgery is the last resort. Twice-weekly corticosteroid enemas, daily azathioprine, and daily low-dose oral prednisolone for 3 months are not correct treatments for maintaining remission in ulcerative colitis.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man has been in India on a business trip. He developed diarrhoea while he was there and it has persisted for 10 days after his return. He has not vomited and doesn't have a raised temperature.
Select from the list the single most likely cause of his diarrhoea.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Giardia lamblia
Explanation:Identifying and Treating Giardia: Symptoms and Treatment
Giardia is a parasitic infection that should be suspected if symptoms of traveller’s diarrhoea persist for more than 10 days or if symptoms begin after returning home. Weight loss may also be present. However, if diarrhoea lasts for less than a week, it is likely caused by something else, such as norovirus. Vomiting is a common symptom of most diarrhoeal illnesses, except for shigella and giardia. Both Salmonella and Shigella infections may also cause high fever. Treatment for Giardia involves the use of metronidazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following patients is most likely to require screening for hepatocellular carcinoma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 45-year-old man with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C
Explanation:Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a type of cancer that ranks third in terms of prevalence worldwide. The most common cause of HCC globally is chronic hepatitis B, while chronic hepatitis C is the leading cause in Europe. The primary risk factor for developing HCC is liver cirrhosis, which can result from various factors such as hepatitis B & C, alcohol, haemochromatosis, and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other risk factors include alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, hereditary tyrosinosis, glycogen storage disease, aflatoxin, certain drugs, porphyria cutanea tarda, male sex, diabetes mellitus, and metabolic syndrome.
HCC often presents late and may exhibit features of liver cirrhosis or failure such as jaundice, ascites, RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, pruritus, and splenomegaly. In some cases, it may manifest as decompensation in patients with chronic liver disease. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) are also common. High-risk groups such as patients with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis B & C or haemochromatosis, and men with liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol should undergo screening with ultrasound (+/- AFP).
Management options for early-stage HCC include surgical resection, liver transplantation, radiofrequency ablation, transarterial chemoembolisation, and sorafenib, a multikinase inhibitor. Proper management and early detection are crucial in improving the prognosis of HCC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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When managing women of any age and non-menstruating men who present with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia, what is the threshold haemoglobin level that should prompt urgent referral?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 120 g/L for men and women
Explanation:Iron Deficiency Anaemia and its Possible Causes
Iron deficiency anaemia is a condition that can be diagnosed through a low serum ferritin, red cell microcytosis, and hypochromia. It is often caused by gastrointestinal issues such as colonic cancer, gastric cancer, and coeliac disease. To determine the underlying cause, patients should undergo a PR examination, urine testing, and coeliac screen.
In some cases, unexplained iron deficiency anaemia can be an early indication of an underlying malignancy. Menorrhagia may also cause iron deficiency in women of childbearing age, but a detailed history should be taken to rule out other possible causes. Any man or non-menstruating woman presenting with anaemia should be referred for urgent investigation. It is important to understand the appropriate referral thresholds and look out for additional red flags that may warrant referral.
It is important to note that while occult bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract is a common cause of iron deficiency anaemia, blood loss may also occur through other means, such as urological cancers. Therefore, it is crucial to consider all possible causes and conduct thorough investigations to determine the underlying issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old gentleman presents with lower gastrointestinal symptoms. He has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and has suffered with infrequent bouts of abdominal bloating and loose stools on and off for years. These are usually managed with mebeverine and loperamide. The diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome was a clinical one and the only investigation he has had in the past were blood tests.
Over the last four weeks he has noticed that this has changed and that his bowels have been persistently loose and significantly more frequent than usual. He has no family history of bowel problems.
On examination he is systemically well with no fever. His abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses. Rectal examination reveals nothing focal. His weight is stable.
Which of the following investigations should you offer your patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Faecal occult blood
Explanation:Investigating Acute Bowel Symptoms in a Patient with Irritable Bowel Syndrome
When a patient with a history of irritable bowel syndrome presents with acute bowel symptoms, it is important to investigate the underlying cause. However, certain investigations may not be appropriate in this context. For example, an abdominal ultrasound scan is not helpful in investigating bowel symptoms. Similarly, CEA tumour marker testing is a specialist investigation and not suitable for primary care. Ca125 is a marker for ovarian cancer and not relevant in this scenario.
According to NICE guidelines, testing for occult blood in faeces should be offered to assess for colorectal cancer in adults aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or in those under 60 with changes in their bowel habit or iron-deficiency anaemia. Stool mc+s may be requested, but it would not be helpful in risk stratifying the patient for urgent referral for colorectal cancer if an infective aetiology is not suspected. Therefore, it is important to choose appropriate investigations based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with new onset bilateral gynaecomastia.
He has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and heart failure in the last year. He underwent normal puberty at age 14.
Which of the following drugs would be most likely to cause gynaecomastia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rabeprazole sodium
Explanation:Drugs that can cause gynaecomastia
Research has shown that the risk of developing gynaecomastia is almost insignificant when using other drugs as part of the treatment of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. However, there are other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia, including spironolactone, digoxin, methyldopa, gonadotrophins, and cyproterone acetate.
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a condition where a gastrin-secreting pancreatic adenoma is associated with peptic ulcer, and 50-60% of cases are malignant. It is suspected in patients with multiple peptic ulcers that are resistant to drugs and occurs in approximately 0.1% of patients with duodenal ulcer disease.
A case study into male gynaecomastia has shown that spironolactone induced gynaecomastia by blocking androgen production, blocking androgens from binding to their receptors, and increasing both total and free oestrogen levels. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old overweight woman presents to her General Practitioner with right upper-quadrant pain after eating. She drinks around 13 units of alcohol per week.
She undergoes some blood tests:
Investigation Result Normal value
γ-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 90 IU/l 11–50 IU/l
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 48 IU/l 4–45 IU/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 48 IU/l < 40 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 240 IU/l 25–130 IU/l
Bilirubin 23 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
Albumin 40 g/l 38–50 g/l
Prothrombin time (PT) 12 s 12–14.8 s
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gallstones
Explanation:Interpreting Liver Enzyme Results: Differential Diagnosis
When interpreting liver enzyme results, it is important to consider the pattern of elevation and accompanying symptoms to arrive at a differential diagnosis. Here are some possible diagnoses for a patient with elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) levels:
Gallstones: A cholestatic picture with a more significant rise in ALP and GGT over alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transaminase (AST) suggests an obstructive or cholestatic condition. Accompanied by right upper-quadrant pain after eating, gallstones are the most likely diagnosis.
Alcohol abuse: Disproportionate elevation of GGT compared to other liver enzymes may indicate alcohol abuse or alcoholic liver disease. In this case, the ALP is also elevated to the same extent as the GGT, but the patient drinks below the recommended alcohol intake per week.
Paget’s disease: Paget’s disease may cause bone pain and elevated ALP levels. However, the accompanying rise in GGT provides a sensitive indicator of hepatobiliary disease, which is not associated with skeletal disease.
Pancreatitis: Although raised GGT levels have been reported in pancreatic disease, the accompanying derangement of other liver enzymes suggests a liver or biliary cause.
Viral hepatitis: A cholestatic picture with more significant rises in ALP and GGT over ALT and AST is not typical of acute hepatitis, which presents with a hepatocellular picture.
In summary, interpreting liver enzyme results requires careful consideration of the pattern of elevation and accompanying symptoms to arrive at a differential diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having coeliac disease. She has started on a gluten-free diet.
Select from the list the single most correct statement about her management.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomysial antibodies disappear if the diet is maintained
Explanation:Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet
Coeliac disease is a condition where the immune system reacts to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. The resulting damage to the intestinal mucosa can cause a range of symptoms, including abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhoea. However, starting a gluten-free diet can lead to rapid improvement.
The diet involves avoiding all foods containing wheat, barley, or rye, such as bread, cake, and pies. Oats can be consumed in moderate quantities if they are free from other contaminating cereals, as they do not damage the intestinal mucosa in most coeliac patients. Rice, maize, potatoes, soya, jam, syrup, sugar, and treacle are all allowed. Gluten-free flour, bread, biscuits, and pasta can be prescribed on the NHS, and Coeliac UK provides a list of prescribable products.
To monitor the response to the diet, serial tTGA or EMA antibodies can be used. If these antibodies continue to be present in the blood, it suggests dietary lapses.
Supplements of calcium, vitamin D, iron, and folic acid are only necessary if dietary intake is inadequate, which is often the case, particularly in elderly patients. Most patients with coeliac disease have some degree of hyposplenism, which warrants immunisation against influenza, pneumococcus, and H. influenza type B. However, lifelong prophylactic antibiotics are not needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of yellowing of her eyes and generalized itching for the past 5 days. She denies any fever, myalgia, or abdominal pain. She reports that her urine has become darker and her stools have become paler. She has been in good health otherwise.
The patient had visited the clinic 3 weeks ago for a sore throat and was prescribed antibiotics. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for the past 6 months.
On examination, the patient appears jaundiced in both her skin and sclera. She has no rash but has multiple scratches on her arms due to itching. There is no palpable hepatosplenomegaly, and she has no abdominal tenderness.
Laboratory tests reveal:
- Bilirubin 110 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP 200 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT 60 u/L (3 - 40)
- γGT 120 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin 40 g/L (35 - 50)
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:The patient is presenting with cholestatic jaundice, likely caused by the oral contraceptive pill. This results in intrahepatic jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools. Paracetamol overdose and viral hepatitis would cause hepatocellular jaundice, while Gilbert’s syndrome is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. Choledocholithiasis could also cause obstructive cholestasis. It is appropriate to stop the pill and consider alternative contraception methods, and additional imaging may be necessary if jaundice doesn’t resolve.
Drug-induced liver disease can be categorized into three types: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there can be some overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of liver changes. Certain drugs tend to cause a hepatocellular picture, such as paracetamol, sodium valproate, and statins. On the other hand, drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill, flucloxacillin, and anabolic steroids tend to cause cholestasis with or without hepatitis. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone are known to cause liver cirrhosis. It is important to note that there are rare reported causes of drug-induced liver disease, such as nifedipine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man who you have treated for obesity comes for review. Despite ongoing lifestyle interventions and trials of orlistat and sibutramine he has failed to lose a significant amount of weight. He is currently taking lisinopril for hypertension but a recent fasting glucose was normal. For this patient, what is the cut-off body mass index (BMI) that would trigger a referral for consideration of bariatric surgery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: BMI > 35 kg/m^2
Explanation:Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management
Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.
There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man comes to the clinic with bilateral angular stomatitis. He wears dentures that have become a bit loose and his diet is not varied.
In the process of advising and treating his angular stomatitis, which of the following is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: May be due to chronic constipation
Explanation:Stomatitis: Causes and Associated Factors
Stomatitis is a condition that can be caused by ill-fitting dentures and slack facial muscles, which can lead to Candida overgrowth. It is not associated with reactive arthritis, but it may be seen in Behçet’s disease. While it is not directly linked to constipation, it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease.
Iron deficiency is a possible factor in the development of stomatitis, as are deficiencies in riboflavin, niacin, pyridoxine, folic acid, and cyanocobalamin. Vitamin C deficiency can also cause stomatitis, as well as scurvy.
It is important to address the underlying causes of stomatitis in order to effectively treat the condition. Proper dental care and nutrition can help prevent stomatitis from developing or recurrent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man presents with a six week history of persistent loose stools. Prior to this he opened his bowels once a day most days and his stools were easily passed and 'soft'. Over the last six weeks he complains of loose 'watery' stools and is opening his bowels four to five times a day. This pattern has been occurring every day for the last six weeks.
He denies any weight loss, abdominal pain, rectal bleeding or passage of rectal mucous. There is no family history of note. He feels well with no fever or systemic symptoms.
Abdominal and rectal examinations are normal.
You refer the patient urgently to a lower GI specialist.
What additional investigation should be arranged at this stage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Request tumour markers including CEA
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Patient with Change in Bowel Habit
This patient requires urgent referral as he is over 60 years old and has experienced a change in bowel habit. According to NICE guidelines, the only test that may be helpful in this case is a full blood count, which can be performed alongside the referral. This will ensure that the result is available for the specialist in clinic.
NICE guidelines recommend testing for occult blood in faeces to assess for colorectal cancer in adults without rectal bleeding who are aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or are aged 60 and over and have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. However, in this case, there has been no history of weight loss or abdominal pain, and the patient is not known to be anaemic. Therefore, other tests or investigations are not recommended as they will only serve to delay the process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his primary care physician complaining of loose non-bloody stools and abdominal discomfort for the past 6 days. He has not been taking any regular medication and his disease has been quiescent for many years. A colonoscopy performed 5 years ago showed proctitis. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits and his abdomen is diffusely soft with no peritonism. A stool culture is negative. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mesalazine suppository
Explanation:For a patient experiencing mild-to-moderate symptoms of distal ulcerative colitis, the recommended first-line treatment is topical (rectal) aminosalicylates, such as mesalazine suppositories. This is particularly effective for patients with left-sided disease, such as proctitis or proctosigmoiditis. While budesonide foam enema is sometimes used as an additional treatment for mild-to-moderate disease, it is generally less effective at inducing remission. Oral azathioprine is not recommended for inducing remission, but may be used to maintain remission in patients who have had multiple inflammatory exacerbations or if remission is not maintained by aminosalicylates alone. Oral mesalazine is less effective than topical mesalazine for mild or moderate proctitis, but may be offered as an additional treatment if symptoms persist after 4 weeks of topical mesalazine. For patients with pancolitis or extensive disease, oral mesalazine may be offered as a first-line treatment.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her diabetic annual review. She reports feeling constantly fatigued for the past few months. Her blood work shows normal thyroid, liver, and renal function. However, her full blood count indicates a mild anemia with a hemoglobin level of 105 g/L and MCV of 80 fL. Her HbA1c is 52 mmol/mol, and her urine dipstick test is negative for ketones. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. The patient denies any gastrointestinal symptoms, has regular bowel movements, and has not experienced any rectal bleeding or mucous. Her weight is stable, and she doesn't experience abdominal pain or bloating. There is no known family history of gastrointestinal pathology or malignancy. Further blood tests confirm iron deficiency anemia. The patient follows a regular gluten-containing diet. What is the most appropriate initial serological test to perform for coeliac disease in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA endomysial antibody (EMA) testing
Explanation:Serological testing for coeliac disease is used to determine if further investigation is necessary. The preferred first choice test is IgA transglutaminase, with IgA endomysial antibodies used if the result is equivocal. False negative results can occur in those with IgA deficiency, so this should be ruled out. HLA testing may be considered in specific situations but is not necessary for initial testing. If there is significant clinical suspicion of coeliac disease despite negative serological testing, referral to a specialist should still be offered. Accuracy of testing depends on following a gluten-containing diet for at least six weeks prior to testing. A clinical response to a gluten-free diet is not diagnostic of coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man is a frequent visitor to surgery complaining of pruritus ani.
You have examined him previously and excluded organic causes. He has a love of Indian cuisine. In an attempt to help him cope with the problem, you offer advice.
Which of the following is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Briefs are preferable to boxer shorts
Explanation:Tips for Managing Pruritus Ani
Pruritus ani, or anal itching, can be a bothersome and embarrassing condition. However, there are several ways to manage it. First, it is recommended to wear cotton underwear and looser clothing to prevent irritation. Topical capsaicin in very dilute form has shown to be beneficial, but more concentrated creams may worsen the situation. Certain foods such as tomatoes, citrus fruit, and spicy foods may also exacerbate the condition. Keeping the area dry is crucial, and using a hair dryer can be an efficient way to do so. It is important to note that medication can cause a more generalized pruritus, but products such as colchicine and evening primrose oil have been linked to pruritus ani. By following these tips, individuals can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with a 3-day history of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea, passing around 8 stools per day. He denies any recent travel or exposure to unwell individuals.
During examination, his heart rate is 95 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and temperature is 37.8 ºC. His abdomen is soft but mildly tender throughout.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:Hospitalization and IV corticosteroids are necessary for the treatment of a severe flare of ulcerative colitis, as seen in this patient with over 6 bloody stools per day and systemic symptoms like tachycardia and fever. Mild to moderate cases can be managed with aminosalicylates and oral steroids. Simple analgesia, increased fluid intake, and oral antibiotics are not effective in managing severe flares of ulcerative colitis.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Many elderly patients with colorectal cancer present with advanced disease. Early diagnosis is essential.
Select from the list the single elderly patient who satisfies the criteria for urgent referral (2-week rule).Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 65-year-old man who has had loose stools for 6 weeks but no rectal bleeding
Explanation:Identifying Symptoms of Colorectal Cancer: Referral Recommendations and Differential Diagnosis
Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients over 50 years old with unexplained rectal bleeding or over 60 years old with a change in bowel habit should be referred for an appointment within 2 weeks for suspected colorectal cancer. However, other conditions can also cause similar symptoms, and differential diagnosis is important to ensure appropriate management.
Rectal Bleeding in a Multiparous Woman
Rectal bleeding is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions, including haemorrhoids. In a 40-year-old multiparous woman, routine referral would be appropriate if piles could not be identified.
Change in Bowel Habit in a 60-Year-Old Man
A change in bowel habit in a 60-year-old man is more likely to be caused by an acute infection, such as enterohaemorrhagic E. coli or Shigella. Investigations should be directed to finding the cause.
Constipation in an 80-Year-Old Woman
Constipation is a common symptom in the elderly, and dietary factors may play a role. In an 80-year-old woman with intermittent constipation and no teeth, the symptom is likely to be longstanding and not indicative of colorectal cancer.
Anal Fissure in a 70-Year-Old Man
Anal fissure is a possible cause of rectal bleeding in a 70-year-old man. Further investigation is needed to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions.
Identifying Symptoms of Colorectal Cancer: Referral Recommendations and Differential Diagnosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old Chinese man comes to the General Practice Surgery complaining of weight loss, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain that has been going on for 3 months. He is a non-smoker and only drinks alcohol occasionally.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
Explanation:Comparison of Liver Cancer Types and Symptoms
Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a primary liver cancer that originates from hepatocytes and is commonly caused by alcohol abuse, viral hepatitis, and metabolic liver disease. It is more prevalent in Asia and Africa due to the high incidence of hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and aflatoxin exposure. Symptoms of HCC include right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and weight loss.
Oesophageal cancer, cholangiocarcinoma, pancreatic carcinoma, and stomach cancer can also present with similar symptoms to HCC, but each has its own unique risk factors and prevalence. Oesophageal cancer is mainly caused by alcohol and tobacco use, while cholangiocarcinoma is a rare cancer of the bile ducts. Pancreatic carcinoma is more common in older individuals or those with chronic pancreatitis. Stomach cancer may cause similar symptoms if it metastasizes to the liver, but it is less common than HCC.
In summary, while these cancers may present similarly, the patient’s ethnicity, age, and risk factors can help determine the most likely type of liver cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You see a 30-year-old lady with a rash on her arm. It started as a small red pimple on her right forearm but has grown into a painful deep ulcer. She has Crohn's disease but is currently not on any treatment for it. She takes the combined contraceptive pill and occasional ibuprofen for headaches.
You suspect she has pyoderma gangrenosum.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extra-intestinal manifestations are common affecting up to 35% of people with Crohn's disease
Explanation:Pyoderma gangrenosum, which is not linked to disease activity, can occur as a manifestation of Crohn’s disease outside of the intestines.
