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Question 1
Correct
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A 65-year-old man with coronary artery disease visits his General Practitioner after an abdominal ultrasound reveals an easily felt epigastric pulsation. The ultrasound shows a normal calibre abdominal aorta without aneurysm, but incidentally finds gallstones. The patient has never experienced biliary colic or jaundice and has a normal body mass index with no history of abdominal surgery.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: No treatment
Explanation:Treatment Options for Asymptomatic Cholelithiasis
Asymptomatic cholelithiasis, or gallstones without any symptoms, doesn’t require therapeutic intervention. In fact, up to 70% of patients with gallstones are asymptomatic at the time of diagnosis. The risk of prophylactic cholecystectomy, or removal of the gallbladder, is greater than the benefit likely to be gained by removal. However, in a partially calcified ‘porcelain’ gallbladder, removal may be recommended to prevent pancreatitis or cholangitis.
Open cholecystectomy, a surgical procedure with a longer recovery time and higher risk of complications, is often reserved for patients where laparoscopy is a higher risk. Endoscopic removal of stones is not suitable for asymptomatic cholelithiasis as it doesn’t remove the gallbladder or stones within it.
If the patient becomes symptomatic, laparoscopic cholecystectomy would be the treatment of choice. However, for asymptomatic patients, the risks of a procedure outweigh the potential benefits of preventing future complications. Lithotripsy, a procedure that breaks up gallstones, is not routinely recommended for the treatment of any gallstones due to the risk of complications.
Treatment Options for Asymptomatic Cholelithiasis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 27 year old woman presents with intermittent abdominal bloating, pain and diarrhea for the past 3 months. She denies any rectal bleeding, weight loss or family history of bowel disease. On examination, her abdomen appears normal. Along with a full blood count (FBC), urea & electrolytes (U&E), coeliac screen, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP), what initial investigation would be most helpful in differentiating between irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) in a primary care setting?
Your Answer: Faecal calprotectin
Explanation:NICE recommends the use of faecal calprotectin in primary care to distinguish between IBS and IBD. This protein is released in the bowel during inflammation and can be detected in a stool sample. Its use can reduce the need for invasive diagnostic testing and referral of patients with typical IBS symptoms. However, a positive result doesn’t confirm IBD and patients should be referred to secondary care for further investigation.
NICE has also provided guidance on the diagnostic criteria for IBS and the necessary investigations. They suggest conducting FBC, ESR, CRP, and coeliac screen (TTG). However, they advise against performing ultrasound, sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy, barium study, thyroid function test, stool microscopy and culture, and faecal occult blood and hydrogen breath test.
Understanding Diarrhoea: Causes and Characteristics
Diarrhoea is defined as having more than three loose or watery stools per day. It can be classified as acute if it lasts for less than 14 days and chronic if it persists for more than 14 days. Gastroenteritis, diverticulitis, and antibiotic therapy are common causes of acute diarrhoea. On the other hand, irritable bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, colorectal cancer, and coeliac disease are some of the conditions that can cause chronic diarrhoea.
Symptoms of gastroenteritis may include abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diverticulitis is characterized by left lower quadrant pain, diarrhoea, and fever. Antibiotic therapy, especially with broad-spectrum antibiotics, can also cause diarrhoea, including Clostridioides difficile infection. Chronic diarrhoea may be caused by irritable bowel syndrome, which is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Ulcerative colitis may cause bloody diarrhoea, crampy abdominal pain, and weight loss. Crohn’s disease may cause crampy abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and malabsorption. Colorectal cancer may cause diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia, and weight loss. Coeliac disease may cause diarrhoea, abdominal distension, lethargy, and weight loss.
Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis. It is important to seek medical attention if diarrhoea persists for more than a few days or is accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, severe abdominal pain, or blood in the stool.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a bowel issue. She has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and has experienced occasional abdominal bloating and changes in stool consistency for many years. However, over the past four weeks, she has noticed a significant increase in symptoms, including daily loose and frequent stools. She denies any rectal bleeding and cannot recall experiencing loose stools for this extended period before.
Upon examination, she appears well, with a soft and non-tender abdomen and no palpable masses. Rectal examination is normal, and her weight is comparable to her last visit a year ago.
Which of the following tests would you suggest for this patient?Your Answer: Tumour marker blood testing including CEA
Correct Answer: Abdominal x ray
Explanation:Investigating Bowel Symptoms in Patients with Irritable Bowel Syndrome
A patient with a history of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) presenting with acute bowel symptoms is a common scenario. However, if their symptoms have undergone a marked change and become more persistent than usual, it is important to consider the possibility of colorectal cancer. In this context, an abdominal X-ray or ultrasound is not appropriate, and testing for inflammatory markers such as ESR doesn’t provide specific information that would aid referral. Tumour marker testing is also not an appropriate primary care investigation.
According to NICE guidelines, quantitative faecal immunochemical tests should be offered to assess for colorectal cancer in adults without rectal bleeding who are aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or aged under 60 with changes in their bowel habit or iron-deficiency anaemia. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure appropriate investigation and referral for patients with IBS and changing bowel symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man who is typically healthy visits his GP complaining of indigestion that has persisted for 2 months. He has not experienced any weight changes or difficulty swallowing. Upon examination, there are no notable findings in the abdomen. What is the most appropriate initial course of action from the following choices?
Your Answer: Urea breath testing and non-urgent referral for endoscopy
Correct Answer: One month course of a full-dose proton pump inhibitor
Explanation:The management of dyspepsia according to NICE guidelines doesn’t recommend a specific first-line approach between a one month course of a PPI or ‘test and treat’ strategy. However, testing for H pylori is preferred by some clinicians before initiating acid-suppression therapy as false-negative results may occur if done within 2 weeks. Therefore, only the answer that aligns with current NICE guidelines should be chosen.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.
For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.
Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman presents with complaints of 'chest pains'. Upon further discussion, he reports experiencing postprandial retrosternal burning for the past six months. The symptom has been persistent and occurring daily over that time. He has been using an over-the-counter alginate antacid at least once a day for the last four months, but it has not provided significant relief. A colleague prescribed a 3-month course of PPIs, which he has completed without any cessation of his symptoms.
The patient is typically healthy with no significant medical history. He has been a smoker of 20 cigarettes a day since the age of 18 and drinks alcohol occasionally. He reports no dysphagia or odynophagia and his weight is stable. He has experienced occasional vomiting when symptomatic but no persistent vomiting. He denies any haematemesis and his bowel habit is stable with no rectal bleeding or black stools.
Upon examination, he has some angular stomatitis and mild glossitis. His abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses. What is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer: Refer urgently under the two week wait referral system
Correct Answer: Advise he takes the alginate preparation after meals TDS and also at night
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Upper GI Endoscopy and GORD Treatment
According to the latest NICE guidance NG12 (updated in October 2015), patients with certain symptoms should be referred for upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy. Urgent direct access upper GI endoscopy should be offered to those with dysphagia or aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent direct access upper GI endoscopy should be considered for those with haematemesis, treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, raised platelet count with certain symptoms, or nausea/vomiting with certain symptoms.
For mild gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) symptoms occurring less than once a week, antacids can be used as needed. For more frequent symptoms, a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is recommended. Initial treatment is a high dose PPI for four weeks, taken once daily 30-60 minutes before the first meal of the day. If symptoms persist after one month, offer another month at full dose. Doubling the dose of PPI can be considered for severe symptoms. If there is no response to PPI treatment, reconsider the diagnosis and consider specialist referral. A H2 receptor antagonist can be added to a PPI for patients with a partial response to PPI treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman visited her doctor with complaints of intense pain in the anal area. She reported that the pain began after she strained to have a bowel movement. She had been experiencing constipation for the past 4 days and had been using over-the-counter laxatives. During the examination, the doctor observed a painful, firm, bluish-black lump at the edge of the anus.
What is the probable reason for her symptoms?Your Answer: Thrombosed haemorrhoid
Explanation:Thrombosed haemorrhoids are characterized by severe pain and the presence of a tender lump. Upon examination, a purplish, swollen, and tender subcutaneous perianal mass can be observed. If the patient seeks medical attention within 72 hours of onset, referral for excision may be necessary. However, if the condition has progressed beyond this timeframe, patients can typically manage their symptoms with stool softeners, ice packs, and pain relief medication. Symptoms usually subside within 10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman presents with lethargy and pruritus. She reports having a normal appetite and no weight loss. Upon examination, there is no clinical jaundice or organomegaly. The following blood tests were obtained:
- Hemoglobin: 12.8 g/dL
- Platelets: 188 * 10^9/L
- White blood cells: 6.7 * 10^9/L
- Sodium: 140 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.9 mmol/L
- Urea: 6.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 68 µmol/L
- Bilirubin: 30 µmol/L
- Alkaline phosphatase: 231 U/L
- Alanine transaminase: 38 U/L
- Gamma-glutamyl transferase: 367 U/L
- Albumin: 39 g/L
What additional test is most likely to provide a diagnosis?Your Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disorder that affects middle-aged women. It is thought to be an autoimmune condition that damages interlobular bile ducts, causing progressive cholestasis and potentially leading to cirrhosis. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman. It is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Diagnosis involves immunology and imaging tests. Management includes ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine for pruritus, and liver transplantation in severe cases. Complications include cirrhosis, osteomalacia and osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Correct
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You observe a 35-year-old librarian who has been living with Crohn's disease for 18 years. She has been in remission for the past six years, but has been experiencing abdominal pain and passing bloody stools for the past week. She is seeking treatment.
She is generally healthy and takes the combined contraceptive pill and ibuprofen as needed for back pain. She smokes five cigarettes daily but doesn't consume alcohol.
What is the accurate statement regarding her condition?Your Answer: Smoking increases the risk of Crohn's disease relapse
Explanation:Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.
To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.
Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man complains of fatigue and unexplained weight loss during the past few months. He has been suffering from ulcerative colitis since his early 30s. His liver function tests show abnormalities.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biliary tract carcinoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Ulcerative Colitis and Deranged Liver Function
Ulcerative colitis (UC) is associated with various conditions, including primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), which confers a high risk for cholangiocarcinoma. Therefore, a patient with UC and deranged liver function is likely to have cancer, specifically cholangiocarcinoma. Gallstones, chronic pancreatitis, and small bowel lymphoma are less likely diagnoses due to their lack of association with UC and/or absence of relevant symptoms. Primary biliary cholangitis is a possibility, but its incidence is not increased in patients with UC. Overall, cholangiocarcinoma should be considered as a potential diagnosis in a patient with UC and deranged liver function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old nurse had a needlestick injury six months ago. She did not present immediately to Occupational Health but eventually came because she began to feel tired and lethargic. She has a raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level, anti-hepatitis B surface antibodies and anti-hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibodies. Low levels of HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA) are detected. A liver biopsy reveals early inflammatory changes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis C infection
Explanation:Explanation of Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis
Hepatitis C virus (HCV) ribonucleic acid (RNA) is detected in a patient, indicating active hepatitis C infection. The presence of anti-HCV antibodies and an 8-month history since exposure confirms that the infection is now chronic. Liver biopsy may show varying degrees of inflammation, fibrosis, and cirrhosis, with this patient exhibiting early inflammatory changes.
Autoimmune hepatitis, which is associated with antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA), is not consistent with the presence of anti-HCV antibodies and HCV RNA. Chronic hepatitis B infection is also ruled out, as the patient’s anti-hepatitis B antibodies are likely due to vaccination. Functional symptoms may cause tiredness and lethargy, but the patient’s deranged liver function tests and positive hepatitis C antibodies indicate an underlying diagnosis of hepatitis C.
Understanding Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with complaints of lower abdominal pain. He has been experiencing the pain for the past two months and has come in for an emergency appointment today because he has not had a bowel movement in a week. He cannot recall the last time he passed gas.
He mentions that his stools have been significantly looser over the past few months and that he has noticed blood in his feces on occasion. Upon examination, it is discovered that he has lost over two stone in weight since his last visit to the practice six months ago. Palpation of the abdomen reveals a soft but distended abdomen with a mass in the left lower quadrant. A rectal examination shows an empty rectum with no abnormalities.
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colonic carcinoma
Explanation:Likely Diagnosis for a 69-Year-Old with Weight Loss and Constipation
A 69-year-old man with a history of weight loss, blood in his stool, and a palpable abdominal mass is likely suffering from bowel carcinoma. His symptoms have now progressed to absolute constipation due to an obstructing tumor. Other potential diagnoses, such as diverticular abscess, faecal impaction, and inflammatory bowel disease, are less likely based on his history and examination.
A diverticular abscess typically presents with a tender mass and fever, while faecal impaction may cause a palpable mass but doesn’t typically result in weight loss or blood in the stool. Inflammatory bowel disease is rare in patients of this age and would not typically cause such significant weight loss. Overall, the patient’s symptoms are most consistent with a diagnosis of bowel carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman of African ethnic origin frequently experiences abdominal tenderness and bloating and intermittently suffers from diarrhoea. She has been dealing with these symptoms for a few years and knows that some of her family members have had similar issues. Her condition has worsened since she arrived in the UK 2 years ago, but she denies any problems with adjusting to life here. On physical examination, there are no abnormalities detected.
What is the most suitable initial management step for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of dairy-free diet
Explanation:Lactose intolerance is a common condition among people of Far-Eastern and African origin, affecting up to 85% and over 60% of these populations, respectively. This is due to a deficiency of the enzyme lactase, which breaks down lactose. In contrast, people from northern Europe are less likely to experience lactose intolerance as they have a higher lactose intake and are more likely to inherit the ability to digest lactose. Lactose intolerance can cause symptoms similar to irritable bowel syndrome, such as bloating and diarrhea, as undigested lactose is broken down by gut bacteria. Diagnosis can be confirmed through the lactose breath hydrogen test or by trialing a dairy-free diet. While a small intestinal mucosal biopsy can directly assay lactase activity, it is usually too invasive for a mild condition. Women with lactose intolerance should seek alternative sources of dietary calcium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old White woman presents to her General Practitioner with right upper quadrant pain, a liver mass, weight loss and anaemia. She describes no symptoms prior to this episode and is not on any regular medications.
She drinks around ten units of alcohol per week and was previously an intravenous (IV) drug user, although she has not done this for many years. She has no significant family history.
She is diagnosed with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC).
What is the most likely predisposing factor for this diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis C
Explanation:Understanding the Possible Causes of Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC)
Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a type of liver cancer that can be caused by various factors. In this case, the patient’s history of intravenous (IV) drug use puts her at risk of hepatitis B and C, which are the most common causes of HCC in Europe. Chronic hepatitis B or C infection can increase the risk of developing HCC by 3-5% per year, and having both infections can further increase the risk.
Alcohol abuse is also a risk factor for HCC, but in this patient’s case, her drinking is not excessive. Hereditary hemochromatosis, a condition that causes the body to absorb too much iron, can also increase the risk of HCC, but it is less common than chronic hepatitis. However, this patient’s lack of previous symptoms and family history make it unlikely that hemochromatosis is the underlying cause of her HCC.
Another possible predisposing factor for HCC is primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), an autoimmune disease that affects the liver’s bile ducts. PBC is more common in women and may present with fatigue and pruritus, but this patient’s symptoms do not fit this clinical picture.
In summary, understanding the possible causes of HCC can help in identifying the underlying factors and developing appropriate treatment plans. In this patient’s case, chronic hepatitis B or C infection is the most likely cause of her HCC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of chronic, unrelenting, dull epigastric pain radiating to her back. It is relieved when sitting forwards.
On examination, her body mass index is normal, but she says that she is losing weight; her clothes have become baggy on her. She explains that she doesn't feel like eating with the pain she is suffering.
Investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 102 g/l (normal range: 115–165 g/l) while her alkaline phosphatase level is elevated.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan
Explanation:Initial Management for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer: Abdominal CT Scan
When a patient over 60 years old presents with weight loss and abdominal pain, an urgent direct-access CT scan should be considered to assess for pancreatic cancer. Other symptoms that may indicate pancreatic cancer include diarrhea, back pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and new-onset diabetes. Patients with pancreatic cancer typically report anorexia, malaise, fatigue, mid-epigastric or back pain, and weight loss. The pain may be unrelenting and worse when lying flat.
The most characteristic sign of pancreatic carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is painless obstructive jaundice. Migratory thrombophlebitis and venous thrombosis also occur with higher frequency in patients with pancreatic cancer and may be the first presentation.
While the CA 19-9 antigen is elevated in 75-80% of patients with pancreatic carcinoma, it is not recommended for screening. An abdominal ultrasound scan may reveal a pancreatic malignancy, but a CT scan is the preferred imaging that should be carried out urgently.
Direct-access upper GI endoscopy may be appropriate for patients over 55 years old with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. However, in this case, an urgent CT scan is the most appropriate initial investigation due to the elevated alkaline phosphatase suggesting biliary obstruction. Checking ferritin levels may not be helpful in ruling in or out pancreatic cancer.
Initial Management for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer: Abdominal CT Scan
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of non-alcoholic steatohepatitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease may be considered as a potential cause of abnormal liver function tests in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You see a 36-year-old lady with weight loss, abdominal pain, loose stools and bloody diarrhoea. She has been having these symptoms for 6 weeks. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day. She drinks minimal alcohol. She had an appendicectomy 3 years ago while on holiday in Morocco. She also suffers from anal fissures and mouth ulcers.
You suspect she has Crohn's disease and you refer her to the local gastroenterology team.
Which statement below is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The median age of diagnosis for Crohn's disease is approximately 30 years old
Explanation:Crohn’s disease is typically diagnosed around the age of 30, with the median age at diagnosis being 30 years.
After an appendicectomy, the risk of Crohn’s disease increases initially but returns to the same level as the general population after approximately 5 years.
The global incidence and prevalence of Crohn’s disease are on the rise.
In contrast to ulcerative colitis, smoking is a risk factor for developing Crohn’s disease.
The use of oral contraceptive drugs may elevate the risk of inflammatory bowel disease in women.
Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.
Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include nonspecific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman has acute pancreatitis.
Which one of the following is the most likely cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mumps
Explanation:Causes of Pancreatitis: Gallstones and Alcohol
Pancreatitis is commonly caused by gallstones and alcohol. Gallstones are the most frequent cause, while alcohol is the second most common. Other causes of pancreatitis are less common.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Whilst reviewing a middle-aged patient in a GP practice, you note the following blood test results:
Hb 90 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Mean Cell Volume (MCV) 75 fL (80 - 96)
Platelets 350 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 9.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 14.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 74 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 2.3 mg/L (< 5)
What is the most likely diagnosis for this middle-aged patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Upper gastrointestinal bleed
Explanation:Elevated urea levels may suggest an upper GI bleed rather than a lower GI bleed. Iron deficiency anemia or anemia of chronic disease do not account for the increased urea. Chronic kidney disease would result in a corresponding increase in creatinine, in addition to the elevated urea. The raised urea is caused by the digestion of the substantial protein meal of blood in the upper GI tract, which would not occur in a lower GI bleed.
Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The main symptoms include haematemesis (vomiting of blood), melena (passage of altered blood per rectum), and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The diagnosis can be determined by identifying the specific features associated with a particular condition, such as stigmata of chronic liver disease for oesophageal varices or abdominal pain for peptic ulcer disease.
The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes. Oesophageal varices may present with a large volume of fresh blood, while gastric ulcers may cause low volume bleeds that present as iron deficiency anaemia. Duodenal ulcers are usually posteriorly sited and may erode the gastroduodenal artery. Aorto-enteric fistula is a rare but important cause of major haemorrhage associated with high mortality in patients with previous abdominal aortic aneurysm surgery.
The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation involves ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. Treatment options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery for non-variceal bleeding, while terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients with variceal bleeding. Band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices, and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You see a 45-year-old accountant who has Crohn's disease. His Crohn's disease has been well controlled for the last 4 years but he has recently been troubled by bloody, frequent diarrhoea and weight loss. He also has multiple mouth ulcers currently and psoriasis. He takes paracetamol and ibuprofen PRN for occasional lower back pain, which is exacerbated by his work. He smokes 10 cigarettes a day but drinks very little alcohol.
You discuss treatment options with him.
What is a correct statement regarding Crohn's disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may increase the risk of Crohn's disease relapse
Explanation:Crohn’s disease can manifest in various ways outside of the intestines, such as aphthous mouth ulcers which are linked to disease activity. However, psoriasis is an extra-intestinal manifestation of Crohn’s disease that is not related to disease activity. It is important to note that NSAIDs may heighten the likelihood of a Crohn’s disease relapse. Unlike ulcerative colitis, smoking increases the risk of Crohn’s disease. Additionally, experiencing infectious gastroenteritis can increase the risk of Crohn’s disease by four times, especially within the first year following the episode.
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.
To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.
Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman presents with painless pitting oedema of the right lower leg. It has been present for 2 months. She has noticed some abdominal bloating and has lost a little weight. There is no calf tenderness, or erythema. She has well-controlled hypertension and takes amlodipine and bendroflumethiazide.
Select from the list the single most appropriate action.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pelvic examination
Explanation:Diagnosis and Causes of Leg Swelling: Importance of History and Examination
Leg swelling can be caused by a variety of factors, and a proper diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. Bilateral swelling is often linked to systemic conditions, while unilateral swelling is more commonly due to local causes. In cases of unilateral swelling, a pelvic mass should be considered as a potential cause. While a recent deep vein thrombosis is unlikely in this patient, a careful history and examination, along with appropriate tests, are necessary to determine the underlying cause. Symptomatic treatments should not be used without a definitive diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50 year old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of increasing dyspepsia, dysphagia, and fatigue. She reports a prolonged history of dark brown stools, but no recent occurrence of fresh blood. She denies any significant weight loss and has a past surgical history of peptic ulcer disease. Upon investigation, she is found to have H. pylori infection.
What should be the subsequent course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 week referral to endoscopy
Explanation:Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.
For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.
Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You see a 44-year-old lady whose brother and nephew both died of pancreatic cancer. The lady was diagnosed with diabetes from a range of tests. In addition, she noticed that her skin started to have a yellow tinge and she complained of itching over her body.
Which is the best management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an MRI of the pancreas
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer
With a strong family history of pancreatic cancer, it is important to have a low threshold for investigating any concerning symptoms. In addition, if a patient aged 60 or over presents with weight loss and any of the following symptoms – diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes – a CT scan should be carried out urgently.
In this case, the patient has also been diagnosed with diabetes and jaundice, which further warrants an urgent referral for suspected cancer. It is important to note that an MRI should not be arranged in primary care, and the decision can be left with the specialist. Additionally, an ultrasound is not the preferred investigation in this instance.
A routine referral would be inappropriate due to the red flags highlighted in the patient’s history. With such a strong family history, it is crucial to investigate this patient further and take appropriate action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with persistent epigastric discomfort for the past 2 months. The discomfort worsens after meals and occasionally causes reflux symptoms when he lies down. Despite attempting to modify his diet, he has only experienced limited relief and has lost some weight, although he is unsure of the exact amount. He denies any difficulty swallowing or vomiting blood. He has tried over-the-counter gaviscon with little effect and is seeking further relief. Physical examination is unremarkable, with no evidence of an abdominal mass.
What is the most appropriate course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral for endoscopy
Explanation:Weight loss with dyspepsia is a concerning symptom in individuals over 55 years old and warrants urgent referral for an endoscopy to identify any underlying pathology. Helicobacter pylori testing may not be the most appropriate option in this case. Symptomatic relief can be provided with proton-pump inhibitors or ranitidine, but they do not rule out any underlying pathology.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.
