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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a deep cut on...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a deep cut on his left forearm following a knife assault. Upon examination, a deep laceration is observed on his anterior forearm, exposing muscle and subcutaneous tissue. He is unable to flex his left metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints, but his distal interphalangeal joint flexion remains intact. Which structure is the most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Flexor digitorum profundus

      Correct Answer: Flexor digitorum superficialis

      Explanation:

      The forearm flexor muscles include the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles originate from the common flexor origin and surrounding fascia, and are innervated by the median and ulnar nerves. Their actions include flexion and abduction of the carpus, wrist flexion, adduction of the carpus, and flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 67-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with a swollen, red, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with a swollen, red, and hot first metatarsophalangeal joint. The diagnosis is an acute gout attack. What substance in the joint space is responsible for causing gout?

      Your Answer: Osteophytes

      Correct Answer: Monosodium urate

      Explanation:

      When joint aspiration is performed in cases of gout, the presence of needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals that are negatively birefringent can be observed under polarised light. The acute manifestation of gout often involves the first metatarsophalangeal joint, which is commonly referred to as podagra. Gout is caused by elevated levels of uric acid, which results in the accumulation of monosodium urate crystals in and around the joints. Pseudogout, a similar condition, is caused by the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate. In rheumatoid arthritis, a collection of fibrous tissue known as a pannus may be observed within affected joints, while osteoarthritis may present with bony projections called osteophytes. A diet that is high in purines, such as red meat, liver, and beer, may increase the likelihood of developing gout.

      Understanding Gout: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation and pain in the joints. Patients experience episodes of intense pain that can last for several days, followed by periods of no symptoms. The acute episodes usually reach their peak within 12 hours and can affect various joints, with the first metatarsophalangeal joint being the most commonly affected. Swelling and redness are also common symptoms of gout.

      If left untreated, repeated acute episodes of gout can lead to joint damage and chronic joint problems. To diagnose gout, doctors may perform synovial fluid analysis to look for needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarised light. Uric acid levels may also be checked once the acute episode has subsided, as they can be high, normal, or low during the attack.

      Radiological features of gout include joint effusion, well-defined punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins, and eccentric erosions. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, gout does not cause periarticular osteopenia. Soft tissue tophi may also be visible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      10.4
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old presents to the hospital with severe wrist pain. He was playing...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old presents to the hospital with severe wrist pain. He was playing basketball with his friends when he fell with his hand outstretched. On examination, there is significant tenderness at the anatomical snuffbox. Pain is elicited as the thumb is longitudinally compressed. His grip strength is also diminished.

      A posteroanterior and lateral x-ray of the wrist joint is performed which gives inconclusive results. The patient's wrist is immobilized with a splint and he is advised an MRI in a week’s time for further evaluation.

      The patient inquires about possible complications and the doctor expresses concern that if the blood supply is interrupted, the bone tissue may be compromised.

      Which of the following structures is most likely to be responsible for this complication?

      Your Answer: Common digital arteries

      Correct Answer: Dorsal carpal branch of radial artery

      Explanation:

      The primary neurovascular structure that can be affected by a scaphoid fracture is the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery. This artery is responsible for supplying blood to the scaphoid bone, and a fracture can lead to a high risk of avascular necrosis in the proximal pole of the bone. Symptoms of a scaphoid fracture include tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox, pain when compressing the thumb longitudinally, and a loss of grip strength. While an X-ray may not provide a conclusive diagnosis, further imaging studies can confirm the presence of an occult fracture.

      The other answer choices are incorrect. The common digital arteries originate from the superficial palmar arch and supply the fingers. The deep palmar arch primarily supplies the thumb and index finger. The proper digital arteries arise from the common digital arteries and supply the fingers.

      A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that usually occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to identify scaphoid fractures as they can lead to avascular necrosis due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically experience pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination involves checking for tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox, wrist joint effusion, pain on telescoping of the thumb, tenderness of the scaphoid tubercle, and pain on ulnar deviation of the wrist. Plain film radiographs and scaphoid views are used to diagnose scaphoid fractures, but MRI is considered the definitive investigation. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures typically treated with a cast and displaced fractures requiring surgical fixation. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union and avascular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old male has an accident at work where he is injured by...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male has an accident at work where he is injured by a loose piece of glass. The glass cuts his skin and damages the tendons of one of the muscles in his hand. Consequently, he cannot flex the distal interphalangeal joint of his ring finger. However, he can still flex the proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP) and the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint of the same finger. None of his other fingers are impacted.

      Which muscle is likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Pronator teres

      Correct Answer: Flexor digitorum profundus

      Explanation:

      The flexor digitorum profundus muscle is primarily responsible for flexing the distal interphalangeal joint. It is located deep to the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle and is specific to each digit. The flexor digitorum superficialis muscle, on the other hand, flexes the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints. The flexor carpi ulnaris muscle is responsible for flexing and adducting the wrist, while the flexor pollicis longus muscle flexes the thumb. It is important to note that the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle must be intact for its function to remain present.