The use of oral contraceptive drugs may elevate the likelihood of developing inflammatory bowel disease in women.
Inflammatory bowel disease relapse or exacerbation may be heightened by the use of NSAIDs.
Following an episode of infectious gastroenteritis, the risk of developing Crohn’s disease is increased by four times, particularly within the first year.
Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.
Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include nonspecific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a history of diarrhoea for the past eight weeks and fresh rectal bleeding for the past few weeks. She has a past medical history of irritable bowel syndrome and frequently experiences bloating, which has worsened in recent weeks. She started a new job two months ago, which has been stressful. On examination, there is abdominal tenderness but no other abnormal signs.
What would be the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe GTN ointment and review in a month
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Rectal Bleeding and Diarrhoea
This woman is experiencing persistent diarrhoea and rectal bleeding, which cannot be attributed to irritable bowel syndrome. According to NICE guidelines, she requires urgent referral for suspected cancer pathway referral within two weeks. This is because she is under 50 years of age and has rectal bleeding with unexplained symptoms such as abdominal pain, weight loss, and iron-deficiency anaemia.
Prescribing GTN ointment or loperamide would not be appropriate in this case as they would only delay diagnosis and not address the underlying issue. Carcinoembryonic antigen testing is useful for assessing prognosis and monitoring treatment in colorectal cancer patients, but it should only be ordered after malignancy has been confirmed. Similarly, TTG testing for coeliac disease is good practice for patients with IBS-like symptoms, but it would not be appropriate in the presence of rectal bleeding of unknown origin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has had dysphagia for three weeks. He thinks it is getting worse. He has lost a small amount of weight.
What is the best course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check an FBC and then consider referral
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Endoscopy in Suspected Oesophageal Cancer
This man requires an urgent referral for endoscopy as he may have cancer of the oesophagus. As a medical professional, it is important to identify alarm symptoms and understand referral guidelines that may apply. In this case, the patient’s dysphagia and weight loss are concerning and require urgent attention. An urgent referral is defined as one where the patient should be seen within two weeks.
It is crucial to get this question right, as nearly 20% of respondents did not refer this patient urgently. If you answered incorrectly, take a moment to review the latest NICE guidance to update your knowledge. Practice questions like these can highlight areas of knowledge deficiency and stimulate further learning. By remembering this scenario, you will be better equipped to handle similar situations in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic, having just returned from living in Canada. He tells you he had a colonoscopy six months earlier; a polyp in the ascending colon was removed and this was classified as a Dukes' B tumour. He wonders if he needs further checks according to current guidance for surveillance after resection of colorectal cancer. What would you advise him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serial carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) monitoring
Explanation:Post-Treatment Surveillance Strategies for Colorectal Cancer: The Role of CEA Monitoring, Colonoscopy, and CT Scans
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a protein that is elevated in the serum of patients with colorectal cancer. While not suitable for screening, CEA levels can be used to monitor disease burden and predict prognosis in patients with established disease. Additionally, elevated preoperative CEA levels should return to baseline after complete resection, and failure to do so may indicate residual disease. Serial CEA testing can also aid in the early detection of recurrences, which can increase the likelihood of a complete resection.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends regular serum CEA tests (at least every six months in the first three years) and a minimum of two CT scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis in the first three years after treatment. Surveillance colonoscopy should be performed one year after initial treatment, and if normal, another colonoscopy should be performed at five years. The timing of colonoscopy after adenoma should be determined by the risk status of the adenoma.
While periodic colonoscopy is beneficial for detecting metachronous cancers and preventing further cancers via removal of adenomatous polyps, trials have failed to show a survival benefit from annual or shorter intervals compared to less frequent intervals (three or five years) for detecting anastomotic recurrences. Routine fecal occult blood testing is not recommended in post-treatment surveillance guidelines.
In summary, post-treatment surveillance strategies for colorectal cancer should include serial CEA monitoring, CT scans, and colonoscopy at recommended intervals. These strategies can aid in the early detection of recurrences and improve the likelihood of a complete resection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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You get a call from the wife of a 60-year-old patient of yours who has been stented in the previous week for inoperable pancreatic carcinoma.
He was recovering well from his procedure, with resolving obstructive jaundice, but he has had rigors all night long, with a drenching fever, measured at 38.4°C. According to his wife his jaundice has got worse again.
You see him and he looks very unwell, pale with rigors and a cold sweat. He is tender in the epigastrium and the right upper quadrant.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholecystitis
Explanation:Antibiotic Treatment for Bacterial Infection after Stenting Procedure
After a stenting procedure, it is possible for bacteria to enter the body. The most common pathogens that cause infection in this case are Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, enterococcus, and Bacteroides. To treat this bacterial infection, an antibiotic with sufficient coverage for gram-negative bacteria and the ability to penetrate the bile duct is necessary. Ciprofloxacin is the recommended drug of choice for this type of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of scleroderma presents with recurrent bouts of diarrhoea for the past few months. Her stools are pale, bulky, and offensive during these episodes. She consumes 14 units of alcohol per week. Laboratory tests reveal the following results:
- Hemoglobin: 10.8 g/dl
- Platelets: 231 * 109/l
- White blood cells: 5.4 * 109/l
- Ferritin: 14 ng/ml
- Vitamin B12: 170 ng/l
- Folate: 2.2 nmol/l
- Sodium: 142 mmol/l
- Potassium: 3.4 mmol/l
- Urea: 4.5 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 77 µmol/l
- Bilirubin: 21 µmol/l
- Alkaline phosphatase: 88 u/l
- Alanine transaminase: 21 u/l
- Gamma-glutamyl transferase: 55 u/l
- Albumin: 36 g/l
What is the most likely complication that has occurred in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malabsorption syndrome
Explanation:Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) frequently leads to malabsorption syndrome, which is characterized by reduced absorption of certain vitamins (B12, folate), nutrients (iron), and protein (low albumin) as indicated by blood tests.
Understanding Malabsorption: Causes and Symptoms
Malabsorption is a condition that is characterized by diarrhea, weight loss, and steatorrhea. It occurs when the body is unable to absorb nutrients from the food that is consumed. The causes of malabsorption can be broadly divided into three categories: intestinal, pancreatic, and biliary. Intestinal causes include conditions such as coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease, tropical sprue, Whipple’s disease, Giardiasis, and brush border enzyme deficiencies. Pancreatic causes include chronic pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, and pancreatic cancer. Biliary causes include biliary obstruction and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other causes of malabsorption include bacterial overgrowth, short bowel syndrome, and lymphoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has been experiencing abdominal pain and intermittent bloody diarrhoea for the past 4 months. She has a history of perianal abscess. Her blood test shows hypochromic, microcytic anaemia and mild hypokalaemia. Although her liver function tests are normal, her albumin is reduced. Barium imaging reveals a small bowel stricture with evidence of mucosal ulceration extending into the colon, interspersed with normal looking mucosa ‘skipping’. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crohn's disease
Explanation:Understanding Crohn’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. The most commonly affected sites are the ileocecal region and the colon. Patients with Crohn’s disease experience relapses and remissions, with symptoms including low-grade fever, prolonged diarrhea, right lower quadrant or periumbilical pain, weight loss, and fatigue. Perianal disease may also occur, with symptoms such as perirectal pain, malodorous discharge, and fistula formation. Extra-intestinal manifestations may include arthritis, erythema nodosum, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.
To establish a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease, ileocolonoscopy and biopsies from affected areas are first-line procedures. A cobblestone-like appearance is often seen, representing areas of ulceration separated by narrow areas of healthy tissue. Barium follow-through examination is useful for looking for inflammation and narrowing of the small bowel.
Differential diagnosis for Crohn’s disease include coeliac disease, small bowel lymphoma, tropical sprue, and ulcerative colitis. Coeliac disease presents as a malabsorption syndrome with weight loss and steatorrhoea, while small bowel lymphoma is rare and presents with nonspecific symptoms such as abdominal pain and weight loss. Tropical sprue is a post-infectious malabsorption syndrome that occurs in tropical areas, and ulcerative colitis may be clinically indistinguishable from colonic Crohn’s disease but lacks the small bowel involvement and skip lesions seen in Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman presents with lethargy and pruritus. She reports having a normal appetite and no weight loss. Upon examination, there is no clinical jaundice or organomegaly. The following blood tests were obtained:
- Hemoglobin: 12.8 g/dL
- Platelets: 188 * 10^9/L
- White blood cells: 6.7 * 10^9/L
- Sodium: 140 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.9 mmol/L
- Urea: 6.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 68 µmol/L
- Bilirubin: 30 µmol/L
- Alkaline phosphatase: 231 U/L
- Alanine transaminase: 38 U/L
- Gamma-glutamyl transferase: 367 U/L
- Albumin: 39 g/L
What additional test is most likely to provide a diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disorder that affects middle-aged women. It is thought to be an autoimmune condition that damages interlobular bile ducts, causing progressive cholestasis and potentially leading to cirrhosis. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman. It is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Diagnosis involves immunology and imaging tests. Management includes ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine for pruritus, and liver transplantation in severe cases. Complications include cirrhosis, osteomalacia and osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man presents with a change in bowel habit. He has noticed that over the last three to four weeks he is passing looser, more frequent stools on a daily basis. Prior to the last three to four weeks he has not had any persistent problems with his bowels. He denies any rectal bleeding. He has no significant past history of any bowel problems.
On examination his abdomen feels normal and his rectal examination is normal. You weigh him and his weight is the same as six months ago.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer him urgently to a lower gastrointestinal specialist
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Urgent Referral and Faecal Occult Blood Testing in Patients with Change in Bowel Habit
In accordance with NICE guidelines, patients aged 60 years and older with a change in bowel habit towards looser and more frequent stools (without rectal bleeding) should be urgently referred. This applies to our 68-year-old male patient. While faecal occult blood testing is not necessary in this case, NICE offers guidance on whom to test for colorectal cancer using this method.
According to the guidelines, faecal occult blood testing should be offered to adults without rectal bleeding who are aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss. Additionally, those aged under 60 with changes in bowel habit or iron-deficiency anaemia should also be tested. For patients aged 60 and over, testing should be offered if they have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure timely and appropriate management of patients with potential colorectal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis after an acute admission to the hospital with bleeding per rectum, fever and abdominal pain. At the time of diagnosis, she was initiated on mesalazine. Her bowel symptoms are now much improved and she is awaiting routine follow-up in the clinic.
Which of the following side effects should patients be specifically informed of and cautioned about when commencing mesalazine?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancytopenia
Explanation:Adverse Effects of Aminosalicylates: What to Watch Out For
Aminosalicylates, such as mesalazine and sulfasalazine, are drugs used to treat bowel inflammation. While they are generally safe, there are some potential adverse effects to be aware of. Common side effects include headache, nausea, rash, and abdominal pain. Patients may also become more sensitive to sunlight.
However, aminosalicylates can also rarely cause more serious issues such as blood disorders like agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia. Patients should be advised to report any unexplained bleeding, bruising, sore throat, fever, or malaise, and a full blood count should be performed if these symptoms occur. Nephrotoxicity is another potential adverse effect of mesalazine.
It’s important to note that mesalazine is not associated with skin pigmentation, corneal deposits, gum hypertrophy, or Parkinsonian features, which are side effects of other drugs. If patients experience any concerning symptoms while taking aminosalicylates, they should speak with their healthcare provider immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of acute severe pain in his upper abdomen, which radiates to his back. He experiences severe nausea and vomiting and finds that sitting forwards is the only way to alleviate the pain. His medical history includes hypertension and gallstones, which were incidentally discovered during an ultrasound scan. What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Acute Upper Abdominal Pain
Acute upper abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some possible diagnoses based on the given symptoms:
1. Acute pancreatitis: This condition is often caused by gallstones or alcohol consumption and presents with severe upper abdominal pain. Blood tests show elevated amylase levels, and immediate hospital admission is necessary.
2. Budd-Chiari syndrome: This rare condition involves the blockage of the hepatic vein and can cause right upper abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, and ascites.
3. Acute cholecystitis: This condition is characterized by localized pain in the upper right abdomen and a positive Murphy’s sign (pain worsened by deep breathing).
4. Perforated duodenal ulcer: This condition can cause sudden upper abdominal pain, but it is usually associated with a history of dyspepsia or NSAID use.
5. Renal colic: This condition causes severe pain in the loin-to-groin area and is often accompanied by urinary symptoms and hematuria.
In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the underlying cause of acute upper abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with a history of GORD symptoms presents to the clinic after a three month trial of omeprazole 20 mg. Further investigations have revealed that he has a hiatus hernia. The decision is made to continue his omeprazole treatment and he is advised to lose weight as his BMI is 32.
Despite losing 5 kg over the past six months, he has visited the clinic twice for antibiotics due to lower respiratory tract infections. He has also been experiencing a nocturnal cough and possible asthma symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase his omeprazole to 40 mg
Explanation:Indications for Surgical Repair of Hiatus Hernia
Indications for surgical repair of hiatus hernia include recurrent respiratory tract infection due to reflux. It is also considered in patients who have a para-oesophageal hernia because of the risk of strangulation.
Given this patient’s young age and the fact that he has attended twice in six months with symptoms of respiratory tract infection, surgical referral for laparoscopic fundoplication is advised. This procedure can help alleviate symptoms of reflux and prevent further respiratory tract infections. It is important to consider surgical intervention in cases where conservative management has failed or when there is a risk of complications such as strangulation. Proper evaluation and management of hiatus hernia can improve the quality of life for patients and prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with long-standing bowel symptoms that go back several years. He recently joined the practice and reports experiencing bouts of abdominal pain and diarrhea that can last up to a few weeks at a time. His previous GP diagnosed him with irritable bowel syndrome. He also has a history of ankylosing spondylitis, which was diagnosed in his early 20s, and recurrent mouth ulcers. He takes ibuprofen as needed to manage spinal pain from his ankylosing spondylitis.
He is now presenting because he has had abdominal pain and profuse diarrhea for the past two weeks. He is having bowel movements 3-4 times a day, which is similar to previous attacks, but he is more concerned this time because he has noticed fresh blood mixed in with his stools. He has not traveled abroad and has had no contact with sick individuals. He denies any weight loss. He saw the Out of Hours GP service a few days ago, and they submitted a stool sample for testing, which showed no evidence of an infectious cause.
On examination, he is hydrated and afebrile. His blood pressure is 138/90 mmHg, his pulse rate is 88 bpm, and he is not systemically unwell. His abdomen is tender around the umbilicus and across the lower abdomen. He has no guarding or acute surgical findings, and there are no masses or organomegaly. Due to the rectal blood loss, you perform a rectal examination, which reveals several perianal skin tags but nothing focal in the rectum.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In view of the ongoing loose stools and rectal bleeding refer him urgently to a lower gastrointestinal specialist as a suspected cancer
Explanation:Possible Crohn’s Disease Diagnosis
This patient’s symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of Crohn’s disease, which has been previously misdiagnosed as irritable bowel syndrome. The recent discovery of blood in his stools is not consistent with IBS and indicates an alternative cause. Additionally, the presence of ankylosing spondylitis, mouth ulcers, and skin tags are all associated with Crohn’s disease.
To confirm the diagnosis, the patient should undergo faecal calprotectin and blood tests, including FBC, U&Es, albumin, CRP, and ESR. These tests can be performed in primary care. However, the patient should also be referred to a lower GI specialist for further evaluation and confirmation of the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman complains of abdominal discomfort, bloating, and a change in bowel habit with looser, more frequent stools. She has been experiencing these symptoms since her husband passed away 3 months ago. Her daughter believes she may have irritable bowel syndrome and is seeking treatment. What is the recommended course of action for managing her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 week referral to secondary care
Explanation:This woman has exhibited a concerning symptom of experiencing loose stools for over 6 weeks, which is a red flag indicator. Given her age of over 60 years, it is important to discuss the potential of an underlying cancer and refer her to secondary care for further testing within 2 weeks to rule out the possibility of bowel cancer.
Colorectal cancer referral guidelines were updated by NICE in 2015. Patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, those who are 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, and those who are 60 years or older with iron deficiency anaemia or a change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients with positive results for occult blood in their faeces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should be considered if there is a rectal or abdominal mass, an unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or if patients under 50 years old have rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anaemia.
The NHS offers a national screening programme for colorectal cancer every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia, and those who are 60 years or older who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with anaemia on a routine blood test. Her haemoglobin is 96 g/L (115-165) and her MCV is 72 fL (80-96). Further blood tests reveal a ferritin of 8 µg/L (15-300) and negative coeliac serology. Haemoglobin electrophoresis is normal.
She denies any gastrointestinal symptoms, rectal bleeding, weight loss, haematuria or haemoptysis. Her menstrual cycle is regular with periods every 28 days. She reports heavy bleeding for five days followed by lighter bleeding for three days, which has been the case for several years. She doesn't consider her periods to be problematic.
Physical examination, including urine dipstick testing, is unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start oral iron replacement
Explanation:Investigating Anaemia: Identifying and Treating Iron Deficiency
A new diagnosis of anaemia should prompt further investigation. A low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) suggests iron deficiency anaemia, which can be confirmed with a ferritin level test. However, it is important to note that ferritin levels may be falsely normal in the presence of an acute phase response. In such cases, iron studies may be useful. Once iron deficiency is confirmed, the underlying cause should be identified.
Patients with upper gastrointestinal symptoms or unexplained low haemoglobin levels require urgent referral for endoscopic gastrointestinal assessment. Coeliac serology and haemoglobin electrophoresis should also be considered to rule out coeliac disease and hereditary causes of microcytic anaemia, respectively.
In patients who do not require urgent referral, non-gastrointestinal blood loss and poor diet should be considered. Menstrual blood loss is a common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in menstruating women. In such cases, iron replacement therapy should be initiated, and haemoglobin levels should be monitored for improvement. If heavy menstrual bleeding is the cause, it should be treated, and if the patient doesn’t respond to iron supplementation, gastroenterology referral is appropriate.
In summary, identifying and treating iron deficiency anaemia requires a thorough investigation of the underlying cause. Prompt referral is necessary in certain cases, while others may require iron replacement therapy and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old obese man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic for a review. He reports feeling well and asymptomatic. However, his recent annual blood tests have shown slightly abnormal liver function tests:
- Bilirubin 20 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP 104 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT 53 u/L (3 - 40)
- γGT 58 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin 38 g/L (35 - 50)
A liver ultrasound performed during his follow-up visit reveals fatty changes. All other standard liver screen bloods, including viral serology, are normal. The patient's alcoholic intake is within recommended limits.
What would be the most appropriate next test to perform?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enhanced liver fibrosis blood test
Explanation:For patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, it is advised to undergo enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) testing to assist in the detection of liver fibrosis. A typical patient with this condition is someone who is overweight and has type 2 diabetes mellitus. According to NICE guidelines, if NAFLD is discovered by chance, an ELF blood test should be conducted to evaluate for the presence of advanced liver disease.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with dyspepsia and is found to have a gastric ulcer and H. pylori infection on endoscopy. He undergoes H. pylori eradication therapy but continues to experience symptoms six weeks later. What is the best test to confirm eradication of H. pylori?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urea breath test
Explanation:The sole recommended test for H. pylori after eradication therapy is the urea breath test. It should be noted that H. pylori serology will still show positive results even after eradication. A stool antigen test, rather than culture, may be a suitable substitute.
Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may be at an increased risk of developing colon cancer. His father died at the age of 56 from a sigmoid colon adenocarcinoma. His brother, aged 61, has just undergone a colectomy for a caecal carcinoma.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for one-off colonoscopy aged 55
Explanation:Screening Recommendations for Patients with Family History of Colorectal Cancer
Patients with a family history of colorectal cancer may be at an increased risk of developing the disease. The British Society of Gastroenterology and the Association of Coloproctology for Great Britain and Ireland have produced screening guidelines for patients with family history profiles that place them in a moderate-risk category.
Colonoscopy is recommended for patients with a family history of two first-degree relatives with a mean age of less than 60 years with colorectal cancer, starting at the age of 55. Abdominal ultrasound examination doesn’t have a role in screening for or diagnosing colorectal cancer.
Patients with an increased risk should not be advised that they have no increased risk. Instead, they should be screened appropriately. Faecal immunochemical tests (FIT) are used to detect blood in the stool and are used in the national bowel cancer screening programme. However, patients with a higher risk, given their family history, should be offered earlier screening with colonoscopy rather than waiting until they are eligible for the national screening programme. False positives and negatives are possible with FIT, making colonoscopy a more reliable screening option for high-risk patients.
Therefore, it is important for patients with a family history of colorectal cancer to be aware of the screening recommendations and to discuss their individual risk and screening options with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A concerned man visits your clinic as he participated in the routine bowel cancer screening program and received a positive faecal occult blood test (FOBt) result. He inquires if this indicates that he has bowel cancer. What is the estimated percentage of patients with a positive FOBt result who are subsequently diagnosed with bowel cancer during colonoscopy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10%
Explanation:Colorectal Cancer Screening with FIT Test
Overview:
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS provides home-based screening for older adults through the Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT). Although a one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England, it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was further exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. However, the trial showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used in future bowel screening programmes.Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS offers a national screening programme every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests as it only detects human haemoglobin, not animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. Although a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.Colonoscopy:
Approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of excessive morning sickness during her third month of pregnancy. Her routine blood tests show an ALT level of 64 IU (normal range: < 40 IU/l) and a bilirubin of 55 µmol/l (normal range: < 21 µmol/l). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG)
Explanation:Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that occurs during pregnancy and can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, ketosis, and weight loss. It often affects the liver, with abnormal ALT levels in about half of patients. Jaundice may also occur in severe cases. While HG typically resolves by the end of the third trimester, it can persist throughout pregnancy in some cases.
Acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP) is a rare condition that occurs in about 5 out of 100,000 pregnancies. It often presents in the third trimester with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, headache, and pruritus. Jaundice may also occur and can become severe. AFLP is typically managed by prompt delivery and supportive care, but it is unlikely to be the diagnosis for a patient in the first trimester.
HELLP syndrome is a condition that can occur in patients with severe pre-eclampsia, with symptoms including abnormal pain and elevated AST levels. It is most likely to occur close to delivery, but it can occur as early as 20 weeks. However, this patient is only 13 weeks pregnant, making HELLP syndrome an unlikely diagnosis.
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP) is a common condition that should be considered in cases of abnormal liver function tests in the second trimester. It is characterized by itching, and severe cases may lead to jaundice. Affected pregnancies are at an increased risk of prematurity and stillbirth, so early delivery may be necessary.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that typically occurs in the second half of pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria. It may also cause peripheral edema, abdominal pain, headache, and visual problems. Treatment involves delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of experiencing indigestion for the past two months. She is in good health, has never had a similar episode before, and is not taking any regular medication. Notably, she has not experienced any recent weight loss or vomiting, and her abdominal examination is normal. What is the best initial course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lifestyle advice + one month course of a full-dose proton pump inhibitor
Explanation:As per the revised NICE guidelines of 2015, there is no need for an immediate endoscopy referral for her. However, if she fails to respond to treatment, a non-urgent referral would be advisable.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.
For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.
Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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You assess a 32-year-old male with a 15-year history of ulcerative colitis. He reports passing three bloody stools per day for the past week, but denies any abdominal pain and has maintained a good appetite. Upon examination, there are no notable findings in the abdomen. What is the most probable explanation for this current episode?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mild exacerbation of ulcerative colitis
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis flares can occur without any identifiable trigger, but there are several factors that are often associated with them. These include stress, certain medications such as NSAIDs and antibiotics, and cessation of smoking. Flares are typically categorized as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools a person has per day, the presence of blood in the stools, and the level of systemic disturbance. Mild flares involve fewer than four stools daily with or without blood and no systemic disturbance. Moderate flares involve four to six stools a day with minimal systemic disturbance. Severe flares involve more than six stools a day with blood and evidence of systemic disturbance such as fever, tachycardia, abdominal tenderness, distension, reduced bowel sounds, anemia, or hypoalbuminemia. Patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of constipation that has persisted since her last pregnancy two years ago. She has been using laxatives for the past few months. She reports no abdominal pain or diarrhoea and has not noticed any triggers or alleviating factors. Her weight is stable and she has not observed any blood in her stools. She is in good health otherwise.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic constipation
Explanation:Possible Causes of Chronic Constipation: A Differential Diagnosis
Chronic constipation is a common condition affecting approximately 14% of the global population. While most cases do not require investigation, it is important to consider potential underlying causes in certain patients. Here are some possible diagnoses to consider:
1. Idiopathic constipation: This is the most common cause of chronic constipation, especially in young patients. A high-fiber diet and physical activity can help alleviate symptoms.
2. Diverticular disease: This condition is characterized by abdominal pain and diarrhea, but it usually presents later in life and chronic constipation is a risk factor.
3. Colon cancer: While chronic constipation can be a symptom of colon cancer, other factors such as weight loss and rectal bleeding are usually present. This diagnosis is unlikely in younger patients.
4. Hypothyroidism: Constipation can be a symptom of an underactive thyroid, but other symptoms such as weight gain and fatigue are usually present.
5. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS): IBS can cause constipation and/or diarrhea, but it is usually associated with abdominal pain and bloating.
In summary, chronic constipation can have various underlying causes, and a careful history and physical examination can help determine the appropriate diagnostic approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old woman comes to her doctor with a recent weight loss of 6 kg over the past three months, without any significant pain. During the examination, she appears drawn and emaciated, with deep yellow sclera. She has experienced jaundice twice before, once in her teens, and her sister has also had it. She typically enjoys a glass or two of wine on weekends and smokes 10 cigarettes per day. What is the probable reason for her jaundice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infective hepatitis
Explanation:Causes of Jaundice and their Characteristics
Jaundice can be caused by various conditions, each with their own unique characteristics. Cancer of the pancreas, particularly in the head, can cause painless jaundice. On the other hand, cancer in the body or tail of the pancreas can present with dull, unremitting central abdominal pain or back pain. Smoking is a known risk factor for pancreatic cancer.
Gilbert’s syndrome, a familial condition, can also cause jaundice. However, the jaundice in this case is pale yellow and the patient typically feels well. While Gilbert’s syndrome is not uncommon, it is important to consider other potential causes of jaundice, especially if the patient has significant weight loss. As a wise surgeon once said, People with IBS get Ca bowel too – never forget that.
Hepatitis A is more commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. Primary biliary cirrhosis, on the other hand, has its peak incidence in the fifth decade of life and often presents with generalized pruritus or asymptomatic hepatomegaly. Understanding the characteristics of different causes of jaundice can help in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old gentleman has come to discuss his recent blood test results.
A few months previously he had a private health screening that showed an abnormality on his liver function tests. He was subsequently told to see his GP for further advice. You can see that a liver function test done at that time showed a bilirubin level of 41 µmol/L (normal 3-20) with the remainder of the liver function profile being within normal limits.
Prior to seeing you today a colleague has repeated the liver function with a few other tests. The results show a normal full blood count, renal function and thyroid function.
Repeat LFTs reveal:
Bilirubin 40 µmol/L
ALT 35 U/L
ALP 104 U/L
Conjugated bilirubin 7 μmol/L
He is well in himself and has no significant past medical history. General systems examination is normal.
What is the likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemolysis
Explanation:Elevated Bilirubin Levels in Asymptomatic Patients
This patient has an isolated slightly raised bilirubin level and is not experiencing any symptoms. The bilirubin level is twice the upper limit of normal, which has been confirmed on interval testing. The next step is to determine the proportion of unconjugated bilirubin to guide further investigation. If greater than 70% is unconjugated, as is the case here, the patient probably has Gilbert’s syndrome.
If the bilirubin level remains stable on repeat testing, then no further action is needed unless there is clinical suspicion of haemolysis. However, if the bilirubin level rises on retesting, haemolysis must be considered and should be investigated with a blood film, reticulocyte count, lactate dehydrogenase, and haptoglobin. It is important to monitor bilirubin levels in asymptomatic patients to detect any potential underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents with long-standing gastrointestinal symptoms. She was diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome as a young adult and currently takes hyoscine butylbromide 10-20 mg QDS PRN and loperamide 2 mg PRN for her symptoms. She also has a history of type 1 diabetes diagnosed at the age of 10.
She has been experiencing intermittent abdominal pains and bloating, as well as periodic bouts of diarrhea for years. Her latest blood tests, which were done as part of her diabetic annual review, show a modest anemia (hemoglobin 105 g/L). Her liver function tests show a slight persistent elevation of ALT and ALP, which has been the case for the last six to seven years and has not significantly deteriorated. Her thyroid function, bone profile, and ESR are all within normal limits. Her HbA1c is satisfactory at 50 mmol/mol.
There has been no significant change in her gastrointestinal symptoms recently. She has never had any rectal bleeding or mucous passed per rectum. Her weight is stable. She reports no acute illness but does feel more tired than usual over the last few months. She follows a 'normal' diet. Clinical examination reveals no focal abnormalities. She denies any obvious source of blood loss with no reported gastro-oesophageal reflux, haematemesis, haemoptysis, or haematuria. Urine dipstick testing shows no blood.
She has no family history of bowel cancer, but her mother and one of her maternal aunts both suffered from irritable bowel syndrome. Follow-up blood tests show low ferritin and folate levels.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this 62-year-old woman's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure her that no further investigation or treatment is needed as her symptoms are chronic
Explanation:Coeliac Disease and Iron Deficiency Anaemia
Note the low folate levels and anaemia in a type 1 diabetic with chronic gastrointestinal symptoms and liver function test abnormalities. These features suggest coeliac disease, which is often misdiagnosed as irritable bowel syndrome. It is recommended by NICE to routinely test for coeliac disease when diagnosing IBS. Family members with IBS should also be investigated for coeliac disease if the diagnosis is confirmed.
Patients with untreated coeliac disease often have mild liver function test abnormalities and are at increased risk for osteoporosis and hypothyroidism. The low folate levels suggest malabsorption as a possible cause. NICE CKS recommends screening all people with iron deficiency anaemia for coeliac disease using coeliac serology.
For iron deficiency anaemia without dyspepsia, consider the possibility of gastrointestinal cancer and urgently refer for further investigations. For women who are not menstruating, with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin level of 10 g/100 mL or below, refer urgently within 2 weeks for upper and lower gastrointestinal investigations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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Coeliac disease screening should be conducted for all patients diagnosed with?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old nurse had a needlestick injury six months ago. She did not present immediately to Occupational Health but eventually came because she began to feel tired and lethargic. She has a raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level, anti-hepatitis B surface antibodies and anti-hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibodies. Low levels of HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA) are detected. A liver biopsy reveals early inflammatory changes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis C infection
Explanation:Explanation of Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis
Hepatitis C virus (HCV) ribonucleic acid (RNA) is detected in a patient, indicating active hepatitis C infection. The presence of anti-HCV antibodies and an 8-month history since exposure confirms that the infection is now chronic. Liver biopsy may show varying degrees of inflammation, fibrosis, and cirrhosis, with this patient exhibiting early inflammatory changes.
Autoimmune hepatitis, which is associated with antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA), is not consistent with the presence of anti-HCV antibodies and HCV RNA. Chronic hepatitis B infection is also ruled out, as the patient’s anti-hepatitis B antibodies are likely due to vaccination. Functional symptoms may cause tiredness and lethargy, but the patient’s deranged liver function tests and positive hepatitis C antibodies indicate an underlying diagnosis of hepatitis C.
Understanding Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A client is administered ondansetron for chemotherapy-induced vomiting. What is the most probable adverse effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Constipation
Explanation:Understanding 5-HT3 Antagonists
5-HT3 antagonists are a type of medication used to treat nausea, particularly in patients undergoing chemotherapy. These drugs work by targeting the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the medulla oblongata, which is responsible for triggering nausea and vomiting. Examples of 5-HT3 antagonists include ondansetron and palonosetron, with the latter being a second-generation drug that has the advantage of having a reduced effect on the QT interval.
While 5-HT3 antagonists are generally well-tolerated, they can have some adverse effects. One of the most significant concerns is the potential for a prolonged QT interval, which can increase the risk of arrhythmias and other cardiac complications. Additionally, constipation is a common side effect of these medications. Overall, 5-HT3 antagonists are an important tool in the management of chemotherapy-induced nausea, but their use should be carefully monitored to minimize the risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man who is typically healthy visits his GP complaining of indigestion that has persisted for 2 months. He has not experienced any weight changes or difficulty swallowing. Upon examination, there are no notable findings in the abdomen. What is the most appropriate initial course of action from the following choices?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: One month course of a full-dose proton pump inhibitor
Explanation:The management of dyspepsia according to NICE guidelines doesn’t recommend a specific first-line approach between a one month course of a PPI or ‘test and treat’ strategy. However, testing for H pylori is preferred by some clinicians before initiating acid-suppression therapy as false-negative results may occur if done within 2 weeks. Therefore, only the answer that aligns with current NICE guidelines should be chosen.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.
For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.
Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 57
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old female with ulcerative colitis is discovered to have anti-smooth muscle antibodies.
What is the most suitable subsequent test for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Order an urgent endoscopy
Explanation:Next Investigation for Women with Suspected Autoimmune Hepatitis
The most appropriate next investigation for this woman is to conduct liver function tests (LFTs) to assess if there are any features of autoimmune hepatitis. This includes checking for raised levels of bilirubin, aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alanine aminotransferase (ALT), and alkaline phosphatase. If any of these levels are elevated, further diagnostic imaging or a liver biopsy may be required to confirm the diagnosis.
Autoimmune hepatitis is often seen in individuals with other autoimmune disorders such as ulcerative colitis. Therefore, it is important to conduct these tests to determine the underlying cause of the woman’s symptoms and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 58
Incorrect
-
You observe a 35-year-old librarian who has been living with Crohn's disease for 18 years. She has been in remission for the past six years, but has been experiencing abdominal pain and passing bloody stools for the past week. She is seeking treatment.
She is generally healthy and takes the combined contraceptive pill and ibuprofen as needed for back pain. She smokes five cigarettes daily but doesn't consume alcohol.
What is the accurate statement regarding her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smoking increases the risk of Crohn's disease relapse
Explanation:Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.
To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.
Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 59
Incorrect
-
What is the most accurate statement regarding gastrointestinal bleeding in patients who are using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is due to depletion of mucosal prostaglandin E (PGE) levels
Explanation:NSAIDs and Gastrointestinal Bleeds: Risk Factors and Mechanisms
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief and inflammation management. However, their use is associated with an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeds, particularly in patients with pre-existing gastric or duodenal ulcers. Even those without a history of ulcers are at risk, with the relative risk varying among different NSAID preparations. NSAIDs directly damage the gastric mucosal barrier by depleting mucosal PGE levels, which decreases the gastroduodenal defence mechanisms and cytoprotective effect of PGE, resulting in mucosal injury, erosions and ulceration.
Several factors increase the risk of ulceration in the setting of NSAID use, including previous peptic ulcer disease, advanced age, female sex, high doses or combinations of NSAIDs, long-term NSAID use, concomitant use of anticoagulants, and severe comorbid illnesses. Even low-dose aspirin, with increasing use, is a major cause of upper gastrointestinal problems, particularly bleeding. It is important to note that NSAIDs may have adverse effects in all parts of the gastrointestinal tract, not only the stomach or duodenum; the oesophagus, small intestine and colon may also be affected. Endoscopic evidence of peptic ulceration is found in 20% of NSAID users even in the absence of symptoms.
In conclusion, while NSAIDs are effective in managing pain and inflammation, their use is associated with an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeds. Patients with pre-existing gastric or duodenal ulcers are particularly at risk, but other factors such as advanced age, high doses or combinations of NSAIDs, and concomitant use of anticoagulants also increase the risk. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of NSAID use and consider alternative pain management strategies in high-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 60
Incorrect
-
You are reviewing a 75-year-old man who has come to see you for the result of his recent colonoscopy. The report states:
Good bowel preparation, optimal views, no intraluminal mass seen appearances consistent with melanosis coli and confirmed on biopsy.
What is the cause of this gentleman's colonoscopy findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inflammatory colitis
Explanation:Melanosis Coli: A Benign Condition Caused by Laxative Use
Many gastroenterology departments now offer rapid access for endoscopy directly from primary care. Consequently, GPs increasingly have endoscopy reports sent back to them for patients who can be managed in primary care and do not need any further hospital input.
In this case, the endoscopy report identified melanosis coli, a benign condition that causes pigmentation of the colon wall. This condition is typically caused by long-term use of anthraquinone laxatives such as senna. The lesions are not due to melanin but rather a brown pigment called lipofuscin, which is deposited in macrophages in the colonic mucosa.
It is important to note that melanosis coli is not a feature of inflammatory colitis or diverticular disease. Colonic lesions are often biopsied, and as in this case, the biopsy confirms the clinical diagnosis and doesn’t suggest the presence of carcinoma.
Peutz-Jegher syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition that causes gastrointestinal polyps. Patients with this condition can display mucocutaneous pigmentation and perioral freckling. Polyps may undergo malignant transformation, and sufferers of this condition have a 12-fold increased risk of carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 61
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old woman presents with fatigue and shortness of breath on exertion. She has a hiatus hernia diagnosed on upper gastrointestinal endoscopy 3 months ago and takes omeprazole. She has had no respiratory symptoms, no change in bowel habit, no dysphagia or indigestion. On examination she is pale and tachycardic with a pulse rate of 100/min. Abdominal examination is normal. Blood tests reveal the following results:
Haemoglobin 72 g/l
White cell count 5.5 x109/l
Platelets 536 x109/l
ESR 36 mm/h
(hypochromic microcytic red blood cells)
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right-sided colonic carcinoma
Explanation:Causes of Iron Deficiency Anaemia and the Importance of Gastrointestinal Tract Investigation
Iron deficiency anaemia is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. In older patients, it is important to investigate the gastrointestinal tract as a potential source of bleeding. Right-sided colonic carcinomas often do not cause any changes in bowel habit, leading to late diagnosis or incidental discovery during investigations for anaemia. On the other hand, rectal carcinomas usually result in a change in bowel habit. Oesophageal carcinoma can cause dysphagia and should have been detected during recent endoscopy. Hiatus hernia is unlikely to cause severe anaemia, especially if the patient is taking omeprazole. Poor diet is also an unlikely explanation for new-onset iron deficiency anaemia in older patients. Therefore, routine assessment of iron deficiency anaemia should include investigation of the upper and lower gastrointestinal tract, with particular attention to visualising the caecum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 62
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man with liver cirrhosis of unknown origin is being evaluated in the clinic. What factor is most likely to indicate a poor prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ascites
Explanation:Scoring Systems for Liver Cirrhosis
Liver cirrhosis is a serious condition that can lead to liver failure and death. To assess the severity of the disease, doctors use scoring systems such as the Child-Pugh classification and the Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD). The Child-Pugh classification takes into account five factors: bilirubin levels, albumin levels, prothrombin time, encephalopathy, and ascites. Each factor is assigned a score of 1 to 3, depending on its severity, and the scores are added up to give a total score. The total score is then used to grade the severity of the disease as A, B, or C.