For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.
Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to her doctor with jaundice, anorexia, nausea, and mild tenderness in the right upper abdomen. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and feeling ill. What is the probable reason for her jaundice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Viral hepatitis
Explanation:Liver Disorders During Pregnancy: Causes and Consequences
During pregnancy, the liver can be affected by various disorders that can have serious consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Here are some of the most common liver disorders that can occur during pregnancy:
1. Viral Hepatitis: Hepatitis B is the most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy, especially in developing countries. While most viral hepatitis infections are not affected by pregnancy, hepatitis E can be fatal for pregnant women.
2. Acute Fatty Liver of Pregnancy: This rare disorder can progress to liver failure and usually occurs late in pregnancy. Early delivery can lead to complete recovery.
3. Gallstones: This is the second most common abdominal emergency in pregnant women and can cause severe pain in the right upper quadrant.
4. Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: This disorder is characterized by itching and elevated serum bile acids and can lead to serious complications for the fetus, including stillbirth.
5. Pre-eclamptic Liver Disease and HELLP Syndrome: Jaundice may occur in 3-10% of pre-eclamptic pregnancies, and prompt delivery is the most effective treatment for HELLP syndrome.
It is important for pregnant women to be aware of these liver disorders and to seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications for both the mother and the fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman has a 3-week history of increasing jaundice and dark urine. In the past 4 months she has noticed intermittent loose, pale stools and has lost 6 kg in weight. On examination she is thin and jaundiced, with epigastric tenderness and a palpable gallbladder. Urine dipstick shows glucose +++, bilirubin +++ and urobilinogen +.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas
Explanation:Courvoisier’s Law and Obstructive Jaundice in Diagnosing Pancreatic Carcinoma
Courvoisier’s law is a crucial factor in diagnosing the cause of jaundice. If a palpable gallbladder is present in the presence of jaundice, it is unlikely to be due to gallstones. This is because gallstones cause a fibrotic gallbladder that will not distend in the presence of obstruction of the common bile duct. However, absence of Courvoisier’s sign doesn’t rule out malignancy.
In cases of obstructive jaundice, haemochromatosis can be excluded as a cause. The initial symptoms of haemochromatosis are usually vague and nonspecific, such as fatigue, weakness, arthropathy, and nonspecific abdominal problems.
Of the three obstructive neoplastic processes that remain, carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is the only one that will cause glycosuria. Therefore, the development of diabetes in anyone who is non-obese and over 50 years old without definite risk factors should raise suspicion of pancreatic carcinoma.
In conclusion, understanding Courvoisier’s law and the exclusions of other potential causes of obstructive jaundice is crucial in diagnosing pancreatic carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A client is administered ondansetron for chemotherapy-induced vomiting. What is the most probable adverse effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Constipation
Explanation:Understanding 5-HT3 Antagonists
5-HT3 antagonists are a type of medication used to treat nausea, particularly in patients undergoing chemotherapy. These drugs work by targeting the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the medulla oblongata, which is responsible for triggering nausea and vomiting. Examples of 5-HT3 antagonists include ondansetron and palonosetron, with the latter being a second-generation drug that has the advantage of having a reduced effect on the QT interval.
While 5-HT3 antagonists are generally well-tolerated, they can have some adverse effects. One of the most significant concerns is the potential for a prolonged QT interval, which can increase the risk of arrhythmias and other cardiac complications. Additionally, constipation is a common side effect of these medications. Overall, 5-HT3 antagonists are an important tool in the management of chemotherapy-induced nausea, but their use should be carefully monitored to minimize the risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has a 25-year history of ulcerative colitis. He has had courses of prednisolone for exacerbations in the past but has never persisted with prophylactic medication. He has not had a hospital review for many years. He has now had a change in bowel habit for six months, with increasing diarrhoea.
Which of the following is the single most important management step for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent colonoscopy
Explanation:Management of a Patient with Subacute Change in Bowel Habit and Ulcerative Colitis
Patients with ulcerative colitis have an increased risk of developing colonic adenocarcinoma, which starts 8-10 years after the onset of the disease. Surveillance colonoscopy is recommended every 1-2 years to assess for dysplasia. In a patient with a long-standing disease and a new change in bowel habit, there should be a high index of suspicion for malignancy, especially if routine surveillance has been missed.
An abdominal plain X-ray may be useful in acute presentations of ulcerative colitis, but it is not the best choice for subacute changes in bowel habit. Oral mesalazine may reduce the risk of developing colorectal cancer, but it doesn’t address the red flags in this case.
Oral prednisolone may be prescribed to see if there is any resolution of symptoms, but the priority is an urgent colonoscopy to rule out a new diagnosis of colorectal cancer.
Stool microscopy and culture are unlikely to be helpful in this case, as there is no acute-onset diarrhea or recent foreign travel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male presents with central abdominal pain that radiates to the back and vomiting. His amylase level is 1,245 u/dl. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner for a consultation. She recently underwent bowel cancer screening and had to have a colonoscopy, which revealed the presence of four small benign polyps (< 10mm) that were completely removed. Her discharge letter mentions that she will be seen again, and she is curious if she will require another colonoscopy. What is the most suitable level of routine surveillance for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy at 3 years
Explanation:Stratification of Colorectal Cancer Risk Based on Adenoma Findings
Colorectal cancer risk can be categorized based on the findings of adenomas at baseline and subsequent surveillance examinations. Low risk individuals have one or two adenomas less than 10mm and require no follow-up or a colonoscopy every five years until one is negative. Intermediate risk individuals have three or four adenomas, or one or two adenomas with one larger than 10mm, and require a colonoscopy every three years until two consecutive colonoscopies are negative. High risk individuals have five or more adenomas, or three or four adenomas with one larger than 10mm, and require a colonoscopy at 12 months before returning to three-yearly surveillance.
It is widely accepted that most colorectal cancers arise from adenomas, which have a prevalence of 30-40% at 60 years. However, the lifetime cumulative incidence of colorectal cancer is only 5.5%, indicating that many adenomas do not progress. The risk of malignancy increases with adenoma size, with flat or depressed adenomas progressing more rapidly than polypoid adenomas. While there is no direct evidence, observational studies suggest that polypectomy can reduce cancer mortality. However, there is no evidence that further colonoscopies provide greater benefit than the initial clearance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner in her 28th week of pregnancy. After an uneventful first and second trimester to date, she has developed widespread itching over the last three weeks and she now has mild jaundice. Her bilirubin is 80 μmol/l (normal <21 μmol/l), alanine aminotransferase (ALT) at 82 IU/l (normal <40 IU/l), and the alkaline phosphatase is markedly raised.
Which of the following is the diagnosis that fits best with this clinical picture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
Explanation:Liver Disorders in Pregnancy: Differential Diagnosis
During pregnancy, various liver disorders can occur, leading to abnormal liver function tests. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is the most common pregnancy-related liver disorder, affecting 0.1-1.5% of pregnancies. It typically presents in the late second or early third trimester with generalized itching, starting on the palms and soles. An elevated alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is a more sensitive marker than aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and a fasting serum bile acid concentration of greater than 10 mmol/l is the key diagnostic test. Primary biliary cholangitis and acute fatty liver of pregnancy are less likely diagnoses, while cholelithiasis and hyperemesis gravidarum have different clinical presentations. Early diagnosis and management of liver disorders in pregnancy are crucial to prevent adverse outcomes such as prematurity and stillbirth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man has recently attended a well-man clinic. He is in good health and reports no symptoms. His body mass index is 22 kg/m2. He takes no regular medication. He is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 3 units of alcohol per week. He presents to you for review of his blood tests, as shown below:
- eGFR 92 mL/min/1.73m2
- HBA1c 38 mmol/mol
- Bilirubin 12 umol/l (3 - 17 umol/l)
- Alanine transferase (ALT) 70 iu/l (3 - 40 iu/l)
- Aspartate transaminase (AST) 30 iu/l (3 - 30 iu/l)
- Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 95 umol/l (30 - 100 umol/l)
- Gamma glutamyl transferase (yGT) 55 u/l (8 - 60 u/l)
- Total protein 72 g/l (60 - 80 g/l)
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a liver screen including a liver ultrasound and blood tests, and review the patient with the results
Explanation:It is common for incidental raised liver function tests to persist even after a month, and normalised liver function tests do not necessarily indicate the absence or resolution of chronic liver diseases. Standard liver screen blood tests include Antinuclear antibody, anti-smooth muscle antibody, serum immunoglobulins, anti-mitochondrial antibody, ferritin, transferrin saturation, and a viral hepatitis screen.
Given that the patient is currently well, there is no need for immediate hepatology review. Urgent hepatology referral within two weeks is also unnecessary as the patient is not exhibiting any concerning symptoms.
Since the patient is consuming alcohol within recommended limits, there is no need for a referral for FibroScan (transient elastography).
According to current guidelines, repeating liver function tests after an initial abnormal result is not recommended as they are unlikely to normalise unless an acute cause has been identified. Waiting for 12 months to repeat the bloods is also inappropriate.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A very sensible parent brings her 9-year-old into the surgery for review. She is concerned as her child is complaining of recurrent episodes of dull abdominal pain and missing significant days off school. Your physical examination is entirely normal.
What would count most against a diagnosis of functional recurrent abdominal pain in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Above average intellectual ability
Explanation:Recurrent Abdominal Pain in Children
Recurrent abdominal pain is a common complaint among children over the age of five, with approximately 10% experiencing it. It is crucial to determine the nature of the pain, its impact on the child’s daily life, and how the child and their family cope with it. Organic causes, such as gastrointestinal, urological, haematological, and miscellaneous causes, must be ruled out. Non-organic pain is suggested by peri-umbilical pain, and vomiting may be present, but weight loss is rare. Other important questions to ask include the timing of the pain, associated symptoms, family history, and social history. Physical examination is often unhelpful, and investigations are unlikely to provide a diagnosis when non-organic pain is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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What is one of the most common symptoms observed in individuals with Cow's milk protein intolerance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stridor
Explanation:Cow’s Milk and Soy Intolerance in Infants
Cow’s milk intolerance in infants can lead to anaphylactic responses, but it is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal effects and malabsorption, resulting in diarrhea. One of the most common symptoms of cow’s milk protein allergy (CMPA) is bloody stool. On the other hand, adverse reactions to soy have been reported in 10-35% of infants with CMPA. Soy may be considered as an alternative for infants over 6 months who refuse to drink extensively hydrolyzed formula and/or amino acid formula. However, soy formulations contain high concentrations of phytate, aluminum, and phytoestrogens (isoflavones), which may have undesired effects. Therefore, it is important to monitor infants for any adverse reactions when introducing soy-based formulas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has abnormal liver function tests. He tests positive for anti-HCV and HCV RNA.
Select from the list the single correct statement about hepatitis C.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Co-infection with HIV results in more rapid progression of liver disease
Explanation:Hepatitis C: A Silent Threat to Liver Health
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that often goes unnoticed in its acute phase, with only a minority of patients presenting with symptoms such as jaundice or abnormal liver enzymes. Unfortunately, the majority of patients do not clear the infection and go on to develop chronic disease, which can remain undetected for decades. The primary mode of transmission is through intravenous drug use and sharing needles, although sexual transmission is possible, especially in those co-infected with HIV. Needle-stick injuries and exposure to infected blood also pose a risk of transmission. Unfortunately, there is no post-exposure vaccine or effective preventative treatment. Factors that increase the risk of rapid progression of liver disease include male sex, age over 40, alcohol consumption, and co-infection with HIV or hepatitis B. With the increased survival of HIV patients, end-stage liver disease due to HCV infection has become a significant problem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has had dysphagia for three weeks. He thinks it is getting worse. He has lost a small amount of weight.
What is the best course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check an FBC and then consider referral
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Endoscopy in Suspected Oesophageal Cancer
This man requires an urgent referral for endoscopy as he may have cancer of the oesophagus. As a medical professional, it is important to identify alarm symptoms and understand referral guidelines that may apply. In this case, the patient’s dysphagia and weight loss are concerning and require urgent attention. An urgent referral is defined as one where the patient should be seen within two weeks.
It is crucial to get this question right, as nearly 20% of respondents did not refer this patient urgently. If you answered incorrectly, take a moment to review the latest NICE guidance to update your knowledge. Practice questions like these can highlight areas of knowledge deficiency and stimulate further learning. By remembering this scenario, you will be better equipped to handle similar situations in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man complains of frequent palpitations. These usually occur when he eats and subside abruptly after he finishes eating. They are not accompanied by chest pain, but, on occasion, he also feels lightheaded. He has no reflux symptoms or dyspepsia. He is otherwise well and on presentation his blood pressure is 136/84 mmHg, his pulse is in sinus rhythm, and examination of his heart and abdomen are normal. His electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.
What is the most appropriate investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 24 hour portable electrocardiogram (ECG)
Explanation:The Most Appropriate Investigation for Palpitations and Dizziness: A Cardiac Investigation
When a patient presents with palpitations and dizziness, a cardiac cause is often suspected. While the association with food may be a red herring, the combination of symptoms suggests a need for further investigation. An ECG or examination of the pulse may not reveal an underlying cause unless the patient is experiencing symptoms at that exact moment. Therefore, a 24 hour portable ECG is often recommended to assess the cardiac rhythm over a longer period of time.
A chest X-ray is unlikely to be helpful in the absence of chest pain or respiratory symptoms. Similarly, an endoscopy may be indicated for dyspeptic symptoms, but the history of palpitations and dizziness suggests a cardiac cause. H. pylori testing is only relevant for dyspeptic symptoms, and thyroid function tests are important for anyone experiencing palpitations, as hyperthyroidism can be a cause.
In summary, when a patient presents with palpitations and dizziness, a cardiac investigation is the most appropriate first step. A 24 hour portable ECG can provide valuable information about the cardiac rhythm over a longer period of time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits the GP clinic complaining of rectal bleeding that has been ongoing for two days. He has experienced eight episodes of diarrhoea in the past 24 hours, with visible blood mixed with stool. He also reports feeling nauseous and having abdominal pain. The patient has a medical history of ulcerative colitis, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes, and is currently taking mesalazine enteric coated 800 mg twice daily, amlodipine 10 mg once daily, and metformin 500mg twice daily.
During the examination, the patient appears pale and has a temperature of 38ºC. His heart rate is 108/min, and his blood pressure is 112/74 mmHg. The abdominal exam reveals generalised tenderness and guarding, but no rebound tenderness.
What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent hospital admission
Explanation:The appropriate course of action for a severe flare-up of ulcerative colitis is urgent hospital admission for IV corticosteroids. This is based on the Truelove and Witts’ severity index, which indicates that the patient is experiencing a severe flare-up due to symptoms such as opening their bowels more than 6 times per day and systemic upset (e.g. fever and tachycardia). NICE guidelines recommend immediate hospital admission for assessment and treatment with IV corticosteroids. It should be noted that a short course of oral steroids or rectal mesalazine may be used for mild to moderate flare-ups, while loperamide and dose increases of mesalazine are not appropriate for managing severe flare-ups.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits you a few days after seeing his neurologist. He has a history of idiopathic Parkinson's disease that was diagnosed a few years ago. Apart from that, he has no other medical history. Lately, his symptoms have been getting worse, so his neurologist increased his levodopa dosage.
He complains of feeling very nauseous and vomiting multiple times a day since starting the higher dose of levodopa. He requests that you prescribe something to help alleviate the vomiting.
What is the most suitable anti-emetic to prescribe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Domperidone
Explanation:Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.
Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.
It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of recurrent central abdominal pain that she has been experiencing for a long time. The pain usually subsides when she has a bowel movement. She has an irregular bowel pattern, with instances of both constipation and diarrhea. She has never observed any blood in her feces, and her weight has remained constant.
Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of the probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central abdominal pain
Explanation:Understanding Irritable Bowel Syndrome: Symptoms and Red Flags
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a group of symptoms that affect the intestinal motility, causing central or lower abdominal pain, bloating, alternating constipation and diarrhea, rectal mucous, and tenesmus. However, it is important to note that IBS doesn’t cause rectal bleeding or unintentional weight loss.
While a high-fiber diet may not necessarily relieve symptoms of IBS, nocturnal diarrhea may indicate an underlying organic disease and should prompt further investigation. It is crucial to recognize these red flag symptoms and seek medical attention to determine the underlying cause.
Understanding the symptoms and red flags of IBS can help individuals manage their condition and seek appropriate medical care when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man reports that he has noticed black tarry stools over the last 2 weeks. He has vomited a small amount of blood.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Melaena can result from oesophageal varices
Explanation:Understanding Melaena: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Melaena is a medical condition characterized by black tarry stools, which is often caused by an acute upper gastrointestinal bleed. The bleeding can occur in the oesophagus, stomach, duodenum, small bowel, or right side of the colon, with peptic ulcer disease being the most common cause. In some cases, melaena may be the only symptom of bleeding from oesophageal varices, which are associated with portal hypertension.
Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention, as it can be life-threatening. Patients who are haemodynamically unstable should undergo endoscopy within 2 hours after resuscitation, while other patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. It is important to note that proton pump inhibitors should not be given before endoscopy.
Patients who are at higher risk of complications include those aged over 60 years and those with co-morbidities. The mortality rate for patients with acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding in hospital is around 10%. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention promptly if you experience symptoms of melena or haematemesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to his GP clinic complaining of persistent diarrhoea. He has a medical history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.
He was recently hospitalized for pneumonia and received IV antibiotics. While in the hospital, he developed watery diarrhoea, nausea, and abdominal discomfort. After a stool sample, he was prescribed a 10-day course of oral vancomycin and discharged home. However, his diarrhoea has not improved.
Upon examination, he appears alert, his vital signs are normal, and his abdomen is non-tender.
What would be the next course of treatment to consider?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fidaxomicin
Explanation:If initial treatment with vancomycin is ineffective against Clostridium difficile, the next recommended option is oral fidaxomicin, unless the infection is life-threatening.
Based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, it is likely that he has contracted Clostridium difficile infection due to his recent antibiotic use and possible use of proton-pump inhibitors. Therefore, oral fidaxomicin would be the appropriate second-line treatment option.
Continuing with vancomycin would not be the best course of action, as fidaxomicin is recommended as the next step if vancomycin is ineffective.
Using loperamide for symptom relief is not recommended in cases of suspected Clostridium difficile infection, as it may slow down the clearance of toxins produced by the bacteria.
Piperacillin-tazobactam is not a suitable treatment option for Clostridium difficile infection, as it is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that can increase the risk of developing the infection.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman has observed abdominal swelling for a few months, along with some abdominal tenderness. She has normochromic, normocytic anaemia, a decreased serum albumin level, and an elevated creatinine level of 180 μmol/l (normal 60–110 μmol/l). Her cancer antigen-125 level is elevated.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ovarian carcinoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Distension and Elevated Creatinine Level
Abdominal distension and elevated creatinine level can be indicative of various medical conditions. In the following vignette, ovarian carcinoma is the most likely diagnosis due to the presence of ascites, abnormal urea and electrolytes, elevated cancer antigen-125, normochromic, normocytic anaemia, and low albumin level. However, other conditions such as cirrhosis of the liver, diverticulitis, subacute intestinal obstruction, and uterine fibroids should also be considered and ruled out through further diagnostic testing and evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of long-standing intermittent abdominal distension and bloating, which changes with her menstrual cycle, and is interspersed with bouts of loose motions. She works as a teacher in a busy school and finds work stressful. She has previously taken a course of fluoxetine for depression or anxiety. Examination of the abdomen is normal.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Common Gastrointestinal Disorders: Differential Diagnosis
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a prevalent gastrointestinal disorder affecting 10-20% of the UK population, with a higher incidence in females and those with underlying anxiety. Symptoms include abdominal pain or discomfort, bloating, and change in bowel habit lasting for at least six months. Defecation may provide relief, while eating can exacerbate symptoms. Other common symptoms include lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder problems. Diagnosis is based on clinical presentation, as examination and investigations are typically normal.
Ulcerative colitis is a potential differential diagnosis if the patient presents with pain or blood in their stool. However, the long history of symptoms without significant systemic illness, normal examination, and links to stress/menstruation in this case suggest IBS. Normal inflammatory markers would support this diagnosis.
Chronic pancreatitis is characterized by persistent inflammation or damage, often linked to alcohol excess. The primary symptom is significant pain, which is not present in this case.
Diverticulitis is an acute presentation, with left iliac fossa pain, change in bowel habit, bleeding per rectum, and systemic illness. The chronic course, combination of symptoms, and normal examination make this diagnosis unlikely.
Peptic ulcer disease is also unlikely, as it typically causes pain linked to eating, nausea or vomiting, and is acute or progressive in nature. While stress can be a trigger, it is not the primary cause of this disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents to his GP with symptoms of acid reflux. Upon testing positive for Helicobacter pylori, he undergoes triple therapy with amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole. He is also taking ramipril and amlodipine for his hypertension. After completing the course of amoxicillin and clarithromycin, he continues on omeprazole.
Several months later, he returns to his GP with complaints of muscle aches. His blood test results are as follows:
- Hb: 150 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180)
- Platelets: 215 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
- WBC: 5 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
- Na+: 142 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
- K+: 3.9 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
- Bicarbonate: 24 mmol/L (normal range: 22-29)
- Urea: 4 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine: 75 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
- Calcium: 2.4 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
- Phosphate: 1.2 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4)
- Magnesium: 0.53 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0)
- Creatine kinase: 51 U/L (normal range: 35-250)
Which medication is most likely responsible for the patient's muscle aches?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:Hypomagnesaemia, a condition that can lead to muscle weakness, is a potential side effect of long-term use of proton pump inhibitors. Although rare, this effect may occur after 3 months or more commonly after 1 year of therapy. However, clarithromycin, ramipril, amlodipine, and amoxicillin are not associated with hypomagnesaemia.
Understanding Proton Pump Inhibitors
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are medications that work by blocking the H+/K+ ATPase in the stomach parietal cells. This action is irreversible and helps to reduce the amount of acid produced in the stomach. Examples of PPIs include omeprazole and lansoprazole.
Despite their effectiveness in treating conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers, PPIs can have adverse effects. These include hyponatremia and hypomagnesemia, which are low levels of sodium and magnesium in the blood, respectively. Prolonged use of PPIs can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, leading to an increased risk of fractures. Additionally, there is a potential for microscopic colitis and an increased risk of C. difficile infections.