      The forearm flexor muscles include the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles originate from the common flexor origin and surrounding fascia, and are innervated by the median and ulnar nerves. Their actions include flexion and abduction of the carpus, wrist flexion, adduction of the carpus, and flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 82-year-old female experiences a fall and is brought to the emergency department....

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old female experiences a fall and is brought to the emergency department. X-rays reveal a displaced fracture above the greater and lesser trochanter of the proximal femur on the right side. What would be the best surgical approach for this patient?

      Your Answer: Short intramedullary device

      Correct Answer: Hemiarthroplasty

      Explanation:

      When a hip fracture occurs within the joint capsule, there is a higher chance of the femoral head experiencing avascular necrosis. This type of fracture is considered displaced and requires treatment with hemiarthroplasty or total hip replacement, especially for older patients. However, younger patients may opt for hip fixation instead of replacement as prosthetic joints have a limited lifespan.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures are classified based on their location, either intracapsular or extracapsular. The Garden system is a commonly used classification system that categorizes fractures into four types based on stability and displacement. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV.

      Undisplaced intracapsular fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures require replacement arthroplasty, with total hip replacement being preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with no more than a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular fractures are managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures and an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      23.2
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  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old gardener presents to her GP with a two week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old gardener presents to her GP with a two week history of elbow swelling. She reports a gradual onset of the swelling, with no apparent triggers, and experiences pain and warmth upon touch. She denies any swelling in other areas and is generally in good health.

      The patient has a medical history of well-managed rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking methotrexate. There are no other known medical conditions.

      During the physical examination, a tender, soft, fluctuant mass is palpated on the posterior aspect of the patient's elbow.

      Based on the above information, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid nodule

      Correct Answer: Olecranon bursitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Olecranon Bursitis

      Olecranon bursitis is a condition that occurs when the olecranon bursa, a fluid-filled sac located over the olecranon process at the proximal end of the ulna, becomes inflamed. This bursa serves to reduce friction between the elbow joint and the surrounding soft tissues. The inflammation can be caused by trauma, infection, or systemic conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis or gout. It is also commonly known as student’s elbow due to the repetitive mild trauma of leaning on a desk using the elbows.

      The condition is more common in men and typically presents between the ages of 30 and 60. Causes of olecranon bursitis include repetitive trauma, direct trauma, infection, gout, rheumatoid arthritis, and idiopathic reasons. Patients with non-septic olecranon bursitis typically present with swelling over the olecranon process, which is often the only symptom. Some patients may also experience tenderness and erythema over the bursa. On the other hand, patients with septic bursitis are more likely to have pain and fever.

      Signs of olecranon bursitis include swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, tenderness on palpation of the swollen area, redness and warmth of the overlying skin, fever, skin abrasion overlying the bursa, effusions in other joints if associated with rheumatoid arthritis, and tophi if associated with gout. Movement at the elbow joint should be painless until the swollen bursa is compressed in full flexion.

      Investigations are not always needed if a clinical diagnosis can be made and there is no concern about septic arthritis. However, if septic bursitis is suspected, aspiration of bursal fluid for microscopy and culture is essential. Purulent fluid suggests infection, while straw-coloured bursal fluid favours a non-infective cause. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and signs of olecranon bursitis can help in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which one of the following is a branch of the fourth part of...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is a branch of the fourth part of the axillary artery?

      Your Answer: Posterior circumflex humeral

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Axilla

      The axilla, also known as the armpit, is a region of the body that contains important structures such as nerves, veins, and lymph nodes. It is bounded medially by the chest wall and serratus anterior, laterally by the humeral head, and anteriorly by the lateral border of the pectoralis major. The floor of the axilla is formed by the subscapularis muscle, while the clavipectoral fascia forms its fascial boundary.

      One of the important nerves that passes through the axilla is the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve and trunk, on the other hand, innervated and vascularize the latissimus dorsi muscle. The axillary vein, which is the continuation of the basilic vein, lies at the apex of the axilla and becomes the subclavian vein at the outer border of the first rib. The intercostobrachial nerves, which provide cutaneous sensation to the axillary skin, traverse the axillary lymph nodes and are often divided during axillary surgery.

      The axilla is also an important site of lymphatic drainage for the breast. Therefore, any pathology or surgery involving the breast can affect the lymphatic drainage of the axilla and lead to lymphedema. Understanding the anatomy of the axilla is crucial for healthcare professionals who perform procedures in this region, as damage to any of the structures can lead to significant complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      9.2
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  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old man with non-reconstructible arterial disease is having an above knee amputation....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with non-reconstructible arterial disease is having an above knee amputation. The posterior compartment muscles are being separated. Which muscle is not located in the posterior compartment of the thigh?

