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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old man presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath, lethargy, and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath, lethargy, and fevers. He is currently homeless and has been brought in by a friend. He has vomited three times since arrival but denies having diarrhea.

      What is the underlying cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer: Intravenous drug use

      Explanation:

      Tricuspid valve endocarditis can result in tricuspid regurgitation, which can be identified by the presence of a new pansystolic murmur, large V waves, and symptoms of pulmonary emboli.

      The patient in question is suffering from infective endocarditis, with the cannon V waves and pansystolic murmur indicating that the tricuspid valve is affected. This is a common occurrence in intravenous drug users, as this valve is the first to be reached by venous blood. Despite the patient’s denial, the tracking marks are a clear indication of drug use. Tuberculosis does not typically cause murmurs and usually only affects the pericardium of the heart. Poor dental hygiene can lead to a less severe and more gradual strep endocarditis. An infected orthopaedic plate is a rare cause of endocarditis.

      Tricuspid Regurgitation: Causes and Signs

      Tricuspid regurgitation is a heart condition characterized by the backflow of blood from the right ventricle to the right atrium due to the incomplete closure of the tricuspid valve. This condition can be identified through various signs, including a pansystolic murmur, prominent or giant V waves in the jugular venous pulse, pulsatile hepatomegaly, and a left parasternal heave.

      There are several causes of tricuspid regurgitation, including right ventricular infarction, pulmonary hypertension (such as in cases of COPD), rheumatic heart disease, infective endocarditis (especially in intravenous drug users), Ebstein’s anomaly, and carcinoid syndrome. It is important to identify the underlying cause of tricuspid regurgitation in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 2 - A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 1-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 1-week history of increasing abdominal distention. He has recently been referred to the liver team by his GP following some derangement of his liver function tests performed in a routine Wellman health check. He reports some sporadic right upper quadrant pain but denies any fever or jaundice. He drinks no alcohol and takes no regular medications. There is no family history of note.

      What is the most probable reason for this patient's current clinical presentation based on his test results?

      Your Answer: Undisclosed alcohol excess

      Correct Answer: Budd-Chiari syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s chronic liver disease is showing signs of decompensation, likely due to Budd-Chiari syndrome which is supported by CT findings of poor visualization of the hepatic veins and hypoattenuation of the peripheral zones. The patient’s ferritin level below 1000 ng/mL suggests that their alcohol intake may be truthful, ruling out haemochromatosis as a cause. The ascitic fluid analysis does not indicate spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. While hepatocellular carcinoma is a known complication of chronic liver disease, the patient’s ultrasound does not show any features consistent with this diagnosis.

      Decompensated Liver Disease: Causes, Signs, and Management

      Decompensated liver disease is a condition where the liver is unable to function properly, leading to various complications. There are several causes of decompensation, including infections such as pneumonia and viral hepatitis, drugs like paracetamol and anaesthetic agents, toxins such as alcohol and Amanita phalloides mushroom, vascular disorders like Budd-Chiari syndrome and vena-occlusive disease, haemorrhage from upper gastrointestinal bleed, and constipation.

      The signs of decompensated liver disease include asterixis, jaundice, hepatic encephalopathy, and constructional apraxia, which is a difficulty in drawing a clock face. To manage this condition, it is important to investigate and identify the underlying causes of decompensation. This may involve checking blood tests, reviewing the drug chart, performing a rectal examination for melaena and constipation, and conducting a septic screen.

      To enhance nitrate clearance, phosphate enemas can be used to achieve a minimum of three loose stools per day. Lactulose can also be administered to enhance the binding of nitrate in the intestine. Proper management of decompensated liver disease can help prevent further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      1232.7
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  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old man presents with a one month history of painful and swollen...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents with a one month history of painful and swollen distal interphalangeal joints in his right hand index and middle finger. He reports a few previous episodes of finger swelling in his left hand that resolved within a week. He drinks 6 units of alcohol per week and recently returned from a trip to the USA. There is no significant medical history except for his sister having psoriasis. On examination, the distal interphalangeal joints in his right hand index and middle finger are swollen and tender. His recent blood test shows a haemoglobin level of 130 g/L (130-180), WBC count of 10.9 ×109/L (4-11), neutrophil count of 6.8 ×109/L (1.5-7), and an ESR of 45 mm/hr (0-15). Urea, electrolytes, and creatinine are normal, and rheumatoid factor is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic Arthritis and Differential Diagnosis

      Psoriatic arthritis is a condition that can occur in individuals with psoriasis or those with a family history of psoriasis. There are five different patterns of joint involvement that can occur in psoriatic arthritis, including distal interphalangeal joint involvement associated with nail pitting and onycholysis, a rheumatoid arthritis type pattern, large joint oligoarthritis, a predominantly axial pattern, and arthritis mutilans. Reactive arthritis is unlikely in the absence of preceding infection, while rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely due to asymmetrical joint involvement. Gout is also unlikely unless there are significant risk factors present. Palindromic rheumatism may be present when joint swelling episodes last for a few days and migrate across the patient’s body. these different patterns of joint involvement and differential diagnoses can aid in the accurate diagnosis and treatment of psoriatic arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old male with a two year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male with a two year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) has been referred to the diabetic clinic. He is currently managing his diabetes through diet control alone. Over the past year, he has noticed a weight gain of 6 kg and experiences two to three episodes of nocturia most nights. He is an ex-smoker and drinks approximately 8 units of alcohol weekly.

      During examination, his body mass index is 33.5 kg/m2, blood pressure is 162/98 mmHg, and pulse is 78 beats per minute. Fundoscopy reveals scattered microaneurysms in both eyes and a crescent of hard exudates encroaching upon the macular in the right eye. Neurological examination reveals reduced light touch sensation in both feet to the ankles. Dipstick of his urine reveals protein (++) and glucose (+).