It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of PPIs with your healthcare provider and to use them only as directed. Regular monitoring of electrolyte levels and bone density may also be necessary for those on long-term PPI therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with profound tiredness and a lack of appetite which have been present for about a week. He has just returned from a gap-year trip to Thailand and noticed he was jaundiced just before coming home. He also experienced a fever, but this subsided once his jaundice appeared. He has no sexual history, doesn't abuse intravenous (IV) drugs and did not receive a blood transfusion or get a tattoo or piercing during his trip.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 9.0 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 950 IU/l < 40 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 150 IU/l 25–130 IU/l
Bilirubin 240 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
Albumin 40 g/l 38–50 g/l
Prothrombin time (PT) 12.0 s 12.0–14.8 s
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A (Hep A)
Explanation:Based on the patient’s symptoms and history, the most likely diagnosis is Hepatitis A. The initial fever, anorexia, and malaise followed by jaundice and elevated liver enzymes are typical of Hep A. A confirmation test for anti-Hep A immunoglobulin M can be done. Hep A is not common in the UK but is more prevalent in areas with poor sanitation, especially among travelers. Cytomegalovirus infection can also cause a mononucleosis-like syndrome with fever, splenomegaly, and mild liver enzyme increases, but rises in ALP and bilirubin are less common. Hep B and C are unlikely as there are no risk factors in the patient’s history. Leptospirosis, which is associated with exposure to rat-infected water and conjunctival suffusion, is less likely than Hep A.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has been experiencing abdominal pain and intermittent bloody diarrhoea for the past 4 months. She has a history of perianal abscess. Her blood test shows hypochromic, microcytic anaemia and mild hypokalaemia. Although her liver function tests are normal, her albumin is reduced. Barium imaging reveals a small bowel stricture with evidence of mucosal ulceration extending into the colon, interspersed with normal looking mucosa ‘skipping’. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crohn's disease
Explanation:Understanding Crohn’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. The most commonly affected sites are the ileocecal region and the colon. Patients with Crohn’s disease experience relapses and remissions, with symptoms including low-grade fever, prolonged diarrhea, right lower quadrant or periumbilical pain, weight loss, and fatigue. Perianal disease may also occur, with symptoms such as perirectal pain, malodorous discharge, and fistula formation. Extra-intestinal manifestations may include arthritis, erythema nodosum, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.
To establish a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease, ileocolonoscopy and biopsies from affected areas are first-line procedures. A cobblestone-like appearance is often seen, representing areas of ulceration separated by narrow areas of healthy tissue. Barium follow-through examination is useful for looking for inflammation and narrowing of the small bowel.
Differential diagnosis for Crohn’s disease include coeliac disease, small bowel lymphoma, tropical sprue, and ulcerative colitis. Coeliac disease presents as a malabsorption syndrome with weight loss and steatorrhoea, while small bowel lymphoma is rare and presents with nonspecific symptoms such as abdominal pain and weight loss. Tropical sprue is a post-infectious malabsorption syndrome that occurs in tropical areas, and ulcerative colitis may be clinically indistinguishable from colonic Crohn’s disease but lacks the small bowel involvement and skip lesions seen in Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Benjamin, who has been struggling with bowel issues, has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome based on routine blood tests and his medical history. He experiences loose stool and abdominal discomfort, which is relieved after bowel movements, but there is no presence of blood in his stool. Despite increasing his fiber intake with brown rice, high bran cereals, and grains, as well as consuming three portions of fresh fruit daily for the past 18 months, his symptoms persist. What dietary recommendations would be suitable for him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduce insoluble fibre intake
Explanation:Loose stool and bloating have been linked to the consumption of insoluble fibre found in foods like brown rice, bran cereals, and grains. As a result, it is recommended to decrease the intake of insoluble fibre.
To maintain a healthy digestive system, it is suggested to limit the consumption of fresh fruit to a maximum of three portions per day. There is currently no scientific evidence to support the use of aloe vera or prebiotics.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman complains of abdominal discomfort, bloating, and a change in bowel habit with looser, more frequent stools. She has been experiencing these symptoms since her husband passed away 3 months ago. Her daughter believes she may have irritable bowel syndrome and is seeking treatment. What is the recommended course of action for managing her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 week referral to secondary care
Explanation:This woman has exhibited a concerning symptom of experiencing loose stools for over 6 weeks, which is a red flag indicator. Given her age of over 60 years, it is important to discuss the potential of an underlying cancer and refer her to secondary care for further testing within 2 weeks to rule out the possibility of bowel cancer.
Colorectal cancer referral guidelines were updated by NICE in 2015. Patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, those who are 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, and those who are 60 years or older with iron deficiency anaemia or a change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients with positive results for occult blood in their faeces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should be considered if there is a rectal or abdominal mass, an unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or if patients under 50 years old have rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anaemia.
The NHS offers a national screening programme for colorectal cancer every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia, and those who are 60 years or older who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 30-year old with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis is initiated on mesalazine following a recent weaning off of high dose steroids. After two weeks, he experiences intense discomfort in his epigastrium and upper right quadrant. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:When it comes to the risk of pancreatitis, mesalazine is more likely to cause it than sulfasalazine. Although oral aminosalicylates can cause gastric side-effects such as diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, and colitis exacerbation, acute pancreatitis is a rare but possible complication.
Aminosalicylate Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Aminosalicylate drugs are commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These drugs work by releasing 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) in the colon, which acts as an anti-inflammatory agent. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.
Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA. However, many of the side effects associated with this drug are due to the sulphapyridine component, such as rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Mesalazine is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, it is still associated with side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis.
Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken down by colonic bacteria. It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, a full blood count is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking these drugs. Pancreatitis is also more common in patients taking mesalazine compared to sulfasalazine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a known complication of coeliac disease in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersplenism
Explanation:Coeliac disease is associated with hypo-, rather than hypersplenism.
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of scleroderma presents with recurrent bouts of diarrhoea for the past few months. Her stools are pale, bulky, and offensive during these episodes. She consumes 14 units of alcohol per week. Laboratory tests reveal the following results:
- Hemoglobin: 10.8 g/dl
- Platelets: 231 * 109/l
- White blood cells: 5.4 * 109/l
- Ferritin: 14 ng/ml
- Vitamin B12: 170 ng/l
- Folate: 2.2 nmol/l
- Sodium: 142 mmol/l
- Potassium: 3.4 mmol/l
- Urea: 4.5 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 77 µmol/l
- Bilirubin: 21 µmol/l
- Alkaline phosphatase: 88 u/l
- Alanine transaminase: 21 u/l
- Gamma-glutamyl transferase: 55 u/l
- Albumin: 36 g/l
What is the most likely complication that has occurred in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malabsorption syndrome
Explanation:Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) frequently leads to malabsorption syndrome, which is characterized by reduced absorption of certain vitamins (B12, folate), nutrients (iron), and protein (low albumin) as indicated by blood tests.
Understanding Malabsorption: Causes and Symptoms
Malabsorption is a condition that is characterized by diarrhea, weight loss, and steatorrhea. It occurs when the body is unable to absorb nutrients from the food that is consumed. The causes of malabsorption can be broadly divided into three categories: intestinal, pancreatic, and biliary. Intestinal causes include conditions such as coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease, tropical sprue, Whipple’s disease, Giardiasis, and brush border enzyme deficiencies. Pancreatic causes include chronic pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, and pancreatic cancer. Biliary causes include biliary obstruction and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other causes of malabsorption include bacterial overgrowth, short bowel syndrome, and lymphoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 16-month-old boy recently treated for constipation is seen for review.
Six weeks ago, his parents brought him in and he was diagnosed with constipation. He was prescribed Movicol® Paediatric Plain sachets and given dietary advice. Following this, the child was able to open his bowels regularly with soft, well-formed stools.
Two weeks ago, the parents stopped the laxative and the child has once again developed problems. On further questioning, he is opening his bowels maximum twice a week and the stools are described as hard balls.
What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Restart the Movicol® Paediatric Plain but continue treatment for a longer period before slowly tapering
Explanation:Importance of Continuing Laxative Treatment for Children with Constipation
Early and abrupt cessation of treatment is the most common cause of relapse in children with constipation. Once a regular pattern of bowel habit is established, maintenance laxative should be continued for several weeks and gradually tapered off over a period of months based on stool consistency and frequency. It may take up to six months of maintenance treatment to retrain the bowel, and some children may require laxative treatment for several years.
The use of Movicol® Paediatric Plain sachets has been effective in establishing regular soft stools, but discontinuing the treatment has caused the problem to resurface. It is not recommended to switch to an alternative laxative or combine Movicol® Paediatric Plain with a stimulant laxative. The best approach is to restart the same laxative and continue its use for a longer period before tapering cautiously.
At this point, there is no need for referral to a pediatrician or blood tests. However, it is important to emphasize the importance of continuing laxative treatment as prescribed to prevent relapse and maintain regular bowel habits in children with constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman receives a bowel cancer screening kit in the mail for the first time. She has no symptoms and her medical and family history are unremarkable. How frequently will she be invited for screening over the next decade?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Every 2 years
Explanation:Individuals between the ages of 60 to 74 years are recommended to undergo bowel cancer screening every 2 years.
Colorectal Cancer Screening with FIT Test
Overview:
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS provides home-based screening for older adults through the Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT). Although a one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England, it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was further exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. However, the trial showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used in future bowel screening programmes.Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS offers a national screening programme every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests as it only detects human haemoglobin, not animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. Although a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.Colonoscopy:
Approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man undergoes occupational health screening blood tests. His anti-Hepatitis C virus (anti-HCV) test returns positive. On examination, he is feeling well with no signs of liver disease. He has no other comorbidities.
What is the most important next test to perform for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis C (HCV) ribonucleic acid (RNA)
Explanation:Common Tests for Hepatitis C and Co-Infections
Hepatitis C (HCV) is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are several tests available to diagnose and monitor HCV, as well as to screen for co-infections with other viruses. Here are some of the most common tests used:
1. HCV RNA: This test detects the presence of HCV ribonucleic acid in the blood, which is the most sensitive way to diagnose HCV infection. It can detect the virus within 1-2 weeks after infection and can confirm ongoing infection if antibodies are positive.
2. HBV DNA: This test measures the amount of hepatitis B virus deoxyribonucleic acid in the blood, which can help monitor the viral load of hepatitis B. Since HBV and HCV can coexist, it’s important to screen for both viruses.
3. Anti-HIV antibodies: HIV and HCV share many of the same risk factors, so patients with HCV should be screened for HIV. However, it’s important to first confirm the diagnosis of HCV before testing for HIV.
4. AST and ALT: These enzymes are released into the bloodstream when the liver is damaged, which can indicate HCV infection. However, they are nonspecific and cannot confirm a diagnosis on their own.
5. IgM anti-HAV: This test detects recent infection with hepatitis A, which can coexist with HCV. However, confirming the diagnosis of HCV is the first priority.
Overall, these tests can help diagnose and monitor HCV, as well as screen for co-infections with other viruses. It’s important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best testing strategy for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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You encounter a client who is worried about having coeliac disease. They have recently reintroduced gluten in their diet. How long should the client be consuming gluten before NICE suggests testing for coeliac disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Coeliac Disease Testing
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), individuals who are being tested for coeliac disease should have consumed gluten-containing foods equivalent to at least 4 slices of bread over the previous 6 weeks. Additionally, they should be consuming these foods at least twice per day during this time. This is important because consuming gluten is necessary to trigger the immune response that leads to the production of antibodies, which are used to diagnose coeliac disease. Therefore, it is essential that individuals do not follow a gluten-free diet before being tested for coeliac disease. Following these guidelines can help ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment for individuals with coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old overweight woman presents to her General Practitioner with right upper-quadrant pain after eating. She drinks around 13 units of alcohol per week.
She undergoes some blood tests:
Investigation Result Normal value
γ-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 90 IU/l 11–50 IU/l
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 48 IU/l 4–45 IU/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 48 IU/l < 40 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 240 IU/l 25–130 IU/l
Bilirubin 23 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
Albumin 40 g/l 38–50 g/l
Prothrombin time (PT) 12 s 12–14.8 s
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gallstones
Explanation:Interpreting Liver Enzyme Results: Differential Diagnosis
When interpreting liver enzyme results, it is important to consider the pattern of elevation and accompanying symptoms to arrive at a differential diagnosis. Here are some possible diagnoses for a patient with elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) levels:
Gallstones: A cholestatic picture with a more significant rise in ALP and GGT over alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transaminase (AST) suggests an obstructive or cholestatic condition. Accompanied by right upper-quadrant pain after eating, gallstones are the most likely diagnosis.
Alcohol abuse: Disproportionate elevation of GGT compared to other liver enzymes may indicate alcohol abuse or alcoholic liver disease. In this case, the ALP is also elevated to the same extent as the GGT, but the patient drinks below the recommended alcohol intake per week.
Paget’s disease: Paget’s disease may cause bone pain and elevated ALP levels. However, the accompanying rise in GGT provides a sensitive indicator of hepatobiliary disease, which is not associated with skeletal disease.
Pancreatitis: Although raised GGT levels have been reported in pancreatic disease, the accompanying derangement of other liver enzymes suggests a liver or biliary cause.
Viral hepatitis: A cholestatic picture with more significant rises in ALP and GGT over ALT and AST is not typical of acute hepatitis, which presents with a hepatocellular picture.
In summary, interpreting liver enzyme results requires careful consideration of the pattern of elevation and accompanying symptoms to arrive at a differential diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic, having just returned from living in Canada. He tells you he had a colonoscopy six months earlier; a polyp in the ascending colon was removed and this was classified as a Dukes' B tumour. He wonders if he needs further checks according to current guidance for surveillance after resection of colorectal cancer. What would you advise him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serial carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) monitoring
Explanation:Post-Treatment Surveillance Strategies for Colorectal Cancer: The Role of CEA Monitoring, Colonoscopy, and CT Scans
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a protein that is elevated in the serum of patients with colorectal cancer. While not suitable for screening, CEA levels can be used to monitor disease burden and predict prognosis in patients with established disease. Additionally, elevated preoperative CEA levels should return to baseline after complete resection, and failure to do so may indicate residual disease. Serial CEA testing can also aid in the early detection of recurrences, which can increase the likelihood of a complete resection.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends regular serum CEA tests (at least every six months in the first three years) and a minimum of two CT scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis in the first three years after treatment. Surveillance colonoscopy should be performed one year after initial treatment, and if normal, another colonoscopy should be performed at five years. The timing of colonoscopy after adenoma should be determined by the risk status of the adenoma.
While periodic colonoscopy is beneficial for detecting metachronous cancers and preventing further cancers via removal of adenomatous polyps, trials have failed to show a survival benefit from annual or shorter intervals compared to less frequent intervals (three or five years) for detecting anastomotic recurrences. Routine fecal occult blood testing is not recommended in post-treatment surveillance guidelines.
In summary, post-treatment surveillance strategies for colorectal cancer should include serial CEA monitoring, CT scans, and colonoscopy at recommended intervals. These strategies can aid in the early detection of recurrences and improve the likelihood of a complete resection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady visited the GP for the treatment of her haemorrhoids and was prescribed a topical treatment containing corticosteroids and local anesthetic. She was not given any instructions on how long to use this treatment for and has now come to seek advice on the duration of treatment.
What is the SINGLE MOST suitable advice to give her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Corticosteroid preparations can only be used for 2 days, but local anaesthetic use can continue for 2 weeks
Explanation:Initial Management of Anal Fissures
Corticosteroid-containing preparations should not be used for more than 7 days as prolonged use can result in skin atrophy, contact dermatitis, and skin sensitisation. Similarly, anaesthetic-containing preparations should only be used for a few days as they can lead to sensitisation of anal skin.
Aside from topical treatments, there are other crucial initial management steps that should be taken. These include ensuring that stools are soft and easy to pass, optimising anal hygiene and toileting practices, such as avoiding straining during bowel movements.
If conservative treatment fails or if symptoms recur, referral to secondary care should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man has just relocated to the area and asks about a screening test he thinks he should have. He was last invited to the hospital for this screening test 2 years ago. He has no medical conditions, takes no medications, and has no family history.
Which screening program is he inquiring about?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast cancer - 3 yearly mammogram aged 50-70
Explanation:Breast cancer screening is available to women aged 50-70 years, with a mammogram offered every 3 years. Women over 70 can self-refer. Bowel cancer screening, on the other hand, involves a home test kit every 2 years for individuals aged 60 to 74. It is important to note that breast cancer screening is not recommended for women aged 48-72, and the correct screening interval is every 3 years.
Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.
For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man returns after he was found to have abnormal liver biochemistry. Investigations showed he had an alanine aminotransferase (ALT) of 98 iu/l and was Hep B surface-antigen positive.
Select from the list the single statement that is true of chronic hepatitis due to the hepatitis B virus.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It carries an increased risk of subsequent hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Hepatitis B Infection
Chronic hepatitis B infection occurs in up to 10% of adults who contract the virus. This means that the virus remains in the body long-term, with the surface antigen (HBsAg) persisting in the serum. However, up to two-thirds of people in the chronic phase remain well and do not experience any liver damage or other issues. This is known as the carrier state or chronic inactive hepatitis B, where HBeAg is absent, anti-HBe is present, and HBV DNA levels are low or undetectable. While carriers can still transmit the virus, their infectivity is lower than those with chronic active hepatitis.
Around 20% of carriers will eventually clear the virus naturally, but this can take several years. However, some carriers may experience spontaneous reactivation of hepatitis B due to the emergence of the HBeAg-negative strain of the virus. The remaining individuals with chronic hepatitis B experience persistent liver inflammation, also known as chronic active hepatitis B. Symptoms can include muscle aches, fatigue, nausea, lack of appetite, intolerance to alcohol, liver pain, jaundice, and depression. HBeAg is usually still present, and the virus is still replicating, with raised HBV DNA levels and high infectivity. Transaminase levels may be elevated, but not always significantly.
If left untreated, chronic active hepatitis B can lead to cirrhosis and even hepatocellular carcinoma. It’s important to note that hepatitis D is a separate virus that only infects individuals who are already infected with hepatitis B. Understanding the different phases and potential outcomes of chronic hepatitis B infection is crucial for proper management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man is being discharged from the hospital after a flare-up of ulcerative proctosigmoiditis. His symptoms improved after a 5-day course of intravenous corticosteroids, which had since been tapered down to oral prednisolone before discharge.
He contacts you, concerned that he was not informed by the discharging team whether he should continue taking prednisolone to prevent a relapse or not. He is running out of medication soon and is unsure of what to do. You reach out to the on-call gastroenterologist for guidance.
What would be the recommended first-line treatment for maintaining remission?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Daily rectal +/- oral mesalazine
Explanation:The first-line treatment for maintaining remission in patients with ulcerative colitis who have proctitis or proctosigmoiditis is a daily rectal aminosalicylate, with the addition of an oral aminosalicylate if necessary. Topical and/or oral aminosalicylates are also the first-line treatment for inducing and maintaining remission in mild-moderate ulcerative colitis, with the route of administration depending on the location of the disease. If aminosalicylates fail to induce remission, a short-term course of oral or topical corticosteroids may be added. Severe colitis requires hospital admission and treatment with IV corticosteroids, with the addition of IV ciclosporin if necessary. Surgery is the last resort. Twice-weekly corticosteroid enemas, daily azathioprine, and daily low-dose oral prednisolone for 3 months are not correct treatments for maintaining remission in ulcerative colitis.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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What is the most accurate statement regarding gastrointestinal bleeding in patients who are using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is due to depletion of mucosal prostaglandin E (PGE) levels
Explanation:NSAIDs and Gastrointestinal Bleeds: Risk Factors and Mechanisms
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief and inflammation management. However, their use is associated with an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeds, particularly in patients with pre-existing gastric or duodenal ulcers. Even those without a history of ulcers are at risk, with the relative risk varying among different NSAID preparations. NSAIDs directly damage the gastric mucosal barrier by depleting mucosal PGE levels, which decreases the gastroduodenal defence mechanisms and cytoprotective effect of PGE, resulting in mucosal injury, erosions and ulceration.
Several factors increase the risk of ulceration in the setting of NSAID use, including previous peptic ulcer disease, advanced age, female sex, high doses or combinations of NSAIDs, long-term NSAID use, concomitant use of anticoagulants, and severe comorbid illnesses. Even low-dose aspirin, with increasing use, is a major cause of upper gastrointestinal problems, particularly bleeding. It is important to note that NSAIDs may have adverse effects in all parts of the gastrointestinal tract, not only the stomach or duodenum; the oesophagus, small intestine and colon may also be affected. Endoscopic evidence of peptic ulceration is found in 20% of NSAID users even in the absence of symptoms.
In conclusion, while NSAIDs are effective in managing pain and inflammation, their use is associated with an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeds. Patients with pre-existing gastric or duodenal ulcers are particularly at risk, but other factors such as advanced age, high doses or combinations of NSAIDs, and concomitant use of anticoagulants also increase the risk. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of NSAID use and consider alternative pain management strategies in high-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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Which statement about the epidemiology of colorectal cancer is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A quarter of patients diagnosed with bowel cancer will survive for at least 10 years
Explanation:Understanding the Epidemiology of Colorectal Cancer
A basic understanding of the epidemiology of colorectal cancer is important for general practitioners to consider when treating their patients. It is worth noting that 95% of colorectal cancer cases occur in individuals over the age of 50.
In terms of incorrect answer options, it is important to note that bowel cancer incidence rates have not increased by 6% over the last 10 years. Additionally, bowel cancer is not the second most common cause of cancer death in the UK overall, but rather in men alone it is second to prostate cancer and in women alone it is second to breast cancer.
Finally, while almost 42,000 people were diagnosed with bowel cancer in the UK in 2011, it is not accurate to say that half of patients diagnosed with colorectal cancer will survive their disease for 10 years or more. It is important for general practitioners to have accurate information about colorectal cancer in order to provide the best care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy presents with gastrointestinal symptoms and you suspect Crohn's disease. What is the most common symptom of Crohn's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal pain
Explanation:Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.
Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include nonspecific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man residing in assisted living is brought in by his caregiver for a routine health check-up. His recent blood tests, including liver function tests, have all returned normal. The results are as follows:
- Bilirubin: 10 umol/l (normal range: 3 - 17 umol/l)
- Alanine transferase (ALT): 35 iu/l (normal range: 3 - 40 iu/l)
- Aspartate transaminase (AST): 25 iu/l (normal range: 3 - 30 iu/l)
- Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 90 umol/l (normal range: 30 - 100 umol/l)
- Gamma glutamyl transferase (yGT): 50 u/l (normal range: 8 - 60 u/l)
- Total protein: 70 g/l (normal range: 60 - 80 g/l)
During the consultation, the patient reveals that he consumes 62 units of alcohol per week. You discuss the possibility of referring him for alcohol dependence treatment and community detoxification.
What would be the most appropriate course of action now?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer the patient for a FibroScan (transient elastography)
Explanation:Patients who consume more than 50 units of alcohol per week (males) or more than 35 units per week (females) should be referred for an ELF test or FibroScan, even if their liver function tests are normal, according to current NICE CKS guidance. This is because patients may have significant cirrhosis despite normal liver function tests, and FibroScan is the most accurate method for screening for cirrhosis.
While monitoring liver function is important, the next appropriate step would be to assess using a FibroScan, as patients can have advanced cirrhosis with normal liver function tests. Waiting 2 or 4 years to repeat liver function tests is too long, as the disease may progress significantly in the meantime.
Liver ultrasound may be helpful, but it is not sufficient for detecting cirrhosis in all cases. Ultrasound screening for liver cirrhosis alone is not recommended, as patients may have cirrhosis without evidence on liver ultrasound.
Taking no further action is not appropriate, given the potential for liver disease despite normal liver function tests.
Alcoholic liver disease is a range of conditions that includes alcoholic fatty liver disease, alcoholic hepatitis, and cirrhosis. When investigating this disease, gamma-GT levels are typically elevated, and a ratio of AST:ALT greater than 3 strongly suggests acute alcoholic hepatitis. In terms of management, glucocorticoids like prednisolone are often used during acute episodes of alcoholic hepatitis. Maddrey’s discriminant function is used to determine who would benefit from glucocorticoid therapy, and pentoxyphylline may also be used. The STOPAH study compared the effectiveness of pentoxyphylline and prednisolone and found that prednisolone improved survival at 28 days, while pentoxyphylline did not improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old police officer attends his General Practitioner to request screening for hepatitis B. He was exposed to blood from a person possibly infected with hepatitis B virus around three weeks ago. He has never been vaccinated against this and requests blood screening. He feels well and has no comorbidities.