      Your Answer: Quadriceps femoris

      Explanation:

      The anterior compartment contains the quadriceps femoris.

      Fascial Compartments of the Leg

      The leg is divided into compartments by fascial septae, which are thin layers of connective tissue. In the thigh, there are three compartments: the anterior, medial, and posterior compartments. The anterior compartment contains the femoral nerve and artery, as well as the quadriceps femoris muscle group. The medial compartment contains the obturator nerve and artery, as well as the adductor muscles and gracilis muscle. The posterior compartment contains the sciatic nerve and branches of the profunda femoris artery, as well as the hamstrings muscle group.

      In the lower leg, there are four compartments: the anterior, posterior (divided into deep and superficial compartments), lateral, and deep posterior compartments. The anterior compartment contains the deep peroneal nerve and anterior tibial artery, as well as the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, and peroneus tertius muscles. The posterior compartment contains the tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery, as well as the deep and superficial muscles. The lateral compartment contains the superficial peroneal nerve and peroneal artery, as well as the peroneus longus and brevis muscles. The deep posterior compartment contains the tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery, as well as the flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, tibialis posterior, and popliteus muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old man presents to his GP with difficulty ascending stairs and transitioning...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man presents to his GP with difficulty ascending stairs and transitioning from sitting to standing. He reports experiencing relief from buttock pain with ibuprofen. He has no prior medical or surgical history, but has a 20-pack year smoking habit and works in finance for a large multinational corporation, requiring him to sit for extended periods during meetings. Upon examination, there is limited hip extension and lateral rotation. During gait analysis, he exhibits a backward trunk lurch. The GP refers him for further physiotherapy evaluation, suspecting nerve entrapment from prolonged sitting.

      Which nerve is likely to be entrapped in this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Inferior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      The patient in the vignette is experiencing impaired hip extension and lateral rotation, making it difficult for them to rise from a seat and climb stairs. These symptoms are consistent with inferior gluteal nerve palsy, which can be caused by nerve entrapment or compression. The inferior gluteal nerve runs anterior to the piriformis and can be damaged during hip replacement surgery or by sitting for prolonged periods with a wallet in a rear pocket.

      Other nerves that can be affected in the lower limb include the femoral nerve, which supplies the lower limb extensively and can be injured by direct trauma or compression. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve compression can cause meralgia paresthetica, which leads to burning, tingling, and numbness in the front and lateral aspect of the thigh. The obturator nerve is rarely injured but can cause medial thigh sensory changes, weak hip adduction, and a wide-based gait if damaged. The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius and minimus and can be assessed with tests that assess hip abductor and stabilizer function.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy and function of these nerves can help diagnose and manage lower limb nerve injuries.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An elderly retired manual labourer in his late 60s presents to his GP...

    Correct

    • An elderly retired manual labourer in his late 60s presents to his GP with a complaint of gradual loss of extension in his 4th and 5th finger. During the examination, the doctor observes the presence of nodules between the affected fingers.

      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Dupuytren's contracture

      Explanation:

      Dupuytren’s contracture commonly affects the ring finger and little finger, particularly in older males. This condition causes nodules and cord development in the palmar fascia, resulting in flexion at the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints.

      Trigger finger causes stiffness, pain, and a locking sensation when flexing, making it difficult to extend the finger.

      Ganglion cysts, also known as bible cysts, are typically soft and found in the dorsal and volar aspect of the wrist. Many cysts will disappear on their own.

      Flexor tendon rupture is usually caused by trauma to the flexor tendon, such as a sports injury. This condition is typically acute and results in a sudden loss of flexion in the affected finger, often requiring surgery.

      Understanding Dupuytren’s Contracture

      Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects about 5% of the population. It is more common in older men and those with a family history of the condition. The causes of Dupuytren’s contracture include manual labor, phenytoin treatment, alcoholic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, and trauma to the hand.

      The condition typically affects the ring finger and little finger, causing them to become bent and difficult to straighten. In severe cases, the hand may not be able to be placed flat on a table.

      Surgical treatment may be necessary when the metacarpophalangeal joints cannot be straightened.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      11.3
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  • Question 11 - A man in his early 50s arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early 50s arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain and haematemesis. Upon diagnosis, he is found to have a peptic ulcer. During resuscitation, he reveals that he has been taking ibuprofen for several years. His physician informs him that this could be the reason for the bleeding. What is the explanation for this?

      Your Answer: Reduced prostaglandin synthesis and increased prostaglandin breakdown

      Correct Answer: Reduced prostaglandin synthesis

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of NSAIDs like ibuprofen, which involves inhibiting COX enzymes and reducing prostaglandin synthesis, increases the risk of peptic ulcers. This is because prostaglandins play a crucial role in gastroprotection by stimulating gastric mucus production, and lower levels of prostaglandins make individuals more susceptible to peptic ulcers.