      Investigations show fasting plasma glucose of 7.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), sodium of 138 mmol/L (137-144), potassium of 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), urea of 7.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), creatinine of 90 µmol/L (60-110), HbA1c of 62 mmol/mol (20-46) or 7.8% (3.8-6.4), cholesterol of 4.0 mmol/L (<5.2), and triglycerides of 2.5 mmol/L (0.45-1.69).

      What is the most appropriate treatment to reduce his cardiovascular (CV) risk?

      Your Answer: Anti-hypertensive therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Cardiovascular Risk in Type 2 Diabetes Patients

      The most appropriate treatment for reducing cardiovascular risk in patients with type 2 diabetes should focus on controlling blood pressure. Evidence from the UK Prospective Diabetes Study (UKPDS) showed that blood pressure control resulted in greater reductions in cardiovascular risk compared to tight glycemic control with insulin or sulfonylureas. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend using an ACE inhibitor as the first-line antihypertensive for patients under 55 years old and a calcium channel blocker for those over 55 years old. However, in patients with proteinuria, an ACE inhibitor may be a better choice regardless of age.

      Weight reduction alone has not been shown to reduce cardiovascular risk, and orlistat has not been proven to have this effect either. Statins are recommended for patients with type 2 diabetes, but the degree of benefit is higher when the baseline cholesterol is elevated. NICE guidelines recommend aiming for a cholesterol level of less than 4 mmol/L and LDL-C level of less than 2 mmol/L in diabetic patients.

      Insulin is not considered first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes as it can worsen weight gain. Metformin is generally tried first, but blood pressure control is still considered more beneficial for reducing cardiovascular risk in obese patients with type 2 diabetes. Overall, controlling blood pressure is the most effective way to reduce cardiovascular risk in patients with type 2 diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old female presents to the medical outpatient department with a progressive loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female presents to the medical outpatient department with a progressive loss of libido. She attributes this to persistent diarrhoea, which she has noted over the last 6 months. She has also lost 14kg of weight and feels fatigued. She has noticed that her eyes have become grossly protuberant and she has double vision on looking towards either the right or left. She also experiences painful watering of her eyes.

      On examination she has a marked tremor in both hands, her heart rate is irregularly irregular and she has marked exophthalmos. There is an audible bruit on auscultation of the thyroid gland.

      Her laboratory investigations reveal:

      Hb 130 g/l
      MCV 77 fl
      MCH 29 pg
      WBC 7.4 * 109/l
      Plt 430 * 109/l
      TSH 0.03 mU/l (0.4 3.6 mU/l)
      Total T4 302 nmol/l (68 174 nmol/l)

      CT scan of the orbits reveals taut optic nerves and retro-orbital oedema.

      What is the most appropriate management for her eye condition?

      Your Answer: Surgical removal of the thyroid gland

      Correct Answer: Treatment with IV methylprednisolone

      Explanation:

      Systemic steroids are the treatment of choice for ophthalmopathy associated with Graves disease. Treatment of the underlying thyrotoxicosis is important but will not directly improve the eye disease. Radioactive iodine therapy should not be the initial treatment option as it may worsen the ophthalmopathy. Hypothyroidism induced by treatment should also be avoided.

      Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.

      Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.

      Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman has experienced weight loss over the past six months. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has experienced weight loss over the past six months. Her family has noticed that she has become forgetful over the last two months, struggling to remember things like phone numbers or her daily activities. She has recently had a second episode of what appears to be a generalized tonic-clonic seizure within the last week. She has no significant medical history. Upon examination, she has a MMSE score of 23/30, appears cachectic, has a bulky left adnexal region, and no other notable findings. Routine blood tests are normal. A CT scan of the chest, abdomen, pelvis, and head reveals a suspicious lesion in the left ovary but is otherwise unremarkable. A biopsy of the left ovary is ordered, along with a paraneoplastic blood screen and an MRI of the brain. What results would you anticipate from the paraneoplastic screen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NMDA receptor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Limbic encephalitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the limbic system and other parts of the brain, which is caused by autoimmune disorders. Symptoms of limbic encephalitis include memory impairment, confusion, alteration of consciousness, seizures, and temporal lobe signal change on MRI. It is crucial to diagnose the underlying autoimmune cause of limbic encephalitis, as it may indicate the presence of cancer. Limbic encephalitis can often present as a paraneoplastic syndrome, although not always. The antibodies associated with limbic encephalitis and their related malignancies should be identified for proper diagnosis and treatment.

      Autoimmune Encephalitis: Types and Descriptions

      Autoimmune encephalitis is a condition where the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy brain cells, leading to inflammation and damage. There are several types of autoimmune encephalitis, each with its own unique symptoms and causes.

      One type is autoimmune limbic encephalitis, which can be either paraneoplastic (associated with cancer) or non-paraneoplastic (not associated with cancer). This type of encephalitis affects the limbic system, which is responsible for emotions, memory, and behavior. Symptoms may include seizures, memory loss, and personality changes.

      Another type is Rasmussen’s encephalitis, which is a rare and severe form of autoimmune encephalitis that typically affects children. It causes inflammation and damage to one side of the brain, leading to seizures, weakness, and cognitive decline.

      Anti-NMDAR (NR1) encephalitis is another type of autoimmune encephalitis that affects the NMDA receptors in the brain. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including psychosis, seizures, and memory problems.

      Glycine-receptor mediated encephalitis is a rare type of autoimmune encephalitis that affects the glycine receptors in the brain. Symptoms may include muscle stiffness, spasms, and difficulty breathing.