The MELD system uses a formula that takes into account a patient’s bilirubin, creatinine, and international normalized ratio (INR) to predict their survival. The formula calculates a score that ranges from 6 to 40, with higher scores indicating a higher risk of mortality. The MELD score is particularly useful for patients who are on a liver transplant waiting list, as it helps to prioritize patients based on their risk of mortality. Overall, both the Child-Pugh classification and the MELD system are important tools for assessing the severity of liver cirrhosis and determining the best course of treatment for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 63
Incorrect
-
You are evaluating a 37-year-old man who presented with an anal fissure caused by constipation and straining. He reports no systemic symptoms and is generally in good health. Despite using lidocaine ointment as prescribed, he continues to experience severe rectal pain during bowel movements and passes bright red blood with every stool. His stools have become softer due to modifications in his diet and regular lactulose use. What is the next step in managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe topical GTN ointment for 6-8 weeks and review if still not healed
Explanation:To alleviate pain and promote healing, suggest using an ointment (if there are no contraindications) twice a day for 6-8 weeks. Referral to colorectal surgeons is not necessary at this time since there are no indications of a severe underlying condition. If the GTN treatment is ineffective after 6-8 weeks, referral to the surgeons may be considered. Topical diltiazem may be prescribed under specialist guidance, but hydrocortisone ointment is not a recommended treatment for anal fissures.
Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the anal canal that can cause pain and rectal bleeding. They can be acute or chronic, depending on how long they have been present. Risk factors for developing anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.
Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, other underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.
Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, and the use of bulk-forming laxatives or lubricants before defecation. Topical anaesthetics and analgesia can also be used to manage pain.
For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, but topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after 8 weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered and a referral to secondary care may be necessary.
Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for anal fissures can help individuals manage their condition and seek appropriate medical care when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 64
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old man presents to the GP with a 3-week history of nausea, particularly worse after eating. He has not experienced any weight loss, upper abdominal pain or reflux. His past medical history includes a fractured right ankle in his twenties. He has no relevant family history. He is a social smoker and drinks around 2 pints with his friends at the weekend. The GP orders bloods which show:
Hb 140 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 550 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 9.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 5.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 75 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 3 mg/L (< 5)
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non urgent referral for endoscopy
Explanation:A non-urgent referral to GI is necessary for patients who have both raised platelet count and nausea due to dyspepsia. In this case, the patient, who is 58 years old, meets the criteria for such referral.
While ondansetron is effective for chemically mediated nausea, metoclopramide or domperidone may be more appropriate for patients with reduced gastric motility.
PPI trial is typically used as a second line management for dyspepsia patients who do not require endoscopy referral.
Reassurance should not be given to patients who meet the criteria for non-urgent endoscopy referral, such as this man with dyspepsia symptoms and abnormal blood results.
Urgent endoscopy referral is not necessary for patients who only present with nausea.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.
For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.
Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 65
Incorrect
-
You are reviewing a 60-year-old patient who has returned to see you for the results of some recent blood tests.
Two months previously she had a liver function test that showed a bilirubin of 39 µmol/L (normal range 3-20 µmol/L). A repeat liver function test performed last week has shown the same result. The remainder of her liver profile is within normal limits.
She is otherwise well and not on any regular medication. She is not overweight, drinks alcohol only occasionally and clinical examination is normal with no stigmata of liver disease. She is asymptomatic.
Full blood count, renal function, thyroid function, fasting glucose and fasting lipids are all within normal limits.
What is the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Request a GGT blood test
Explanation:Management of Isolated Slightly Raised Bilirubin Levels
When a patient presents with an isolated slightly raised bilirubin level and is asymptomatic, the next step is to confirm the proportion of unconjugated bilirubin to guide further investigation. If the unconjugated bilirubin is greater than 70%, the patient probably has Gilbert’s syndrome. In this case, if the bilirubin level remains stable on repeat testing, no further action is needed unless there is clinical suspicion of haemolysis. However, if the bilirubin level rises on retesting, haemolysis must be considered and should be investigated with a blood film, reticulocyte count, lactate dehydrogenase, and haptoglobin. It is important to note that the bilirubin level is almost twice the upper limit of normal, which was confirmed on interval testing. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor the patient’s bilirubin levels and investigate further if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 66
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man presents with a four week history of retrosternal burning particularly after large meals. He also complains of episodes of epigastric discomfort usually during the night. He has no nausea or vomiting, has had no black stools and his weight has been steady for the last few years.
He smokes five cigarettes per day and drinks up to 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination of the abdomen he has mild epigastric tenderness with no masses palpable. He has been buying antacid tablets which give short periods of relief of his symptoms only.
What is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a routine upper GI endoscopy
Explanation:Management of Dyspepsia in a Patient Under 55 Years Old
Until recently, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommended referral for all new onset dyspepsia in patients over 55 years old. However, current guidelines state that referral is only necessary if other symptoms are present. In the case of a patient under 55 years old with no alarm symptoms, treatment to relieve symptoms should be offered.
According to NICE guidance, a four-week course of a full dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) such as omeprazole is recommended. It is also advisable to check the patient’s Helicobacter pylori status and haemoglobin level. If the patient is found to have iron deficiency anaemia, further investigation would be necessary.
In summary, the management of dyspepsia in a patient under 55 years old involves offering treatment to relieve symptoms and checking for Helicobacter pylori status and haemoglobin level. Referral is only necessary if other symptoms are present or if iron deficiency anaemia is detected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 67
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old patient who has been experiencing fatigue has a positive IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) result. What is the initial management plan for this patient in regards to the test result?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to gastroenterology
Explanation:As part of a coeliac screen, IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) is one of the blood tests conducted along with total IgA and possibly anti-endomysial antibodies. According to the 2015 NICE guidance on Coeliac Disease, patients who test positive for this should be referred to gastroenterology for an intestinal endoscopy and biopsy to confirm the condition. Only after confirmation should the patient start a gluten-free diet under the guidance of a dietician.
Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet
Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten-containing cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats must be avoided. However, some patients with coeliac disease can tolerate oats. Gluten-free foods include rice, potatoes, and corn. Compliance with a gluten-free diet can be checked by testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies.
Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which is why they are offered the pneumococcal vaccine. Coeliac UK recommends that patients with coeliac disease receive the pneumococcal vaccine and have a booster every five years. influenza vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.
Overall, managing coeliac disease requires strict adherence to a gluten-free diet and regular immunisation to prevent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 68
Incorrect
-
You see a 49-year-old gentleman with a change in bowel habit. He has had routine blood tests which were all normal. He reports no rectal bleeding. On examination, his abdomen is soft, non-tender and the rectal examination was normal.
What would be the most appropriate next step in your management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer using a suspected lower gastrointestinal cancer pathway
Explanation:Faecal Occult Blood Tests for Colorectal Cancer Screening
Faecal occult blood tests are recommended by NICE for patients who exhibit symptoms that may indicate colorectal cancer but are unlikely to have the disease. These tests are also used for routine screening. However, it is crucial to consider the criteria for suspected lower GI cancer referrals when deciding to use this test. For instance, if a patient is 60 years or older and has experienced a change in bowel habit, they should be referred using a suspected lower GI cancer pathway instead of undergoing a faecal occult blood test. Proper screening and referral protocols can help ensure timely and accurate diagnosis and treatment of colorectal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 69
Incorrect
-
Sarah is a 44-year-old woman who presented to you last month with a 6 week history of upper abdominal pain, heartburn and occasional reflux. Her medical history is unremarkable and you agreed on a plan for a 1 month trial of omeprazole 20 mg daily.
Sarah returns for a follow-up appointment after completing a month of omeprazole. Her symptoms have only slightly improved and they are still bothering her.
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Test for Helicobacter pylori infection in 2 weeks and treat if positive
Explanation:If initial treatment for dyspepsia with either a PPI or ‘test and treat’ approach fails, the alternative strategy should be tried next. In Mark’s case, he has completed 1 month of a full-dose PPI and should now be tested for H. pylori infection. Referral for routine upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is not necessary at this stage.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.
For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.
Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 70
Incorrect
-
A 27 year old woman presents with intermittent abdominal bloating, pain and diarrhea for the past 3 months. She denies any rectal bleeding, weight loss or family history of bowel disease. On examination, her abdomen appears normal. Along with a full blood count (FBC), urea & electrolytes (U&E), coeliac screen, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP), what initial investigation would be most helpful in differentiating between irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) in a primary care setting?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Faecal calprotectin
Explanation:NICE recommends the use of faecal calprotectin in primary care to distinguish between IBS and IBD. This protein is released in the bowel during inflammation and can be detected in a stool sample. Its use can reduce the need for invasive diagnostic testing and referral of patients with typical IBS symptoms. However, a positive result doesn’t confirm IBD and patients should be referred to secondary care for further investigation.
NICE has also provided guidance on the diagnostic criteria for IBS and the necessary investigations. They suggest conducting FBC, ESR, CRP, and coeliac screen (TTG). However, they advise against performing ultrasound, sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy, barium study, thyroid function test, stool microscopy and culture, and faecal occult blood and hydrogen breath test.
Understanding Diarrhoea: Causes and Characteristics
Diarrhoea is defined as having more than three loose or watery stools per day. It can be classified as acute if it lasts for less than 14 days and chronic if it persists for more than 14 days. Gastroenteritis, diverticulitis, and antibiotic therapy are common causes of acute diarrhoea. On the other hand, irritable bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, colorectal cancer, and coeliac disease are some of the conditions that can cause chronic diarrhoea.
Symptoms of gastroenteritis may include abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diverticulitis is characterized by left lower quadrant pain, diarrhoea, and fever. Antibiotic therapy, especially with broad-spectrum antibiotics, can also cause diarrhoea, including Clostridioides difficile infection. Chronic diarrhoea may be caused by irritable bowel syndrome, which is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Ulcerative colitis may cause bloody diarrhoea, crampy abdominal pain, and weight loss. Crohn’s disease may cause crampy abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and malabsorption. Colorectal cancer may cause diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia, and weight loss. Coeliac disease may cause diarrhoea, abdominal distension, lethargy, and weight loss.
Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis. It is important to seek medical attention if diarrhoea persists for more than a few days or is accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, severe abdominal pain, or blood in the stool.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 71
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man presents with persistent reflux, nausea and retrosternal burning pain after eating over the last six weeks. There has been no change in bowel habit and has not noticed any melaena but he has lost a little weight.
On examination there is no abnormality in the abdomen. His weight is 76 kg.
He has a ten year history of dyspepsia which he has been treating with over-the-counter antacids. He had triple therapy nine years ago having had positive serology to Helicobacter pylori. He drinks around 16-20 units of alcohol per week and is an ex-smoker.
He was seen at the out of hours centre five weeks ago and prescribed prochlorperazine, but this has made no difference to his symptoms.
What is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe a daily H2 receptor antagonist (for example, ranitidine) for four weeks then review
Explanation:Managing Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease (GORD) with Alarm Symptoms
When managing someone with symptoms of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), it is crucial to look for alarm features such as unintentional weight loss, dysphagia, GI bleeding, persistent vomiting, and signs of anaemia. Patients may report weight loss, which should be recorded periodically for comparisons. In the presence of alarm symptoms, it is important to refer urgently for upper GI endoscopy, especially for patients aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. According to NICE guidelines, the referral should be made under the two-week wait. The positive serology to Helicobacter pylori nine years ago would not alter the management given the current presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 72
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman is experiencing fatigue and frequent bowel movements. Upon testing, it is found that she has positive anti-endomysial antibodies. Which of the following food items should she avoid, except for one?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maize
Explanation:Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet
Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten-containing cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats must be avoided. However, some patients with coeliac disease can tolerate oats. Gluten-free foods include rice, potatoes, and corn. Compliance with a gluten-free diet can be checked by testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies.
Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which is why they are offered the pneumococcal vaccine. Coeliac UK recommends that patients with coeliac disease receive the pneumococcal vaccine and have a booster every five years. influenza vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.
Overall, managing coeliac disease requires strict adherence to a gluten-free diet and regular immunisation to prevent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 73
Incorrect
-
What is the most common association with acute pancreatitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Azithromycin
Explanation:Acute Pancreatitis: Causes and Risk Factors
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that can be caused by various factors. Certain drugs, such as azathioprine, can increase the risk of developing acute pancreatitis. Gallstones are also a common cause, and can be identified by the presence of Cullen’s sign (periumbilical darkening) or Gray-Turner’s sign (flank darkening). Infections like mumps and Coxsackie B can also lead to acute pancreatitis. Smoking and scorpion bites are other risk factors, with smoking having a synergistic effect when combined with high alcohol intake. Despite the various causes, most single acute episodes of pancreatitis result in uncomplicated recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 74
Incorrect
-
You see a 36-year-old lady with weight loss, abdominal pain, loose stools and bloody diarrhoea. She has been having these symptoms for 6 weeks. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day. She drinks minimal alcohol. She had an appendicectomy 3 years ago while on holiday in Morocco. She also suffers from anal fissures and mouth ulcers.
You suspect she has Crohn's disease and you refer her to the local gastroenterology team.
Which statement below is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The median age of diagnosis for Crohn's disease is approximately 30 years old
Explanation:Crohn’s disease is typically diagnosed around the age of 30, with the median age at diagnosis being 30 years.
After an appendicectomy, the risk of Crohn’s disease increases initially but returns to the same level as the general population after approximately 5 years.
The global incidence and prevalence of Crohn’s disease are on the rise.
In contrast to ulcerative colitis, smoking is a risk factor for developing Crohn’s disease.
The use of oral contraceptive drugs may elevate the risk of inflammatory bowel disease in women.
Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.
Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include nonspecific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old gentleman presents with a change in bowel habit. He reports that over the last two to three months he is opening his bowels four to five times a day and the consistency of his stools has become very loose. He has noticed small amounts of blood in his faeces but put this down to 'piles'.
Previously, he used to open his bowels on average once a day and has no personal history of any gastrointestinal problems. There is no family history of bowel problems, he has not lost any weight and he denies any rectal blood loss. Stool mc&s is normal as are his recent blood tests which show that he is not anaemic. Abdominal and rectal examinations are normal.
He tells you that he is not overly concerned about the symptoms as about two months ago he submitted his bowel screening samples and recently had a letter saying that his screening tests were negative. What is the most appropriate next approach in this instance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer him urgently to a specialist for investigation of his lower gastrointestinal tract
Explanation:Importance of Urgent Referral for Patients with Bowel Symptoms
Screening tests are designed for asymptomatic individuals in an at-risk population. However, it is not uncommon for patients with bowel symptoms to mention that they are not worried as they have done their bowel screening and it was negative.
In the case of a 66-year-old man with persistent changes in bowel habit towards looser stools with some rectal bleeding, urgent referral for further investigation is necessary. It is important to note that relying on recent bowel screening results may falsely reassure patients and delay necessary medical attention.
Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to prioritize the patient’s current symptoms and promptly refer them for further evaluation, regardless of their previous screening results. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for patients with bowel symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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Oliver is a 25-year-old man, who was diagnosed with coeliac disease when he was aged five having been referred to the paediatricians with failure to thrive and anaemia.
He is very aware of foods that may cause problems, but wants to know if there are any drinks that should be avoided when he goes out clubbing with friends.
Which one of the following drinks can he safely ingest?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Whiskey
Explanation:Coeliac Disease and Gluten-Free Alcohol
Patients with coeliac disease must avoid consuming foodstuffs that contain gluten. This means that anything made with wheat, barley, and oats (in some cases) should be avoided. When it comes to alcohol, beers, lagers, stouts, and real ales, whether alcoholic or not, must be avoided due to their gluten content. However, there are now several gluten-free beers and lagers available in the market.
On the other hand, wine, champagne, port, sherry, ciders, liqueurs, and spirits, including whiskey, are all gluten-free. Although whiskey is initially made from barley, the distilling process involved in its production removes the gluten, making it safe for coeliacs to consume. It is essential for individuals with coeliac disease to be mindful of their alcohol intake and to choose gluten-free options to avoid any adverse reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man reports that he has noticed black tarry stools over the last 2 weeks. He has vomited a small amount of blood.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Melaena can result from oesophageal varices
Explanation:Understanding Melaena: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Melaena is a medical condition characterized by black tarry stools, which is often caused by an acute upper gastrointestinal bleed. The bleeding can occur in the oesophagus, stomach, duodenum, small bowel, or right side of the colon, with peptic ulcer disease being the most common cause. In some cases, melaena may be the only symptom of bleeding from oesophageal varices, which are associated with portal hypertension.
Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention, as it can be life-threatening. Patients who are haemodynamically unstable should undergo endoscopy within 2 hours after resuscitation, while other patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. It is important to note that proton pump inhibitors should not be given before endoscopy.
Patients who are at higher risk of complications include those aged over 60 years and those with co-morbidities. The mortality rate for patients with acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding in hospital is around 10%. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention promptly if you experience symptoms of melena or haematemesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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Whilst reviewing a middle-aged patient in a GP practice, you note the following blood test results:
Hb 90 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Mean Cell Volume (MCV) 75 fL (80 - 96)
Platelets 350 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 9.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 14.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 74 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 2.3 mg/L (< 5)
What is the most likely diagnosis for this middle-aged patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Upper gastrointestinal bleed
Explanation:Elevated urea levels may suggest an upper GI bleed rather than a lower GI bleed. Iron deficiency anemia or anemia of chronic disease do not account for the increased urea. Chronic kidney disease would result in a corresponding increase in creatinine, in addition to the elevated urea. The raised urea is caused by the digestion of the substantial protein meal of blood in the upper GI tract, which would not occur in a lower GI bleed.
Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The main symptoms include haematemesis (vomiting of blood), melena (passage of altered blood per rectum), and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The diagnosis can be determined by identifying the specific features associated with a particular condition, such as stigmata of chronic liver disease for oesophageal varices or abdominal pain for peptic ulcer disease.
The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes. Oesophageal varices may present with a large volume of fresh blood, while gastric ulcers may cause low volume bleeds that present as iron deficiency anaemia. Duodenal ulcers are usually posteriorly sited and may erode the gastroduodenal artery. Aorto-enteric fistula is a rare but important cause of major haemorrhage associated with high mortality in patients with previous abdominal aortic aneurysm surgery.
The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation involves ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. Treatment options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery for non-variceal bleeding, while terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients with variceal bleeding. Band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices, and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with hepatitis C visits your clinic as she is considering starting a family. She has no other medical issues. She inquires about the likelihood of her baby contracting hepatitis C.