      It is important to note that increased prostaglandin breakdown does not have the same effect as NSAIDs, and increased prostaglandin synthesis is actually gastroprotective.

      While Helicobacter pylori is often found in patients with ulcers and is treated, NSAIDs do not have any effect on the levels of this bacterium.

      Understanding Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) and COX-2 Selective NSAIDs

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are medications that work by inhibiting the activity of cyclooxygenase enzymes, which are responsible for producing key mediators involved in inflammation such as prostaglandins. By reducing the production of these mediators, NSAIDs can help alleviate pain and reduce inflammation. Examples of NSAIDs include ibuprofen, diclofenac, naproxen, and aspirin.

      However, NSAIDs can also have important and common side-effects, such as peptic ulceration and exacerbation of asthma. To address these concerns, COX-2 selective NSAIDs were developed. These medications were designed to reduce the incidence of side-effects seen with traditional NSAIDs, particularly peptic ulceration. Examples of COX-2 selective NSAIDs include celecoxib and etoricoxib.

      Despite their potential benefits, COX-2 selective NSAIDs are not widely used due to ongoing concerns about cardiovascular safety. This led to the withdrawal of rofecoxib (‘Vioxx’) in 2004. As with any medication, it is important to discuss the potential risks and benefits of NSAIDs and COX-2 selective NSAIDs with a healthcare provider before use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      15.7
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old patient was recently admitted to hospital with symptoms of diarrhoea, weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient was recently admitted to hospital with symptoms of diarrhoea, weight loss and abdominal pain. Upon blood tests, a raised C-reactive protein (CRP) and anaemia were observed. A stool test for faecal calprotectin was significantly raised. A colonoscopy was performed, revealing deep ulceration and skip lesions. The patient was diagnosed with Crohn's disease without complications and was promptly started on glucocorticoids to induce remission. Subsequently, the gastroenterologist prescribed a drug called azathioprine to maintain remission of symptoms.

      What is the correct mechanism of action for azathioprine?

      Your Answer: Directly reduces production of prostaglandins

      Correct Answer: Its metabolite inhibits purine synthesis

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant that is commonly used to maintain remission in Crohn’s disease. It is metabolized into mercaptopurine, which inhibits purine synthesis and helps to control inflammation.

      Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that is sometimes used to induce remission in refractory or fistulating Crohn’s disease. It works by binding to and neutralizing tumor necrosis factor, a key mediator of inflammation.

      Mesalazine is a second-line drug that is used to induce remission in Crohn’s disease after glucocorticoids. It belongs to the 5-aminosalicylate class of drugs and works by inhibiting prostaglandin secretion. It is also considered for use in maintaining remission in post-surgical Crohn’s patients.

      Methotrexate is another immunosuppressant that is used as a second-line treatment for Crohn’s disease. It works by disrupting folic acid metabolism and accumulating the anti-inflammatory molecule adenosine.

      Metronidazole is an antibiotic that is used to treat isolated peri-anal Crohn’s disease. It works by forming radicals that disrupt the DNA of anaerobic bacteria.

      Azathioprine is a medication that is converted into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. If infection or bleeding occurs, a full blood count should be considered. It is important to note that there may be a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used. However, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old man with a history of psoriasis visits his doctor complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of psoriasis visits his doctor complaining of new lesions on his back. He mentions that he has only ever had lesions on his knees and elbows before and is worried. Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that he recently got a tattoo on his back, which is only a week old. He also notes that the new lesions appeared shortly after getting the tattoo. The doctor considers a phenomenon in which new psoriatic lesions develop after skin trauma in patients with psoriasis. What is the term for this phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Nikolsky

      Correct Answer: Koebner

      Explanation:

      The Koebner phenomenon is a term used to describe the appearance of skin lesions at the site of injury. Patients with a history of psoriasis and recent skin trauma are at risk of developing this phenomenon, which can also occur in individuals with other skin conditions like warts and vitiligo. Lichen planus is another condition where the Koebner phenomenon is observed. In contrast, the Nikolsky phenomenon is a dermatological phenomenon seen in pemphigus vulgaris, where the epidermis can be moved over the dermis upon palpation. Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that affects some individuals with psoriasis, causing joint inflammation, pain, stiffness, and swelling.

      The Koebner Phenomenon: Skin Lesions at the Site of Injury

      The Koebner phenomenon refers to the occurrence of skin lesions at the site of injury. This phenomenon is commonly observed in various skin conditions such as psoriasis, vitiligo, warts, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and molluscum contagiosum. In other words, if a person with any of these skin conditions experiences trauma or injury to their skin, they may develop new lesions in the affected area.

      This phenomenon is named after Heinrich Koebner, a German dermatologist who first described it in 1876. The exact mechanism behind the Koebner phenomenon is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to the immune system’s response to injury. In some cases, the injury may trigger an autoimmune response, leading to the development of new lesions.