What is the most important test to perform at this stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
Explanation:Hepatitis B Markers: Understanding the Different Types
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is important to detect and monitor the different markers associated with the disease to determine the stage of infection and the appropriate treatment. Here are the different types of hepatitis B markers and their significance:
1. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) – This is the first marker to appear in the serum after infection. It indicates the presence of the viral envelope and can be detected between one to nine weeks after infection. Its persistence indicates chronic hepatitis B.
2. Anti-hepatitis B envelope antigen (anti-HBeAg) – This antibody appears after the clearance of the e antigen, signifying the resolution of the acute phase.
3. Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) – This marker develops during the early phases of the acute infection and can persist in chronic infections. It is associated with high levels of viral replication and infectivity.
4. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody stays positive for life following infection with hepatitis B, even once cleared.
5. Immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody confirms the diagnosis of acute infection but is detectable later than HBsAg.
Understanding these markers is crucial in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B. Regular monitoring of these markers can help determine the progression of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with a 3-day history of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea, passing around 8 stools per day. He denies any recent travel or exposure to unwell individuals.
During examination, his heart rate is 95 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and temperature is 37.8 ºC. His abdomen is soft but mildly tender throughout.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:Hospitalization and IV corticosteroids are necessary for the treatment of a severe flare of ulcerative colitis, as seen in this patient with over 6 bloody stools per day and systemic symptoms like tachycardia and fever. Mild to moderate cases can be managed with aminosalicylates and oral steroids. Simple analgesia, increased fluid intake, and oral antibiotics are not effective in managing severe flares of ulcerative colitis.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of diarrhoea, bloating and flatulence that have been ongoing for 3 years. She has also noticed a significant weight loss, dropping from 65 kg to 57kg in the past few months. She reports that her symptoms worsen after consuming gluten-containing foods. Upon examination, her BMI is 18.5 kg/m2. An oesopho-gastro-duodenoscopy is performed, and she is diagnosed with coeliac disease through jejunal biopsy. What is the most appropriate procedure to perform at the time of this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease Patients: Which Ones are Indicated?
Coeliac disease is a condition that can increase the risk of osteoporosis due to the malabsorption of calcium. In patients who are at a higher risk of osteoporosis, a Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan should be conducted. This includes patients who have persistent symptoms on a gluten-free diet lasting for at least one year, poor adherence to a gluten-free diet, weight loss of more than 10%, BMI less than 20 kg/m2, or age over 70 years.
In addition to DEXA scans, other diagnostic tests may be considered based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors. Flexible colonoscopy is not routinely indicated for coeliac disease patients unless specific bowel symptoms or pathology are suspected. Abdominal ultrasound (US) is not indicated for coeliac disease patients unless there is suspected pathology in solid organs such as the liver, gallbladder, pancreas, or kidney. Barium enema is not frequently used and is not specifically indicated for coeliac disease patients. Chest X-ray (CXR) is not routinely indicated for coeliac disease patients, but may be considered in patients with unexplained weight loss, chronic cough, haemoptysis, or shortness of breath.
In summary, DEXA scans are indicated for coeliac disease patients at a higher risk of osteoporosis, while other diagnostic tests should be considered based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old patient with epilepsy that is currently managed with phenytoin presents to his General Practitioner. He has recently been taking oral flucloxacillin for a leg injury that was precipitated by a recent fit. The patient occasionally drinks alcohol and has been taking paracetamol for pain relief after his leg injury. Clinical examination reveals jaundice; however, his abdomen is non-tender. Liver function tests are shown below.
Investigation Result Normal value
Bilirubin 280 μmol/l 1–22 μmol/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 440 U/l 45–105 U/l
Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) 320 U/l 11–50 U/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 46 U/l < 35 U/l
What is the most likely cause of this patient’s jaundice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin
Explanation:Causes of Jaundice: Identifying the Culprit in a Clinical Case
In this clinical case, a patient presents with jaundice and abnormal liver function tests. The following potential causes are considered:
Flucloxacillin: The patient’s presentation is consistent with cholestatic jaundice, which can be caused by flucloxacillin. Other drugs that can cause a similar picture include chlorpromazine, azathioprine, captopril, ciclosporin, penicillamine, erythromycin, and the combined oral contraceptive.
Ethanol: Although the patient reports occasional alcohol use, ethanol is an unlikely cause of cholestatic jaundice. Ethanol more commonly causes a hepatitic picture with elevated transaminase levels.
Gallstones: Cholecystitis typically doesn’t cause jaundice. If gallstones were the cause, right upper quadrant pain and tenderness would be expected.
Paracetamol: The patient is taking paracetamol, but there is no information about excessive use. Paracetamol overdose typically causes a hepatitic picture rather than cholestatic jaundice.
Phenytoin: Phenytoin typically causes a hepatitic picture with larger elevations in transaminase levels and a smaller rise in ALP levels.
In conclusion, flucloxacillin is the most likely cause of this patient’s cholestatic jaundice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a 60-year-old patient who has returned to see you for the results of some recent blood tests.
Two months previously she had a liver function test that showed a bilirubin of 39 µmol/L (normal range 3-20 µmol/L). A repeat liver function test performed last week has shown the same result. The remainder of her liver profile is within normal limits.
She is otherwise well and not on any regular medication. She is not overweight, drinks alcohol only occasionally and clinical examination is normal with no stigmata of liver disease. She is asymptomatic.
Full blood count, renal function, thyroid function, fasting glucose and fasting lipids are all within normal limits.
What is the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Request a GGT blood test
Explanation:Management of Isolated Slightly Raised Bilirubin Levels
When a patient presents with an isolated slightly raised bilirubin level and is asymptomatic, the next step is to confirm the proportion of unconjugated bilirubin to guide further investigation. If the unconjugated bilirubin is greater than 70%, the patient probably has Gilbert’s syndrome. In this case, if the bilirubin level remains stable on repeat testing, no further action is needed unless there is clinical suspicion of haemolysis. However, if the bilirubin level rises on retesting, haemolysis must be considered and should be investigated with a blood film, reticulocyte count, lactate dehydrogenase, and haptoglobin. It is important to note that the bilirubin level is almost twice the upper limit of normal, which was confirmed on interval testing. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor the patient’s bilirubin levels and investigate further if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis. She has lost weight and has diarrhoea that has become troublesome.
Select from the list the single most suitable preparation to relieve her diarrhoea.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreatin
Explanation:Gastrointestinal Medications: Pancreatin, Cholestyramine, Loperamide, Co-Phenotrope, and Ispaghula Husk
Pancreatin is a combination of digestive enzymes produced by the pancreas that aid in the breakdown of protein, fat, and starch. It is commonly used to treat conditions where the pancreas is not producing enough enzymes, such as pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, or after surgical removal of the pancreas. Pancreatin should be taken with food or with medications that reduce stomach acid.
Cholestyramine is a medication that binds to bile in the gut, preventing its reabsorption. It is primarily used to treat itching in patients with advanced liver disease and to prevent diarrhea in individuals with Crohn’s disease who have had a portion of their small intestine removed.
Loperamide and co-phenotrope are anti-motility drugs that can be used to treat uncomplicated acute diarrhea in adults. These medications slow down the movement of the gut, allowing for more water to be absorbed and reducing the frequency of bowel movements.
Ispaghula husk is a bulk-forming laxative that absorbs water in the gut, increasing the bulk of stool and promoting regular bowel movements. It is commonly used to treat constipation and other bowel irregularities.
Overall, these medications can be effective in treating a variety of gastrointestinal conditions and symptoms. However, it is important to consult with a healthcare provider before starting any new medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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When managing women of any age and non-menstruating men who present with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia, what is the threshold haemoglobin level that should prompt urgent referral?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 120 g/L for men and women
Explanation:Iron Deficiency Anaemia and its Possible Causes
Iron deficiency anaemia is a condition that can be diagnosed through a low serum ferritin, red cell microcytosis, and hypochromia. It is often caused by gastrointestinal issues such as colonic cancer, gastric cancer, and coeliac disease. To determine the underlying cause, patients should undergo a PR examination, urine testing, and coeliac screen.
In some cases, unexplained iron deficiency anaemia can be an early indication of an underlying malignancy. Menorrhagia may also cause iron deficiency in women of childbearing age, but a detailed history should be taken to rule out other possible causes. Any man or non-menstruating woman presenting with anaemia should be referred for urgent investigation. It is important to understand the appropriate referral thresholds and look out for additional red flags that may warrant referral.
It is important to note that while occult bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract is a common cause of iron deficiency anaemia, blood loss may also occur through other means, such as urological cancers. Therefore, it is crucial to consider all possible causes and conduct thorough investigations to determine the underlying issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of burning retrosternal pain. He has had this issue before and has treated it with over-the-counter remedies. He sometimes experiences food sticking. He smokes 20 cigarettes daily. During the examination, there is some epigastric tenderness, but only upon deep palpation. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy
Explanation:Management of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease with Red-Flag Symptom
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a common condition that can be managed with lifestyle advice and medication. However, when red-flag symptoms such as dysphagia are present, urgent investigation is necessary to rule out oesophageal cancer.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends urgent direct-access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy within two weeks for people with dysphagia. Long-term reflux disease may lead to Barrett’s oesophagus, which requires surveillance endoscopy every two years.
Lifestyle advice is a key element in managing GORD, including weight loss, alcohol and smoking cessation, small regular meals, avoiding food and hot drinks before bedtime, and raising the head of the bed at night. Antacids are available over the counter but are not sufficient for red-flag symptoms. H2-antagonists are not the first-line treatment for reflux disease, and proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) are more effective in relieving heartburn.
For a new episode of reflux disease, a full dose of PPI is given for a month, and the dose is stepped down or a low-dose PPI is used for recurrent symptoms as required. PPIs are highly effective in symptom relief, but urgent endoscopy is necessary for red-flag symptoms such as dysphagia.
In summary, the management of GORD involves lifestyle advice and medication, but red-flag symptoms require urgent investigation to rule out oesophageal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of swelling in his ankles and fluid-filled blisters around his feet that burst easily. He has a history of Crohn's disease that has been bothering him for a long time. Upon examination, he appears normal except for a urinalysis that shows 2+ protein. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amyloidosis
Explanation:Medical Conditions Associated with Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can lead to various medical conditions. One of these conditions is amyloidosis, which occurs when extracellular protein deposits disrupt normal organ function. This can result in nephrotic syndrome, characterized by protein in the urine and edema. While cardiac disease is uncommon in Crohn’s disease, it can occur and may present as congestive heart failure. Cirrhosis of the liver is also a potential complication, particularly in cases of primary sclerosing cholangitis. However, there is no indication of liver failure in the presented case. Nephritic syndrome, which involves protein and blood in the urine, is not the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms. While cutaneous manifestations such as blisters can occur in Crohn’s disease, pemphigus is a rare association and is not the likely cause of the patient’s edema and proteinuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with jaundiced sclera that developed over a period of 2 days. She had been fasting for religious reasons during this time and has no past medical history of jaundice. The patient is asymptomatic and her abdominal examination is unremarkable. Upon blood testing, her FBC and reticulocyte count are normal, as well as her blood film. She has predominantly unconjugated bilirubin levels of 50 µmol/L (normal range 3 - 17) and otherwise normal LFTs. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure
Explanation:If a person has an increased serum bilirubin concentration with normal liver function tests, it may indicate Gilbert’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by a rise in bilirubin in response to physiological stress and may cause mild jaundice during fasting. However, it doesn’t require treatment or monitoring and cannot progress to chronic liver disease. Therefore, reassurance is the most appropriate option, and hospital admission or ultrasound scanning is unnecessary. Additionally, as Gilbert’s syndrome is not associated with upper GI malignancies, a 2-week wait clinic is not required. Repeating liver function tests in 48 hours would not change the management plan for this condition.
Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.
To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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You are the GP trainee doing your morning clinic. You see a 35-year-old woman with coeliac disease.
Which of the following is indicated as part of her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administration of the pneumococcal vaccine
Explanation:To prevent overwhelming pneumococcal sepsis due to hyposplenism, Coeliac UK advises that individuals with coeliac disease receive a pneumococcal infection vaccine and a booster every five years. Pertussis vaccines beyond those in the vaccination schedule are unnecessary. According to NICE CKS guidelines, annual blood tests for FBC, ferritin, thyroid function tests, liver function tests, B12, and folate are recommended. Calprotectin is utilized to assess gut inflammation, often as part of the diagnostic process for inflammatory bowel disease. Faecal occult blood testing is typically conducted if there are concerns about bowel cancer.
Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet
Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten-containing cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats must be avoided. However, some patients with coeliac disease can tolerate oats. Gluten-free foods include rice, potatoes, and corn. Compliance with a gluten-free diet can be checked by testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies.
Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which is why they are offered the pneumococcal vaccine. Coeliac UK recommends that patients with coeliac disease receive the pneumococcal vaccine and have a booster every five years. influenza vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.
Overall, managing coeliac disease requires strict adherence to a gluten-free diet and regular immunisation to prevent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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Which drug is listed as having a severe interaction with Cimetidine, considering that Ranitidine is unavailable due to a manufacturing problem and GP practices in the area are advised to prescribe Cimetidine as a potential cost-effective alternative?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Cimetidine and Nifedipine Interaction
Cimetidine and nifedipine have a severe interaction as cimetidine moderately increases the exposure to nifedipine. The manufacturer advises monitoring and adjusting the dose accordingly. It is important to note that the British National Formulary (BNF) categorizes interactions as severe (red) or moderate (amber). While the list of amber interactions for a drug can be extensive, it is crucial to focus on the most severe (red) ones, especially when it comes to exams or clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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Primary sclerosing cholangitis is most commonly associated with which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:Understanding Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a condition that affects the bile ducts, causing inflammation and fibrosis. The cause of this disease is unknown, but it is often associated with ulcerative colitis, with 4% of UC patients having PSC and 80% of PSC patients having UC. Crohn’s disease and HIV are also less common associations.
Symptoms of PSC include cholestasis, jaundice, pruritus, raised bilirubin and ALP levels, right upper quadrant pain, and fatigue. To diagnose PSC, doctors typically use endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP), which show multiple biliary strictures giving a ‘beaded’ appearance. A positive p-ANCA test may also be indicative of PSC.
Liver biopsy may show fibrous, obliterative cholangitis, often described as ‘onion skin’, but it has a limited role in diagnosis. Complications of PSC include an increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma (in 10% of cases) and colorectal cancer.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, associations, and diagnostic methods for PSC is crucial for early detection and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man typically takes his medication without water. He reports experiencing pain in his lower sternum when swallowing.
Which medication is the most probable cause of this symptom?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation:Doxycycline-Induced Oesophagal Ulcer: Symptoms, Treatment, and Prevention
Doxycycline-induced oesophagal ulcer is a condition that affects mostly young people with no history of oesophagal dysfunction. The most common symptoms include heartburn, midsternal pain, and dysphagia. Fortunately, the symptoms usually resolve within a few days of stopping doxycycline. However, in severe cases, complete recovery may take longer than two weeks.
To minimize the risk of oesophagitis, it is best to take doxycycline with a meal. Alternatively, it can be taken with a large glass of water or other fluid, and the patient should then remain upright for at least 30 minutes. It is also worth noting that doxycycline can be taken with food with minimal effect on absorption.
It is important to be aware that other drugs can cause oesophagitis, including other tetracyclines, clindamycin, potassium chloride, bisphosphonates, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Therefore, it is crucial to consult a healthcare professional before taking any medication and to follow their instructions carefully.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up and reports experiencing persistent fatigue and indigestion. He has been belching excessively at night and is bothered by constant bloating. He denies any alterations in his bowel movements and has not noticed any rectal bleeding. During the physical examination, you observe mild conjunctival pallor and a slightly distended abdomen. A rectal exam reveals no abnormalities.
What is the most frequent underlying condition that could explain these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Coeliac disease is the most likely underlying diagnosis as it can present with nonspecific gastrointestinal symptoms and fatigue. Bowel cancer should also be considered and appropriate screening carried out if there is clinical suspicion or red flag symptoms. Gastro-oesophageal reflux is unlikely to cause fatigue or anaemia, while inflammatory bowel disease is less common than irritable bowel and there are no signs of it in the stem.
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of acute severe pain in his upper abdomen, which radiates to his back. He experiences severe nausea and vomiting and finds that sitting forwards is the only way to alleviate the pain. His medical history includes hypertension and gallstones, which were incidentally discovered during an ultrasound scan. What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Acute Upper Abdominal Pain
Acute upper abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some possible diagnoses based on the given symptoms:
1. Acute pancreatitis: This condition is often caused by gallstones or alcohol consumption and presents with severe upper abdominal pain. Blood tests show elevated amylase levels, and immediate hospital admission is necessary.
2. Budd-Chiari syndrome: This rare condition involves the blockage of the hepatic vein and can cause right upper abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, and ascites.
3. Acute cholecystitis: This condition is characterized by localized pain in the upper right abdomen and a positive Murphy’s sign (pain worsened by deep breathing).
4. Perforated duodenal ulcer: This condition can cause sudden upper abdominal pain, but it is usually associated with a history of dyspepsia or NSAID use.
5. Renal colic: This condition causes severe pain in the loin-to-groin area and is often accompanied by urinary symptoms and hematuria.
In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the underlying cause of acute upper abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with indigestion that has been troubling him for the past two months. He reports no prior history of these symptoms and states that he has been able to eat and drink normally. However, he has noticed a recent weight loss. He denies any abdominal pain or changes in bowel habits. On examination, his abdomen appears normal. Laboratory tests, including a full blood count, renal function, liver function, and C-reactive protein, are all within normal limits. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal and erect x ray today
Explanation:Urgent Upper Gastrointestinal Endoscopy for Stomach Cancer Assessment
Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is necessary within two weeks for individuals experiencing dysphagia to assess for stomach cancer. Additionally, patients aged 55 or over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also undergo this procedure. A directed admission is not required, and x-rays are unnecessary as the patient doesn’t have an acute abdomen. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends endoscopy over an ultrasound scan. This history necessitates an urgent investigation, and a routine referral to gastroenterology would not be appropriate. It is important to note that knowledge of the patient’s H Pylori status would not alter the need for urgent OGD, and referral should not be delayed for this reason.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with a history of migraine experiences inadequate relief from the recommended dose of paracetamol during acute attacks. She consumes 10 units of alcohol per week and smokes 12 cigarettes per day.
What could be a contributing factor to this issue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delayed gastric emptying
Explanation:During acute migraine attacks, patients often experience delayed gastric emptying. Therefore, prokinetic agents like metoclopramide are commonly added to analgesics. Changes in P450 enzyme activity, such as those caused by smoking or drinking, are unlikely to have a significant impact on the metabolism of paracetamol.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.
For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.
For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.
It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presented to her GP with abdominal pain. The pain was burning in nature and was localised to her epigastric area. A stool test for Helicobacter pylori was done, which came back as positive. Accordingly, she was treated with eradication therapy for one week. Despite the treatment, her symptoms have continued. She would like to be tested to check the bacteria has been eradicated. She is not keen on being referred for an endoscopy.
Which of the following investigations should she be referred for?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urea breath test
Explanation:Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old obese man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic for a review. He reports feeling well and asymptomatic. However, his recent annual blood tests have shown slightly abnormal liver function tests:
- Bilirubin 20 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP 104 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT 53 u/L (3 - 40)
- γGT 58 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin 38 g/L (35 - 50)
A liver ultrasound performed during his follow-up visit reveals fatty changes. All other standard liver screen bloods, including viral serology, are normal. The patient's alcoholic intake is within recommended limits.
What would be the most appropriate next test to perform?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enhanced liver fibrosis blood test
Explanation:For patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, it is advised to undergo enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) testing to assist in the detection of liver fibrosis. A typical patient with this condition is someone who is overweight and has type 2 diabetes mellitus. According to NICE guidelines, if NAFLD is discovered by chance, an ELF blood test should be conducted to evaluate for the presence of advanced liver disease.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his primary care physician complaining of loose non-bloody stools and abdominal discomfort for the past 6 days. He has not been taking any regular medication and his disease has been quiescent for many years. A colonoscopy performed 5 years ago showed proctitis. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits and his abdomen is diffusely soft with no peritonism. A stool culture is negative. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mesalazine suppository
Explanation:For a patient experiencing mild-to-moderate symptoms of distal ulcerative colitis, the recommended first-line treatment is topical (rectal) aminosalicylates, such as mesalazine suppositories. This is particularly effective for patients with left-sided disease, such as proctitis or proctosigmoiditis. While budesonide foam enema is sometimes used as an additional treatment for mild-to-moderate disease, it is generally less effective at inducing remission. Oral azathioprine is not recommended for inducing remission, but may be used to maintain remission in patients who have had multiple inflammatory exacerbations or if remission is not maintained by aminosalicylates alone. Oral mesalazine is less effective than topical mesalazine for mild or moderate proctitis, but may be offered as an additional treatment if symptoms persist after 4 weeks of topical mesalazine. For patients with pancolitis or extensive disease, oral mesalazine may be offered as a first-line treatment.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus complains of diarrhoea, fatigue and weight loss for the past three months. She has been on a gluten-free diet for the last four weeks and feels better. She wants to confirm if she has coeliac disease. What is the next best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ask her to reintroduce gluten for the next 6 weeks before further testing
Explanation:Before undergoing testing, patients need to consume gluten for a minimum of 6 weeks. Failure to do so may result in negative results for serological tests and jejunal biopsy, especially if the patient is adhering to a gluten-free diet. To ensure accurate results, patients should consume gluten in multiple meals every day for at least 6 weeks before undergoing further testing.
Investigating Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.
To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.
In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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You see an obese 40-year-old gentleman who was incidentally found to have fatty infiltration in his liver while being investigated for a slightly raised ALT. His other blood tests were unremarkable. He is known to have type 2 diabetes and is on metformin 500 mg OD. He doesn't drink alcohol. He is otherwise well in himself.
What would be the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to hepatology
Explanation:Management of Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease
Patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) should be assessed for the risk of advanced liver fibrosis using a non-invasive scoring system such as the Fibrosis (FIB)-4 Score, according to NICE guidelines. While obesity and metformin use may contribute to NAFLD, changes to glycaemic control should not be made without knowing the patient’s current status. Referral to hepatology is indicated if there is evidence of advanced liver disease or high risk of advanced liver fibrosis based on scoring. Hepatology can perform specialist investigations such as transient elastography and liver biopsy. Additional blood tests, including a liver screen, may be helpful, but an isolated repeat LFT would not be the next most important step in management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with a four week history of retrosternal burning particularly after large meals. He also complains of episodes of epigastric discomfort usually during the night. He has no nausea or vomiting, has had no black stools and his weight has been steady for the last few years.
He smokes five cigarettes per day and drinks up to 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination of the abdomen he has mild epigastric tenderness with no masses palpable. He has been buying antacid tablets which give short periods of relief of his symptoms only.
What is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a routine upper GI endoscopy
Explanation:Management of Dyspepsia in a Patient Under 55 Years Old
Until recently, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommended referral for all new onset dyspepsia in patients over 55 years old. However, current guidelines state that referral is only necessary if other symptoms are present. In the case of a patient under 55 years old with no alarm symptoms, treatment to relieve symptoms should be offered.