What is the probability of the virus being passed from mother to child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 75-100%
Explanation:Transmission Rates of Hepatitis B and C from Mother to Child
The transmission rate of hepatitis B virus from mother to child can be as high as 90%, while the transmission rate of hepatitis C virus is only about 6%. This is because the neonatal immune system is not yet mature enough to fight off the hepatitis B virus, but it is able to fight off the hepatitis C virus to some extent. However, if the mother is also HIV positive, the transmission rate of hepatitis C virus can be higher. It is important to take time to understand this information before making any decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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You see a 38-year-old lady who has come to you for help reducing her weight. Her BMI is 32 kg/m2. She has tried joining a local dieting group and increasing her physical activity but is still finding it difficult to lose weight. After discussion, it is decided to start her on orlistat. She manages to lose 2Kg after 3 months treatment. She wants to know how much longer she is allowed to be on this medication.
Following an initial weight loss at 3 months, what is the restriction on how long orlistat should be prescribed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:Orlistat Prescription Guidelines
Orlistat is a medication that inhibits pancreatic lipase and is prescribed to patients with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more (or 28 kg/m2 with an associated risk factor). Patients are expected to lose 5% of their initial body weight at 3 months for the prescription to be continued. However, for patients with diabetes, a 3% loss of body weight at 3 months is recommended.
Beyond the initial weight loss at 3 months, there is no restriction on how long orlistat should be prescribed. The decision to continue treatment should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the benefits, risks, and cost of treatment. Regular reviews should be undertaken to assess the benefits, risks, and costs of treatment. According to NICE, For people who have lost the recommended amount of weight, there is no restriction on how long orlistat may be prescribed. This should be reviewed at regular intervals.
In summary, orlistat is a medication that can be prescribed for an extended period of time, but the decision to continue treatment should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the benefits, risks, and cost of treatment. Regular reviews should be conducted to ensure that the medication is still appropriate for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman presents with complaints of lethargy. Routine blood testing reveals hypochromic microcytic anaemia with a low ferritin. Her haemoglobin level is 100 g/l. She has had no symptoms of abnormal bleeding, indigestion or change in bowel habit and there is no medication use of note. She is still menstruating and regards her menstrual loss as normal. She has a normal diet and there have been no recent foreign trips. Faecal occult blood tests are negative. There is no family history of colorectal cancer. Abdominal examination is normal.
What is most appropriate for this stage in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measure tissue transglutaminase antibody
Explanation:Recommended Actions for Patients with Iron Deficiency Anaemia
Iron deficiency anaemia is a common condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Here are some recommended actions for patients with this condition:
Screen for Coeliac Disease: All patients with iron deficiency anaemia should be screened for coeliac disease using coeliac serology, which involves measuring the presence of anti-endomysial antibody or tissue transglutaminase antibody.
Refer for Gastrointestinal Investigations: Men of any age with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin level of 110 g/l or below, as well as women who are not menstruating with a haemoglobin level of 100 g/l or below, should be urgently referred for upper and lower gastrointestinal investigations. For other patients, referral for gastrointestinal investigation will depend on the haemoglobin level and clinical findings.
Prescribe Iron Supplements: Treatment for iron deficiency anaemia should begin with oral ferrous sulphate 200 mg tablets two or three times a day. Doctors should not wait for investigations to be carried out before prescribing iron supplements.
Check Vitamin B12 and Folate Levels: Vitamin B12 and folate levels should be checked if the anaemia is normocytic with a low or normal ferritin level, there is an inadequate response to iron supplements, vitamin B12 or folate deficiency is suspected, or the patient is in an older age bracket.
Avoid Inappropriate Tests: Pelvic ultrasound examination is not necessary for patients with iron deficiency anaemia unless they have gynaecological symptoms.
By following these recommended actions, patients with iron deficiency anaemia can receive timely and appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis (UC) is found to have sigmoid adenocarcinoma on surveillance colonoscopy. He was diagnosed with UC at the age of 14, with the disease mostly confined to the sigmoid colon and rectum. Although his symptoms have generally been well controlled on mesalazine, he has had relapses associated with poor compliance every 1–2 years.
Which single factor is this patient’s history most associated with the risk of developing colonic cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Onset of disease in childhood
Explanation:Understanding the Risk Factors for Colonic Adenocarcinoma in Ulcerative Colitis Patients
Colonic adenocarcinoma is a serious complication that can develop in 3-5% of patients with ulcerative colitis (UC). The cancer tends to be multicentric and atypical in appearance, and it can rapidly metastasize. To prevent this, it is important to understand the risk factors associated with the onset of the disease in childhood.
One of the main risk factors for colon cancer in colitis is the early age of onset, which is before the age of 15 years. Other risk factors include extensive disease (pancolitis), duration (more than ten years), and unremitting disease. Colonoscopic surveillance is recommended for all patients, starting about ten years after the onset of symptoms.
It is important to note that annual relapses are not a risk factor for colonic carcinoma since there is remittance in between episodes. Chronic active inflammation and unremitting disease are the main risk factors.
Left-sided colitis is also a risk factor, but extensive disease and pancolitis carry a higher risk of developing colon cancer. Poor compliance with therapy is not a risk factor in itself, but unremitting disease is a risk factor for colon cancer in UC.
Finally, patients with proctitis alone do not need colonoscopy surveillance, as they are not at increased risk of developing colon cancer compared to the general population. Understanding these risk factors can help prevent the onset of colonic adenocarcinoma in UC patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of abdominal pain, bloating and nausea after meals. He has also experienced a weight loss of around 10 kg in the past three months, along with some non-bloody diarrhoea. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day, but doesn't consume alcohol. A previous plain abdominal X-ray revealed dilated loops of the small bowel. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crohn's disease
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a 32-Year-Old Man with Abdominal Pain and Diarrhoea
A 32-year-old man presents with abdominal pain, bloating, nausea after meals, and diarrhoea. The most likely diagnosis is Crohn’s disease, an inflammatory bowel disease that affects the small bowel and is more common and severe in smokers. Small-bowel adenocarcinoma is a rare possibility, but less likely in this case. Coeliac disease can be associated with ulcerative jejunitis and small-bowel lymphoma, but doesn’t cause strictures. Giardiasis rarely causes nausea and doesn’t show X-ray changes, and would often be associated with a history of foreign travel. Chronic pancreatitis and pancreatic insufficiency could also present with these symptoms, but would be unusual in a non-drinker without a history of recurrent gallstone pancreatitis. A plain abdominal X-ray might show pancreatic calcification.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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What is the most suitable approach to prevent variceal bleeding in a 45-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse who has been diagnosed with grade 3 oesophageal varices during an outpatient endoscopy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:The prophylaxis of oesophageal bleeding can be achieved using a non-cardioselective B-blocker (NSBB), while endoscopic sclerotherapy is no longer considered effective in preventing variceal haemorrhage.
Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.
To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with profound tiredness and a lack of appetite which have been present for about a week. He has just returned from a gap-year trip to Thailand and noticed he was jaundiced just before coming home. He also experienced a fever, but this subsided once his jaundice appeared. He has no sexual history, doesn't abuse intravenous (IV) drugs and did not receive a blood transfusion or get a tattoo or piercing during his trip.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 9.0 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 950 IU/l < 40 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 150 IU/l 25–130 IU/l
Bilirubin 240 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
Albumin 40 g/l 38–50 g/l
Prothrombin time (PT) 12.0 s 12.0–14.8 s
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A (Hep A)
Explanation:Based on the patient’s symptoms and history, the most likely diagnosis is Hepatitis A. The initial fever, anorexia, and malaise followed by jaundice and elevated liver enzymes are typical of Hep A. A confirmation test for anti-Hep A immunoglobulin M can be done. Hep A is not common in the UK but is more prevalent in areas with poor sanitation, especially among travelers. Cytomegalovirus infection can also cause a mononucleosis-like syndrome with fever, splenomegaly, and mild liver enzyme increases, but rises in ALP and bilirubin are less common. Hep B and C are unlikely as there are no risk factors in the patient’s history. Leptospirosis, which is associated with exposure to rat-infected water and conjunctival suffusion, is less likely than Hep A.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man has been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and CLO testing during gastroscopy confirms the presence of Helicobacter pylori. What is the best course of action for eradicating Helicobacter pylori?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lansoprazole + amoxicillin + clarithromycin
Explanation:Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems
Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.
The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.
The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, worried about potential hepatitis C infection. He has received multiple tattoos, all of which were done in the United Kingdom (UK). He has previously been vaccinated against hepatitis B. Upon examination, there are no indications of liver disease. What is the most suitable management advice to give this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should be tested for anti-hepatitis C virus (anti-HCV)
Explanation:Screening and Testing for Hepatitis C Infection
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that can cause liver damage and other serious health problems. It is important to screen and test for hepatitis C in certain individuals, particularly those with unexplained abnormal liver function tests or who have undergone procedures with unsterilized equipment.
Testing for anti-hepatitis C virus (anti-HCV) serology is recommended for those suspected of having HCV infection, although false negatives can occur in the acute stage of infection. A liver ultrasound (US) may be used to look for evidence of cirrhosis, but is not a diagnostic tool for hepatitis C.
Screening for hepatitis C is necessary for those who have undergone tattooing, ear piercing, body piercing, or acupuncture with unsterile equipment, as these procedures can put a person at risk of acquiring the infection.
Testing for HCV deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is necessary to confirm ongoing hepatitis C infection in those with positive serology. Chronic hepatitis C is considered in those in whom HCV RNA persists, which occurs in approximately 80% of cases. Normal liver function tests do not exclude hepatitis C infection, and deranged LFTs should be a reason to consider screening for the virus.
In summary, screening and testing for hepatitis C is important for those at risk of infection or with unexplained abnormal liver function tests. Testing for HCV DNA is necessary to confirm ongoing infection, and normal LFTs do not exclude the possibility of hepatitis C.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A patient with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and a tendency towards loose stools has not responded well to loperamide and antispasmodics. According to NICE, what is the recommended second-line medication class for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant
Explanation:The initial medication prescribed for individuals with irritable bowel syndrome typically includes antispasmodics, as well as loperamide for diarrhea or laxatives for constipation. If these treatments prove ineffective, low-dose tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline (5-10 mg at night) may be considered as a secondary option to alleviate abdominal pain and discomfort, according to NICE guidelines. Linaclotide may also be an option for those experiencing constipation. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors may be used as a tertiary treatment.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine check-up and medication review. His history includes congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, rheumatoid arthritis and dementia. He is allergic to penicillin. He was admitted to the hospital one month ago suffering from acute exacerbation of congestive cardiac failure. During his admission, his medications were adjusted.
Two weeks following discharge, he attended an out-of-hours clinic and was treated for a sore throat. He says he has been well overall since then other than having pains in his knees, which he has been treating with over-the-counter painkillers. The treating doctor decides to take some routine bloods.
Investigation Result Normal value
Bilirubin 54 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 43 IU/l < 40 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 323 IU/l 40–129 IU/l
Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 299 IU/l 7–33 IU/l
Albumin 32 g/l 35–55 g/l
Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused the abnormalities in this patient’s liver function tests?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Abnormal Liver Function Tests
Abnormal liver function tests can be caused by a variety of factors, including medication use. In this case, the patient displays a cholestatic picture with a rise in alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyl transferase levels exceeding the rise in alanine aminotransferase levels. Here is a differential diagnosis of potential causes:
Erythromycin: This medication can cause cholestatic hepatotoxicity, which may have been used to treat the patient’s sore throat.
Digoxin: While digoxin is a potentially toxic drug, it doesn’t typically cause hepatotoxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity may include arrhythmias, gastrointestinal disturbance, confusion, or yellow vision.
Methotrexate: Hepatotoxicity is a well-known side effect of methotrexate use, but it would be expected to see higher ALT levels in this case.
Paracetamol: Overdosing on paracetamol can cause hepatotoxicity, but it would typically present as hepatocellular damage with a predominant rise in transaminases.
Rosuvastatin: Statins may cause abnormalities in liver function tests, but cholestatic hepatotoxicity is rare and would not typically present with a disproportionate rise in transaminases.
In conclusion, the patient’s abnormal liver function tests may be attributed to erythromycin use, but further investigation is necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 68-year old male presents with dyspepsia.
On further questioning his symptoms started about two months ago. He has been getting epigastric discomfort and heartburn; he also feels a little bit more breathless than usual and puts this down to being a heavy smoker for the last forty years. He doesn't take any regular medications and has not used any over-the-counter remedies recently. He thinks he's lost some weight.
On examination, he looks a little pale and has some angular stomatitis.
What is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for urgent gastroscopy
Explanation:Identifying ‘Alarm’ Symptoms in Primary Care Patients with Dyspepsia
When evaluating patients with dyspepsia in primary care, it is crucial to identify any ‘alarm’ symptoms or ‘red flags’ that may indicate a more serious underlying condition. By taking a targeted history and performing a thorough examination, healthcare providers can determine which patients require urgent referral for further investigation and which can be managed in the community.
In the case of a male patient over 55-years-old with persistent unexplained dyspepsia, signs of anaemia (such as shortness of breath, pallor, and angular stomatitis), and a history of smoking, these ‘alarm’ features suggest the need for urgent referral for endoscopy to investigate the possibility of upper gastrointestinal (GI) cancer. The June 2015 update recommends a 2-week referral for patients over 55 with weight loss, abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. By identifying and acting on ‘alarm’ symptoms, healthcare providers can ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potentially serious conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man returns after he was found to have abnormal liver biochemistry. Investigations showed he had an alanine aminotransferase (ALT) of 98 iu/l and was Hep B surface-antigen positive.
Select from the list the single statement that is true of chronic hepatitis due to the hepatitis B virus.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It carries an increased risk of subsequent hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Hepatitis B Infection
Chronic hepatitis B infection occurs in up to 10% of adults who contract the virus. This means that the virus remains in the body long-term, with the surface antigen (HBsAg) persisting in the serum. However, up to two-thirds of people in the chronic phase remain well and do not experience any liver damage or other issues. This is known as the carrier state or chronic inactive hepatitis B, where HBeAg is absent, anti-HBe is present, and HBV DNA levels are low or undetectable. While carriers can still transmit the virus, their infectivity is lower than those with chronic active hepatitis.
Around 20% of carriers will eventually clear the virus naturally, but this can take several years. However, some carriers may experience spontaneous reactivation of hepatitis B due to the emergence of the HBeAg-negative strain of the virus. The remaining individuals with chronic hepatitis B experience persistent liver inflammation, also known as chronic active hepatitis B. Symptoms can include muscle aches, fatigue, nausea, lack of appetite, intolerance to alcohol, liver pain, jaundice, and depression. HBeAg is usually still present, and the virus is still replicating, with raised HBV DNA levels and high infectivity. Transaminase levels may be elevated, but not always significantly.
If left untreated, chronic active hepatitis B can lead to cirrhosis and even hepatocellular carcinoma. It’s important to note that hepatitis D is a separate virus that only infects individuals who are already infected with hepatitis B. Understanding the different phases and potential outcomes of chronic hepatitis B infection is crucial for proper management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to your clinic with a three-month history of dysphagia for solids. He reports weight loss and loss of appetite. He has a history of indigestion and heartburn for the past five years. He takes Gaviscon and Rennie tablets regularly. He is a heavy smoker and drinks regularly. During an endoscopy, a small tumour is found at the lower end of his oesophagus. What is the most probable cause of the tumour?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Barrett's oesophagus
Explanation:Gastro-oesophageal Reflux and its Potential Consequences
The patient’s medical history indicates a prolonged period of gastro-oesophageal reflux, which can lead to the development of Barrett’s oesophagus. This condition occurs when the normal squamous epithelium of the oesophageal lining is replaced by columnar epithelium, which is a precursor to cancer. To monitor for the presence of metaplasia, surveillance endoscopies are recommended every two to five years, depending on the length of the Barrett’s segment. If dysplasia is detected, more frequent surveillance or treatment may be necessary.
The onset of dysphagia for solids and weight loss is concerning, as it may indicate the presence of oesophageal carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). She experiences spasms of pain in the left iliac fossa and has alternating periods of constipation and loose stools. As her healthcare provider, you are contemplating drug therapy to alleviate her symptoms.
What is the medication that NICE advises against using in patients with IBS?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lactulose
Explanation:NICE advises against the use of lactulose for the treatment of IBS.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his GP for a follow-up appointment after experiencing a recent exacerbation that required oral corticosteroids for remission. He reports feeling well with no abdominal symptoms, but has had four exacerbations in the past year that required treatment with oral corticosteroids. His current medications include paracetamol and mesalazine. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits and his abdominal exam is unremarkable. His recent blood test results show no significant abnormalities. According to NICE guidelines, what is the recommended next step in managing his ulcerative colitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral thiopurines (azathioprine or mercaptopurine)
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A patient in their 50s with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is still experiencing constipation and abdominal discomfort despite trying various laxatives. According to NICE guidelines, linaclotide should be considered as a new medication for patients with IBS with constipation who have not responded to different laxatives. What is the primary mechanism of action of linaclotide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases amount of fluid in the intestinal lumen
Explanation:Anxiety-reducing (alleviates symptoms of distress)
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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You assess a 24 year old female with irritable bowel syndrome who expresses frustration with the lack of relief from loperamide and antispasmodic medication. After re-evaluating her history and conducting a thorough examination, you find no new developments or concerning symptoms. What course of action do you suggest for further treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant
Explanation:According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines on the diagnosis and management of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) in primary care, tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) should be considered as a second-line treatment for individuals with IBS if laxatives, antispasmodics, or loperamide have not been effective. The decision to prescribe medication should be based on the severity and nature of symptoms, and the choice of medication or combination of medications should be determined by the predominant symptom(s). Antispasmodic agents should be considered for individuals with IBS, along with dietary and lifestyle advice. Laxatives may be used for constipation, but lactulose should be avoided. Linaclotide may be considered for individuals with constipation who have not responded to other laxatives, and loperamide is the first choice for diarrhea. Individuals with IBS should be advised on how to adjust their medication doses to achieve a soft, well-formed stool. TCAs may be considered if other medications have not been effective, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may be considered if TCAs are not effective. Healthcare professionals should monitor individuals taking TCAs or SSRIs for side effects and adjust the dosage as necessary.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse and liver cirrhosis presents with worsening abdominal distension and ankle swelling. Upon examination, there is mild tenderness in the suprapubic area, but the abdomen is soft with no masses or rebound tenderness. The abdomen appears slightly distended with shifting dullness, and there is pitting edema up to mid-shin level. The patient is stable hemodynamically and shows no signs of jaundice or encephalopathy.
What medication would be most beneficial for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Spironolactone is the recommended diuretic for managing ascites, which is suggested by the patient’s history of cirrhosis and increasing abdominal distension. While bendroflumethiazide can be used for hypertension and edema, it is not licensed for ascites. Codeine should be avoided as it can cause constipation, which could increase the risk of encephalopathy. Furosemide is not licensed for ascites, but is used for heart failure and resistant hypertension. Ramipril is primarily used for hypertension, heart failure, chronic kidney disease, and post-myocardial infarction, but is not indicated for ascites management.
Spironolactone is a medication that works as an aldosterone antagonist in the cortical collecting duct. It is used to treat various conditions such as ascites, hypertension, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, spironolactone is often prescribed in relatively large doses of 100 or 200 mg to counteract secondary hyperaldosteronism. It is also used as a NICE ‘step 4’ treatment for hypertension. In addition, spironolactone has been shown to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with NYHA III + IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor, according to the RALES study.