      The Koebner phenomenon can be a frustrating and challenging aspect of managing skin conditions. It is important for individuals with these conditions to take precautions to avoid injury to their skin, such as wearing protective clothing or avoiding activities that may cause trauma. Additionally, prompt treatment of any new lesions that develop can help prevent further spread of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      23.2
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  • Question 14 - Which nerve provides innervation to the interossei of the fifth finger? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve provides innervation to the interossei of the fifth finger?

      Your Answer: Superficial ulnar

      Correct Answer: Deep ulnar

      Explanation:

      PAD and DAB can be remembered as a mnemonic for the actions of the palmar and dorsal interossei muscles. The palmar interossei muscles ADduct the fingers towards the midline of the hand, while the dorsal interossei muscles ABduct the fingers away from the midline.

      Interossei: Muscles of the Hand

      Interossei are a group of muscles located in the hand that occupy the spaces between the metacarpal bones. There are three palmar and four dorsal interossei, each with a specific origin and insertion point. Palmar interossei originate from the metacarpal of the digit on which it acts, while dorsal interossei come from the surface of the adjacent metacarpal on which it acts. The interosseous tendons, except the first palmar, pass to one or other side of the metacarpophalangeal joint posterior to the deep transverse metacarpal ligament. They become inserted into the base of the proximal phalanx and partly into the extensor hood.

      All interossei are innervated by the ulnar nerve and have specific actions. Dorsal interossei abduct the fingers, while palmar interossei adduct the fingers. Along with the lumbricals, the interossei flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints. They are responsible for fine-tuning these movements.

      In cases where the interossei and lumbricals are paralyzed, the digits are pulled into hyperextension by extensor digitorum, resulting in a claw hand. Understanding the function and innervation of the interossei is important in diagnosing and treating hand injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      6
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of hand joint pain and stiffness....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of hand joint pain and stiffness. After diagnosis, it is revealed that he has rheumatoid arthritis. What is the leading cause of mortality in this condition characterized by systemic inflammation?

      Your Answer: Cancer

      Correct Answer: Coronary heart disease

      Explanation:

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis are believed to have a higher likelihood of developing atherosclerotic disorders, even if they are unaware of any pre-existing heart conditions or elevated cardiovascular risk. The underlying cause of this atherosclerosis is attributed to systemic inflammation, which is thought to expedite the progression of the disease.

      Complications of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing inflammation and pain. However, it can also lead to a variety of extra-articular complications. These complications can affect different parts of the body, including the respiratory system, eyes, bones, heart, and mental health.

      Respiratory complications of RA include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, methotrexate pneumonitis, and pleurisy. Ocular complications can include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, keratitis, steroid-induced cataracts, and chloroquine retinopathy. RA can also lead to osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, and an increased risk of infections. Depression is also a common complication of RA.

      Less common complications of RA include Felty’s syndrome, which is characterized by RA, splenomegaly, and a low white cell count, and amyloidosis, which is a rare condition where abnormal proteins build up in organs and tissues.

      In summary, RA can lead to a variety of complications that affect different parts of the body. It is important for patients with RA to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent or treat any complications that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      10.2
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old patient visited her family physician with complaints of body pain for...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old patient visited her family physician with complaints of body pain for the past 5 months. She initially attributed it to starting aerobic exercise classes 7 months ago, but the pain has persisted and over-the-counter pain relievers have not helped. The pain is more prominent in her shoulders and lower back, and she also experiences fatigue and difficulty sleeping due to the pain. Her BMI is 28 kg/m2, and she has never smoked. She denies any weight loss or fever episodes. She lives alone and can usually manage her household chores. Her mother, who had rheumatoid arthritis, passed away last year. On examination, the doctor notes tender areas in her neck, elbows, and knees. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Fibromyalgia

      Explanation:

      The patient has been experiencing chronic pain throughout her body for the past 6 months. Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely as the pain does not seem to be originating from the joints. Fibromyalgia and polymyalgia rheumatica are the two most probable diagnoses, but the absence of weight loss and fever makes polymyalgia rheumatica less likely. Therefore, fibromyalgia is the most likely diagnosis. The patient also reports feeling tired and having sleep disturbances, which are common symptoms of fibromyalgia.

      1: This condition primarily affects individuals over 50 years old and is associated with elevated levels of inflammatory markers like ESR and CRP. It is linked to giant cell arteritis, but serum CK and muscle biopsy results are normal.
      2: Fibromyalgia is characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain and tenderness in various points of the body.
      3: The patient has not reported any muscle weakness. If weakness in the shoulder region was present, polymyositis would be a more probable diagnosis.
      4: This inflammatory musculoskeletal condition primarily affects the axial skeleton and is strongly associated with the HLA-B27 histocompatibility complex. The initial symptom is typically lower back pain due to sacroiliitis.
      5:

      Fibromyalgia is a condition that causes widespread pain throughout the body, along with tender points at specific anatomical sites. It is more common in women and typically presents between the ages of 30 and 50. Other symptoms include lethargy, cognitive impairment (known as fibro fog), sleep disturbance, headaches, and dizziness. Diagnosis is made through clinical evaluation and the presence of tender points. Management of fibromyalgia is challenging and requires an individualized, multidisciplinary approach. Aerobic exercise is the most effective treatment, along with cognitive behavioral therapy and medication such as pregabalin, duloxetine, and amitriptyline. However, there is a lack of evidence and guidelines to guide treatment.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following structures divides the subclavian artery and vein? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures divides the subclavian artery and vein?