According to NICE guidance, a four-week course of a full dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) such as omeprazole is recommended. It is also advisable to check the patient’s Helicobacter pylori status and haemoglobin level. If the patient is found to have iron deficiency anaemia, further investigation would be necessary.
In summary, the management of dyspepsia in a patient under 55 years old involves offering treatment to relieve symptoms and checking for Helicobacter pylori status and haemoglobin level. Referral is only necessary if other symptoms are present or if iron deficiency anaemia is detected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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What is the most typical trait of a patient with vitamin C deficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paraesthesia and ataxia
Explanation:Understanding Vitamin C Deficiency and Scurvy
Vitamin C is an essential nutrient that is primarily found in fruits and vegetables. A deficiency of ascorbic acid can lead to scurvy, a condition characterized by inflamed and bleeding gums, impaired wound healing, and other symptoms. Cutaneous findings of scurvy include follicular hyperkeratosis, perifollicular haemorrhages, ecchymoses, xerosis, leg oedema, poor wound healing, and bent or coiled body hairs.
It is important to note that cheilosis and red tongue are more indicative of vitamin B12 or iron deficiency, while diarrhoea and delusions suggest vitamin B deficiency (pellagra). Ocular muscle palsy and dementia are more likely to be associated with thiamine deficiency or Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Vitamin C deficiency is not uncommon in the elderly population, and it is crucial to be aware of the signs and symptoms to make a proper diagnosis. Measuring vitamin C concentrations in the white cell can confirm the diagnosis of scurvy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to his general practice clinic with a 3-month history of alternating constipation and diarrhea, along with gradual weight loss. During the examination, he looks cachectic and has nodular hepatomegaly. He doesn't have jaundice, and his liver function tests are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver metastases
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of nodular hepatomegaly
Nodular hepatomegaly, or an enlarged liver with palpable nodules, can have various causes. Among them, liver metastases and cirrhosis are common, while hepatocellular carcinoma, lymphoma, and myelofibrosis are less frequent but still possible differential diagnoses.
Liver metastases often originate from the bowel or breast and may not affect liver function until they involve over half of the liver or obstruct the biliary tract. Cirrhosis, on the other hand, results from chronic liver disease and typically raises the serum alanine aminotransferase level, but this patient’s liver function tests are normal.
Hepatocellular carcinoma, a type of liver cancer, shares some features with liver metastases but is less common and may be associated with hepatitis B or C. Lymphoma, a cancer of the lymphatic system, is even rarer than hepatocellular carcinoma as a cause of nodular hepatomegaly, but it may involve other sites besides the liver.
Myelofibrosis is a bone marrow disorder that can lead to fibrosis in the liver and spleen, among other organs. It may not cause symptoms in the early stages but can manifest as leukoerythroblastic anaemia, malaise, weight loss, and night sweats later on. While myelofibrosis is not a common cause of nodular hepatomegaly, it should be considered in the differential diagnosis, especially if other features suggest a myeloproliferative neoplasm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is discharged from hospital following a haematemesis with a diagnosis of NSAID-induced gastric ulcer. She has taken ibuprofen regularly for pain relief and has found it effective, while finding paracetamol has been ineffective. She is taking 10 mg esomeprazole a day. She has a history of osteoarthritis and hypertension.
What is the most appropriate analgesia to prescribe this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Choosing the Right Pain Medication for a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis and a History of Myocardial Infarction
When selecting a pain medication for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis and a history of myocardial infarction, it is important to consider the potential cardiovascular and gastrointestinal risks associated with each option. Tramadol is often the drug of choice due to its lower risk of cardiovascular and gastrointestinal problems, but it may still cause toxicity in some patients. Celecoxib, a cyclo-oxygenase-2 selective inhibitor, carries a lower risk of gastrointestinal side-effects but should be avoided in patients with a history of thrombotic events. Diclofenac and misoprostol carry an intermediate risk of gastrointestinal side-effects and increase the risk of thrombotic events. Ibuprofen and naproxen have lower gastrointestinal risks, but their use may be problematic in patients taking antiplatelet medication. Ultimately, the choice of pain medication should be made on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the patient’s individual medical history and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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You are monitoring a 40-year-old male patient who has recently finished a two-week Helicobacter pylori treatment for dyspepsia. If he has ceased his eradication therapy today and is not on any other medication, what is the earliest time frame for conducting a urea breath test to confirm eradication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In 4 weeks time
Explanation:To undergo a urea breath test, one must not have taken antibiotics within the last four weeks and must not have taken any antisecretory drugs, such as PPI, within the last two weeks.
Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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You assess a 23-year-old woman who has been newly diagnosed with ulcerative colitis on the left side. The gastroenterologists prescribed high-dose oral mesalazine five days ago, but there has been no improvement in her bowel movements, which consist of passing 3-4 loose stools per day with small amounts of blood. She is still in good health, and her abdominal examination is normal. What is the recommended duration of the initial mesalazine treatment before determining its effectiveness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:Patients with mild-moderate flares of ulcerative colitis are usually evaluated for treatment response over a period of 4 weeks.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man with a history of chronic constipation presents with acute perianal pain. The pain has been present for a week and is exacerbated during defecation. He also notes a small amount of bright red blood on the paper when he wipes himself.
Abdominal examination is unremarkable but rectal examination is not possible due to pain.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fissure
Explanation:Understanding Fissures: Symptoms and Treatment
Perianal pain that worsens during defecation and is accompanied by fresh bleeding is a common symptom of fissures. However, due to the pain associated with rectal examination, visualizing the fissure is often not possible. Most fissures are located in the midline posteriorly and can be treated with GTN cream during the acute phase, providing relief in two-thirds of cases. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for fissures can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and manage their condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her diabetic annual review. She reports feeling constantly fatigued for the past few months. Her blood work shows normal thyroid, liver, and renal function. However, her full blood count indicates a mild anemia with a hemoglobin level of 105 g/L and MCV of 80 fL. Her HbA1c is 52 mmol/mol, and her urine dipstick test is negative for ketones. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. The patient denies any gastrointestinal symptoms, has regular bowel movements, and has not experienced any rectal bleeding or mucous. Her weight is stable, and she doesn't experience abdominal pain or bloating. There is no known family history of gastrointestinal pathology or malignancy. Further blood tests confirm iron deficiency anemia. The patient follows a regular gluten-containing diet. What is the most appropriate initial serological test to perform for coeliac disease in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA endomysial antibody (EMA) testing
Explanation:Serological testing for coeliac disease is used to determine if further investigation is necessary. The preferred first choice test is IgA transglutaminase, with IgA endomysial antibodies used if the result is equivocal. False negative results can occur in those with IgA deficiency, so this should be ruled out. HLA testing may be considered in specific situations but is not necessary for initial testing. If there is significant clinical suspicion of coeliac disease despite negative serological testing, referral to a specialist should still be offered. Accuracy of testing depends on following a gluten-containing diet for at least six weeks prior to testing. A clinical response to a gluten-free diet is not diagnostic of coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old alcoholic patient visits the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up. He has recently been released from the hospital after experiencing an upper gastrointestinal bleed caused by oesophageal varices. He informs you that he has quit drinking and inquires about the likelihood of experiencing another bleeding episode.
What is the accurate statement regarding the risk of future bleeding from oesophageal varices?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The risk of re-bleeding is greater than 60% within a year
Explanation:Understanding Variceal Haemorrhage: Causes, Complications, and Prognosis
Variceal haemorrhage is a common complication of portal hypertension, with almost 90% of cirrhosis patients developing varices and 30% experiencing bleeding. The mortality rate for the first episode is high, ranging from 30-50%. The severity of liver disease and associated systemic disorders worsen the prognosis, increasing the likelihood of a bleed. Patients who have had one episode of bleeding have a high chance of recurrence within a year, with one-third of further episodes being fatal. While abstaining from alcohol can slow the progression of liver disease, it cannot reverse portal hypertension. Understanding the causes, complications, and prognosis of variceal haemorrhage is crucial for effective management and prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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You see a 49-year-old gentleman with a change in bowel habit. He has had routine blood tests which were all normal. He reports no rectal bleeding. On examination, his abdomen is soft, non-tender and the rectal examination was normal.
What would be the most appropriate next step in your management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer using a suspected lower gastrointestinal cancer pathway
Explanation:Faecal Occult Blood Tests for Colorectal Cancer Screening
Faecal occult blood tests are recommended by NICE for patients who exhibit symptoms that may indicate colorectal cancer but are unlikely to have the disease. These tests are also used for routine screening. However, it is crucial to consider the criteria for suspected lower GI cancer referrals when deciding to use this test. For instance, if a patient is 60 years or older and has experienced a change in bowel habit, they should be referred using a suspected lower GI cancer pathway instead of undergoing a faecal occult blood test. Proper screening and referral protocols can help ensure timely and accurate diagnosis and treatment of colorectal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with recurrent epigastric pain that is relieved by vomiting and has noticed some weight loss. He denies anorexia but admits to a fear of food bringing on the pain. On examination, he is tender in the epigastrium with no palpable masses. He also reports having dark stools, but attributes it to his love for red wine. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric ulcer
Explanation:Understanding Gastric Ulcers and Their Symptoms
Gastric ulcers are a common condition that can cause a range of symptoms. One of the most typical symptoms is abdominal pain, which can be described as a burning or gnawing sensation. Other symptoms may include nausea, vomiting, and loss of appetite.
It’s important to note that the symptoms of a gastric ulcer can be similar to those of other conditions, such as duodenal ulcers, gallstones, gastric carcinoma, and hiatus hernia. However, there are some key differences to look out for.
In duodenal ulcers, for example, the pain is usually delayed after eating and can be relieved by food. Gallstones, on the other hand, typically cause pain in the right upper quadrant and do not usually result in melaena (dark, tarry stools).
Gastric carcinoma should be considered in anyone with abdominal pain and weight loss, but gastric ulcer is more likely in younger patients without anorexia. Hiatus hernia, meanwhile, is often associated with heartburn and reflux.
If you are experiencing symptoms of a gastric ulcer, it’s important to seek medical attention. Your doctor can perform tests to determine the cause of your symptoms and recommend appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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Emma, aged 23 years, has been experiencing symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) for the past 2 months, which she believes is due to the stress of her new job. She often feels bloated and has irregular bowel movements. Emma is hesitant to take medications and seeks advice from her GP, Dr. Patel, who recommends the low-FODMAP diet and refers her to a registered dietitian. What are some examples of safe low-FODMAP foods that can be included in Emma's diet to manage her IBS symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salmon
Explanation:Monash University in Australia has developed a low-FODMAP diet to manage irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). FODMAPs are short-chain carbohydrates found in many foods that are poorly absorbed in the small intestine. They can cause diarrhoea by encouraging water intake into the small intestine or bloating by fermenting in the large bowel. A low-FODMAP diet has been shown to reduce symptoms of IBS such as bloating, abdominal pain, and irregular bowel habits. However, this diet is challenging to follow as it excludes many foods that contain oligo-, di-, mono-saccharides, and polyols, including various vegetables, fruits, and grains. Therefore, it is recommended to seek the advice of a dietician rather than initiating the diet without guidance. High-FODMAP foods to avoid include wheat, most dairy products (except aged cheeses), pulses, beans, onion, garlic, and excess fructose. The diet mainly consists of unprocessed meat/fish and low FODMAP vegetables and grains.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 101
Incorrect
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What is the most suitable approach to prevent variceal bleeding in a 45-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse who has been diagnosed with grade 3 oesophageal varices during an outpatient endoscopy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:The prophylaxis of oesophageal bleeding can be achieved using a non-cardioselective B-blocker (NSBB), while endoscopic sclerotherapy is no longer considered effective in preventing variceal haemorrhage.
Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.
To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents with increasing epigastric pain after eating for the past month. She has a history of intermittent heartburn and epigastric burning for over a year, which was previously managed with regular alginate. Three months ago, she reported no weight loss or vomiting, and her H. pylori status was checked. On her return visit, it was found that she is H. pylori positive and has experienced a reduced appetite, mild nausea, and some weight loss. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe a PPI such as omeprazole 20 mg/day and review in two weeks
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Upper GI Cancer in H. pylori Positive Patient
This patient is showing red flag symptoms and signs that suggest upper GI cancer, including weight loss and poor appetite. Despite being Helicobacter pylori positive, urgent referral for upper GI endoscopy or to a specialist in upper GI cancer should not be delayed. An ultrasound scan is unlikely to be helpful, and prescribing a PPI should be avoided as it can mask underlying disease. It is important to prioritize urgent referral over prescribing eradication therapy for H. pylori, as the latter may delay the diagnosis of underlying pathology. By promptly referring the patient for further evaluation, healthcare providers can ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potential upper GI cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with long-standing gastrointestinal symptoms. His medical history includes a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome in his early adulthood. He currently takes mebeverine 135 mg TDS and loperamide 2 mg PRN for symptom relief. He reports intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and periodic bouts of diarrhea. His latest blood tests, done as part of his diabetic annual review, show a mild microcytic anemia and a slight persistent elevation of ALT and ALP. He has no new symptoms and follows a normal diet. On examination, there are no focal abnormalities. He is interested in trying a gluten-free diet as his mother found it helpful for her IBS. What advice should be given regarding testing for coeliac disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serological testing can be carried out appropriately at any time regardless of a person's dietary intake of gluten
Explanation:Testing for Coeliac Disease
Accuracy of testing for coeliac disease is dependent on the person following a gluten-containing diet. For at least six weeks prior to testing, a person should follow a normal diet containing gluten in more than one meal a day. This is the case for both serological and histological testing. If a diagnosis of coeliac disease is suspected and the person is reluctant to include or reintroduce gluten in their diet prior to any testing, then they should be referred to a gastrointestinal specialist.
Serological testing for coeliac disease is used to indicate whether further investigation is needed. A positive test should prompt referral to a gastrointestinal specialist for intestinal biopsy to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. When serology is requested, the preferred first choice test is currently IgA transglutaminase (tTGA). If the result is equivocal, IgA endomysial antibodies (EMA) testing can be used.
IgA deficiency can lead to false negative results, so IgA deficiency should be ruled out if serology is negative. IgG tTGA and/or IgG EMA serology can be used in those with confirmed IgA deficiency. Human leucocyte antigen (HLA) DQ2/DQ8 testing may be considered by gastrointestinal specialists in specific clinical situations; however, it doesn’t have a role in the initial testing for coeliac disease.
It should be borne in mind that if serological testing is negative but there is significant clinical suspicion of coeliac disease, then referral to a gastrointestinal specialist should be offered as serological tests are not 100% accurate. A clinical response to gluten-free diet is not diagnostic of coeliac disease. For example, some patients with irritable bowel syndrome may be gluten sensitive but not have coeliac disease. Implications of a positive test should be discussed prior to serological testing being performed, including the nature of the further investigations needed and the implications for other family members should the test be positive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs). She reports drinking no more than 3 units of alcohol per week and has no significant medical history. Her dentist prescribed amoxicillin for a dental infection 2 weeks ago. On physical examination, she is overweight with a BMI of 30 kg/m2. Her LFTs reveal:
ALT 120 U/L (5-40)
AST 130 U/L (10-40)
Alkaline phosphatase 200 U/L (45-105)
What is the most likely cause of her abnormal LFTs?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Explanation:Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) and its Causes
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a common condition caused by the accumulation of fat in the liver, leading to inflammation. It is often associated with obesity, hypertension, dyslipidaemia, and insulin resistance. NAFLD is the most likely cause of liver enzyme abnormalities in patients with these conditions. However, other causes of hepatitis should be excluded before making this diagnosis.
Patients who are obese and diabetic are advised to lose weight and control their diabetes. A low-fat, low-calorie diet is usually recommended alongside treatment to lower HbA1c. Patients with NAFLD should avoid alcohol or other substances that could be harmful to the liver. It is important to note that deranged liver enzymes are not listed as side effects for amoxicillin in the British National Formulary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of dysphagia. He believes it has been present for around 18 months, but it is getting worse. He also reports experiencing chest discomfort, coughing at night, and waking up with undigested food on his pillow in the morning.
During the examination, his throat, neck, chest, and abdomen appear normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of achalasia, which is characterized by the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to relax, leading to a functional stricture. This can cause substernal cramps, regurgitation, and pulmonary aspiration due to the retention of food and saliva in the oesophagus, resulting in a nocturnal cough. Diagnosis is made using a barium swallow, and treatment involves endoscopic balloon dilation or cardiomyotomy. Barrett’s oesophagus, motor neurone disease, oesophageal carcinoma, and pharyngeal pouch are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s age, symptoms, and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman presents with complaints of lethargy. Routine blood testing reveals hypochromic microcytic anaemia with a low ferritin. Her haemoglobin level is 100 g/l. She has had no symptoms of abnormal bleeding, indigestion or change in bowel habit and there is no medication use of note. She is still menstruating and regards her menstrual loss as normal. She has a normal diet and there have been no recent foreign trips. Faecal occult blood tests are negative. There is no family history of colorectal cancer. Abdominal examination is normal.
What is most appropriate for this stage in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measure tissue transglutaminase antibody
Explanation:Recommended Actions for Patients with Iron Deficiency Anaemia
Iron deficiency anaemia is a common condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Here are some recommended actions for patients with this condition:
Screen for Coeliac Disease: All patients with iron deficiency anaemia should be screened for coeliac disease using coeliac serology, which involves measuring the presence of anti-endomysial antibody or tissue transglutaminase antibody.
Refer for Gastrointestinal Investigations: Men of any age with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin level of 110 g/l or below, as well as women who are not menstruating with a haemoglobin level of 100 g/l or below, should be urgently referred for upper and lower gastrointestinal investigations. For other patients, referral for gastrointestinal investigation will depend on the haemoglobin level and clinical findings.
Prescribe Iron Supplements: Treatment for iron deficiency anaemia should begin with oral ferrous sulphate 200 mg tablets two or three times a day. Doctors should not wait for investigations to be carried out before prescribing iron supplements.
Check Vitamin B12 and Folate Levels: Vitamin B12 and folate levels should be checked if the anaemia is normocytic with a low or normal ferritin level, there is an inadequate response to iron supplements, vitamin B12 or folate deficiency is suspected, or the patient is in an older age bracket.
Avoid Inappropriate Tests: Pelvic ultrasound examination is not necessary for patients with iron deficiency anaemia unless they have gynaecological symptoms.
By following these recommended actions, patients with iron deficiency anaemia can receive timely and appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 107
Incorrect
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You receive a positive faecal immunochemical test (FIT) result following investigation of an elderly patient's unexplained abdominal pain.
What would be the most appropriate next step in your management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer using a suspected lower gastrointestinal cancer pathway
Explanation:Faecal Occult Blood Tests for Colorectal Cancer
Faecal occult blood tests are recommended by NICE for patients who show symptoms that may suggest colorectal cancer but are unlikely to have the disease. If the test result is positive, patients should be referred through the suspected cancer pathway. However, a positive result may also indicate other conditions such as colorectal polyps or inflammatory bowel disease.
It is important to note that there is no need to repeat the FIT or order further investigations before referral. This test is a simple and effective way to detect early signs of colorectal cancer and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 68-year old male presents with dyspepsia.
On further questioning his symptoms started about two months ago. He has been getting epigastric discomfort and heartburn; he also feels a little bit more breathless than usual and puts this down to being a heavy smoker for the last forty years. He doesn't take any regular medications and has not used any over-the-counter remedies recently. He thinks he's lost some weight.
On examination, he looks a little pale and has some angular stomatitis.
What is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for urgent gastroscopy
Explanation:Identifying ‘Alarm’ Symptoms in Primary Care Patients with Dyspepsia
When evaluating patients with dyspepsia in primary care, it is crucial to identify any ‘alarm’ symptoms or ‘red flags’ that may indicate a more serious underlying condition. By taking a targeted history and performing a thorough examination, healthcare providers can determine which patients require urgent referral for further investigation and which can be managed in the community.
In the case of a male patient over 55-years-old with persistent unexplained dyspepsia, signs of anaemia (such as shortness of breath, pallor, and angular stomatitis), and a history of smoking, these ‘alarm’ features suggest the need for urgent referral for endoscopy to investigate the possibility of upper gastrointestinal (GI) cancer. The June 2015 update recommends a 2-week referral for patients over 55 with weight loss, abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. By identifying and acting on ‘alarm’ symptoms, healthcare providers can ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potentially serious conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 109
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with a history of GORD symptoms presents to the clinic after a three month trial of omeprazole 20 mg. Further investigations have revealed that he has a hiatus hernia. The decision is made to continue his omeprazole treatment and he is advised to lose weight as his BMI is 32.
Despite losing 5 kg over the past six months, he has visited the clinic twice for antibiotics due to lower respiratory tract infections. He has also been experiencing a nocturnal cough and possible asthma symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase his omeprazole to 40 mg
Explanation:Indications for Surgical Repair of Hiatus Hernia
Indications for surgical repair of hiatus hernia include recurrent respiratory tract infection due to reflux. It is also considered in patients who have a para-oesophageal hernia because of the risk of strangulation.
Given this patient’s young age and the fact that he has attended twice in six months with symptoms of respiratory tract infection, surgical referral for laparoscopic fundoplication is advised. This procedure can help alleviate symptoms of reflux and prevent further respiratory tract infections. It is important to consider surgical intervention in cases where conservative management has failed or when there is a risk of complications such as strangulation. Proper evaluation and management of hiatus hernia can improve the quality of life for patients and prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of epigastric pain and waterbrash that have lasted for four months. It is not worsening, but neither is it resolving. She has been taking alendronic acid tablets for osteoporosis over a similar timeframe. There is no history of dysphagia or weight loss and an examination of her abdomen is normal. Full blood count, inflammatory markers, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests are all normal.
Which of the following is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophagitis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Epigastric Pain: A Case Study
Epigastric pain is a common complaint among adults, with up to 60% experiencing heartburn and using over-the-counter products to relieve indigestion. However, it can also be a symptom of more serious conditions such as oesophagitis, gastric carcinoma, pancreatic carcinoma, peptic ulcer disease, and oesophageal carcinoma.
In a case study, a patient presented with stable epigastric pain for four months, accompanied by waterbrash and a history of alendronate use. While gastric and pancreatic carcinomas were deemed unlikely due to the absence of red flag symptoms and deterioration in clinical condition, oesophagitis was considered the most likely diagnosis. Contributing factors such as alcohol, NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, and smoking were identified, and treatment involved eliminating these factors and using proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole.
Overall, it is important to consider various possible causes of epigastric pain and conduct a thorough evaluation to determine the appropriate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A patient in their 50s with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is still experiencing constipation and abdominal discomfort despite trying various laxatives. According to NICE guidelines, linaclotide should be considered as a new medication for patients with IBS with constipation who have not responded to different laxatives. What is the primary mechanism of action of linaclotide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases amount of fluid in the intestinal lumen
Explanation:Anxiety-reducing (alleviates symptoms of distress)
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient who has been experiencing fatigue has a positive IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) result. What is the initial management plan for this patient in regards to the test result?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to gastroenterology
Explanation:As part of a coeliac screen, IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) is one of the blood tests conducted along with total IgA and possibly anti-endomysial antibodies. According to the 2015 NICE guidance on Coeliac Disease, patients who test positive for this should be referred to gastroenterology for an intestinal endoscopy and biopsy to confirm the condition. Only after confirmation should the patient start a gluten-free diet under the guidance of a dietician.
Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet
Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten-containing cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats must be avoided. However, some patients with coeliac disease can tolerate oats. Gluten-free foods include rice, potatoes, and corn. Compliance with a gluten-free diet can be checked by testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies.
Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which is why they are offered the pneumococcal vaccine. Coeliac UK recommends that patients with coeliac disease receive the pneumococcal vaccine and have a booster every five years. influenza vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.
Overall, managing coeliac disease requires strict adherence to a gluten-free diet and regular immunisation to prevent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has had intermittent heartburn and acid regurgitation over the past 10 years. He has previously had an H2 receptor antagonist and a proton pump inhibitor with good effect. He occasionally has bought preparations from the pharmacy with good effect. His body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m2 and he smokes 15 cigarettes per day. His symptoms have been worse recently and are waking him at night.
Select from the list the single management option that is likely to be most effective in bringing about a QUICK resolution of his symptoms.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proton pump inhibitor (PPI)
Explanation:Management of Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease-Like Symptoms
Explanation:
When a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), it is recommended to manage it as uninvestigated dyspepsia, according to NICE guidelines. This is because an endoscopy has not been carried out, and there are no red flag symptoms that require immediate referral for endoscopy.
The first step in managing GORD-like symptoms is to advise the patient on lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, dietary changes, smoking cessation, and alcohol reduction. These changes may lead to a reduction in symptoms.
In the short term, a full dose of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for one month is the most effective treatment to bring about a quick resolution of symptoms. If the patient has responded well to PPI in the past, it is likely to be effective again. Testing for H. pylori may also be an option if it has not been done previously.
After the initial treatment, a low-dose PPI as required may be appropriate for the patient. Other drugs such as H2 receptor antagonists, antacids, and prokinetics can also be used in the management of uninvestigated dyspepsia. However, they are not the first choice according to the guidelines and are less likely to be as effective as a PPI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 114
Incorrect
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Each one of the following is a recognised complication of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Managing Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a condition where gastric contents cause symptoms of oesophagitis. If GORD has not been investigated with endoscopy, it should be treated according to dyspepsia guidelines. However, if oesophagitis is confirmed through endoscopy, full dose proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) should be given for 1-2 months. If there is a positive response, low dose treatment may be given as required. If there is no response, double-dose PPIs should be given for 1 month.
For endoscopically negative reflux disease, full dose PPIs should be given for 1 month. If there is a positive response, low dose treatment may be given on an as-required basis with a limited number of repeat prescriptions. If there is no response, H2RA or prokinetic should be given for one month.
Complications of GORD include oesophagitis, ulcers, anaemia, benign strictures, Barrett’s oesophagus, and oesophageal carcinoma. It is important to manage GORD effectively to prevent these complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with a known diagnosis of ulcerative colitis presents with a 5 day history of worsening symptoms. He has been having six episodes of uncomfortable bloody stools per day which is an increase compared to his regular bowel habits. Observations in clinic are stable but he is concerned that oral mesalazine is not controlling his disease.
What would be an appropriate medication to add in order to gain better control of his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone
Explanation:If a patient with mild-moderate ulcerative colitis doesn’t respond to topical or oral aminosalicylates, the next step is to add oral corticosteroids. In this case, the patient is experiencing 5 bloody stools per day and is already taking mesalazine. Therefore, oral steroids are recommended for flare-ups, but they are not used for maintaining remission.
Anti-motility drugs like loperamide should not be used as they may increase the risk of toxic megacolon. Metronidazole is not necessary as there is no indication of an infection.
Intravenous hydrocortisone is not needed as the patient’s condition is stable and hospitalization is not required at this time. Severe exacerbation is typically defined as passing more than 6-8 episodes of bloody stools per day.
Although it is important to manage the patient’s discomfort, oral NSAIDs should be avoided as they can worsen colitis symptoms. Paracetamol is the preferred first-line treatment.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man has been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and CLO testing during gastroscopy confirms the presence of Helicobacter pylori. What is the best course of action for eradicating Helicobacter pylori?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lansoprazole + amoxicillin + clarithromycin
Explanation:Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems
Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.
The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.
The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presented having recently returned from Bangladesh. He reported jaundice and itching. His viral hepatitis serology shows active hepatitis E infection.
Select from the list the single true statement concerning hepatitis E.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis doesn't occur in immunocompetent patients
Explanation:Hepatitis E and D: A Comparison
Hepatitis E is a self-limiting illness that follows a similar course to hepatitis A. However, fulminant disease can occur in a small percentage of cases. This type of hepatitis is most commonly found in developing countries and is transmitted through contaminated drinking water. While person-to-person contact transmission is rare, maternal-neonatal transmission can occur, with pregnant women being at the highest risk of developing fulminant hepatitis. Management of hepatitis E is supportive, and there are no chronic cases except in immunocompromised individuals.
On the other hand, hepatitis D requires co-infection with hepatitis B to cause inflammation. Co-infection with hepatitis D increases the likelihood of hepatitis B progressing to chronic disease and cirrhosis. Hepatitis D is most commonly found in Mediterranean countries, parts of Eastern Europe, the Middle East, Africa, and South America.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man comes in for the results of his recent blood tests. He had visited the clinic yesterday due to jaundice and urgent blood tests were conducted. He denies any abdominal discomfort and feels fine. His heart rate is 82 beats per minute and he has a slight fever of 37.5 oC. The results of his liver function tests are as follows:
- Bilirubin 150 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP 110 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT 20 u/L (3 - 40)
- γGT 15 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin 40 g/L (35 - 50)
As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange same day admission to secondary care
Explanation:The patient with jaundice and a bilirubin level exceeding 100 micromol/L requires same day admission. Additionally, the patient is feverish, which further supports the need for immediate hospitalization.
Hepatobiliary disease and related disorders can present with a variety of symptoms and exam findings. Viral hepatitis may cause nausea, vomiting, anorexia, myalgia, lethargy, and RUQ pain, and risk factors such as foreign travel or intravenous drug use may be highlighted in exam questions. Congestive hepatomegaly can occur as a result of congestive heart failure and may cause pain due to liver stretching. Biliary colic is characterized by intermittent RUQ pain that often occurs after eating, and attacks may be accompanied by nausea. Acute cholecystitis presents with severe and persistent pain that may radiate to the back or right shoulder, and the patient may be pyrexial and have a positive Murphy’s sign. Ascending cholangitis is an infection of the bile ducts that presents with fever, RUQ pain, and jaundice. Gallstone ileus can cause small bowel obstruction and is associated with abdominal pain, distension, and vomiting. Cholangiocarcinoma may cause persistent biliary colic symptoms, anorexia, jaundice, weight loss, and exam findings such as a palpable mass in the RUQ and lymphadenopathy. Acute pancreatitis may be due to alcohol or gallstones and presents with severe epigastric pain, vomiting, tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. Pancreatic cancer may present with painless jaundice, anorexia, weight loss, and pain. Amoebic liver abscess may cause malaise, anorexia, weight loss, and mild RUQ pain, but jaundice is uncommon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male presents two weeks following a knee replacement with severe diarrhea. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile
Explanation:The probable reason for the patient’s condition is Clostridium difficile, which could have been caused by the administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics during the operation. According to NICE guidelines, patients undergoing clean surgery with prosthesis or implant placement, clean-contaminated surgery, contaminated surgery, or surgery on a dirty or infected wound should receive antibiotics to prevent surgical site infections. In cases of contaminated or infected wounds, prophylaxis should be accompanied by antibiotic treatment.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 120
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports a four week history of reduced stool frequency with firmer stool consistency. She currently has a bowel movement every other day, whereas prior to the last four weeks she had a bowel movement once a day. She denies any rectal bleeding or diarrhea and has no anal symptoms or incontinence. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender without masses. Rectal examination is also normal. She has been taking codeine phosphate 30 mg qds for her arthritic knee, which was prescribed by a colleague one month ago. Recent blood tests show normal full blood count, ESR, thyroid function, and calcium. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Provide advice regarding the constipation and reassure
Explanation:Managing Constipation in a Patient on Analgesia
The patient’s constipation is not a mystery as it coincides with the prescription of codeine phosphate, which slows down bowel transit. There are no other concerning symptoms in the patient’s history or examination that would warrant an urgent referral to a lower gastrointestinal specialist for suspected cancer.
To manage the patient’s constipation, the healthcare provider should provide advice on diet and lifestyle, review the patient’s medication to identify any contributing factors, and counsel the patient on red flags. The patient has already undergone blood tests to investigate secondary causes of constipation, such as hypothyroidism or hypercalcaemia. The healthcare provider can also discuss the use of laxatives with the patient.
Overall, managing constipation in a patient on analgesia involves identifying contributing factors, providing lifestyle advice, and discussing treatment options with the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with progressive dysphagia and weight loss. He is a smoker with a 45-pack-year history. He is fast-tracked for investigation of suspected oesophageal adenocarcinoma. It is noted that he has a past medical history relevant to the referral.
What is the most likely condition to warrant consideration in this patient’s referral?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Barrett's oesophagus
Explanation:Gastrointestinal Conditions and Their Associated Cancer Risks
Barrett’s Oesophagus, Duodenal Ulceration, Crohn’s Disease, Partial Gastrectomy, and Ulcerative Colitis are all gastrointestinal conditions that have been linked to an increased risk of cancer.
Barrett’s Oesophagus is a condition where the normal lining of the oesophagus is replaced by metaplastic columnar epithelium, which can lead to dysplasia and invasive adenocarcinoma. Risk factors for progression to adenocarcinoma include male sex, increasing age, extended segment disease, and family history. Smoking and alcohol are also strong risk factors.
Duodenal Ulceration is caused by Helicobacter pylori infection and has been linked to an increased risk of non-cardia gastric cancer.
Crohn’s Disease increases the risk of colon cancer, particularly if the entire colon is involved. The risk of small-intestinal malignancy is also increased.
Partial Gastrectomy is not associated with an increased risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma, but gastric-stump cancer is a risk after partial gastrectomy, typically occurring ten years or longer after the procedure.
Ulcerative Colitis carries a significantly increased risk of colon cancer, with the extent and duration of the disease being important factors.
Overall, it is important for individuals with these gastrointestinal conditions to be aware of their increased cancer risk and to undergo regular screenings and surveillance to detect any potential malignancies early.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man complains of insomnia and lethargy. He denies any other systemic symptoms. During a routine clinical examination, a non-pulsatile mass is palpated in the right lower quadrant of his abdomen that doesn't move with respiration. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to local colorectal service
Explanation:Colorectal cancer referral guidelines were updated by NICE in 2015. Patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, those who are 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, and those who are 60 years or older with iron deficiency anaemia or a change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients with positive results for occult blood in their faeces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should be considered if there is a rectal or abdominal mass, an unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or if patients under 50 years old have rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anaemia.
The NHS offers a national screening programme for colorectal cancer every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia, and those who are 60 years or older who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with cramping abdominal pain and profuse diarrhoea, which is sometimes bloody. He thinks it may be related to some chicken he ate 3 days ago before returning from a holiday in South East Asia. He has no other comorbidities and works in the local pub.
On examination, his temperature is 38.0 °C. There is mild tenderness in the left iliac fossa. His observations are normal. A stool sample is positive for campylobacter.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe an antibiotic
Explanation:Managing Campylobacter Infection: Antibiotics, Hydration, and Work Restrictions
Campylobacter is a common bacterial cause of infectious intestinal disease, often contracted through undercooked meat, contaminated water, or contact with infected animals. When a patient presents with symptoms such as fever, bloody diarrhea, and abdominal pain, a stool culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. According to NICE guidelines, antibiotic treatment is recommended for patients with positive stool cultures and severe symptoms. Erythromycin is the first-line choice, with alternatives including azithromycin, clarithromycin, and ciprofloxacin.
Patients should not return to work for at least 48 hours after the last episode of diarrhea or vomiting, and longer if they work with food or in other specific settings. Hospital admission is only necessary for severe symptoms or systemic illness. Antimotility drugs are not recommended for patients with possible Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli infection, but may be useful for travelers’ diarrhea. Oral rehydration salts are important for managing symptoms and preventing dehydration. With appropriate treatment and management, most cases of Campylobacter infection will resolve within a week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis (UC) comes to you with deteriorating symptoms. You believe he is experiencing a UC flare-up but doesn't need to be hospitalized based on clinical indications. He is presently taking suboptimal oral mesalazine once a day. He has no IBD care plan in place but has been diagnosed with severe disease.
What is the best course of action for managing his UC flare-up?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start oral budesonide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ulcerative Colitis Flares
Oral or rectal mesalazine (or rectal steroids) are the recommended first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) flares. The dose of oral mesalazine can be increased up to 4.8g daily for the treatment of flares. It is important to review the patient’s response to treatment after 2 weeks, or sooner if deterioration occurs.
While oral steroids are a potential treatment for UC flare-ups, they are not considered first-line treatments. Alternatives to oral steroids are preferred where possible. Immunosuppressants such as azathioprine and mercaptopurine may be considered by secondary care.
If a patient requires more than 2 courses of steroids in 12 months or is unable to reduce their oral steroid use below 15 mg prednisolone per day, escalation of IBD therapy may be necessary. It is important to inform the patient’s IBD team that a flare has occurred.
The IBD toolkit developed with the RCGP provides helpful advice on flare management. To ensure effective treatment of UC flares, it is important to follow these guidelines and work closely with the patient’s healthcare team.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old teacher has recently been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection, following a referral to the local gastroenterologist.
You have not yet received their clinic letter but the patient says that they explained to him that he will be starting treatment soon and wanted to ask you a few questions about the likely success.
Which of the following factors is associated with a good response to interferon alpha in patients with hepatitis C?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of cirrhosis
Explanation:Factors Affecting Response to Interferon Alpha in Hepatitis C Treatment
A high viral load, obesity, old age, cirrhosis, continued alcohol use, immune deficiency, poor adherence to treatment, and significant steatosis on liver biopsy are all factors that can affect the response rate to interferon alpha in hepatitis C treatment. Patients with genotype 1 infection and a high viral load are particularly at risk for a poor response to interferon alpha. On the other hand, patients with genotypes 2 or 3 infection and a short duration of disease have a better chance of responding well to treatment. The recommended duration of therapy also varies depending on the genotype. It is important to address these factors when considering treatment options for hepatitis C patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 126
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a 75-year-old man who has come to see you for the result of his recent colonoscopy. The report states:
Good bowel preparation, optimal views, no intraluminal mass seen appearances consistent with melanosis coli and confirmed on biopsy.
What is the cause of this gentleman's colonoscopy findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inflammatory colitis
Explanation:Melanosis Coli: A Benign Condition Caused by Laxative Use
Many gastroenterology departments now offer rapid access for endoscopy directly from primary care. Consequently, GPs increasingly have endoscopy reports sent back to them for patients who can be managed in primary care and do not need any further hospital input.
In this case, the endoscopy report identified melanosis coli, a benign condition that causes pigmentation of the colon wall. This condition is typically caused by long-term use of anthraquinone laxatives such as senna. The lesions are not due to melanin but rather a brown pigment called lipofuscin, which is deposited in macrophages in the colonic mucosa.
It is important to note that melanosis coli is not a feature of inflammatory colitis or diverticular disease. Colonic lesions are often biopsied, and as in this case, the biopsy confirms the clinical diagnosis and doesn’t suggest the presence of carcinoma.
Peutz-Jegher syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition that causes gastrointestinal polyps. Patients with this condition can display mucocutaneous pigmentation and perioral freckling. Polyps may undergo malignant transformation, and sufferers of this condition have a 12-fold increased risk of carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a history of diarrhoea for the past eight weeks and fresh rectal bleeding for the past few weeks. She has a past medical history of irritable bowel syndrome and frequently experiences bloating, which has worsened in recent weeks. She started a new job two months ago, which has been stressful. On examination, there is abdominal tenderness but no other abnormal signs.
What would be the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe GTN ointment and review in a month
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Rectal Bleeding and Diarrhoea
This woman is experiencing persistent diarrhoea and rectal bleeding, which cannot be attributed to irritable bowel syndrome. According to NICE guidelines, she requires urgent referral for suspected cancer pathway referral within two weeks. This is because she is under 50 years of age and has rectal bleeding with unexplained symptoms such as abdominal pain, weight loss, and iron-deficiency anaemia.
Prescribing GTN ointment or loperamide would not be appropriate in this case as they would only delay diagnosis and not address the underlying issue. Carcinoembryonic antigen testing is useful for assessing prognosis and monitoring treatment in colorectal cancer patients, but it should only be ordered after malignancy has been confirmed. Similarly, TTG testing for coeliac disease is good practice for patients with IBS-like symptoms, but it would not be appropriate in the presence of rectal bleeding of unknown origin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A concerned man visits your clinic as he participated in the routine bowel cancer screening program and received a positive faecal occult blood test (FOBt) result. He inquires if this indicates that he has bowel cancer. What is the estimated percentage of patients with a positive FOBt result who are subsequently diagnosed with bowel cancer during colonoscopy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10%
Explanation:Colorectal Cancer Screening with FIT Test
Overview:
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS provides home-based screening for older adults through the Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT). Although a one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England, it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was further exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. However, the trial showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used in future bowel screening programmes.Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS offers a national screening programme every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests as it only detects human haemoglobin, not animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. Although a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.Colonoscopy:
Approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with anaemia on a routine blood test. Her haemoglobin is 96 g/L (115-165) and her MCV is 72 fL (80-96). Further blood tests reveal a ferritin of 8 µg/L (15-300) and negative coeliac serology. Haemoglobin electrophoresis is normal.
She denies any gastrointestinal symptoms, rectal bleeding, weight loss, haematuria or haemoptysis. Her menstrual cycle is regular with periods every 28 days. She reports heavy bleeding for five days followed by lighter bleeding for three days, which has been the case for several years. She doesn't consider her periods to be problematic.
Physical examination, including urine dipstick testing, is unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start oral iron replacement
Explanation:Investigating Anaemia: Identifying and Treating Iron Deficiency
A new diagnosis of anaemia should prompt further investigation. A low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) suggests iron deficiency anaemia, which can be confirmed with a ferritin level test. However, it is important to note that ferritin levels may be falsely normal in the presence of an acute phase response. In such cases, iron studies may be useful. Once iron deficiency is confirmed, the underlying cause should be identified.
Patients with upper gastrointestinal symptoms or unexplained low haemoglobin levels require urgent referral for endoscopic gastrointestinal assessment. Coeliac serology and haemoglobin electrophoresis should also be considered to rule out coeliac disease and hereditary causes of microcytic anaemia, respectively.
In patients who do not require urgent referral, non-gastrointestinal blood loss and poor diet should be considered. Menstrual blood loss is a common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in menstruating women. In such cases, iron replacement therapy should be initiated, and haemoglobin levels should be monitored for improvement. If heavy menstrual bleeding is the cause, it should be treated, and if the patient doesn’t respond to iron supplementation, gastroenterology referral is appropriate.
In summary, identifying and treating iron deficiency anaemia requires a thorough investigation of the underlying cause. Prompt referral is necessary in certain cases, while others may require iron replacement therapy and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with no past medical history has been struggling to lose weight. She has been attending supervised weight loss sessions and gym classes, but has not been successful in her efforts. She was prescribed orlistat 120 mg, to be taken after each meal, 10 weeks ago when she weighed 100 kg (BMI 37 kg/m2). After 10 weeks of taking orlistat, she now weighs 97.5 kg. What would be the most appropriate management in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discontinue orlistat
Explanation:Options for Managing Inadequate Weight Loss with Orlistat
Orlistat is a medication used to aid weight loss by reducing the absorption of dietary fat. However, if a patient fails to lose at least 5% of their body weight after 12 weeks of treatment, orlistat should be discontinued. Here are some options for managing inadequate weight loss with orlistat:
1. Discontinue orlistat: If a patient has not lost at least 5% of their starting weight, orlistat should be discontinued. A lower weight loss target may be considered for patients with type II diabetes.
2. Increase activity levels: Increasing physical activity can help with weight loss. However, it is important to address any underlying issues that may be hindering weight loss.
3. Refer for bariatric surgery: Bariatric surgery may be an option for patients with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 or more, or 35–40 kg/m2 with significant comorbidity that could be improved with weight loss. Non-surgical methods of weight loss should be attempted prior to referral.
4. Increase the dose to 180 mg with meals: The maximum dose of orlistat is 120 mg up to three times a day. A 60 mg preparation is available over the counter. However, increasing the dose beyond the recommended maximum is not advised.
It is important to regularly review progress and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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Coeliac disease screening should be conducted for all patients diagnosed with?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 132
Incorrect
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You come across a 30-year-old accountant who has been diagnosed with Crohn's disease after experiencing abdominal pain, loose stools and a microcytic anaemia. The individual is seeking further information on the condition.
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding Crohn's disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoporosis occurs in up to 30% of patients with inflammatory bowel disease
Explanation:Upon diagnosis, approximately 66% of individuals with inflammatory bowel disease exhibit anaemia. Crohn’s disease is typically diagnosed at a median age of 30 years. The global incidence and prevalence of Crohn’s disease are on the rise.
Osteoporosis is a condition that is more prevalent in women and increases with age. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis. Some of the most significant risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture history, low body mass index, and current smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, chronic kidney disease, and certain genetic disorders. Additionally, certain medications such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors may worsen osteoporosis.
If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause of osteoporosis and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include a history and physical examination, blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests. Other procedures may include bone densitometry, lateral radiographs, protein immunoelectrophoresis, and urinary Bence-Jones proteins. Additionally, markers of bone turnover and urinary calcium excretion may be assessed. By identifying the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors, healthcare providers can select the most appropriate form of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a flare-up of symptoms, including diarrhoea which is occasionally bloody, up to four times a day. He has diffuse ulcerative colitis and has been in remission; he takes 1.5 g of mesalazine a day.
On examination, his blood pressure is 115/72 mmHg, while his pulse is 75 bpm. Abdominal examination is normal.
What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone tablets
Explanation:Treatment Options for Moderate Exacerbation of Ulcerative Colitis
When a patient experiences a moderate exacerbation of ulcerative colitis, there are several treatment options available. The most appropriate choice is a dose of 20-40 mg of oral prednisolone per day, which should be continued until the patient enters remission. If there is an inadequate response after 2-4 weeks, ciclosporin tablets can be added to the regimen to induce remission. However, these should only be prescribed by specialists in secondary care. Anti-motility drugs such as co-phenotrope should not be used as they may precipitate paralytic ileus and megacolon in active ulcerative colitis. Topical mesalazine is only effective for distal disease, so it is not appropriate for patients with diffuse disease. Topical corticosteroids in the form of prednisolone retention enemas can be used to induce remission in patients with proctitis, but for diffuse disease, oral corticosteroids are more effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of persistent symptoms despite adhering to a gluten-free diet. He is experiencing frequent episodes of abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea. He was diagnosed with coeliac disease a few years ago and has been managing it well otherwise.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intestinal lymphoma
Explanation:Intestinal lymphoma is a rare but increased risk for individuals with coeliac disease, particularly those with refractory coeliac disease. Symptoms of enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma include persistent diarrhoea, stomach pain, and unexplained weight loss. Adhering to a gluten-free diet can decrease the risk of developing lymphoma, as well as other potential complications such as carcinoma of the small bowel or oesophagus. Intestinal lymphangiectasia, bacterial overgrowth of the small intestine, Crohn’s disease, and Giardia intestinalis infection are other possible causes of chronic diarrhoea and weight loss, but are less likely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 35 year-old woman schedules a consultation to address her suspected food intolerance. She suspects she may have a wheat allergy and has noticed that her symptoms of bloating and diarrhea have improved in recent months by following a gluten-free diet. What guidance should the GP provide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Resume eating gluten, bloods for coeliac screen
Explanation:To accurately test for coeliac disease, patients must consume gluten for a minimum of 6 weeks before undergoing the first-line test, which involves measuring serum total immunoglobulin A (IgA) and IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) levels. Failure to consume gluten prior to the test may result in a false negative result. If a patient refuses to consume gluten, they should be referred to a Gastroenterologist, but it should be noted that even an endoscopy and biopsy may yield a negative result if gluten has been excluded from the diet.