      Finally, Bickerstaff brainstem encephalitis is a type of autoimmune encephalitis that affects the brainstem, which controls many vital functions such as breathing and heart rate. Symptoms may include double vision, difficulty speaking, and weakness in the limbs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old man presented with a 4-day history of severe diarrhea. He passed...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presented with a 4-day history of severe diarrhea. He passed watery stool with blood up to 12 times per day. He also complained of cramping abdominal pain, a low-grade fever, and increased fatigue. He had recently finished a course of amoxicillin for a sinus infection.
      During examination, his temperature was 38.2 °C. His abdomen was tender, especially in the lower portion.
      Investigations:

      Haemoglobin 130 g/l 120–160 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 20.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Urea 14.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 170 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Rigid sigmoidoscopy Raised, yellowish white plaques throughout sigmoid
      What is the most appropriate treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV sodium nitroprusside

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with markedly elevated blood pressure and evidence of decompensation with LVF, immediate intervention is necessary. The ideal choice for intervention is IV sodium nitroprusside, which can be titrated for gradual BP reduction. This medication leads to significant vasodilatation and not only reduces blood pressure but also has a positive impact on the mild LVF seen in the patient.Oral atenolol is not the preferred option as it has a long half-life and may exacerbate cardiac failure. Sublingual nifedipine can reduce BP rapidly, but its short half-life can lead to rapid rebound in blood pressure. Similarly, oral captopril has a relatively short half-life, making nitroprusside as a titratable infusion the better option.Reassurance alone is inappropriate as the patient is at risk of worsening left ventricular failure and/or an acute stroke due to hypertension. Therefore, close monitoring and appropriate treatment are necessary to manage the hypertensive emergency with LVF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old man was admitted to a tertiary referral center with severe right-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man was admitted to a tertiary referral center with severe right-sided weakness and a Glasgow Coma Score of 8. The onset of symptoms was estimated to be 6 hours prior to admission. The patient exhibited bilaterally up-going plantar responses and had no major co-morbidities. A CT scan of the brain revealed a significant area of infarction within the territory of the left middle cerebral artery, accompanied by massive cerebral edema and midline shift. What interventions may be beneficial for the patient during the acute phase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decompressive hemicraniectomy

      Explanation:

      Individuals under the age of 60 who experience an acute MCA territory ischemic stroke accompanied by significant cerebral edema should be provided with surgical decompression through hemicraniectomy within 48 hours of the stroke’s onset.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.

      Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.

      Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman is referred to the Cardiology Clinic by her Primary Care...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is referred to the Cardiology Clinic by her Primary Care Physician (PCP) for an abnormality found on a routine health check-up. The ECG shows a prolonged QT interval (QTcF) of 0.50 s. The patient has no history of fainting or irregular heartbeats and there is no family history of sudden cardiac death. The physical examination is normal and blood tests show normal levels of potassium and magnesium. The patient is not on any medications and leads a sedentary lifestyle. An exercise test does not show any shortening of the QT interval with increased heart rate.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atenolol 50 mg a day

      Explanation:

      Management of Long QT Syndrome: Atenolol and Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillator (ICD)

      Long QT syndrome is a cardiac disorder characterized by prolonged QT interval on electrocardiogram, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Beta blockers are the first-line therapy for both symptomatic and asymptomatic patients with idiopathic long QT syndrome. They decrease sympathetic activation from the left stellate ganglion and prevent exercise-related arrhythmic events. Left stellate cardiac ganglionectomy is an invasive procedure reserved for patients who have symptoms despite beta blockers and frequent shocks with ICD. Dual-chamber pacing may benefit patients with long QT syndrome type 3. In high-risk patients with specific genetic mutations, such as KCNH2 or SCN5A, ICD should be considered in addition to beta blocker therapy. For asymptomatic patients without these mutations, atenolol as a single intervention is appropriate. However, in very high-risk patients, ICD may be implanted in conjunction with beta blocker therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old man presents to the hospital with symptoms of severe flu for...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the hospital with symptoms of severe flu for the past week. He now reports a cough that produces green sputum and shortness of breath. A chest x-ray reveals consolidation in the right upper lobe and the formation of pneumatoceles. What organism is most likely responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcal Pneumonia: A Dangerous Complication of Influenza

      Staphylococcal pneumonia is a serious condition that can occur as a result of influenza infection. Patients who develop pneumonia following influenza should be treated with anti-staphylococcal antibiotics to prevent further complications. This type of pneumonia can be particularly severe and has a high mortality rate. The toxins produced by the bacteria can cause tissue necrosis, leading to the formation of cavities, pneumatoceles, and pneumothoraces. It is important to monitor patients closely for signs of staphylococcal pneumonia and to administer appropriate treatment promptly to prevent further complications. With proper care and treatment, patients can recover from this condition, but early intervention is key to a successful outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 11 - A 54-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of fatigue and bruising....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of fatigue and bruising. She has no significant medical history. After an abnormal full blood count, she is referred to the haematology clinic. The following are her blood results:

      - Hb: 112 g/L (Female: 115 - 160 g/L)
      - Platelets: 150 * 109/L (150 - 400 * 109/L)
      - WBC: 25.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0 * 109/L)
      - Neuts: 4.0 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0 * 109/L)
      - Lymphs: 16.2 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5 * 109/L)
      - Mono: 3.0 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8 * 109/L)
      - Eosin: 1.1 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4 * 109/L)

      Her LDH level is 250 U/L (140 - 280 U/L). Multicolour flow cytometry assay reports CD20+, CD23+, and CD5+ expression. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) reveals a deletion in the short arm of chromosome 17.

      What is the feature associated with a poor prognosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FISH result

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Factors for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia

      Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several factors that can affect the prognosis of CLL. Poor prognostic factors include male sex, age over 70 years, a high lymphocyte count, prolymphocytes comprising more than 10% of blood lymphocytes, a lymphocyte doubling time of less than 12 months, raised LDH, CD38 expression positive, and TP53 mutation. Patients with these factors have a median survival of 3-5 years.