However, spironolactone can cause adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia and gynaecomastia, although the latter is less common with eplerenone. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalaemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Overall, spironolactone is a useful medication for treating various conditions, but its potential adverse effects should be carefully considered and monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer at endoscopy. He is not taking any medication that might have caused this. Testing for Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) returns positive.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PPI, clarithromycin, metronidazole
Explanation:Comparison of Treatment Options for H. Pylori Infection
When treating a patient with a positive H. Pylori test, it is important to choose the appropriate eradication therapy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends a 7-day course of PPI twice daily, amoxicillin 1 g twice daily, and either clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily or metronidazole 400 mg twice daily. If the patient is allergic to penicillin, then a PPI with clarithromycin and metronidazole should be prescribed. If the infection is associated with NSAID use, two months of PPI should be prescribed before eradication therapy.
It is important to note that H2-receptor antagonists should not be used as first-line treatment for H. Pylori. Instead, a PPI should be used. The recommended PPIs are lansoprazole, omeprazole, esomeprazole, pantoprazole, or rabeprazole.
While antacids and dietary advice can be helpful in managing dyspepsia, they are not sufficient for treating H. Pylori. Eradication therapy with appropriate antibiotics is necessary.
If the patient has an ulcer associated with NSAID use and a positive H. Pylori test, NICE recommends using a full-dose PPI for two months before prescribing eradication therapy. However, if the patient is not taking any medication, this step is not necessary.
Sucralfate can protect the mucosa from acid, but it is not part of NICE guidance for H. Pylori treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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You come across a 30-year-old accountant who has been diagnosed with Crohn's disease after experiencing abdominal pain, loose stools and a microcytic anaemia. The individual is seeking further information on the condition.
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding Crohn's disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoporosis occurs in up to 30% of patients with inflammatory bowel disease
Explanation:Upon diagnosis, approximately 66% of individuals with inflammatory bowel disease exhibit anaemia. Crohn’s disease is typically diagnosed at a median age of 30 years. The global incidence and prevalence of Crohn’s disease are on the rise.
Osteoporosis is a condition that is more prevalent in women and increases with age. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis. Some of the most significant risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture history, low body mass index, and current smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, chronic kidney disease, and certain genetic disorders. Additionally, certain medications such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors may worsen osteoporosis.
If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause of osteoporosis and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include a history and physical examination, blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests. Other procedures may include bone densitometry, lateral radiographs, protein immunoelectrophoresis, and urinary Bence-Jones proteins. Additionally, markers of bone turnover and urinary calcium excretion may be assessed. By identifying the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors, healthcare providers can select the most appropriate form of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of persistent dyspepsia and unintentional weight loss of one stone over the past six months. She takes a daily multivitamin, low-dose aspirin, and a statin. The GP suspects gastric cancer and notes that she has blood group A and is a lifelong non-smoker. What is a risk factor for gastric adenocarcinoma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood group A
Explanation:Risk Factors and Protective Measures for Gastric Adenocarcinoma
Gastric adenocarcinoma, or stomach cancer, is a serious and potentially deadly disease. There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing this cancer, including Helicobacter pylori infection, increasing age, male sex, family history, lower socioeconomic status, smoking, pernicious anaemia, and blood group A. The exact reason for the increased risk associated with blood group A is still unknown, but it may be related to a different inflammatory response to H. pylori infection.
On the other hand, there are also protective measures that can reduce the risk of developing or dying from gastric adenocarcinoma. Long-term aspirin use has been found to be protective in multiple studies, as has a high dietary intake of vitamin C, which is an antioxidant. Additionally, being female and using statins may also be protective factors, although more research is needed to confirm these findings.
Overall, understanding the risk factors and protective measures for gastric adenocarcinoma can help individuals make informed decisions about their health and potentially reduce their risk of developing this cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner following an Occupational Health screen.
Investigations have shown the following hepatitis B (HBV) serology:
Test Result
HBsAg
(Hepatitis B surface antigen)
Positive
HBeAg
(Hepatitis B e-antigen)
Positive
Anti-HBs
(Antibody to HBsAg)
Negative
Anti-HBe
(Antibody to HBeAg)
Negative
Anti-HBc IgG
(Antibody to hepatitis B core-antigen immunoglobulin G)
Positive
Which of the following most accurately reflects this patient’s HBV status?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Persistent carrier, high infectivity
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B Test Results
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. Understanding the results of hepatitis B tests is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Here, we will discuss the different test results and what they mean.
Persistent Carrier with High Infectivity:
If a patient is positive for surface antigen, e-antigen, and core antibody, and negative for surface antibodies and e-antibodies, it suggests chronic carrier status. The presence of e-antigen confers high infectivity, indicating active viral replication. Core antibodies are a marker of past infection and will not be found in vaccinated individuals who have never been infected.Persistent Carrier with Low Infectivity:
If a patient is positive for surface antigen and core antibody, but negative for e-antigen and e-antibodies, it suggests a moderately high viral load and elevated ALT levels. This is caused by a hepatitis B virus that has certain mutations (pre-core mutation) that allow the virus to replicate even when the e-antigen is absent.Previous Vaccination against Hepatitis B:
If a patient has surface antibodies but not core antibodies, it indicates previous vaccination against hepatitis B.Spontaneously Cleared Infection:
If a patient has lost surface antigen and developed surface antibodies, it marks seroconversion and indicates immunity. If IgM antibodies to core antigen (anti-HBc IgM) are present, it indicates recent infection.In conclusion, understanding hepatitis B test results is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Consultation with a healthcare provider is recommended for interpretation of test results and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. She reports having 'IBS' and experiencing occasional episodes of abdominal pain, bloating, and loose stools for the past two years. However, her symptoms have significantly worsened over the past two weeks. She is now having 3-4 watery, grey, 'frothy' stools per day, along with increased abdominal bloating, cramps, and flatulence. She also feels that she has lost weight based on the fit of her clothes. The following blood tests are ordered:
Hb 10.9 g/dl
Platelets 199 * 109/l
WBC 7.2 * 109/l
Ferritin 15 ng/ml
Vitamin B12 225 ng/l
Folate 2.1 nmol/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:The key indicators in this case suggest that the patient may have coeliac disease, as evidenced by her anaemia and low levels of ferritin and folate. While her description of diarrhoea is typical, some patients may have more visibly fatty stools.
It is unlikely that the patient has irritable bowel syndrome, as her blood test results would not be consistent with this diagnosis. While menorrhagia may explain her anaemia and low ferritin levels, it would not account for the low folate.
Coeliac disease is much more common than Crohn’s disease, and exams typically provide more clues to suggest a diagnosis of Crohn’s (such as mouth ulcers).
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and lack of energy. His recent blood test showed macrocytosis and a low haemoglobin level, indicating a folic acid deficiency. He requests dietary recommendations from the physician to address this issue.
What is the most suitable food item to suggest?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinach
Explanation:Folate Content in Common Foods
Folate, also known as vitamin B9, is an essential nutrient that is important for cell growth and development. While it is found naturally in many foods, it is also added to processed foods and supplements in the form of folic acid. Here is a breakdown of the folate content in some common foods:
Spinach: With 194 μg of folic acid per 100g, spinach is the richest source of folate on this list.
Egg: While eggs contain 47 μg of folic acid per 100g, they only provide around a quarter of the folate per 100g that is found in spinach.
Carrot: Carrots contain about 21 μg of folic acid per 100g, less than half the amount of folate found in eggs and only around 11% of the amount provided by spinach.
Milk: Cow’s milk contains 5-7 μg of folic acid per 100g, making it the second-lowest source of folate in this range of options.
Apple: Apples provide the lowest source of folate in this range of options, with only about 3 μg of folic acid per 100g.
It is important to note that women who are pregnant or breastfeeding require more folate and should take a daily supplement of 400 micrograms. While many food manufacturers fortify their products with folic acid, wholegrain products already contain natural folate. Folate deficiency can occur due to poor intake, excessive alcohol consumption, or malnutrition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of haemorrhoids that she has been experiencing for several years. She frequently experiences itchiness and pain. She has a daily bowel movement with soft stool. Upon examination, there is no indication of a rash or fissure. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cinchocaine (dibucaine) hydrochloride 0.5%, hydrocortisone 0.5% ointment
Explanation:Topical Treatments for Haemorrhoids: Options and Considerations
Haemorrhoids are a common condition that can cause discomfort and itching. Topical treatments are often used to alleviate symptoms, and there are several options available. However, it is important to choose the appropriate treatment based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Here are some considerations for different topical treatments:
– Cinchocaine (dibucaine) hydrochloride 0.5%, hydrocortisone 0.5% ointment: This preparation contains a local anaesthetic and corticosteroid, which can provide short-term relief. It is suitable for occasional use.
– Hydrocortisone 1%, miconazole nitrate 2% cream: This cream contains an anti-candida agent and is appropriate for intertrigo. However, if the patient doesn’t have a rash or signs of fungal infection, this may not be the best option.
– Clobetasol propionate cream: This potent topical steroid is used for vulval and anal lichen sclerosus. It is not recommended if the patient doesn’t have a rash.
– Glyceryl trinitrate ointment: This unlicensed preparation is used for anal fissure, which is characterized by painful bowel movements and rectal bleeding. If the patient doesn’t have these symptoms, this treatment is not appropriate.
– Lactulose solution: Constipation can contribute to haemorrhoids, and lactulose can help manage this. However, if the patient doesn’t have constipation, this treatment may not be necessary.In summary, choosing the right topical treatment for haemorrhoids requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Consultation with a healthcare professional is recommended to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 105
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old woman with a previous history of surgery for a ruptured ovarian cyst as a teenager presents with colicky central abdominal pain of 24 hours’ duration. She has now started to vomit and on further questioning admits to constipation for the last 12 hours. There is nothing else significant in her medical history.
Select the single most correct option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should be thoroughly examined for a strangulated hernia
Explanation:Understanding Bowel Obstruction and Ischaemic Bowel
Bowel obstruction can occur as a result of adhesions, which are commonly caused by previous abdominal surgery. Symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and vomiting may indicate a small bowel obstruction. It is important to rule out a strangulated hernia, especially a small femoral hernia.
Ischaemic bowel, on the other hand, is typically seen in patients with pre-existing cardiovascular disease and risk factors. This condition often presents acutely and is caused by an arterial occlusion. Symptoms include severe abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and diarrhoea, which may be bloody. It is important to suspect ischaemic bowel in patients with acute abdominal pain that is out of proportion to clinical findings.
In summary, understanding the differences between bowel obstruction and ischaemic bowel can help healthcare professionals make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 106
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old man complains of fatigue and unexplained weight loss during the past few months. He has been suffering from ulcerative colitis since his early 30s. His liver function tests show abnormalities.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biliary tract carcinoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Ulcerative Colitis and Deranged Liver Function
Ulcerative colitis (UC) is associated with various conditions, including primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), which confers a high risk for cholangiocarcinoma. Therefore, a patient with UC and deranged liver function is likely to have cancer, specifically cholangiocarcinoma. Gallstones, chronic pancreatitis, and small bowel lymphoma are less likely diagnoses due to their lack of association with UC and/or absence of relevant symptoms. Primary biliary cholangitis is a possibility, but its incidence is not increased in patients with UC. Overall, cholangiocarcinoma should be considered as a potential diagnosis in a patient with UC and deranged liver function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 107
Incorrect
-
Which statement about the epidemiology of colorectal cancer is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A quarter of patients diagnosed with bowel cancer will survive for at least 10 years
Explanation:Understanding the Epidemiology of Colorectal Cancer
A basic understanding of the epidemiology of colorectal cancer is important for general practitioners to consider when treating their patients. It is worth noting that 95% of colorectal cancer cases occur in individuals over the age of 50.
In terms of incorrect answer options, it is important to note that bowel cancer incidence rates have not increased by 6% over the last 10 years. Additionally, bowel cancer is not the second most common cause of cancer death in the UK overall, but rather in men alone it is second to prostate cancer and in women alone it is second to breast cancer.
Finally, while almost 42,000 people were diagnosed with bowel cancer in the UK in 2011, it is not accurate to say that half of patients diagnosed with colorectal cancer will survive their disease for 10 years or more. It is important for general practitioners to have accurate information about colorectal cancer in order to provide the best care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 108
Incorrect
-
A 66-year-old woman presents to you for a medication review. She underwent H. pylori eradication treatment a year ago, but her symptoms of epigastric burning returned within a few months. She has been taking omeprazole 20 mg/day since then. She reports that her symptoms are worsening again and asks if further treatment for Helicobacter pylori would be beneficial. She has lost more than 7 lbs in weight. You urgently refer her for an upper GI endoscopy.
What advice would you give her while waiting for the investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase her omeprazole to 40 mg daily
Explanation:Importance of Stopping Acid Suppression Medication Prior to Endoscopy
In urgent cases where endoscopy is required, it is recommended to stop acid suppression medication for at least two weeks before the procedure. This is because acid suppression medication can hide serious underlying conditions that need to be addressed. However, there may be situations where stopping the medication is difficult due to symptoms, and clinical judgement must be used.
For instance, if a patient experiences unintentional weight loss, it is a red flag symptom for upper GI malignancy, and urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. In such cases, the benefits of stopping acid suppression medication should be weighed against the potential risks of continuing it. Ultimately, the decision should be made based on the patient’s individual circumstances and the urgency of the situation. Proper evaluation and management can help ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 109
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents for follow up after being prescribed trimethoprim for a suspected urinary tract infection by an out-of-hours doctor two weeks ago. She reports experiencing lower abdominal pains and bloating for the past six months, which have become increasingly severe and often wake her from sleep. She denies vomiting or diarrhea but notes increased frequency of urination. She has a poor appetite and has lost no weight. On examination, there is no clinical evidence of anemia or jaundice, and PR examination is normal. Which investigation is most likely to reveal the cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colposcopy
Explanation:Diagnosing Ovarian Cancer: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Tumour Markers
Patients with ovarian cancer often present with vague abdominal symptoms that may have been wrongly attributed to other conditions such as urinary tract infection or irritable bowel syndrome. The key to establishing a diagnosis is to first think of ovarian cancer as a possibility and then, as always, to obtain a thorough history.
It helps to think of risk factors as well, because we know that certain factors are associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer. These include obesity, late menopause, nulliparity, diabetes, and endometriosis. In terms of symptoms, patients may experience vague abdominal pains, early satiety, and urinary frequency/urgency.
Tumour markers can be a useful tool in certain clinical contexts. CA125 is a tumour marker associated with ovarian cancer and is a valuable test in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer with regard to initial primary care investigations. NICE recommends that women over the age of 50 who have one or more symptoms associated with ovarian cancer that occur more than 12 times a month or for more than a month are offered CA125 testing.
In summary, a high index of suspicion is needed when considering ovarian cancer as a possibility. It is important to take into account risk factors and symptoms, and to consider the use of tumour markers such as CA125 in certain clinical contexts. By being aware of these factors, healthcare professionals can help to ensure timely and accurate diagnosis of ovarian cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman has acute pancreatitis.
Which one of the following is the most likely cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mumps
Explanation:Causes of Pancreatitis: Gallstones and Alcohol
Pancreatitis is commonly caused by gallstones and alcohol. Gallstones are the most frequent cause, while alcohol is the second most common. Other causes of pancreatitis are less common.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with a history of migraine experiences inadequate relief from the recommended dose of paracetamol during acute attacks. She consumes 10 units of alcohol per week and smokes 12 cigarettes per day.
What could be a contributing factor to this issue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delayed gastric emptying
Explanation:During acute migraine attacks, patients often experience delayed gastric emptying. Therefore, prokinetic agents like metoclopramide are commonly added to analgesics. Changes in P450 enzyme activity, such as those caused by smoking or drinking, are unlikely to have a significant impact on the metabolism of paracetamol.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.
For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.
For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.
It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of chronic, unrelenting, dull epigastric pain radiating to her back. It is relieved when sitting forwards.
On examination, her body mass index is normal, but she says that she is losing weight; her clothes have become baggy on her. She explains that she doesn't feel like eating with the pain she is suffering.
Investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 102 g/l (normal range: 115–165 g/l) while her alkaline phosphatase level is elevated.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan
Explanation:Initial Management for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer: Abdominal CT Scan
When a patient over 60 years old presents with weight loss and abdominal pain, an urgent direct-access CT scan should be considered to assess for pancreatic cancer. Other symptoms that may indicate pancreatic cancer include diarrhea, back pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and new-onset diabetes. Patients with pancreatic cancer typically report anorexia, malaise, fatigue, mid-epigastric or back pain, and weight loss. The pain may be unrelenting and worse when lying flat.
The most characteristic sign of pancreatic carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is painless obstructive jaundice. Migratory thrombophlebitis and venous thrombosis also occur with higher frequency in patients with pancreatic cancer and may be the first presentation.
While the CA 19-9 antigen is elevated in 75-80% of patients with pancreatic carcinoma, it is not recommended for screening. An abdominal ultrasound scan may reveal a pancreatic malignancy, but a CT scan is the preferred imaging that should be carried out urgently.
Direct-access upper GI endoscopy may be appropriate for patients over 55 years old with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. However, in this case, an urgent CT scan is the most appropriate initial investigation due to the elevated alkaline phosphatase suggesting biliary obstruction. Checking ferritin levels may not be helpful in ruling in or out pancreatic cancer.
Initial Management for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer: Abdominal CT Scan
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 35 year-old woman schedules a consultation to address her suspected food intolerance. She suspects she may have a wheat allergy and has noticed that her symptoms of bloating and diarrhea have improved in recent months by following a gluten-free diet. What guidance should the GP provide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Resume eating gluten, bloods for coeliac screen
Explanation:To accurately test for coeliac disease, patients must consume gluten for a minimum of 6 weeks before undergoing the first-line test, which involves measuring serum total immunoglobulin A (IgA) and IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) levels. Failure to consume gluten prior to the test may result in a false negative result. If a patient refuses to consume gluten, they should be referred to a Gastroenterologist, but it should be noted that even an endoscopy and biopsy may yield a negative result if gluten has been excluded from the diet.
Investigating Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.
To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.
In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 114
Incorrect
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You are examining the blood results of a 31-year-old woman who visited you last week complaining of abdominal pain, weight loss, fatigue, loose stools, mouth ulcers, and episcleritis. You suspected that she might have inflammatory bowel disease due to her positive family history. Her blood tests reveal a microcytic anaemia and an elevated CRP level.
Which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: About two-thirds of people with inflammatory bowel disease have anaemia at diagnosis
Explanation:Inflammatory bowel disease can have an impact on the fertility of both men and women. For instance, Crohn’s disease can lower fertility rates due to the presence of active disease. Additionally, women who have undergone abdominal surgery or experienced abdominal sepsis are at a higher risk of developing adhesions that can negatively affect the function of their fallopian tubes.
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman has a 3-week history of increasing jaundice and dark urine. In the past 4 months she has noticed intermittent loose, pale stools and has lost 6 kg in weight. On examination she is thin and jaundiced, with epigastric tenderness and a palpable gallbladder. Urine dipstick shows glucose +++, bilirubin +++ and urobilinogen +.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas
Explanation:Courvoisier’s Law and Obstructive Jaundice in Diagnosing Pancreatic Carcinoma
Courvoisier’s law is a crucial factor in diagnosing the cause of jaundice. If a palpable gallbladder is present in the presence of jaundice, it is unlikely to be due to gallstones. This is because gallstones cause a fibrotic gallbladder that will not distend in the presence of obstruction of the common bile duct. However, absence of Courvoisier’s sign doesn’t rule out malignancy.