Investigating Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.
To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.
In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old male presents with jaundice and pruritus. He has a history of ulcerative colitis and is currently taking sulfasalazine. He reports feeling increasingly tired and has noticed a yellow tint to his eyes. On examination, he has scratch marks on his skin, hepatomegaly, and his blood pressure is 136/88 mmHg with a pulse rate of 74. Blood tests reveal elevated levels of bilirubin, ALT, and ALP. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gallstones
Explanation:Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis in Patients with Ulcerative Colitis
Patients with elevated ALP levels may be incidentally picked up and require further investigation. However, those who are symptomatic may present with jaundice, pruritus, fatigue, and abdominal pain. Clinically, patients may also have hepatomegaly and be jaundiced.
In the case of a patient with ulcerative colitis, the likelihood of primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is significantly increased. Approximately 3% of UC sufferers have PSC, and 80% of those with PSC have UC. While gallstones in the common bile duct and liver cysts of hydatid disease can present with similar symptoms, the history of UC makes PSC a more likely diagnosis. Haemolytic anaemia and osteomalacia can cause elevated ALP levels, but they would not account for the cholestatic liver function and hepatomegaly seen in PSC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to your clinic with a three-month history of dysphagia for solids. He reports weight loss and loss of appetite. He has a history of indigestion and heartburn for the past five years. He takes Gaviscon and Rennie tablets regularly. He is a heavy smoker and drinks regularly. During an endoscopy, a small tumour is found at the lower end of his oesophagus. What is the most probable cause of the tumour?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Barrett's oesophagus
Explanation:Gastro-oesophageal Reflux and its Potential Consequences
The patient’s medical history indicates a prolonged period of gastro-oesophageal reflux, which can lead to the development of Barrett’s oesophagus. This condition occurs when the normal squamous epithelium of the oesophageal lining is replaced by columnar epithelium, which is a precursor to cancer. To monitor for the presence of metaplasia, surveillance endoscopies are recommended every two to five years, depending on the length of the Barrett’s segment. If dysplasia is detected, more frequent surveillance or treatment may be necessary.
The onset of dysphagia for solids and weight loss is concerning, as it may indicate the presence of oesophageal carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of flushing, right-sided abdominal discomfort, diarrhoea and palpitations. She has been experiencing weight loss and there is a palpable mass in her right lower abdomen.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoid syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Flushing and Right-Sided Abdominal Mass
Carcinoid Syndrome and Other Differential Diagnoses
Carcinoid tumours are rare neuroendocrine tumours that can secrete various bioactive compounds, including serotonin and bradykinin, leading to a distinct clinical syndrome called carcinoid syndrome. The symptoms of carcinoid syndrome include flushing, bronchospasm, diarrhoea, and right-sided valvular heart lesions, such as tricuspid regurgitation. However, classical carcinoid syndrome occurs in less than 10% of patients with carcinoid tumours, and the diagnosis requires histological confirmation.
Other possible causes of flushing and right-sided abdominal mass in this patient include appendiceal abscess, caecal carcinoma, menopausal symptoms, and ovarian tumour. An appendiceal abscess usually results from acute appendicitis and presents with pain and fever. Caecal carcinoma can cause similar symptoms as carcinoid tumours, but it is more common and has a worse prognosis. Menopausal symptoms may cause flushing, but they do not explain the other symptoms or the mass. Ovarian tumours may cause abdominal distension and pain, but they are often asymptomatic in the early stages.
Therefore, a thorough evaluation of this patient’s medical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide the appropriate treatment. Depending on the suspected diagnosis, the management may involve surgery, chemotherapy, hormone therapy, or supportive care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a history of weight loss of 8 kg, frothy stools and general malaise. Her haemoglobin level is 102 g/l, with a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 98 fl. The GP is considering a diagnosis of coeliac disease.
What is the single feature that best supports this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Explanation:Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disease that causes blisters and is linked to coeliac disease. Both conditions are thought to be caused by autoantibodies that attack transglutaminase enzymes. DH is often seen in patients with coeliac disease, with around 80% of DH patients also showing signs of coeliac disease on small intestine biopsy. A rectal biopsy showing neutrophil infiltration would not be enough to diagnose coeliac disease, as a biopsy from the small intestine is needed to confirm the condition. Coeliac disease is a genetic disorder, and if one family member has it, there is a chance that their first-degree relatives may also be affected. Metronidazole would not help with coeliac disease symptoms, but may be used to treat other gastrointestinal conditions. Hydrogen breath testing is used to diagnose bacterial overgrowth and carbohydrate malabsorption, as bacteria in the intestine produce hydrogen during carbohydrate breakdown.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old patient visits the GP complaining of fatigue, bloating, and abdominal discomfort that has been ongoing for several months. Upon examination, no abnormalities are found. Blood tests reveal mild normocytic anemia and positive IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGA).
What would be the most suitable course of action for the next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue gluten-containing diet and refer for intestinal biopsy
Explanation:The gold standard for diagnosing coeliac disease is endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all patients suspected of having the condition based on serology results. Therefore, the correct course of action for this patient presenting with abdominal discomfort, bloating, and fatigue, along with a positive tTGA blood test and likely anaemia, is to continue consuming gluten and refer for intestinal biopsy. It is important for patients to consume gluten in their diet for at least 6 weeks prior to serology testing and biopsy. Commencing iron tablets is not the most appropriate action as the anaemia is likely secondary to malabsorption resulting from coeliac disease. Initiating a gluten-free diet is also not appropriate until a diagnosis has been confirmed, as it may result in a false negative result on biopsy.
Investigating Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.
To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.
In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presented with persistent dyspepsia and was referred for a gastroscopy. The test confirmed a duodenal ulcer and a positive urease test. After completing the H. pylori eradication regimen of lansoprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for seven days, she returned to her GP with ongoing epigastric pain. What is the most appropriate way to determine the successful eradication of H. pylori?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: [13C] urea breath test
Explanation:Non-Invasive Tests for Confirming Eradication of H. pylori Infection
After completing eradication therapy for H. pylori infection, routine retesting is not recommended unless there are persistent symptoms. In such cases, the [13C] urea breath test is a sensitive and non-invasive option for detecting the presence of H. pylori bacteria. This test involves administering a drink containing urea labelled with an uncommon isotope and detecting the presence of isotope-labelled carbon dioxide in exhaled breath after 30 minutes. Faecal antigen testing can also be used as a second-line option if the urea breath test is not available. Blood serology testing is not recommended as it remains positive for several months after successful eradication. Endoscopy and histology or CLO test are invasive and costly options that are not justified when accurate non-invasive tests are available. Testing should occur at least four weeks after stopping antibiotics and two weeks after stopping proton pump inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 142
Incorrect
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What is the most common association with acute pancreatitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Azithromycin
Explanation:Acute Pancreatitis: Causes and Risk Factors
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that can be caused by various factors. Certain drugs, such as azathioprine, can increase the risk of developing acute pancreatitis. Gallstones are also a common cause, and can be identified by the presence of Cullen’s sign (periumbilical darkening) or Gray-Turner’s sign (flank darkening). Infections like mumps and Coxsackie B can also lead to acute pancreatitis. Smoking and scorpion bites are other risk factors, with smoking having a synergistic effect when combined with high alcohol intake. Despite the various causes, most single acute episodes of pancreatitis result in uncomplicated recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis (UC) is found to have sigmoid adenocarcinoma on surveillance colonoscopy. He was diagnosed with UC at the age of 14, with the disease mostly confined to the sigmoid colon and rectum. Although his symptoms have generally been well controlled on mesalazine, he has had relapses associated with poor compliance every 1–2 years.
Which single factor is this patient’s history most associated with the risk of developing colonic cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Onset of disease in childhood
Explanation:Understanding the Risk Factors for Colonic Adenocarcinoma in Ulcerative Colitis Patients
Colonic adenocarcinoma is a serious complication that can develop in 3-5% of patients with ulcerative colitis (UC). The cancer tends to be multicentric and atypical in appearance, and it can rapidly metastasize. To prevent this, it is important to understand the risk factors associated with the onset of the disease in childhood.
One of the main risk factors for colon cancer in colitis is the early age of onset, which is before the age of 15 years. Other risk factors include extensive disease (pancolitis), duration (more than ten years), and unremitting disease. Colonoscopic surveillance is recommended for all patients, starting about ten years after the onset of symptoms.
It is important to note that annual relapses are not a risk factor for colonic carcinoma since there is remittance in between episodes. Chronic active inflammation and unremitting disease are the main risk factors.
Left-sided colitis is also a risk factor, but extensive disease and pancolitis carry a higher risk of developing colon cancer. Poor compliance with therapy is not a risk factor in itself, but unremitting disease is a risk factor for colon cancer in UC.
Finally, patients with proctitis alone do not need colonoscopy surveillance, as they are not at increased risk of developing colon cancer compared to the general population. Understanding these risk factors can help prevent the onset of colonic adenocarcinoma in UC patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 144
Incorrect
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You see a 30-year-old lady with a rash on her arm. It started as a small red pimple on her right forearm but has grown into a painful deep ulcer. She has Crohn's disease but is currently not on any treatment for it. She takes the combined contraceptive pill and occasional ibuprofen for headaches.
You suspect she has pyoderma gangrenosum.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extra-intestinal manifestations are common affecting up to 35% of people with Crohn's disease
Explanation:Pyoderma gangrenosum, which is not linked to disease activity, can occur as a manifestation of Crohn’s disease outside of the intestines.
The use of oral contraceptive drugs may elevate the likelihood of developing inflammatory bowel disease in women.
Inflammatory bowel disease relapse or exacerbation may be heightened by the use of NSAIDs.
Following an episode of infectious gastroenteritis, the risk of developing Crohn’s disease is increased by four times, particularly within the first year.
Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.
Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include nonspecific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 145
Incorrect
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The treatment room nurse requests your assistance in evaluating a 67-year-old male patient who has been experiencing a non-healing skin ulcer in his natal cleft. Despite various attempts, there has been no improvement in the condition. The patient has a medical history of angina, benign prostatic hypertrophy, and asthma. Which medication among his current prescriptions is the most probable cause of this non-healing ulcer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nicorandil
Explanation:Nicorandil can lead to anal ulceration. This is because ulceration is a known side effect of nicorandil, which can cause ulcers in the skin, mucosa, and eyes. It can also cause gastrointestinal ulcers that may result in complications such as perforation, haemorrhage, fistula, or abscess. If ulceration occurs, nicorandil treatment should be discontinued, and alternative medication should be considered.
Nicorandil is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina. It works by activating potassium channels, which leads to vasodilation. This process is achieved through the activation of guanylyl cyclase, which results in an increase in cGMP. However, there are some adverse effects associated with the use of nicorandil, including headaches, flushing, and the development of ulcers on the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes. Additionally, gastrointestinal ulcers, including anal ulceration, may also occur. It is important to note that nicorandil should not be used in patients with left ventricular failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man known to have diffuse ulcerative colitis for which he takes mesalazine 1.5g daily has an exacerbation. He is passing up to 10 loose stools per day with blood. He is feeling unwell, appears mildly dehydrated and anaemic.
Select from the list the single most appropriate initial management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:Treatment Options for Inflammatory Bowel Disease Exacerbations
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) can cause severe exacerbations that require hospitalization for fluid and electrolyte replacement, transfusion, and possibly intravenous corticosteroids. However, for less severe exacerbations of diffuse disease, there are other treatment options available.
One option is to increase the dose of mesalazine, which is an anti-inflammatory medication commonly used to treat IBD. Another option is to take oral prednisolone, which is a steroid medication that can help reduce inflammation in the gut.
For those with proctitis or distal disease, prednisolone enemas may be used as a treatment option. These enemas are administered directly into the rectum and can help reduce inflammation in the lower part of the colon.
Overall, the treatment options for IBD exacerbations depend on the severity and location of the disease. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner, reporting increased fatigue over the past few weeks. She has no other symptoms and no signs of liver disease upon examination. She was diagnosed with hepatitis B infection ten years ago and is concerned that the infection may still be active. What is the most suitable test for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B virus (HBV) deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B Markers
Hepatitis B virus (HBV) can be detected through various markers in the blood. The most sensitive indicator of viral replication is the presence of HBV DNA, which is found in high concentrations in both acute and chronic infections. A high level of HBV DNA is associated with an increased risk of liver damage and cancer. Effective antiviral treatment can lower the HBV DNA level.
Anti-HBAb levels indicate decreased viral replication and infectivity in chronic carriers. These patients will only exhibit low levels of HBV DNA.
HBeAg testing is indicated in the follow-up of chronic infection. In those with chronic (active) infection, it remains positive. However, hepatitis B virus DNA can be found without e antigen in hepatitis due to mutant strains of the virus.
Anti-HBsAb is a marker of immunity to hepatitis B. Patients who are immune to the disease as a result of previous infection will also be positive for anti-HBeAg, but they will have cleared HBsAg and will not exhibit detectable HBV DNA. Patients who have been vaccinated for hepatitis B will also be positive for anti-HBsAb, without having any other positive markers.
The presence of IgM anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis, but doesn’t provide detail on the likelihood that the condition has become chronic. Understanding these markers can help in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with concerns about coeliac disease. She reports feeling uncomfortable after consuming wheat, but doesn't experience diarrhoea. What is the most suitable initial course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood test for immunoglobulin A (IgA) anti-tissue transglutaminase (tTG)
Explanation:First-line Testing for Coeliac Disease
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends that the first-line testing for coeliac disease should be for immunoglobulin A (IgA) anti-tissue transglutaminase, replacing IgA endomysial antibodies (EMA) as the most appropriate initial test. Total IgA is also typically measured. However, false negatives may occur if there is an IgA deficiency. In such cases, positive testing should prompt referral for biopsy. False-negative results may also occur in patients who have abstained from gluten for some time. Antigliadin antibodies are no longer used routinely due to their low specificity and sensitivity. Faecal fat is a nonspecific sign of malabsorption and can be positive in many other conditions, such as chronic pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, and following gastrectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of abdominal cramps, bloating and diarrhoea. She has recently returned from a trip to Asia, where she consumed food from various street vendors. Upon examination, her temperature is normal. Analysis of three stool samples reveals cysts, and she responds well to a course of metronidazole. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Giardiasis
Explanation:Possible Causes of a Patient’s Abdominal Symptoms: A Differential Diagnosis
The patient presents with abdominal symptoms including cramps, bloating, and diarrhea. The following are possible causes of these symptoms:
1. Giardiasis: Caused by the protozoan parasite Giardia lamblia, transmitted by poor hygiene, and often associated with travel to areas with poor sanitation. Symptoms include diarrhea, flatulence, cramps, bloating, and nausea. Treatment is with metronidazole.
2. Typhoid fever: Caused by Salmonella typhi, often associated with travel to India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh. Symptoms include fever, but not present in this case.
3. Cryptosporidiosis: A parasite infection often causing sudden onset of watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and fever. Can be foodborne, waterborne, or transmitted through direct contact with livestock or infected people. Self-limiting, but may require treatment with metronidazole.
4. Salmonella enteritidis infection: The most common cause of salmonella gastroenteritis, often associated with contaminated food or poor hygiene. Symptoms include fever, which is not reported in this case.
5. Tapeworm infection: Caused by ingestion of uncooked or undercooked meat/fish containing tapeworm larvae. Symptoms vary depending on the type of tapeworm and may include abdominal discomfort, weight loss, and abnormal LFTs. Eggs may be found on stool examination, not cysts as in this case.
Overall, giardiasis and cryptosporidiosis are the most likely diagnoses given the patient’s symptoms and travel history. However, further testing and evaluation may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents with a history of weight loss and diarrhoea. During a colonoscopy to investigate her symptoms, a biopsy is taken and the report indicates the presence of pigment-laden macrophages suggestive of melanosis coli. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laxative abuse
Explanation:Understanding Melanosis Coli: A Pigmentation Disorder of the Bowel Wall
Melanosis coli is a condition that affects the pigmentation of the bowel wall. This disorder is characterized by the presence of pigment-laden macrophages, which can be observed through histology. One of the primary causes of melanosis coli is laxative abuse, particularly the use of anthraquinone compounds like senna.
This condition is a result of the accumulation of melanin in the macrophages of the colon. The pigmentation can be seen as dark brown or black spots on the lining of the colon. While melanosis coli is not typically a serious condition, it can be a sign of underlying issues such as chronic constipation or other gastrointestinal disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 151
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old gentleman presents with a change in bowel habit. He reports that over the last two to three months he is opening his bowels four to five times a day and the consistency of his stools has become very loose. He has noticed small amounts of blood in his faeces but put this down to 'piles'.
Previously, he used to open his bowels on average once a day and has no personal history of any gastrointestinal problems. There is no family history of bowel problems, he has not lost any weight and he denies any rectal blood loss. Stool mc&s is normal as are his recent blood tests which show that he is not anaemic. Abdominal and rectal examinations are normal.
He tells you that he is not overly concerned about the symptoms as about two months ago he submitted his bowel screening samples and recently had a letter saying that his screening tests were negative. What is the most appropriate next approach in this instance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer him urgently to a specialist for investigation of his lower gastrointestinal tract
Explanation:Importance of Urgent Referral for Patients with Bowel Symptoms
Screening tests are designed for asymptomatic individuals in an at-risk population. However, it is not uncommon for patients with bowel symptoms to mention that they are not worried as they have done their bowel screening and it was negative.
In the case of a 66-year-old man with persistent changes in bowel habit towards looser stools with some rectal bleeding, urgent referral for further investigation is necessary. It is important to note that relying on recent bowel screening results may falsely reassure patients and delay necessary medical attention.
Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to prioritize the patient’s current symptoms and promptly refer them for further evaluation, regardless of their previous screening results. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for patients with bowel symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old gentleman presents with lower gastrointestinal symptoms. He has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and has suffered with infrequent bouts of abdominal bloating and loose stools on and off for years. These are usually managed with mebeverine and loperamide. The diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome was a clinical one and the only investigation he has had in the past were blood tests.
Over the last four weeks he has noticed that this has changed and that his bowels have been persistently loose and significantly more frequent than usual. He has no family history of bowel problems.
On examination he is systemically well with no fever. His abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses. Rectal examination reveals nothing focal. His weight is stable.
Which of the following investigations should you offer your patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Faecal occult blood
Explanation:Investigating Acute Bowel Symptoms in a Patient with Irritable Bowel Syndrome
When a patient with a history of irritable bowel syndrome presents with acute bowel symptoms, it is important to investigate the underlying cause. However, certain investigations may not be appropriate in this context. For example, an abdominal ultrasound scan is not helpful in investigating bowel symptoms. Similarly, CEA tumour marker testing is a specialist investigation and not suitable for primary care. Ca125 is a marker for ovarian cancer and not relevant in this scenario.
According to NICE guidelines, testing for occult blood in faeces should be offered to assess for colorectal cancer in adults aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or in those under 60 with changes in their bowel habit or iron-deficiency anaemia. Stool mc+s may be requested, but it would not be helpful in risk stratifying the patient for urgent referral for colorectal cancer if an infective aetiology is not suspected. Therefore, it is important to choose appropriate investigations based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 153
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the General Practice Surgery with jaundice.
On examination, he has an enlarged, nodular liver. He is referred to hospital where a computed tomography (CT) scan of his abdomen reveals a cirrhotic liver with a large mass. A CT-guided biopsy of the mass demonstrates a malignant tumour derived from hepatic parenchymal cells.
What is the most likely causative agent in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:Viral Causes of Cancer: A Comparison
There are several viruses that have been linked to the development of cancer in humans. Among these, hepatitis B virus is one of the most significant causes of cancer in many parts of the world, particularly in China where liver cancer accounts for about 20% of all cancer deaths. Infant vaccination against the virus is now being introduced to protect the new generation, but it doesn’t provide retrospective protection. On the other hand, hepatitis C is a more common cause of liver cancer in Europe and the United States.
Human T-lymphocyte virus, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus type 8 are also known to cause cancer in humans, but not liver cancer. Human T-lymphocyte viruses can cause adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma, while Epstein–Barr virus has been linked with Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal cancer, and gastric cancer. Human herpesvirus type 8 is associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is most often found in men who have sex with men but can also occur in heterosexuals.
Human papillomavirus (HPV) is another virus that has been linked to cancer, but not liver cancer. HPV types 6 and 11 cause anogenital warts, while HPV16 and HPV18 are responsible for more than two thirds of all cervical cancers globally. HPV infection is also associated with anogenital cancer and some nasopharyngeal cancers.
In summary, while several viruses have been linked to the development of cancer in humans, their specific associations vary. It is important to understand these associations in order to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male came to his doctor complaining of loose stool during the night for the past 2 months. He has a medical history of uncontrolled diabetes, chronic kidney disease, retinopathy, osteoarthritis, and coeliac disease. He denied experiencing abdominal pain, bloating, weight loss, or vomiting. Upon examination, his abdomen appeared normal, and his vital signs were stable. His blood glucose level was 18.7mmol/L.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autonomic neuropathy
Explanation:Autonomic neuropathy is a possible cause of night time diarrhoea in diabetics with poor control of their condition. Other potential diagnoses, such as irritable bowel syndrome, microscopic colitis, Crohn’s disease, and chronic constipation, should be considered and ruled out before making a definitive diagnosis. However, given the patient’s age and medical history, autonomic neuropathy is a likely explanation for her symptoms.
Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This can lead to a glove and stocking distribution of symptoms, with the lower legs being affected first. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with medications such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may also be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may be helpful for patients with resistant problems.
Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy is another complication of diabetes that can cause symptoms such as gastroparesis, erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin, which are prokinetic agents. Chronic diarrhea is another common issue that often occurs at night. Gastroesophageal reflux disease is also a complication of diabetes that is caused by decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 155
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents with a history of anorexia, weight loss, and abdominal discomfort for the past five weeks. On examination, she appears pale and cachectic with no significant abdominal findings. However, there is palpable adenopathy in the left supraclavicular fossa.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the stomach
Explanation:Metastatic Lymph Nodes in the Neck: Causes and Symptoms
Metastatic lymph nodes in the neck, particularly at the root of the neck, are often indicative of cancer in the abdomen, specifically gastric or pancreatic tumors. These types of cancers can remain asymptomatic while spreading to the lymph nodes, making early detection difficult. Virchow’s node is a term used to describe an enlarged left supraclavicular node, which can also be caused by lymphoma, breast cancer, or arm infection. On the other hand, an enlarged right supraclavicular lymph node is typically associated with thoracic malignancies such as lung and esophageal cancer, as well as Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It’s important to note that none of the other options are malignant disorders. If you notice any unusual swelling or lumps in your neck, it’s important to seek medical attention promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 156
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his GP for a follow-up appointment after experiencing a recent exacerbation that required oral corticosteroids for remission. He reports feeling well with no abdominal symptoms, but has had four exacerbations in the past year that required treatment with oral corticosteroids. His current medications include paracetamol and mesalazine. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits and his abdominal exam is unremarkable. His recent blood test results show no significant abnormalities. According to NICE guidelines, what is the recommended next step in managing his ulcerative colitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral thiopurines (azathioprine or mercaptopurine)
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 157
Incorrect
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You encounter a 35-year-old male patient with ulcerative colitis. His previous colonoscopies have revealed widespread disease affecting his entire colon. He reports passing approximately 5 bloody stools per day for the past 3 days.