      Your Answer: Middle scalene muscle

      Correct Answer: Anterior scalene muscle

      Explanation:

      The subclavian vein (anterior) and subclavian artery (posterior) are separated by the significant anatomical feature known as the anterior scalene muscle.

      The Scalene Muscles and Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

      The scalene muscles are a group of three paired muscles located in the neck that play a role in elevating the ribs and tilting the neck. The scalenus anterior and medius muscles elevate the first rib and laterally flex the neck to the same side, while the scalenus posterior muscle elevates the second rib and tilts the neck to the opposite side. These muscles are innervated by spinal nerves C4-6 and originate from the transverse processes of C2 to C7, inserting into the first and second ribs.

      The scalene muscles are important because the brachial plexus and subclavian artery pass between the anterior and middle scalenes through a space called the scalene hiatus or fissure. The subclavian vein and phrenic nerve pass anteriorly to the anterior scalene as it crosses over the first rib. However, the scalenes are at risk of adhering to the fascia surrounding the brachial plexus or shortening, which can cause compression of the brachial plexus when it passes between the clavicle and first rib. This condition is known as thoracic outlet syndrome.

      In summary, the scalene muscles play an important role in the neck and chest, but can also cause issues if they become adhered or shortened, leading to thoracic outlet syndrome. It is important to be aware of this condition and seek medical attention if experiencing symptoms such as pain, numbness, or tingling in the arm or hand.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old female patient visits the GP with a concern about her middle...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient visits the GP with a concern about her middle finger's inability to flex at the end. During the examination, it is observed that she cannot bend the distal interphalangeal joint of her middle finger.

      Which muscle is accountable for this movement?

      Your Answer: Flexor digitorum superficialis

      Correct Answer: Flexor digitorum profundus

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that the flexor digitorum profundus muscle is responsible for flexing the distal interphalangeal joint. The other options, such as the flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor pollicis longus, are responsible for different movements and are therefore incorrect. The palmar interossei are also not responsible for flexion at the distal interphalangeal joint. Lastly, there is no such muscle as the flexor digiti medius.

      The forearm flexor muscles include the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles originate from the common flexor origin and surrounding fascia, and are innervated by the median and ulnar nerves. Their actions include flexion and abduction of the carpus, wrist flexion, adduction of the carpus, and flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old man complains of lower back pain and 'sciatica' that has been...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man complains of lower back pain and 'sciatica' that has been bothering him for the past four days. He reports feeling a sudden 'pop' while lifting a heavy box. The pain is now severe and radiates down his left leg. During the examination, he experiences tingling sensations on the front of his left knee and the inner part of his calf. Muscle strength is normal, but the left knee reflex is reduced. The femoral stretch test is positive on the left side. Which nerve or nerve root is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 20 - In a confrontation, a 35-year-old woman was stabbed in the medial aspect of...

    Correct

    • In a confrontation, a 35-year-old woman was stabbed in the medial aspect of her left thigh. Upon examination, there is a noticeable decrease in knee extension. Additionally, there is a reduction in sensation over the anterior thigh.

      Which anatomical structure has been affected by the stabbing?

      Your Answer: Femoral nerve

      Explanation:

      The femoral nerve is responsible for loss of knee extension and sensory loss to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh following a stab injury. The muscles innervated by the femoral nerve are responsible for hip flexion and knee extension, while the nerve is responsible for sensation over the anterior thigh. Injury to the inferior gluteal nerve would result in loss of hip extension, while injury to the obturator nerve would result in a loss of sensation to the medial thigh and impaired hip adduction. Although the quadriceps tendon is vital to knee extension, it would not explain the sensory deficit and the location of the injury.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 21 - A 70-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a severe throbbing headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a severe throbbing headache on one side of his head. He reports that it started two weeks ago and has now progressed to affect his vision. Additionally, he experiences discomfort in his jaw while chewing, which has made it difficult for him to eat. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril.

      During the examination, the GP notes a tender temporal artery that is palpable. Fundoscopy reveals a swollen pale optic disc with blurred margins.

      Which artery is responsible for the patient's visual symptoms?

      Your Answer: Central retinal artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior ciliary artery

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is posterior ciliary artery. When a patient presents with temporal arteritis, they may experience a headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms that can progress to anterior ischemic optic neuropathy. This occurs due to occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, which is a branch of the ophthalmic artery. When this artery is blocked, it can result in retinal ischemia and necrosis, leading to visual loss.