In cases of obstructive jaundice, haemochromatosis can be excluded as a cause. The initial symptoms of haemochromatosis are usually vague and nonspecific, such as fatigue, weakness, arthropathy, and nonspecific abdominal problems.
Of the three obstructive neoplastic processes that remain, carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is the only one that will cause glycosuria. Therefore, the development of diabetes in anyone who is non-obese and over 50 years old without definite risk factors should raise suspicion of pancreatic carcinoma.
In conclusion, understanding Courvoisier’s law and the exclusions of other potential causes of obstructive jaundice is crucial in diagnosing pancreatic carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presented to her GP with abdominal pain. The pain was burning in nature and was localised to her epigastric area. A stool test for Helicobacter pylori was done, which came back as positive. Accordingly, she was treated with eradication therapy for one week. Despite the treatment, her symptoms have continued. She would like to be tested to check the bacteria has been eradicated. She is not keen on being referred for an endoscopy.
Which of the following investigations should she be referred for?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urea breath test
Explanation:Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with no past medical history has been struggling to lose weight. She has been attending supervised weight loss sessions and gym classes, but has not been successful in her efforts. She was prescribed orlistat 120 mg, to be taken after each meal, 10 weeks ago when she weighed 100 kg (BMI 37 kg/m2). After 10 weeks of taking orlistat, she now weighs 97.5 kg. What would be the most appropriate management in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discontinue orlistat
Explanation:Options for Managing Inadequate Weight Loss with Orlistat
Orlistat is a medication used to aid weight loss by reducing the absorption of dietary fat. However, if a patient fails to lose at least 5% of their body weight after 12 weeks of treatment, orlistat should be discontinued. Here are some options for managing inadequate weight loss with orlistat:
1. Discontinue orlistat: If a patient has not lost at least 5% of their starting weight, orlistat should be discontinued. A lower weight loss target may be considered for patients with type II diabetes.
2. Increase activity levels: Increasing physical activity can help with weight loss. However, it is important to address any underlying issues that may be hindering weight loss.
3. Refer for bariatric surgery: Bariatric surgery may be an option for patients with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 or more, or 35–40 kg/m2 with significant comorbidity that could be improved with weight loss. Non-surgical methods of weight loss should be attempted prior to referral.
4. Increase the dose to 180 mg with meals: The maximum dose of orlistat is 120 mg up to three times a day. A 60 mg preparation is available over the counter. However, increasing the dose beyond the recommended maximum is not advised.
It is important to regularly review progress and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 118
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to his general practice clinic with a 3-month history of alternating constipation and diarrhea, along with gradual weight loss. During the examination, he looks cachectic and has nodular hepatomegaly. He doesn't have jaundice, and his liver function tests are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver metastases
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of nodular hepatomegaly
Nodular hepatomegaly, or an enlarged liver with palpable nodules, can have various causes. Among them, liver metastases and cirrhosis are common, while hepatocellular carcinoma, lymphoma, and myelofibrosis are less frequent but still possible differential diagnoses.
Liver metastases often originate from the bowel or breast and may not affect liver function until they involve over half of the liver or obstruct the biliary tract. Cirrhosis, on the other hand, results from chronic liver disease and typically raises the serum alanine aminotransferase level, but this patient’s liver function tests are normal.
Hepatocellular carcinoma, a type of liver cancer, shares some features with liver metastases but is less common and may be associated with hepatitis B or C. Lymphoma, a cancer of the lymphatic system, is even rarer than hepatocellular carcinoma as a cause of nodular hepatomegaly, but it may involve other sites besides the liver.
Myelofibrosis is a bone marrow disorder that can lead to fibrosis in the liver and spleen, among other organs. It may not cause symptoms in the early stages but can manifest as leukoerythroblastic anaemia, malaise, weight loss, and night sweats later on. While myelofibrosis is not a common cause of nodular hepatomegaly, it should be considered in the differential diagnosis, especially if other features suggest a myeloproliferative neoplasm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 119
Incorrect
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You receive a positive faecal immunochemical test (FIT) result following investigation of an elderly patient's unexplained abdominal pain.
What would be the most appropriate next step in your management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer using a suspected lower gastrointestinal cancer pathway
Explanation:Faecal Occult Blood Tests for Colorectal Cancer
Faecal occult blood tests are recommended by NICE for patients who show symptoms that may suggest colorectal cancer but are unlikely to have the disease. If the test result is positive, patients should be referred through the suspected cancer pathway. However, a positive result may also indicate other conditions such as colorectal polyps or inflammatory bowel disease.
It is important to note that there is no need to repeat the FIT or order further investigations before referral. This test is a simple and effective way to detect early signs of colorectal cancer and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 14-month old infant presents with episodes of severe colic, associated with pallor and drawing of the legs upwards. This has been going on for several weeks.
The mother has brought the child to see you because she noticed that there seemed to be blood and mucous in the stool yesterday.
On examination there is a sausage-shaped mass palpable on the right side of the abdomen.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hirschsprung's disease
Explanation:Intussusception: A Common Cause of Intestinal Obstruction in Infants
Intussusception is a condition where a section of the bowel folds into itself, causing an obstruction. It is most commonly seen in infants over one month old, with the typical age of presentation being between two months to two years. The most common site of intussusception is the ileum passing into the caecum/colon through the ileocaecal valve.
Symptoms of intussusception include severe colic, pallor, and drawing of legs upwards during episodes of pain. A sausage-shaped mass may be palpable in the abdomen, and parents may notice the passage of a redcurrant jelly stool (blood-stained mucous). In severe cases, children may present with abdominal distention and shock.
The cause of intussusception is not always clear, but viral infections causing enlargement of Peyer’s patches have been implicated in forming a lead point for the development of intussusception. In children over the age of two, a specific lead point (such as a Meckel’s diverticulum or polyp) is more likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man complains of insomnia and lethargy. He denies any other systemic symptoms. During a routine clinical examination, a non-pulsatile mass is palpated in the right lower quadrant of his abdomen that doesn't move with respiration. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to local colorectal service
Explanation:Colorectal cancer referral guidelines were updated by NICE in 2015. Patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, those who are 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, and those who are 60 years or older with iron deficiency anaemia or a change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients with positive results for occult blood in their faeces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should be considered if there is a rectal or abdominal mass, an unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or if patients under 50 years old have rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anaemia.
The NHS offers a national screening programme for colorectal cancer every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia, and those who are 60 years or older who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old alcoholic patient visits the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up. He has recently been released from the hospital after experiencing an upper gastrointestinal bleed caused by oesophageal varices. He informs you that he has quit drinking and inquires about the likelihood of experiencing another bleeding episode.
What is the accurate statement regarding the risk of future bleeding from oesophageal varices?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The risk of re-bleeding is greater than 60% within a year
Explanation:Understanding Variceal Haemorrhage: Causes, Complications, and Prognosis
Variceal haemorrhage is a common complication of portal hypertension, with almost 90% of cirrhosis patients developing varices and 30% experiencing bleeding. The mortality rate for the first episode is high, ranging from 30-50%. The severity of liver disease and associated systemic disorders worsen the prognosis, increasing the likelihood of a bleed. Patients who have had one episode of bleeding have a high chance of recurrence within a year, with one-third of further episodes being fatal. While abstaining from alcohol can slow the progression of liver disease, it cannot reverse portal hypertension. Understanding the causes, complications, and prognosis of variceal haemorrhage is crucial for effective management and prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with coronary artery disease visits his General Practitioner after an abdominal ultrasound reveals an easily felt epigastric pulsation. The ultrasound shows a normal calibre abdominal aorta without aneurysm, but incidentally finds gallstones. The patient has never experienced biliary colic or jaundice and has a normal body mass index with no history of abdominal surgery.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No treatment
Explanation:Treatment Options for Asymptomatic Cholelithiasis
Asymptomatic cholelithiasis, or gallstones without any symptoms, doesn’t require therapeutic intervention. In fact, up to 70% of patients with gallstones are asymptomatic at the time of diagnosis. The risk of prophylactic cholecystectomy, or removal of the gallbladder, is greater than the benefit likely to be gained by removal. However, in a partially calcified ‘porcelain’ gallbladder, removal may be recommended to prevent pancreatitis or cholangitis.
Open cholecystectomy, a surgical procedure with a longer recovery time and higher risk of complications, is often reserved for patients where laparoscopy is a higher risk. Endoscopic removal of stones is not suitable for asymptomatic cholelithiasis as it doesn’t remove the gallbladder or stones within it.
If the patient becomes symptomatic, laparoscopic cholecystectomy would be the treatment of choice. However, for asymptomatic patients, the risks of a procedure outweigh the potential benefits of preventing future complications. Lithotripsy, a procedure that breaks up gallstones, is not routinely recommended for the treatment of any gallstones due to the risk of complications.
Treatment Options for Asymptomatic Cholelithiasis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with mild jaundice after experiencing flu-like symptoms. He has no prior medical conditions and is in good health. After being evaluated by a Gastroenterologist, it is suspected that he may have Gilbert syndrome. What test result would be most suitable for confirming this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absence of bilirubin in the urine
Explanation:Distinguishing Gilbert Syndrome from Haemolysis: Key Indicators
Gilbert syndrome is a genetic condition that causes unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia without any signs of liver disease or haemolysis. One key indicator is the absence of bilirubin in the urine, as excess bilirubin is unconjugated and doesn’t appear in the urine. Additionally, there should be no signs of liver function abnormality, despite a slight increase in serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) activity that may occur in haemolysis. Another distinguishing factor is the maintenance of normal urinary urobilinogen excretion, as opposed to an increase in haemolytic jaundice. Finally, an increased reticulocyte count, which is elevated in haemolysis, should prompt investigation for an alternative diagnosis in Gilbert syndrome. Overall, understanding these key indicators can aid in distinguishing Gilbert syndrome from haemolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visited her doctor with complaints of intense pain in the anal area. She reported that the pain began after she strained to have a bowel movement. She had been experiencing constipation for the past 4 days and had been using over-the-counter laxatives. During the examination, the doctor observed a painful, firm, bluish-black lump at the edge of the anus.
What is the probable reason for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombosed haemorrhoid
Explanation:Thrombosed haemorrhoids are characterized by severe pain and the presence of a tender lump. Upon examination, a purplish, swollen, and tender subcutaneous perianal mass can be observed. If the patient seeks medical attention within 72 hours of onset, referral for excision may be necessary. However, if the condition has progressed beyond this timeframe, patients can typically manage their symptoms with stool softeners, ice packs, and pain relief medication. Symptoms usually subside within 10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of diarrhoea that has been ongoing for the past eight weeks. He has also experienced fresh rectal bleeding on multiple occasions during this time. The patient has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and haemorrhoids. On examination, his abdomen is soft with no palpable masses, and a normal rectal exam is noted.
What would be the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe loperamide and review in three to four weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Referral of Suspected Colorectal Cancer
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, individuals under the age of 50 who experience a change in bowel habit to looser and/or more frequent stools, along with rectal bleeding, should be urgently referred for suspected colorectal cancer.
In addition, NICE recommends considering a suspected cancer pathway referral for adults under 50 with rectal bleeding and unexplained symptoms such as abdominal pain, weight loss, and iron-deficiency anemia. These referrals should result in an appointment within two weeks to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer, which can significantly improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 27 year old male with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with rectal symptoms and bloody diarrhoea. Upon examination, he appears comfortable and well hydrated. His vital signs include a regular pulse of 88 beats per minute, a temperature of 37.5ºC, and a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. There is mild tenderness in the left iliac fossa, but no palpable masses or rebound tenderness. Rectal examination reveals tenderness and blood in the rectum. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient's mild/moderate proctitis flare?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectal mesalazine
Explanation:When experiencing a mild-moderate flare of distal ulcerative colitis, the initial treatment option is the use of topical (rectal) aminosalicylates. It is recommended to start with local treatment for rectal symptoms. Topical aminosalicylates are more effective than steroids, but a combination of both can be used if monotherapy is not effective. If the disease is diffuse or if symptoms do not respond to topical treatments, oral aminosalicylates can be used. In cases of severe disease, oral steroids can be considered.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman has chronic diarrhoea and is suspected to have irritable bowel syndrome. What is the most suitable test to diagnose bile acid malabsorption?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: SeHCAT (tauroselcholic [75 selenium] acid) test
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Bile Acid Malabsorption and Coeliac Disease
Bile acids play a crucial role in the absorption of lipids, and their malabsorption can lead to gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhoea, bloating, and faecal incontinence. Bile acid malabsorption can be classified into three types, with primary idiopathic malabsorption being particularly common in patients with irritable bowel syndrome. Crohn’s disease and certain surgeries or diseases can also cause bile acid malabsorption.
The SeHCAT test is a diagnostic tool that tracks the retention and loss of bile acids through the enterohepatic circulation. A capsule containing radiolabeled 75 SeHCAT is ingested, and the percentage retention of SeHCAT at seven days is calculated. A value less than 15% indicates excessive bile acid loss and suggests bile acid malabsorption.
Faecal fat estimation is a standard test for malabsorption, but it is not specific for bile acids. Anti-transglutaminase antibodies are found in coeliac disease, and higher levels of these antibodies suggest a diagnosis of that condition. Small bowel biopsy is performed to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease. The urea breath test is a rapid diagnostic procedure used in retesting for infections by Helicobacter pylori, which requires the triple-therapy regimen for treatment.
In summary, the SeHCAT test, faecal fat estimation, anti-transglutaminase antibodies, small bowel biopsy, and urea breath test are all diagnostic tools that can aid in the diagnosis of bile acid malabsorption and coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 129
Incorrect
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Primary biliary cirrhosis is most characteristically associated with:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:The M rule for primary biliary cholangitis includes the presence of IgM and anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, specifically the M2 subtype, in middle-aged women.
Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disorder that affects middle-aged women. It is thought to be an autoimmune condition that damages interlobular bile ducts, causing progressive cholestasis and potentially leading to cirrhosis. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman. It is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Diagnosis involves immunology and imaging tests. Management includes ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine for pruritus, and liver transplantation in severe cases. Complications include cirrhosis, osteomalacia and osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 130
Incorrect
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The treatment room nurse requests your assistance in evaluating a 67-year-old male patient who has been experiencing a non-healing skin ulcer in his natal cleft. Despite various attempts, there has been no improvement in the condition. The patient has a medical history of angina, benign prostatic hypertrophy, and asthma. Which medication among his current prescriptions is the most probable cause of this non-healing ulcer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nicorandil
Explanation:Nicorandil can lead to anal ulceration. This is because ulceration is a known side effect of nicorandil, which can cause ulcers in the skin, mucosa, and eyes. It can also cause gastrointestinal ulcers that may result in complications such as perforation, haemorrhage, fistula, or abscess. If ulceration occurs, nicorandil treatment should be discontinued, and alternative medication should be considered.
Nicorandil is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina. It works by activating potassium channels, which leads to vasodilation. This process is achieved through the activation of guanylyl cyclase, which results in an increase in cGMP. However, there are some adverse effects associated with the use of nicorandil, including headaches, flushing, and the development of ulcers on the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes. Additionally, gastrointestinal ulcers, including anal ulceration, may also occur. It is important to note that nicorandil should not be used in patients with left ventricular failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents with a two month history of mild nausea and upper abdominal discomfort after eating. You suspect gallstones so arrange an ultrasound scan of the abdomen along with a full blood count and liver function tests. Her BMI is 36.
The ultrasound scan doesn't show any stones in the Gallbladder and her liver function tests are normal. Her haemoglobin level is 95 g/L with a microcytic picture. When it was checked 18 months ago her haemoglobin level was 120 g/L. She has no history of vaginal bleeding or melaena. Her BMI is now 32.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a routine barium meal and swallow
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Upper GI Endoscopy in a Woman with Recent Onset Anemia and Weight Loss
This woman, aged over 55, has recently developed anemia and has also experienced weight loss. According to the latest NICE guidelines, urgent referral for upper GI endoscopy is necessary in such cases. Routine referrals for CT scan and barium meal are not appropriate. Treating with iron without referral is not recommended as it may delay diagnosis.
The loss of blood from the gastrointestinal tract is a common cause of anemia, and the symptoms experienced by this woman suggest an upper GI cause. Therefore, it is important to refer her for an upper GI endoscopy as soon as possible to identify the underlying cause of her symptoms and provide appropriate treatment. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve the woman’s overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 132
Incorrect
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You are the GP trainee doing your morning clinic. You see a 35-year-old woman with coeliac disease.
Which of the following is indicated as part of her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administration of the pneumococcal vaccine
Explanation:To prevent overwhelming pneumococcal sepsis due to hyposplenism, Coeliac UK advises that individuals with coeliac disease receive a pneumococcal infection vaccine and a booster every five years. Pertussis vaccines beyond those in the vaccination schedule are unnecessary. According to NICE CKS guidelines, annual blood tests for FBC, ferritin, thyroid function tests, liver function tests, B12, and folate are recommended. Calprotectin is utilized to assess gut inflammation, often as part of the diagnostic process for inflammatory bowel disease. Faecal occult blood testing is typically conducted if there are concerns about bowel cancer.
Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet
Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten-containing cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats must be avoided. However, some patients with coeliac disease can tolerate oats. Gluten-free foods include rice, potatoes, and corn. Compliance with a gluten-free diet can be checked by testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies.
Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which is why they are offered the pneumococcal vaccine. Coeliac UK recommends that patients with coeliac disease receive the pneumococcal vaccine and have a booster every five years. influenza vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.
Overall, managing coeliac disease requires strict adherence to a gluten-free diet and regular immunisation to prevent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man complains of frequent palpitations. These usually occur when he eats and subside abruptly after he finishes eating. They are not accompanied by chest pain, but, on occasion, he also feels lightheaded. He has no reflux symptoms or dyspepsia. He is otherwise well and on presentation his blood pressure is 136/84 mmHg, his pulse is in sinus rhythm, and examination of his heart and abdomen are normal. His electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.
What is the most appropriate investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 24 hour portable electrocardiogram (ECG)
Explanation:The Most Appropriate Investigation for Palpitations and Dizziness: A Cardiac Investigation
When a patient presents with palpitations and dizziness, a cardiac cause is often suspected. While the association with food may be a red herring, the combination of symptoms suggests a need for further investigation. An ECG or examination of the pulse may not reveal an underlying cause unless the patient is experiencing symptoms at that exact moment. Therefore, a 24 hour portable ECG is often recommended to assess the cardiac rhythm over a longer period of time.
A chest X-ray is unlikely to be helpful in the absence of chest pain or respiratory symptoms. Similarly, an endoscopy may be indicated for dyspeptic symptoms, but the history of palpitations and dizziness suggests a cardiac cause. H. pylori testing is only relevant for dyspeptic symptoms, and thyroid function tests are important for anyone experiencing palpitations, as hyperthyroidism can be a cause.