      In addition to these factors, chromosomal changes can also affect the prognosis of CLL. The most common abnormality is deletion of the long arm of chromosome 13 (del 13q), which is seen in around 50% of patients and is associated with a good prognosis. On the other hand, deletions of part of the short arm of chromosome 17 (del 17p) are seen in around 5-10% of patients and are associated with a poor prognosis.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these prognostic factors when treating patients with CLL, as they can help guide treatment decisions and provide patients with a better understanding of their prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old male with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) and currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) and currently under monitoring visits his general practitioner with new symptoms. He reports experiencing fevers and waking up with a wet pillow. Additionally, he has a dry cough and has lost some weight but otherwise feels fine. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes and was previously taking amlodipine, metformin, and tolbutamide, but stopped two weeks ago due to a prescription issue. He is a smoker and drinks 10-14 units of alcohol per week.

      During the examination, the patient's temperature is 37.9ºC, and his chest is clear. He appears clammy, but there are no visible rashes.

      Lab results show:
      - Hb: 124 g/l
      - Platelets: 378 * 109/l
      - WBC: 13.2 * 109/l
      - Neuts: 11.2* 109/l
      - CRP: 9 mg/L
      - LDH: 857 U/L (normal range 180-360 U/L)

      What is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms and lab results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Richter's transformation

      Explanation:

      The most probable answer is that a patient with CLL will experience Richter’s transformation, which involves the development of a high-grade lymphoma accompanied by new B-symptoms. An important indicator of this transformation is an increase in LDH levels.

      Complications of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia

      Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It can lead to various complications, including anaemia, hypogammaglobulinaemia, and warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Patients with CLL may also experience recurrent infections due to their weakened immune system. However, one of the most severe complications of CLL is Richter’s transformation.

      Richter’s transformation occurs when CLL cells transform into a high-grade, fast-growing non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. This transformation can happen when the leukaemia cells enter the lymph nodes. Patients with Richter’s transformation often become unwell very suddenly and may experience symptoms such as lymph node swelling, fever without infection, weight loss, night sweats, nausea, and abdominal pain.

      It is essential for patients with CLL to be aware of the potential complications and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Regular check-ups and monitoring can also help detect any changes in the condition early on, allowing for prompt treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 13 - A 67-year-old male was admitted with worsening agitation and confusion over the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male was admitted with worsening agitation and confusion over the past week. He has a medical history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and chronic back pain. His daughter noticed that he has lost approximately 1 stone in weight (currently weighs 71 kg), has been more fatigued over the last month, and has been drinking more water, which has led to urinary incontinence.

      During examination, his heart rate was 108 beats/min, blood pressure was 95/42 mmHg, saturations were 94% on air, and respiratory rate was 20/min. He appeared dehydrated and had a Glasgow Coma Scale of 14.

      The following blood results were obtained:

      - Na+ 125 mmol/l
      - K+ 5.0 mmol/l
      - Urea 18 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 180 µmol/l
      - Blood glucose 34 mmol/l

      A venous blood gas was performed, which showed:

      - pH 7.32
      - pCO2 4.6 kPa
      - pO2 6.1 kPa
      - HCO3 17 mmol/l
      - BE -3.6 mmol/l

      What is the most crucial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride

      Explanation:

      Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS) is a serious medical emergency that can be challenging to manage and has a high mortality rate of up to 20%. It is typically seen in elderly patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and is caused by hyperglycaemia leading to osmotic diuresis, severe dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. HHS develops gradually over several days, resulting in extreme dehydration and metabolic disturbances. Symptoms include polyuria, polydipsia, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, altered consciousness, and focal neurological deficits. Diagnosis is based on hypovolaemia, marked hyperglycaemia, significantly raised serum osmolarity, and no significant hyperketonaemia or acidosis.

      Management of HHS involves fluid replacement with IV 0.9% sodium chloride solution at a rate of 0.5-1 L/hour, depending on clinical assessment. Potassium levels should be monitored and added to fluids as needed. Insulin should not be given unless blood glucose stops falling while giving IV fluids. Patients are at risk of thrombosis due to hyperviscosity, so venous thromboembolism prophylaxis is recommended. Complications of HHS include vascular complications such as myocardial infarction and stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 14 - You are summoned to attend to a 37-year-old woman in the Emergency Department....

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to attend to a 37-year-old woman in the Emergency Department. She was brought in by ambulance after her friend gave her a pill that was supposed to alleviate her symptoms following a night out and a recent cold.

      Upon examination, she appears very ill. Her BP is 70/40 mmHg and her pulse is 104/min. She is perspiring and cold. She has stridor and significant wheezing upon chest auscultation. Additionally, there is a rash resembling urticaria. The emergency team has already initiated a 500 ml bag of normal saline.

      What is the best initial course of action for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline IM

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires urgent treatment. The initial treatment involves fluid resuscitation, but if the patient still has marked hypotension and tachycardia, circulatory support is needed. The most likely cause of anaphylaxis in this case is an unknown medication, possibly Night nurse, a night time cold remedy containing dextromethorphan.

      The treatment of choice for anaphylaxis is IM adrenaline (0.5 ml of 1:1000), which can be repeated after 5 minutes. Corticosteroids, such as hydrocortisone, are no longer recommended in the standard treatment of anaphylaxis, but they can be considered in refractory cases. Glucagon is not useful in this case as the tachycardia is less suggestive of beta-blockade.

      Although further fluid loading may be necessary, the priority is to improve blood pressure and prevent respiratory arrest. Chlorphenamine, an antihistamine, can be given to address histamine-driven inflammation, but non-sedating oral antihistamines are recommended following initial stabilisation.