      The answer of anterior ciliary artery is incorrect because it does not have a direct supply to the retina. Instead, it supplies the conjunctiva, sclera, and rectus muscles. Therefore, it would not show a pale swollen optic disc on fundoscopy, which suggests retinal ischemia.

      Central retinal artery is also an incorrect answer because it is not typically affected in temporal arteritis. When this artery is occluded, it results in a cherry red spot on fundoscopy without associated mastication symptoms.

      Finally, the lacrimal artery is an incorrect answer because it supplies the lacrimal gland, conjunctiva, and eyelids, but not the retina. Therefore, it would not show a pale optic disc on fundoscopy.

      Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.

      To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 22 - You are in the emergency department and a patient has just come in...

    Incorrect

    • You are in the emergency department and a patient has just come in after falling off his bicycle onto an outstretched hand. On examination of his hand, there is significant pain in the anatomical snuffbox. The medial border of this region is formed by the tendon of a muscle that attaches to the distal phalanx of the thumb and causes extension of the metacarpophalangeal joint and interphalangeal joints.

      What is the name of this muscle and which nerve is it innervated by?

      Your Answer: Abductor pollicis longus - radial nerve

      Correct Answer: Extensor pollicis longus - radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve supplies the extensor pollicis longus muscle, which can be injured in a fall onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH) resulting in a possible scaphoid fracture. The tendon of this muscle forms the medial border of the anatomical snuffbox and is responsible for extending the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints of the thumb. The abductor pollicis longus muscle, also supplied by the radial nerve, functions to abduct the thumb and its tendon forms the lateral border of the anatomical snuffbox. The extensor pollicis brevis muscle, also supplied by the radial nerve, extends and abducts the thumb at the carpometacarpal and metacarpophalangeal joints and its tendon forms the lateral border of the anatomical snuffbox. The extensor pollicis longus muscle is not innervated by the median nerve.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 23 - Which one of the following muscles is not located in the posterior compartment...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following muscles is not located in the posterior compartment of the lower leg?

      Your Answer: Peroneus brevis

      Explanation:

      The lateral compartment contains the peroneus brevis.

      Fascial Compartments of the Leg

      The leg is divided into compartments by fascial septae, which are thin layers of connective tissue. In the thigh, there are three compartments: the anterior, medial, and posterior compartments. The anterior compartment contains the femoral nerve and artery, as well as the quadriceps femoris muscle group. The medial compartment contains the obturator nerve and artery, as well as the adductor muscles and gracilis muscle. The posterior compartment contains the sciatic nerve and branches of the profunda femoris artery, as well as the hamstrings muscle group.

      In the lower leg, there are four compartments: the anterior, posterior (divided into deep and superficial compartments), lateral, and deep posterior compartments. The anterior compartment contains the deep peroneal nerve and anterior tibial artery, as well as the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, and peroneus tertius muscles. The posterior compartment contains the tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery, as well as the deep and superficial muscles. The lateral compartment contains the superficial peroneal nerve and peroneal artery, as well as the peroneus longus and brevis muscles. The deep posterior compartment contains the tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery, as well as the flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, tibialis posterior, and popliteus muscles.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 24 - An 82-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with sepsis of unknown origin....

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with sepsis of unknown origin. During a thorough examination, it is discovered that his big toe is swollen, black, and tender. A fluid collection is also present at the nail bed. The patient has a history of uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus. An MRI confirms the diagnosis of osteomyelitis. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of osteomyelitis is Staphylococcus aureus, a bacteria that is normally found on the skin and mucus membranes but can become pathogenic in individuals who are immunocompromised or have risk factors for infections. Clostridium perfringens, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Staphylococcus epidermidis are not common causes of osteomyelitis, although they may cause other types of infections.

      Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment

      Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria in the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children and can be caused by risk factors such as sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species are more prevalent. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%.

      The treatment for osteomyelitis involves a course of antibiotics for six weeks. Flucloxacillin is the preferred antibiotic, but clindamycin can be used for patients who are allergic to penicillin. Understanding the types, causes, and treatment of osteomyelitis is crucial in managing this bone infection.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 25 - You are observing a GP during their morning consultations. A 60-year-old man has...

    Incorrect

    • You are observing a GP during their morning consultations. A 60-year-old man has presented to the clinic with elevated liver function tests discovered during routine blood tests over the past month. Despite being asymptomatic, the patient has a history of osteoarthritis in his knees, one of which underwent total replacement surgery three months ago. He also has arthritis affecting the small joints in his hands and feet, which is well-controlled with medication, as well as hypertension that is stable with medication. What is an important cause of hepatic damage that should be ruled out in this case?