In summary, when a patient presents with palpitations and dizziness, a cardiac investigation is the most appropriate first step. A 24 hour portable ECG can provide valuable information about the cardiac rhythm over a longer period of time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 134
Incorrect
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You see a 60-year-old man with gastro-oesophageal reflux symptoms. He has a previous diagnosis of Barrett's oesophagus. The old notes show he was previously under regular follow up with the local gastroenterology department but he has not been seen for over three years.
Over the last four months his gastro-oesophageal reflux symptoms have become significantly worse. He experiences daily retrosternal burning after meals which is severe and he has been vomiting at least once a week. His swallow is reportedly normal. There is no history of haematemesis or melaena. You weigh him and he has not lost any significant weight.
On examination his abdomen is soft, non-tender and with no palpable masses. He takes omeprazole 20 mg once daily which he has done for many years. Since his symptoms have deteriorated he has increased this himself up to 20 mg twice daily. This has not provided any significant symptomatic benefit.
You refer him urgently for an upper GI endoscopy.
What advice would you give to the patient while waiting for the endoscopy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add in domperidone to the current dose of omeprazole to try and improve symptom control whilst further investigation is awaited
Explanation:Importance of Stopping Acid Suppression Medication Prior to Endoscopy
Acid suppression medication should be discontinued for at least two weeks before undergoing endoscopy. This is crucial because acid suppression medication can conceal serious underlying conditions. It is also essential to consider the patient’s medical history, especially if there is an unexplained deterioration of dyspepsia. This is particularly important for patients with Barrett’s oesophagus, known dysplasia, atrophic gastritis or intestinal metaplasia, or those who have undergone peptic ulcer surgery more than two decades ago. By taking these precautions, doctors can ensure that endoscopy results are accurate and reliable.
Spacing:
Acid suppression medication should be discontinued for at least two weeks before undergoing endoscopy. This is crucial because acid suppression medication can conceal serious underlying conditions.
It is also essential to consider the patient’s medical history, especially if there is an unexplained deterioration of dyspepsia. This is particularly important for patients with Barrett’s oesophagus, known dysplasia, atrophic gastritis or intestinal metaplasia, or those who have undergone peptic ulcer surgery more than two decades ago.
By taking these precautions, doctors can ensure that endoscopy results are accurate and reliable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman of African ethnic origin frequently experiences abdominal tenderness and bloating and intermittently suffers from diarrhoea. She has been dealing with these symptoms for a few years and knows that some of her family members have had similar issues. Her condition has worsened since she arrived in the UK 2 years ago, but she denies any problems with adjusting to life here. On physical examination, there are no abnormalities detected.
What is the most suitable initial management step for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of dairy-free diet
Explanation:Lactose intolerance is a common condition among people of Far-Eastern and African origin, affecting up to 85% and over 60% of these populations, respectively. This is due to a deficiency of the enzyme lactase, which breaks down lactose. In contrast, people from northern Europe are less likely to experience lactose intolerance as they have a higher lactose intake and are more likely to inherit the ability to digest lactose. Lactose intolerance can cause symptoms similar to irritable bowel syndrome, such as bloating and diarrhea, as undigested lactose is broken down by gut bacteria. Diagnosis can be confirmed through the lactose breath hydrogen test or by trialing a dairy-free diet. While a small intestinal mucosal biopsy can directly assay lactase activity, it is usually too invasive for a mild condition. Women with lactose intolerance should seek alternative sources of dietary calcium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 35 year old woman has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). She has previously visited the gastroenterology clinic and all tests, including colonoscopy, were normal. Her main concerns are abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. Despite taking antispasmodics, regular movicol, and following a dietician advice, she still experiences symptoms. She has tried other laxatives before, but with little improvement. What would be the most suitable next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Linaclotide
Explanation:The diagnosis and management of IBS have been addressed by NICE in their guidance. The first line of pharmacological treatment includes antispasmodics such as Hyoscine or mebeverine, loperamide for diarrhea, and laxatives for constipation. Lactulose should be avoided. If the above treatments have not helped, second-line options include tricyclic antidepressants such as up to 30 mg amitriptyline. Third-line options include serotonin selective reuptake inhibitors. Linaclotide can be considered if the patient has had constipation for at least 12 months and has not benefited from different laxatives. Other management options include dietary advice and psychological treatments. However, acupuncture and reflexology are not recommended for managing IBS.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 137
Incorrect
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You see an obese 40-year-old gentleman who was incidentally found to have fatty infiltration in his liver while being investigated for a slightly raised ALT. His other blood tests were unremarkable. He is known to have type 2 diabetes and is on metformin 500 mg OD. He doesn't drink alcohol. He is otherwise well in himself.
What would be the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to hepatology
Explanation:Management of Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease
Patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) should be assessed for the risk of advanced liver fibrosis using a non-invasive scoring system such as the Fibrosis (FIB)-4 Score, according to NICE guidelines. While obesity and metformin use may contribute to NAFLD, changes to glycaemic control should not be made without knowing the patient’s current status. Referral to hepatology is indicated if there is evidence of advanced liver disease or high risk of advanced liver fibrosis based on scoring. Hepatology can perform specialist investigations such as transient elastography and liver biopsy. Additional blood tests, including a liver screen, may be helpful, but an isolated repeat LFT would not be the next most important step in management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with a history of epigastric pain typical of dyspepsia which had been present for three months, together with weight loss of 2 stone over the same period.
He had been treated with a proton pump inhibitor but had not benefited from this therapy. More recently he had noticed a difficulty when trying to eat solids and frequently vomited after meals.
On examination he had a palpable mass in the epigastrium and his full blood count revealed a haemoglobin of 85 g/L (130-180).
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoma of stomach
Explanation:Alarm Symptoms of Foregut Malignancy
The presence of alarm symptoms in patients over 55 years old, such as weight loss, bleeding, dysphagia, vomiting, blood loss, and a mass, are indicative of a malignancy of the foregut. It is crucial to refer these patients for urgent endoscopy, especially if dysphagia is a new onset symptom.
However, it is unfortunate that patients with alarm symptoms are often treated with PPIs instead of being referred for further evaluation. Although PPIs may provide temporary relief, they only delay the diagnosis of the underlying tumor. Therefore, it is important to recognize the significance of alarm symptoms and promptly refer patients for appropriate diagnostic testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits you a few days after seeing his neurologist. He has a history of idiopathic Parkinson's disease that was diagnosed a few years ago. Apart from that, he has no other medical history. Lately, his symptoms have been getting worse, so his neurologist increased his levodopa dosage.
He complains of feeling very nauseous and vomiting multiple times a day since starting the higher dose of levodopa. He requests that you prescribe something to help alleviate the vomiting.
What is the most suitable anti-emetic to prescribe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Domperidone
Explanation:Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.
Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.
It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old female with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with an increase in stool frequency and passing around 4 bloody stools per day. Previous colonoscopies have shown rectal disease. On examination, her heart rate is 62 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and temperature is 36.8ºC. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectal mesalazine
Explanation:For a mild-moderate flare of distal ulcerative colitis, the recommended initial treatment is rectal aminosalicylates. This patient is experiencing a moderate flare with four bloody stools per day and no systemic symptoms, indicating the use of topical aminosalicylates.
While oral aminosalicylates, topical corticosteroids, and corticosteroids are also options for managing mild to moderate ulcerative colitis flares, rectal aminosalicylates are the first-line treatment.
Severe flares of ulcerative colitis may require hospitalization for intravenous steroids, but this is not necessary for this patient who is passing less than six bloody stools per day and has no systemic symptoms.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 141
Incorrect
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Samantha, 74, visits her doctor complaining of jaundice. She has a history of heavy alcohol consumption, drinking around 35-40 units per week. Samantha denies experiencing any abdominal pain, and her abdominal examination doesn't reveal any pain, but a palpable gallbladder is detected. Blood tests are conducted, and the results are as follows:
- Albumin: 30 g/L
- Alk Phos: 342 U/L
- ALT: 95 U/L
- Bilirubin: 102 mol/L
- INR: 1.4
- GGT: 123 U/L
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreatic cancer
Explanation:Pancreatic cancer is the most likely cause based on Courvoisier’s sign, which indicates that a painless, enlarged gallbladder and mild jaundice are unlikely to be caused by gallstones and more likely to be caused by a malignancy of the pancreas or biliary tree. Alcoholic hepatitis and primary biliary cirrhosis are possible differentials, but the absence of pain and an enlarged gallbladder makes them less likely. Paracetamol overdose is not a probable cause as it doesn’t typically result in a painless, palpable gallbladder and jaundice.
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its nonspecific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with nonspecific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.
Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.
Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man presents with a long-standing history of alternating episodes of diarrhoea and normal bowel habit. During his episodes, he experiences severe left-sided abdominal pain which usually resolves over a few days. He has always had to monitor his diet to avoid constipation but has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there is tenderness in the left lower quadrant of his abdomen with no palpable masses. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diverticulitis
Explanation:Understanding Diverticulosis and Diverticulitis: Symptoms and Management
Diverticulosis is a condition where small pouches called diverticula form in the lining of the colon. About 75% of people with diverticula have no symptoms. However, those with uncomplicated diverticulosis may experience lower abdominal pain, bloating, constipation, or rectal bleeding. These symptoms may be exacerbated by eating and relieved by defecation or flatus. Left lower quadrant tenderness and fullness may also be present, which can be mistaken for irritable bowel syndrome.
On the other hand, diverticulitis is a more serious condition where the diverticula become inflamed or infected. Patients with diverticulitis may experience intermittent or constant left lower quadrant pain, accompanied by a change in bowel habits. Pyrexia and tachycardia are common, and examination usually reveals localised tenderness and sometimes a palpable mass. Mild cases of diverticulitis can be managed at home with paracetamol, clear fluids, and oral antibiotics. However, one third of patients may develop further complications such as perforation, abscess, fistula, or stricture/obstruction.
It is important to differentiate diverticulitis from other conditions such as colonic cancer, Crohn’s disease, and ulcerative colitis. Colonic cancer may present with weight loss and a more definite change in bowel habit, while Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis usually present with diarrhoea at a younger age than diverticulitis. Barium enema or colonoscopy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and management of diverticulosis and diverticulitis is crucial for early detection and treatment. Patients with mild diverticulitis can be managed at home, but those with severe symptoms or complications require hospitalisation and possibly surgery. Regular screening and follow-up are recommended for those with diverticulosis to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man initially reported experiencing itching on his back. Subsequently, he began to experience abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, weight loss, and fatigue. An x-ray was performed, which showed no abnormalities. What would be the gold standard management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent CT scan
Explanation:Urgent CT Scan for Pancreatic Cancer in Elderly Patients with Red Flag Symptoms
An urgent direct access CT scan is recommended within two weeks for patients aged 60 and over who have experienced weight loss and any of the following symptoms: diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes. CT scan is preferred over ultrasound unless CT is not available. Endoscopy is not necessary as the symptoms do not suggest stomach or oesophageal cancer, which would present with more dysphagia and dyspepsia. While a gastroenterology opinion may be required, it should not be requested routinely as the patient’s red flag symptoms warrant a more urgent approach. Although the patient is currently medically stable, an immediate referral to the medical assessment unit is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 144
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a known complication of coeliac disease in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersplenism
Explanation:Coeliac disease is associated with hypo-, rather than hypersplenism.
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of dysphagia for both solids and liquids. He is experiencing no associated nausea or abdominal pain. His weight is stable and he is a lifelong non-smoker.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Dysphagia: Achalasia, Benign Oesophageal Stricture, Barrett’s Oesophagus, Carcinoma of the Oesophagus, and Schatzki’s Rings
Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can be caused by various oesophageal disorders. One such disorder is achalasia, which is characterized by dysphagia for both solids and liquids. It occurs in adults aged 25-60 years and is diagnosed by a barium swallow that reveals a dilated oesophagus. Other symptoms include regurgitation of food, chest pain, heartburn, and nocturnal cough. Benign oesophageal stricture is less likely as it only causes dysphagia for solids. Barrett’s oesophagus, a change in cell type of the epithelium in the distal portion of the oesophagus due to prolonged frequent acid exposure, primarily causes heartburn and acid regurgitation. Carcinoma of the oesophagus should be considered, but it usually causes dysphagia of solids and weight loss. Schatzki’s rings, rings of mucosa or muscle in the lower oesophagus, cause intermittent and non-progressive dysphagia for solids, usually after a patient eats a meal in a hurried fashion. Daily dysphagia is not usually a feature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with complaints of 'heartburn'. She has a medical history of angina and type 2 diabetes. Her current medications include clopidogrel 75 mg OD, bisoprolol 5 mg OD, ramipril 7.5 mg OD, atorvastatin 20 mg ON, and metformin 500 mg TDS. She quit smoking five years ago when her angina was diagnosed and doesn't consume alcohol.
The patient reports experiencing retrosternal burning that worsens after meals and occasionally causes a 'sickly' feeling in the back of her mouth. She has been experiencing symptoms predominantly during the day but occasionally at night as well. She denies any dysphagia or odynophagia and her weight is stable. She has not experienced any vomiting and her bowel habits are normal with no rectal bleeding or black stools.
The patient reports having similar symptoms on and off for many years and saw a colleague about three to four months ago with the same symptoms. She tried an over-the-counter alginate antacid PRN, which provided slight relief. She has been using the alginate preparation once or twice a day on average. Over the last three to four months, she has experienced symptoms every day. Her colleague had conducted some investigations, which showed a normal full blood count and negative Helicobacter pylori stool antigen testing.
Given her history of angina, the differential diagnosis includes this condition, but the patient's anginal pains are clearly different. The most likely diagnosis is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD). General and abdominal examination today are normal.
What is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently under the 2 week wait referral system
Explanation:Treatment of GORD with PPIs and Antacids
When managing GORD patients, mild symptoms occurring less than once a week can be treated with antacids as needed. However, for patients with more frequent symptoms, especially those experiencing daily discomfort, a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is recommended. Referral for endoscopy is usually unnecessary unless there are alarm features such as unintentional weight loss, dysphagia, GI bleeding, persistent vomiting, or signs of anemia.
Initial treatment for GORD involves a high dose PPI for eight weeks (for endoscopically proven oesophagitis) or four weeks for uninvestigated reflux. The PPI should be taken once daily 30-60 minutes before the first meal of the day. Lansoprazole is an example of a suitable PPI that doesn’t interact with other medications. If there is a partial response, the dose can be increased to twice daily, and the timing of the dose can be adjusted if nocturnal symptoms are troublesome.
If there is no response to PPI treatment, reconsideration of the diagnosis and specialist referral may be necessary. An H2 receptor antagonist can be added to a PPI for patients who have a partial response to PPI treatment. It is important to note that there have been concerns about an interaction between clopidogrel and some PPIs (such as omeprazole) due to a shared metabolic pathway. However, the BNF doesn’t suggest any issue with patients taking Lansoprasole with clopidogrel.
Overall, the treatment of GORD involves a stepwise approach, starting with antacids and progressing to PPIs and other medications as needed. Regular monitoring and adjustment of treatment can help manage symptoms and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 147
Incorrect
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You are monitoring a 40-year-old male patient who has recently finished a two-week Helicobacter pylori treatment for dyspepsia. If he has ceased his eradication therapy today and is not on any other medication, what is the earliest time frame for conducting a urea breath test to confirm eradication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In 4 weeks time
Explanation:To undergo a urea breath test, one must not have taken antibiotics within the last four weeks and must not have taken any antisecretory drugs, such as PPI, within the last two weeks.
Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old police officer attends his General Practitioner to request screening for hepatitis B. He was exposed to blood from a person possibly infected with hepatitis B virus around three weeks ago. He has never been vaccinated against this and requests blood screening. He feels well and has no comorbidities.
What is the most important test to perform at this stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
Explanation:Hepatitis B Markers: Understanding the Different Types
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is important to detect and monitor the different markers associated with the disease to determine the stage of infection and the appropriate treatment. Here are the different types of hepatitis B markers and their significance:
1. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) – This is the first marker to appear in the serum after infection. It indicates the presence of the viral envelope and can be detected between one to nine weeks after infection. Its persistence indicates chronic hepatitis B.
2. Anti-hepatitis B envelope antigen (anti-HBeAg) – This antibody appears after the clearance of the e antigen, signifying the resolution of the acute phase.
3. Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) – This marker develops during the early phases of the acute infection and can persist in chronic infections. It is associated with high levels of viral replication and infectivity.
4. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody stays positive for life following infection with hepatitis B, even once cleared.
5. Immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody confirms the diagnosis of acute infection but is detectable later than HBsAg.
Understanding these markers is crucial in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B. Regular monitoring of these markers can help determine the progression of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old stock-market trader presents with an 8 week history of upper abdominal pain that comes on in the evening and also wakes him up in the early hours of the morning. His symptoms are relieved by food and milk.
Select the single most likely diagnosis from the list below.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peptic ulcer disease
Explanation:Common Gastrointestinal Disorders and their Symptoms
Peptic ulcer disease, chronic pancreatitis, cirrhosis, gallstones, and reflux oesophagitis are some of the most common gastrointestinal disorders. Peptic ulcers are often caused by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, alcohol, tobacco consumption, and Helicobacter pylori. The main symptom is epigastric pain, which is characterised by a gnawing or burning sensation and occurs after meals. Relief by food and alkalis is typical of duodenal ulcers, while food and alkalis provide only minimal relief in gastric ulcers.
Chronic pancreatitis causes intermittent attacks of severe pain, often in the mid-abdomen or left upper abdomen, and may be accompanied by diarrhoea and weight loss. Cirrhosis is often asymptomatic until there are obvious complications of liver disease, such as coagulopathy, ascites, variceal bleeding, or hepatic encephalopathy. Gallstones cause biliary colic, which is characterised by sporadic and unpredictable episodes of pain localised to the epigastrium or right upper quadrant. Obstructive jaundice may occur, and localising signs may be absent unless cholecystitis complicates the situation.
Reflux oesophagitis typically presents with heartburn, upper abdominal discomfort, regurgitation, and chest pain. There is no clear evidence to suggest that the stress of modern life or a steady diet of fast food causes ulcers. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms persist or worsen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with type-2 diabetes complains of blood stained diarrhoea and cramping abdominal pain of several months’ duration. She underwent a hysterectomy and radiotherapy 2 years ago for endometrial carcinoma.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic radiation enteropathy
Explanation:Chronic Radiation Enteropathy: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Chronic radiation enteropathy is a progressive disease that can occur months or even years after radiation therapy. It is characterized by transmural bowel damage, obliterative endarteritis, and altered intestinal transit, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea (which may be blood-stained), malabsorption, and dysmotility. Patients with a history of pelvic or abdominal radiation therapy are at risk for developing chronic radiation enteropathy, which can lead to intestinal obstruction, fistula formation, or perforation. Corrective surgery is associated with high morbidity and mortality, and long-term symptoms are common.
Diagnosis of chronic radiation enteropathy is based on the persistence of symptoms for three or more months following irradiation. Differential diagnosis includes irritable bowel syndrome, lymphoma, pseudomembranous colitis, and ulcerative colitis. However, the history of pelvic radiation is a key factor in distinguishing chronic radiation enteropathy from other conditions. While irritable bowel syndrome may cause diarrhea, blood in the stool is not a typical symptom. Lymphoma and ulcerative colitis may also present with bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain, but the history of radiation therapy makes chronic radiation enteropathy more likely. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by infection with Clostridium difficile and is not typically associated with bloody stools.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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