      In summary, the treatment options for anaphylaxis include IM adrenaline, corticosteroids in refractory cases, and antihistamines for persistent symptoms. Prompt recognition and treatment of anaphylaxis are crucial for a positive outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of pleuritic chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of pleuritic chest pain and exertional dyspnea. There is no history of trauma. Upon examination, a standard erect PA chest radiograph reveals a 4 cm apical pneumothorax. The chest physician determines that a chest drain is necessary and should be inserted promptly. What is the most suitable technique for this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insertion of a small bore chest drain using a Seldinger technique in the mid-axillary line

      Explanation:

      Benefits of Small Bore Drains and Appropriate Chest Drain Insertion Point

      Small bore drains are just as effective as large bore drains but are less painful when in place. When it comes to chest drain insertion, the most suitable point is in the safe triangle located in the mid-axillary line. This reduces the risk of damaging internal organs such as the liver, spleen, muscle, and internal mammary artery. Additionally, scarring from insertion is less noticeable than in the second intercostal space and mid-clavicular line, which is particularly important for women.

      In cases where there is a loculated apical pneumothorax, a posteriorly sited (suprascapular) apical tube may be used to drain it. However, this is not recommended in this scenario. If a CT scan shows that the pneumothorax is loculated, a more posterior insertion site may be chosen. Nonetheless, this is not the case with this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old man, who has a history of heavy smoking, presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man, who has a history of heavy smoking, presents with a gradual onset of weakness and fatigue over the past 8 months. He has noticed difficulty in climbing stairs and complains of a dry mouth and feeling light-headed when standing. Symptoms are worse in the evening. On examination, there is mild proximal weakness in the lower limbs with absent reflexes. Nerve conduction studies show low-amplitude motor responses that normalise after a brief 10 s maximal isometric contraction, increasing two to threefold in amplitude. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Neuromuscular Disorders: Characteristics and Differences

      Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) is a presynaptic disorder caused by autoantibodies against the voltage-gated calcium channel (VGCC), resulting in reduced acetylcholine release. Patients experience fatigue and weakness in proximal muscles, with little involvement of bulbar or extra-ocular muscles. Autonomic dysfunction is common. Diagnosis is confirmed with nerve conduction studies and seropositivity for VGCC autoantibodies. A search for malignancy should be undertaken.

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an acquired autoimmune disease caused by acetylcholine receptor autoantibodies, leading to reduced impulse transmission. Symptoms include fluctuating, fatigable weakness, worsened later in the day or after prolonged use of specific muscles. Most patients have ocular or bulbar weakness.

      Myotonic dystrophy is a rare, autosomal dominant disease characterized by myotonia, muscle atrophy, cataracts, hypogonadism, frontal balding, and cardiac abnormalities.

      Polymyositis presents with insidious weakness, most prominently involving the shoulder and pelvic girdle muscles, dysphagia, and respiratory weakness. Muscle pain and tenderness may be present.

      Subacute motor neuronopathy is seen occasionally in association with lymphoma, presenting with asymmetric, subacute lower motor neuron weakness, atrophy, fasciculations, and areflexia predominantly affecting the lower limbs and sparing bulbar muscles.

      Understanding Neuromuscular Disorders and Their Unique Characteristics

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 17 - A 77-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with confusion, nausea and vomiting....

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with confusion, nausea and vomiting. She has been generally unwell with fatigue, weakness and fevers for 3 weeks. On examination her respiratory rate is 25/min, oxygen saturations are 97% on 4 litres of oxygen, blood pressure 105/70 mmHg, pulse 118/min and temperature is 36.4oC. Her airway is patent and crepitations are present at both bases. There are crusting lesions beneath both nostrils, the pulse is thready and regular, heart sounds are normal and her abdomen is soft non-tender. Electrocardiogram shows a sinus tachycardia and urine dip showed 3+ blood and protein. Arterial blood gas on 4 litres of oxygen is as follows:

      pH 7.35
      pO2 7.79 kPa
      pCO2 3.52 kPa
      Bicarbonate 17 mmol/l
      Base Excess -6.9 mmol/l
      Lactate 4.5 mmol/l

      Venous blood analysis is as follows:

      Hb 118 g/l Na+ 129 mmol/l
      Platelets 511 * 109/l K+ 6.2 mmol/l
      WBC 19.1 * 109/l Urea 42.1 mmol/l
      Neuts 17.2 * 109/l Creatinine 497 µmol/l
      Lymphs 1.8 * 109/l CRP 241 mg/l
      Eosin 0.04 * 109/l

      The patient was resuscitated with fluids and antibiotics although the full septic screen was negative and renal function remained poor. ANA and cANCA pattern were positive with PR3 antibodies found and the renal team were involved. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms involving the ears, nose, and throat, respiratory system, and kidneys, granulomatosis with polyangiitis should be considered. In this case, the patient is showing signs of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), including tachycardia, tachypnea, and leucocytosis. While sepsis is the most common cause of SIRS, there is no evidence of a source of infection. The patient’s elevated lactate levels suggest poor organ perfusion, and routine biochemistry shows severe renal impairment, indicating stage 3 acute kidney injury (AKI). The presence of blood and protein in the urine dip suggests intrinsic renal pathology. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis typically presents with non-specific symptoms, AKI, and active urinary sediment. Other symptoms may include nasal crusting and a collapsed nasal septum due to granulomas. A positive cANCA with PR3 antibodies may also suggest the diagnosis, but a renal biopsy is necessary to confirm it.

      Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: An Autoimmune Condition

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis, is an autoimmune condition that affects the upper and lower respiratory tract as well as the kidneys. It is characterized by a necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis. The condition presents with various symptoms such as epistaxis, sinusitis, nasal crusting, dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Other symptoms include a saddle-shape nose deformity, vasculitic rash, eye involvement, and cranial nerve lesions.

      To diagnose granulomatosis with polyangiitis, doctors perform various investigations such as cANCA and pANCA tests, chest x-rays, and renal biopsies. The cANCA test is positive in more than 90% of cases, while the pANCA test is positive in 25% of cases. Chest x-rays show a wide variety of presentations, including cavitating lesions. Renal biopsies reveal epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule.