      Your Answer: Opioid medication use

      Correct Answer: Immune suppression medication for arthritis

      Explanation:

      The patient has both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis, with the latter affecting the smaller joints of the hands and feet. Methotrexate is a commonly used immunosuppressive medication for rheumatoid arthritis, but it can cause hepatotoxicity as a significant side effect.

      Although fat emboli are a potential risk after orthopaedic surgery, they usually cause neural and respiratory symptoms rather than liver damage. Additionally, the onset of fat emboli occurs within hours to days after the operation, not three months later.

      While calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors, and opioid medications have their own side effects, they typically do not affect liver function.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

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  • Question 26 - Which one of the following statements relating to sternocleidomastoid is false? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements relating to sternocleidomastoid is false?

      Your Answer: The external jugular vein lies posteromedially.

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle is located medial (i.e. deep) to the external jugular vein.

      The Sternocleidomastoid Muscle: Anatomy and Function

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle is a large muscle located in the neck that plays an important role in head and neck movement. It is named after its origin and insertion points, which are the sternum, clavicle, mastoid process, and occipital bone. The muscle is innervated by the spinal part of the accessory nerve and the anterior rami of C2 and C3, which provide proprioceptive feedback.

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle has several actions, including extending the head at the atlanto-occipital joint and flexing the cervical vertebral column. It also serves as an accessory muscle of inspiration. When only one side of the muscle contracts, it can laterally flex the neck and rotate the head so that the face looks upward to the opposite side.

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles, which are important landmarks for medical professionals. The anterior triangle contains several important structures, including the carotid artery, jugular vein, and thyroid gland. The posterior triangle contains the brachial plexus, accessory nerve, and several lymph nodes.

      Overall, the sternocleidomastoid muscle is a crucial muscle for head and neck movement and plays an important role in the anatomy of the neck.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense epigastric pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense epigastric pain, along with continuous nausea and vomiting. She had visited the emergency department a week ago due to severe bloody diarrhea and was hospitalized for a day before being released.

      Her amylase levels are elevated.

      Which medication is the most probable cause of her current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine is known to cause pancreatitis, which is likely the adverse effect experienced by this patient. It is possible that the patient was prescribed azathioprine after presenting with severe bloody diarrhea, a symptom of an acute flare-up of ulcerative colitis. Other drugs listed are not commonly associated with pancreatitis, although erythromycin may have a weak association. For more information on serious adverse effects of the listed drugs, please refer to the table below.

      Drug Serious adverse effects
      Paracetamol Hepatotoxicity
      Amitriptyline Anticholinergic side effects
      Erythromycin GI disturbance and prolongs QT interval
      Azathioprine Bone marrow depression and pancreatitis

      Azathioprine is a medication that is converted into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. If infection or bleeding occurs, a full blood count should be considered. It is important to note that there may be a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used. However, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

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  • Question 28 - A 79-year-old woman is admitted after a fall resulting in a wrist fracture....

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old woman is admitted after a fall resulting in a wrist fracture. After diagnosis, she is prescribed a medication to increase bone density in accordance with NICE guidance. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Increases calcium availability to bone

      Correct Answer: Inhibits osteoclasts

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for bone resorption. Therefore, NICE recommends discharging patients on bisphosphonates after fragility fractures without the need for a DEXA scan. While vitamin D and calcium supplementation increase calcium availability to bone, bisphosphonates are the first-line treatment for fragility fractures. Inhibiting osteoblasts would decrease bone density, so promoting osteoclasts would lead to increased bone resorption, which is incorrect.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.

      The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.

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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with a two-month history of tingling...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with a two-month history of tingling and numbness in her thumb, index and middle finger that wakes her up at night. During the examination, the GP instructs the patient to flex her wrist for 60 seconds and the patient reports that this reproduces the symptoms. What is the term for this test?

      Your Answer: Phalen's test

      Explanation:

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.

      There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.

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  • Question 30 - A 36-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a severe, itchy, red rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a severe, itchy, red rash on her hands and arms that started a few days ago. The itching is so intense that it is affecting her sleep. She denies any family history of asthma, eczema, or hay fever and is otherwise healthy. During the consultation, she mentions that a colleague had a similar issue last week.

      Upon examination, the GP observes a widespread erythematous rash on both hands, particularly in the interdigital web spaces and the flexor aspect of the wrists, with excoriation marks. There is no crusting, and the rash is not present anywhere else.

      What is the recommended first-line treatment for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral ivermectin

      Correct Answer: Permethrin 5% cream

      Explanation:

      A cream containing steroids may be applied to address eczema.

      As a second option for scabies, an insecticide lotion called Malathion is used.

      For hyperkeratotic (‘Norwegian’) scabies, which is prevalent in immunosuppressed patients, oral ivermectin is the recommended treatment. However, this patient does not have crusted scabies and is in good health.

      To alleviate dry skin in conditions such as eczema and psoriasis, a topical emollient can be utilized.

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.

      The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.

      Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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