      The management of granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves the use of steroids, cyclophosphamide, and plasma exchange. Cyclophosphamide has a 90% response rate. The median survival rate for patients with this condition is 8-9 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 18 - A man aged 63 years is referred to the Haematology Clinic for assessment....

    Incorrect

    • A man aged 63 years is referred to the Haematology Clinic for assessment. His GP conducted a routine blood test which showed an elevated ESR (90 mm/h) and an increased IgG paraprotein band (2.1 g/l). No urinary light chain excretion was detected. Despite being well three years later, he still has an elevated ESR and IgG paraprotein band, with no urinary light chain excretion. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance (MGUS)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Monoclonal Gammopathy and Related Conditions

      Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance (MGUS) is a condition commonly found in older individuals, characterized by the presence of a paraprotein band in the blood. While patients may not exhibit any symptoms, around 1% of those with MGUS may progress to myeloma annually. However, no specific treatment is required for MGUS. Myeloma, on the other hand, is a malignant condition that can be confirmed through the presence of light chain excretion in the urine and organ involvement. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia is another malignant monoclonal gammopathy that is characterized by a high level of a macroglobulin, elevated serum viscosity, and the presence of a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate in the bone marrow. B-cell lymphoma is a heterogeneous group of lymphoproliferative malignancies, while chronic myeloid leukaemia is a myeloproliferative disorder characterized by increased proliferation of the granulocytic cell line. Understanding these conditions and their characteristics is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 19 - A 40-year-old accountant presents to the general medical clinic with complaints of erectile...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old accountant presents to the general medical clinic with complaints of erectile dysfunction. He has been experiencing difficulty sustaining an erection since starting a new job. Despite being physically fit and having reduced his BMI from 27 to 23 by cycling to work, he has found his new job somewhat stressful. He denies any mental health problems and has no significant medical history apart from an appendectomy at 19 years old. On examination, his genitalia appears normal with normally sized testicles. Blood tests, including testosterone, HbA1c, and routine blood tests, are ordered. What advice should be given to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise to try stop cycling

      Explanation:

      Patients who suffer from erectile dysfunction as a result of cycling should be advised to cease cycling if they cycle for more than three hours per week. This patient, who cycles excessively, has developed erectile dysfunction and should therefore try stopping cycling. As the patient is already at a healthy weight, weight loss is not necessary. For elderly men who infrequently experience erectile dysfunction, vacuum erection devices may be considered, while alprostadil may be considered as a second-line treatment, particularly for those with erectile dysfunction caused by spinal cord compression. Additionally, this patient may benefit from a trial of sildenafil.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
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  • Question 20 - A 53-year-old man with no prior medical history presents to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old man with no prior medical history presents to the Emergency Department with a dry cough, shortness of breath, abdominal discomfort, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and headache. He recently returned from a convention in Spain. On examination, he has bi-basal crackles, is pyrexial, and has a blood pressure of 123/67 mmHg, a pulse of 92/min, and a respiratory rate of 22/min. Investigations reveal a high white cell count, low sodium and potassium levels, elevated creatinine and C-reactive protein levels, and protein and blood in his urine. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophila

      Explanation:

      Legionella pneumophila is a bacterium that typically affects middle-aged or older men, with a higher severity in smokers. The incubation period is between 2 to 10 days, and the male to female ratio is 2:1. Symptoms include moderate leucocytosis, hyponatremia, deranged liver function tests, proteinuria, haematuria, and myoglobinuria. The infection is commonly acquired from infected water-based air-conditioning systems, which is why it was linked to a convention in Spain. Treatment options include fluoroquinolones, clarithromycin, and rifampicin for severe cases. Chlamydia pneumoniae is another type of pneumonia that has a more subacute course and is often seen in patients who keep or are in close proximity to birds. Streptococcal pneumoniae is less likely to cause hyponatremia or gastrointestinal upset, and the attendance at a convention is a stronger indicator of Legionnaire’s disease. Mycoplasma pneumoniae tends to have a more subacute course with pleuritic chest pain and a dry cough, and the appearance on chest X-ray may indicate a more severe pneumonia than initially thought. Viral pneumonia is more likely to cause generalised crackles on chest auscultation and a lesser rise in CRP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 21 - A 36-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe flank...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe flank pain, fever and difficulty urinating for the past four days. The fever is high grade and associated with chills and shivers. On examination, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg and her heart rate is 120 bpm. Severe flank tenderness is present on the left side.

      She is immediately started on intravenous rehydration with crystalloids and empirical antibiotic therapy. A plain computed tomography (CT) abdomen is performed, which shows evidence of a ureteral calculus measuring 10mm, with hydroureteronephrosis. In addition, there is evidence of perinephric fat stranding of the left kidney.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency surgery for ureteral calculus with stenting

      Explanation:

      Management of Ureteral Calculus with Acute Pyelonephritis

      When a patient presents with acute pyelonephritis due to obstructive uropathy, emergency surgical intervention is necessary to decompress the urinary tract. This is especially true when there is confirmed complicated urinary tract infection due to obstructing stones, bilateral obstruction and acute kidney injury (AKI), or unilateral obstruction with AKI in a solitary functioning kidney. Conservative management, such as continuing antibiotics and hydration, is not ideal in this situation.

      On the other hand, elective surgery for ureteral calculi can be performed when there is no associated pyelonephritis. Indications for elective surgery include ureteral stones measuring > 10mm, uncomplicated distal ureteral stones measuring at least 10mm that have not passed after 4–6 weeks of observation, symptomatic stones in patients without any other etiology for the pain, persistent hydroureteronephrosis related to stones, and recurrent uncomplicated urinary tract infections related to stones.

      It is important to note that ICU admission for vasopressor support is not necessary in a patient with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. Additionally, a right partial nephrectomy is not indicated in a patient with acute pyelonephritis and ureteral calculus, as it is typically reserved for cases of renal abscess in a small, scarred, chronically pyelonephritic, and poorly functioning kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
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  • Question 22 - A 54-year-old man has been referred to the Medical Clinic by his General...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man has been referred to the Medical Clinic by his General Practitioner (GP.) In his letter, the GP says he is unsure whether the patient is really hypertensive because his blood pressure at his surgery is usually just borderline (ranges between 145 and 155/80 and 95 mmHg). He has a past medical history of benign prostatic hypertrophy but no history of any cardiovascular disorders.

      On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 130/85 mmHg. His pulse is 70 beats per minute and regular. His body mass index is 34 kg/m2.

      What would be the most appropriate step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 h ambulatory BP monitoring

      Explanation:

      Management of Low-Grade Hypertension

      Low-grade hypertension can be a challenging diagnosis to make, especially when there is suspicion of white coat hypertension. In such cases, the European Society of Cardiologist (ESC) recommends 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring to confirm the diagnosis. This method is complementary to measurements taken in the healthcare practitioner’s office.

      If the diagnosis is confirmed, current National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend starting with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) as first-line therapy in patients under 55 years old.

      It is important to note that further investigation would be appropriate prior to starting medication. Therefore, reassurance and discharge from follow-up should not be considered until a confirmed diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan have been established.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 23 - A 26-year-old female came to the clinic complaining of dysuria and a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female came to the clinic complaining of dysuria and a recent onset of vaginal discharge. She has been engaging in unprotected sexual activity with a new male partner for the past six weeks. Her NAAT test showed positive results for Chlamydia and negative for gonorrhoeae infection. She is currently on her menstrual cycle.

      What is the recommended initial treatment for this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for this patient’s Chlamydia infection is a 7-day course of doxycycline, as she is not pregnant. Azithromycin was previously preferred due to its one-off dose, but recent evidence suggests growing resistance to macrolides and co-infection with Mycoplasma genitalium. Amoxicillin may be considered for pregnant patients, but is not the first-line treatment. Ceftriaxone is not indicated for Chlamydia infection, as it is the first-line treatment for gonorrhoeae. The patient tested negative for gonorrhoeae on NAAT.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 24 - A 55-year-old male presents with weight loss and agitation. Upon examination, a fine...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents with weight loss and agitation. Upon examination, a fine tremor, goitre, and tachycardia are observed. Further investigations confirm thyrotoxicosis with positive TSH receptor autoantibodies. The patient decides to undergo radioactive iodine treatment. What is the correct statement regarding therapy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The risk of recurrence after antithyroid drugs is above 50%

      Explanation:

      Current strategies for treating thyrotoxicosis include antithyroid drugs, radio-iodine, or surgery. Long-term remission rates with anti-thyroid drugs are low, and radio-iodine is often used as a primary treatment. However, it can lead to long-term hypothyroidism. There is no increased risk of neoplasia following RAI, and goitre shrinkage may occur in up to 30% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old man is brought in unconscious by ambulance. On arrival to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is brought in unconscious by ambulance. On arrival to the emergency department, he has a Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) of 5. His airway appears to be obstructed. His daughter arrives shortly after and reports that he may have taken an excessive amount of lorazepam pills. He has a history of regular lorazepam use and also takes sertraline.
      His urea and electrolytes are within normal limits, but arterial blood gas results indicate respiratory depression with elevated CO2 and reduced O2 levels.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaesthetic review with consideration for intubation and ventilation

      Explanation:

      Patients who are habituated to benzodiazepines and suffer from an overdose of tricyclic antidepressants are at a high risk of seizure activity if flumazenil is used to reverse the benzodiazepine component. Therefore, in such cases, intubation and ventilation are recommended if the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is less than 8.

      Observation on a high-dependency unit is necessary to ensure airway protection. Repeat doses of intravenous (IV) flumazenil may cause only short-term improvement in conscious level and increase seizure risk. On the other hand, repeat doses of IV naloxone are used for the reversal of opiate overdose.

      Although continuous flumazenil infusion can reverse benzodiazepine overdose, it substantially increases the risk of seizures. Hence, it is crucial to consider the risks and benefits of each treatment option before administering them to patients with benzodiazepine habituation and tricyclic antidepressant overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old man visited the anticoagulation clinic to have his INR monitored. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visited the anticoagulation clinic to have his INR monitored. He had experienced an ileo-femoral deep vein thrombosis two months ago after a long-haul flight. He was prescribed warfarin 5 mg daily with a target INR of 2.5. During his visit, he reported the sudden appearance of multiple bruises on his legs without any known cause. His INR was measured at 8.8 (<1.4).

      What is the appropriate management for his elevated INR?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop warfarin, give 5 mg oral vitamin K and check INR in 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Management of Warfarin-Related Bleeding According to BNF Guidelines

      As per the British National Formulary (BNF) guidelines, the management of warfarin-related bleeding depends on the patient’s International Normalized Ratio (INR) and the presence or absence of bleeding. If the INR is greater than 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped, and phytomenadione (vitamin K1) should be given by slow intravenous injection. A repeat dose of phytomenadione may be necessary if the INR remains high after 24 hours. Warfarin can be restarted when the INR is less than 5.0. If there is no bleeding, phytomenadione can be given orally using the intravenous preparation orally [unlicensed use] at a dose of 1-5 mg. For INR levels between 5.0-8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped, and phytomenadione should be given by slow intravenous injection. Warfarin can be restarted when the INR is less than 5.0. If there is no bleeding, one or two doses of warfarin should be withheld, and subsequent maintenance doses should be reduced.

      It is important to investigate the possibility of underlying causes of unexpected bleeding at therapeutic levels, such as renal or gastrointestinal tract pathology. The BNF guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing warfarin-related bleeding, which can help prevent further complications and ensure optimal patient outcomes. Proper monitoring and management of warfarin therapy can help reduce the risk of bleeding and improve patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old woman comes to you with persistent vomiting that she experiences every...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to you with persistent vomiting that she experiences every day. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant and has 3+ ketones in her urine. Despite taking cyclizine prescribed by her GP, she has not found any relief. You suspect that she may be suffering from hyperemesis gravidarum. In addition to administering anti-emetics and rehydration, what other medication should be recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      The administration of intravenous dextrose infusion can lead to the onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Furthermore, patients often have low levels of sodium, necessitating the use of 0.9% sodium chloride.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 28 - A 57-year-old man presented with sudden epigastric pain and vomiting. He has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presented with sudden epigastric pain and vomiting. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medication. He drinks seven units of alcohol per week and has never exceeded that amount. During his hospitalization for acute pancreatitis, his serum amylase was significantly elevated, and he made a full recovery. Although an ultrasound and CT scan were normal, the cause of his pancreatitis remains unclear, and further investigation is necessary.

      What is the most sensitive test for diagnosing gallstones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)

      Explanation:

      Imaging Modalities for Detecting Stones in Biliary Pancreatitis

      In cases of mild biliary pancreatitis, the focus is on searching for evidence of stones rather than just CBD stones as they usually clear by the time inflammation resolves. However, ultrasound’s sensitivity for detecting stones is reduced during an episode of acute pancreatitis, so repeating the test is reasonable but may still miss CBD stones. MRCP and EUS are the most sensitive investigations for determining the presence of stones anywhere within the biliary tract, with little difference between them. ERCP may miss small stones in the gallbladder.

      In this setting, MRCP is the best non-invasive test to request next as it is sensitive for detecting stones throughout the biliary tract and has no contraindications for this patient. CT has poor sensitivity for detecting gallstones and is not routinely used in their evaluation. Fasting plasma calcium has no role in the diagnosis of gallstone disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 29 - Which patient has results suggesting a diagnosis of diabetes insipidus?

    Patient 1:
    - Serum Na:...

    Incorrect

    • Which patient has results suggesting a diagnosis of diabetes insipidus?

      Patient 1:
      - Serum Na: 150 mmol/L
      - Urine Na: 18
      - Serum osmolality: 305 mOsm/kg
      - Urine osmolality: 100
      - TSH: 2.0 mIU/L
      - 9am cortisol: 300 nmol/L

      Patient 2:
      - Serum Na: 136 mmol/L
      - Urine Na: 35
      - Serum osmolality: 275 mOsm/kg
      - Urine osmolality: 160
      - TSH: 12.5 mIU/L
      - 9am cortisol: 450 nmol/L

      Patient 3:
      - Serum Na: 128 mmol/L
      - Urine Na: 12
      - Serum osmolality: 260 mOsm/kg
      - Urine osmolality: 80
      - TSH: 4.2 mIU/L
      - 9am cortisol: 290 nmol/L

      Patient 4:
      - Serum Na: 128 mmol/L
      - Urine Na: 50
      - Serum osmolality: 258 mOsm/kg
      - Urine osmolality: 150
      - TSH: 2.0 mIU/L
      - 9am cortisol: 485 nmol/L

      Patient 5:
      - Serum Na: 128 mmol/L
      - Urine Na: 40
      - Serum osmolality: 266 mOsm/kg
      - Urine osmolality: 100
      - TSH: 3.5 mIU/L
      - 9am cortisol: 120 nmol/L

      Answer: Patient 3 has results suggesting a diagnosis of diabetes insipidus.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patient 1

      Explanation:

      Diabetes Insipidus

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition where the body fails to produce, secrete, or respond to antidiuretic hormone (ADH), resulting in inadequate aquaporin channels and the inability to concentrate urine. As a result, large volumes of dilute urine are excreted to clear the body’s daily solute and toxin excretion requirements. In the water deprivation test, limiting water intake can cause dangerously high serum osmolality, and the urine will remain dilute even with prolonged water deprivation.

      DI can be classified as cranial or nephrogenic, depending on the cause of the ADH dysfunction. Cranial DI is caused by a failure in the production or secretion of ADH, while nephrogenic DI is caused by a failure in the action of ADH. To diagnose cranial DI, synthetic ADH can be administered during the water deprivation test to allow the urine to become concentrated.

      DI is crucial in managing the condition and preventing complications. Patients with DI should be monitored closely and treated accordingly to prevent dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman presented with a 24-hour history of high fever, vomiting, diarrhea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presented with a 24-hour history of high fever, vomiting, diarrhea, and severe muscle pain. Four days ago, she finished a 5-day course of oral ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection. She also takes the oral contraceptive pill, and her last menstrual period ended the previous week.

      During the examination, her temperature was 40.2 °C, heart rate 140 bpm, and BP 80/50 mmHg. There was no nuchal rigidity or photophobia. She had a widespread macular erythrodermic rash on her chest and legs, and significant tenderness in her thigh muscles. She also had diffuse abdominal tenderness. Neurological examination showed no abnormalities.

      Investigations:
      Investigation Result
      Blood cultures No growth in two samples after 48 hours
      Urine cultures No growth

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Toxic shock syndrome

      Explanation:

      Toxic Shock Syndrome Caused by Retained Tampon

      The patient in this case is presenting with symptoms of toxic shock syndrome, most likely caused by a retained tampon. This condition is characterized by shock, high fever, myalgia, and erythroderma. The exotoxin released by the staphylococcus bacteria inhibits myocardial contractility, leading to profound hypotension. Blood cultures may be negative, but high vaginal swabs may be positive for Staphylococcus.

      Other potential diagnoses, such as gastroenteritis, bacterial meningitis, renal abscess, and ulcerative colitis, do not fit with the patient’s symptoms. Toxic shock syndrome caused by TSST-1 release from a retained tampon is the most likely explanation for the patient’s presentation. It is important to promptly remove the tampon and provide appropriate treatment to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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Gastroenterology And Hepatology (0/1) 0%
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