Upon examination, his heart rate is 82 beats per minute, blood pressure is 129/62 mmHg, and temperature is 36.9ºC. His abdomen is soft and non-tender.
What would be the most suitable course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectal mesalazine and oral sulfasalazine
Explanation:When a patient experiences a mild-moderate flare of ulcerative colitis that extends beyond the left-sided colon, it is recommended to add oral aminosalicylates to rectal aminosalicylates. This is because enemas can only reach a certain point and the addition of an oral medication ensures proper treatment. In this case, the patient’s colonoscopy showed extensive disease, making the use of an oral aminosalicylate necessary. Therefore, this is the correct option and using rectal mesalazine alone is not sufficient.
Using oral steroids like prednisolone and dexamethasone as a first-line treatment is not recommended.
Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial infections, but there is no indication of such an infection in this case.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 158
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer at endoscopy. He is not taking any medication that might have caused this. Testing for Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) returns positive.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PPI, clarithromycin, metronidazole
Explanation:Comparison of Treatment Options for H. Pylori Infection
When treating a patient with a positive H. Pylori test, it is important to choose the appropriate eradication therapy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends a 7-day course of PPI twice daily, amoxicillin 1 g twice daily, and either clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily or metronidazole 400 mg twice daily. If the patient is allergic to penicillin, then a PPI with clarithromycin and metronidazole should be prescribed. If the infection is associated with NSAID use, two months of PPI should be prescribed before eradication therapy.
It is important to note that H2-receptor antagonists should not be used as first-line treatment for H. Pylori. Instead, a PPI should be used. The recommended PPIs are lansoprazole, omeprazole, esomeprazole, pantoprazole, or rabeprazole.
While antacids and dietary advice can be helpful in managing dyspepsia, they are not sufficient for treating H. Pylori. Eradication therapy with appropriate antibiotics is necessary.
If the patient has an ulcer associated with NSAID use and a positive H. Pylori test, NICE recommends using a full-dose PPI for two months before prescribing eradication therapy. However, if the patient is not taking any medication, this step is not necessary.
Sucralfate can protect the mucosa from acid, but it is not part of NICE guidance for H. Pylori treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 159
Incorrect
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You see a child who you are investigating for coeliac disease. Their serology test result is positive.
What would be the next step in your management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No intervention
Explanation:Diagnosis of Coeliac Disease
Patients who are suspected of having coeliac disease and have positive serology test results should be referred to a gastroenterologist for further investigation. The gastroenterologist will perform an endoscopy and intestinal biopsy to confirm or exclude the diagnosis of coeliac disease. It is important for patients to continue eating gluten-containing foods until the biopsy is performed to ensure accurate results.
While dietary advice may be helpful if coeliac disease is confirmed, it is more appropriate to first seek a referral to a gastroenterologist. There is no need to repeat the serology test if it is positive. For more information on how to interpret coeliac serology results, refer to the link provided below. Proper diagnosis and management of coeliac disease can greatly improve a patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 160
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a patient who has come back to see you for the results of some recent blood tests. Three months ago, she had a liver function test that revealed a bilirubin of 42 µmol/L (normal range 3-20). A repeat liver function test conducted last week has shown the same outcome. The rest of her liver profile is within normal limits.
She is otherwise healthy and not taking any regular medication. She is not overweight, drinks alcohol only occasionally, and clinical examination is normal with no signs of liver disease. She is asymptomatic. Full blood count, renal function, thyroid function, fasting glucose, and fasting lipids are all within normal limits.
What is the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No further action needed. Reassure the patient as the result is stable and the other tests are normal.
Explanation:Management of Isolated Slightly Raised Bilirubin Level
When a patient presents with an isolated slightly raised bilirubin level and is asymptomatic, the next step is to confirm the proportion of unconjugated bilirubin to guide further investigation. If the unconjugated bilirubin is greater than 70%, the patient probably has Gilbert’s syndrome. However, if the bilirubin level is almost twice the upper limit of normal, confirmed on interval testing, further investigation is necessary.
If the bilirubin level remains stable on repeat testing, no further action is needed unless there is clinical suspicion of haemolysis. However, if the bilirubin level rises on retesting, haemolysis must be considered and should be investigated with a blood film, reticulocyte count, lactate dehydrogenase, and haptoglobin. It is important to monitor the bilirubin level and investigate further if necessary to ensure proper management of the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 161
Incorrect
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Which of the following patients is most likely to require screening for hepatocellular carcinoma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 45-year-old man with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C
Explanation:Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a type of cancer that ranks third in terms of prevalence worldwide. The most common cause of HCC globally is chronic hepatitis B, while chronic hepatitis C is the leading cause in Europe. The primary risk factor for developing HCC is liver cirrhosis, which can result from various factors such as hepatitis B & C, alcohol, haemochromatosis, and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other risk factors include alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, hereditary tyrosinosis, glycogen storage disease, aflatoxin, certain drugs, porphyria cutanea tarda, male sex, diabetes mellitus, and metabolic syndrome.
HCC often presents late and may exhibit features of liver cirrhosis or failure such as jaundice, ascites, RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, pruritus, and splenomegaly. In some cases, it may manifest as decompensation in patients with chronic liver disease. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) are also common. High-risk groups such as patients with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis B & C or haemochromatosis, and men with liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol should undergo screening with ultrasound (+/- AFP).
Management options for early-stage HCC include surgical resection, liver transplantation, radiofrequency ablation, transarterial chemoembolisation, and sorafenib, a multikinase inhibitor. Proper management and early detection are crucial in improving the prognosis of HCC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents to the GP with a 3-week history of nausea, particularly worse after eating. He has not experienced any weight loss, upper abdominal pain or reflux. His past medical history includes a fractured right ankle in his twenties. He has no relevant family history. He is a social smoker and drinks around 2 pints with his friends at the weekend. The GP orders bloods which show:
Hb 140 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 550 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 9.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 5.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 75 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 3 mg/L (< 5)
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non urgent referral for endoscopy
Explanation:A non-urgent referral to GI is necessary for patients who have both raised platelet count and nausea due to dyspepsia. In this case, the patient, who is 58 years old, meets the criteria for such referral.
While ondansetron is effective for chemically mediated nausea, metoclopramide or domperidone may be more appropriate for patients with reduced gastric motility.
PPI trial is typically used as a second line management for dyspepsia patients who do not require endoscopy referral.
Reassurance should not be given to patients who meet the criteria for non-urgent endoscopy referral, such as this man with dyspepsia symptoms and abnormal blood results.
Urgent endoscopy referral is not necessary for patients who only present with nausea.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.
For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.
Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a long history of intermittent abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea. He has noticed that his symptoms are particularly linked to gluten-containing foods and brings a food diary to support this theory. On examination, he has a body mass index of 19 kg/m2 and is clinically anaemic. Coeliac disease is suspected.
Which of the following investigations will most reliably diagnose this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microscopic examination of a small bowel biopsy specimen
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder of the small bowel induced by gluten. The gold standard for diagnosis is the detection of subtotal villous atrophy on a small-bowel biopsy. However, the detection of tissue transglutaminase IgA antibodies is a widely used screening test with high specificity and sensitivity. Total immunoglobulin A (IgA) should also be measured in case of IgA deficiency. Antibodies become undetectable after 6-12 months of a gluten-free diet, making them useful for monitoring the disease. The xylose absorption test is not appropriate for this patient, while the detection of anti-gliadin antibodies and anti-endomysial antibodies can aid diagnosis but are not preferred methods. Serology for anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies is the first-line screening test and aids referral to gastroenterology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 164
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman with squamous cell lung cancer presents with confusion.
Her family reports that she has become slowly more confused over the last two weeks. She is also complaining of generalised aches and pains, lethargy and thirst. Further enquiry reveals that she has been having increasing problems with constipation.
What is the underlying cause of this presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ectopic parathyroid hormone production
Explanation:Paraneoplastic Syndromes Associated with Lung Cancer
Lung cancer can be associated with various paraneoplastic syndromes, which are caused by substances produced by the tumor that affect other parts of the body. One such syndrome is hypercalcemia, which can cause confusion, lethargy, aches and pains, thirst, and constipation. Squamous cell lung carcinoma is particularly associated with ectopic parathyroid hormone production, leading to increased calcium levels.
Other paraneoplastic syndromes associated with lung cancer include Cushing’s syndrome, which can occur with small cell lung cancer due to ectopic ACTH production; Horner’s syndrome, which can occur with apical lung tumors that invade sympathetic nerve fibers, causing ptosis, miosis, and anhydrosis; and Lambert-Eaton syndrome, an autoimmune process associated with small cell lung cancer that causes muscle weakness and hyporeflexia.
Another condition associated with lung cancer is SIADH, which causes hyponatremia and can lead to confusion, seizures, cardiac failure, edema, and muscle weakness. Causes of SIADH include small cell lung cancer, as well as other malignancies, stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, vasculitis, TB, and certain drugs like opiates. Understanding these paraneoplastic syndromes can help clinicians identify and manage symptoms in patients with lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 165
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of excessive morning sickness during her third month of pregnancy. Her routine blood tests show an ALT level of 64 IU (normal range: < 40 IU/l) and a bilirubin of 55 µmol/l (normal range: < 21 µmol/l). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG)
Explanation:Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that occurs during pregnancy and can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, ketosis, and weight loss. It often affects the liver, with abnormal ALT levels in about half of patients. Jaundice may also occur in severe cases. While HG typically resolves by the end of the third trimester, it can persist throughout pregnancy in some cases.
Acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP) is a rare condition that occurs in about 5 out of 100,000 pregnancies. It often presents in the third trimester with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, headache, and pruritus. Jaundice may also occur and can become severe. AFLP is typically managed by prompt delivery and supportive care, but it is unlikely to be the diagnosis for a patient in the first trimester.
HELLP syndrome is a condition that can occur in patients with severe pre-eclampsia, with symptoms including abnormal pain and elevated AST levels. It is most likely to occur close to delivery, but it can occur as early as 20 weeks. However, this patient is only 13 weeks pregnant, making HELLP syndrome an unlikely diagnosis.
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP) is a common condition that should be considered in cases of abnormal liver function tests in the second trimester. It is characterized by itching, and severe cases may lead to jaundice. Affected pregnancies are at an increased risk of prematurity and stillbirth, so early delivery may be necessary.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that typically occurs in the second half of pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria. It may also cause peripheral edema, abdominal pain, headache, and visual problems. Treatment involves delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of dysphagia for both solids and liquids. He is experiencing no associated nausea or abdominal pain. His weight is stable and he is a lifelong non-smoker.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Dysphagia: Achalasia, Benign Oesophageal Stricture, Barrett’s Oesophagus, Carcinoma of the Oesophagus, and Schatzki’s Rings
Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can be caused by various oesophageal disorders. One such disorder is achalasia, which is characterized by dysphagia for both solids and liquids. It occurs in adults aged 25-60 years and is diagnosed by a barium swallow that reveals a dilated oesophagus. Other symptoms include regurgitation of food, chest pain, heartburn, and nocturnal cough. Benign oesophageal stricture is less likely as it only causes dysphagia for solids. Barrett’s oesophagus, a change in cell type of the epithelium in the distal portion of the oesophagus due to prolonged frequent acid exposure, primarily causes heartburn and acid regurgitation. Carcinoma of the oesophagus should be considered, but it usually causes dysphagia of solids and weight loss. Schatzki’s rings, rings of mucosa or muscle in the lower oesophagus, cause intermittent and non-progressive dysphagia for solids, usually after a patient eats a meal in a hurried fashion. Daily dysphagia is not usually a feature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman is experiencing fatigue and frequent bowel movements. Upon testing, it is found that she has positive anti-endomysial antibodies. Which of the following food items should she avoid, except for one?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maize
Explanation:Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet
Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten-containing cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats must be avoided. However, some patients with coeliac disease can tolerate oats. Gluten-free foods include rice, potatoes, and corn. Compliance with a gluten-free diet can be checked by testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies.
Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which is why they are offered the pneumococcal vaccine. Coeliac UK recommends that patients with coeliac disease receive the pneumococcal vaccine and have a booster every five years. influenza vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.
Overall, managing coeliac disease requires strict adherence to a gluten-free diet and regular immunisation to prevent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with long-standing bowel symptoms that go back several years. He recently joined the practice and reports experiencing bouts of abdominal pain and diarrhea that can last up to a few weeks at a time. His previous GP diagnosed him with irritable bowel syndrome. He also has a history of ankylosing spondylitis, which was diagnosed in his early 20s, and recurrent mouth ulcers. He takes ibuprofen as needed to manage spinal pain from his ankylosing spondylitis.
He is now presenting because he has had abdominal pain and profuse diarrhea for the past two weeks. He is having bowel movements 3-4 times a day, which is similar to previous attacks, but he is more concerned this time because he has noticed fresh blood mixed in with his stools. He has not traveled abroad and has had no contact with sick individuals. He denies any weight loss. He saw the Out of Hours GP service a few days ago, and they submitted a stool sample for testing, which showed no evidence of an infectious cause.
On examination, he is hydrated and afebrile. His blood pressure is 138/90 mmHg, his pulse rate is 88 bpm, and he is not systemically unwell. His abdomen is tender around the umbilicus and across the lower abdomen. He has no guarding or acute surgical findings, and there are no masses or organomegaly. Due to the rectal blood loss, you perform a rectal examination, which reveals several perianal skin tags but nothing focal in the rectum.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In view of the ongoing loose stools and rectal bleeding refer him urgently to a lower gastrointestinal specialist as a suspected cancer
Explanation:Possible Crohn’s Disease Diagnosis
This patient’s symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of Crohn’s disease, which has been previously misdiagnosed as irritable bowel syndrome. The recent discovery of blood in his stools is not consistent with IBS and indicates an alternative cause. Additionally, the presence of ankylosing spondylitis, mouth ulcers, and skin tags are all associated with Crohn’s disease.
To confirm the diagnosis, the patient should undergo faecal calprotectin and blood tests, including FBC, U&Es, albumin, CRP, and ESR. These tests can be performed in primary care. However, the patient should also be referred to a lower GI specialist for further evaluation and confirmation of the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practice Surgery, as he has developed difficulty swallowing. He has a long history of ‘heartburn’, which he manages with over-the-counter antacids. He is a smoker with a 50-pack-year history and drinks around 15 units of alcohol per week. He thinks he has lost 4 kg of weight in the last few months.
Endoscopy reveals a lesion in the lower third of the oesophagus.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus
Explanation:Understanding Oesophageal Cancer and Related Conditions
Oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that can be caused by various factors. Adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus is the most common type in the UK and is associated with chronic gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and Barrett’s oesophagus. Squamous carcinoma, on the other hand, is more likely to occur in the upper two thirds of the oesophagus. Both types of cancer are often asymptomatic until late in the disease, making early detection difficult.
Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition caused by chronic GORD that can increase the risk of developing adenocarcinomas in the distal third of the oesophagus. GORD, which is the reflux of stomach acid into the oesophagus, can cause burning chest pain after eating. However, it doesn’t explain dysphagia or the presence of a lesion seen on endoscopy.
An oesophageal stricture, which is a narrowing of the oesophagus, can also cause dysphagia and may be associated with chronic GORD. However, if weight loss, smoking, and alcohol consumption are present, and a lesion is seen on endoscopy, oesophageal cancer is more likely.
In summary, understanding the risk factors and symptoms of oesophageal cancer and related conditions can aid in early detection and treatment. Regular check-ups and screenings are recommended for those at higher risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with mild jaundice after experiencing flu-like symptoms. He has no prior medical conditions and is in good health. After being evaluated by a Gastroenterologist, it is suspected that he may have Gilbert syndrome. What test result would be most suitable for confirming this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absence of bilirubin in the urine
Explanation:Distinguishing Gilbert Syndrome from Haemolysis: Key Indicators
Gilbert syndrome is a genetic condition that causes unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia without any signs of liver disease or haemolysis. One key indicator is the absence of bilirubin in the urine, as excess bilirubin is unconjugated and doesn’t appear in the urine. Additionally, there should be no signs of liver function abnormality, despite a slight increase in serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) activity that may occur in haemolysis. Another distinguishing factor is the maintenance of normal urinary urobilinogen excretion, as opposed to an increase in haemolytic jaundice. Finally, an increased reticulocyte count, which is elevated in haemolysis, should prompt investigation for an alternative diagnosis in Gilbert syndrome. Overall, understanding these key indicators can aid in distinguishing Gilbert syndrome from haemolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 171
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of yellowing of her eyes and generalized itching for the past 5 days. She denies any fever, myalgia, or abdominal pain. She reports that her urine has become darker and her stools have become paler. She has been in good health otherwise.
The patient had visited the clinic 3 weeks ago for a sore throat and was prescribed antibiotics. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for the past 6 months.
On examination, the patient appears jaundiced in both her skin and sclera. She has no rash but has multiple scratches on her arms due to itching. There is no palpable hepatosplenomegaly, and she has no abdominal tenderness.
Laboratory tests reveal:
- Bilirubin 110 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP 200 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT 60 u/L (3 - 40)
- γGT 120 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin 40 g/L (35 - 50)
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:The patient is presenting with cholestatic jaundice, likely caused by the oral contraceptive pill. This results in intrahepatic jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools. Paracetamol overdose and viral hepatitis would cause hepatocellular jaundice, while Gilbert’s syndrome is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. Choledocholithiasis could also cause obstructive cholestasis. It is appropriate to stop the pill and consider alternative contraception methods, and additional imaging may be necessary if jaundice doesn’t resolve.
Drug-induced liver disease can be categorized into three types: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there can be some overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of liver changes. Certain drugs tend to cause a hepatocellular picture, such as paracetamol, sodium valproate, and statins. On the other hand, drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill, flucloxacillin, and anabolic steroids tend to cause cholestasis with or without hepatitis. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone are known to cause liver cirrhosis. It is important to note that there are rare reported causes of drug-induced liver disease, such as nifedipine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 172
Incorrect
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You assess a 24 year old female with irritable bowel syndrome who expresses frustration with the lack of relief from loperamide and antispasmodic medication. After re-evaluating her history and conducting a thorough examination, you find no new developments or concerning symptoms. What course of action do you suggest for further treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant
Explanation:According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines on the diagnosis and management of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) in primary care, tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) should be considered as a second-line treatment for individuals with IBS if laxatives, antispasmodics, or loperamide have not been effective. The decision to prescribe medication should be based on the severity and nature of symptoms, and the choice of medication or combination of medications should be determined by the predominant symptom(s). Antispasmodic agents should be considered for individuals with IBS, along with dietary and lifestyle advice. Laxatives may be used for constipation, but lactulose should be avoided. Linaclotide may be considered for individuals with constipation who have not responded to other laxatives, and loperamide is the first choice for diarrhea. Individuals with IBS should be advised on how to adjust their medication doses to achieve a soft, well-formed stool. TCAs may be considered if other medications have not been effective, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may be considered if TCAs are not effective. Healthcare professionals should monitor individuals taking TCAs or SSRIs for side effects and adjust the dosage as necessary.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 173
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old woman comes to her doctor with a recent weight loss of 6 kg over the past three months, without any significant pain. During the examination, she appears drawn and emaciated, with deep yellow sclera. She has experienced jaundice twice before, once in her teens, and her sister has also had it. She typically enjoys a glass or two of wine on weekends and smokes 10 cigarettes per day. What is the probable reason for her jaundice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infective hepatitis
Explanation:Causes of Jaundice and their Characteristics
Jaundice can be caused by various conditions, each with their own unique characteristics. Cancer of the pancreas, particularly in the head, can cause painless jaundice. On the other hand, cancer in the body or tail of the pancreas can present with dull, unremitting central abdominal pain or back pain. Smoking is a known risk factor for pancreatic cancer.
Gilbert’s syndrome, a familial condition, can also cause jaundice. However, the jaundice in this case is pale yellow and the patient typically feels well. While Gilbert’s syndrome is not uncommon, it is important to consider other potential causes of jaundice, especially if the patient has significant weight loss. As a wise surgeon once said, People with IBS get Ca bowel too – never forget that.
Hepatitis A is more commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. Primary biliary cirrhosis, on the other hand, has its peak incidence in the fifth decade of life and often presents with generalized pruritus or asymptomatic hepatomegaly. Understanding the characteristics of different causes of jaundice can help in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 174
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man presents with a change in bowel habit. He has noticed that over the last three to four weeks he is passing looser, more frequent stools on a daily basis. Prior to the last three to four weeks he has not had any persistent problems with his bowels. He denies any rectal bleeding. He has no significant past history of any bowel problems.
On examination his abdomen feels normal and his rectal examination is normal. You weigh him and his weight is the same as six months ago.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer him urgently to a lower gastrointestinal specialist
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Urgent Referral and Faecal Occult Blood Testing in Patients with Change in Bowel Habit
In accordance with NICE guidelines, patients aged 60 years and older with a change in bowel habit towards looser and more frequent stools (without rectal bleeding) should be urgently referred. This applies to our 68-year-old male patient. While faecal occult blood testing is not necessary in this case, NICE offers guidance on whom to test for colorectal cancer using this method.
According to the guidelines, faecal occult blood testing should be offered to adults without rectal bleeding who are aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss. Additionally, those aged under 60 with changes in bowel habit or iron-deficiency anaemia should also be tested. For patients aged 60 and over, testing should be offered if they have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure timely and appropriate management of patients with potential colorectal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 175
Incorrect
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At what age is ulcerative colitis commonly diagnosed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bimodal: 15-25 years + 55-65 years
Explanation:Understanding Ulcerative Colitis
Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum and spreads continuously without going beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, and extra-intestinal features. Diagnosis is done through colonoscopy and biopsy, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa, and inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria. Extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease include arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Ulcerative colitis is linked with sacroiliitis, and a barium enema can show the whole colon affected by an irregular mucosa with loss of normal haustral markings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 176
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 44-year-old woman who presented to you last month with a 6 week history of upper abdominal pain, heartburn and occasional reflux. Her medical history is unremarkable and you agreed on a plan for a 1 month trial of omeprazole 20 mg daily.
Sarah returns for a follow-up appointment after completing a month of omeprazole. Her symptoms have only slightly improved and they are still bothering her.
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Test for Helicobacter pylori infection in 2 weeks and treat if positive
Explanation:If initial treatment for dyspepsia with either a PPI or ‘test and treat’ approach fails, the alternative strategy should be tried next. In Mark’s case, he has completed 1 month of a full-dose PPI and should now be tested for H. pylori infection. Referral for routine upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is not necessary at this stage.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.
For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.
Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man visits his General Practitioner to discuss his recent diagnosis of Crohn's disease. He presented eight months ago with weight loss and a change in bowel habit, and was referred to the Gastroenterology Department. The diagnosis was confirmed and he was successfully treated as an inpatient. At the time, he declined maintenance therapy but has since become very worried about this decision and would like to start the treatment. What is the most suitable agent to maintain remission in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Azathioprine
Explanation:Medications for Maintaining Remission in Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory condition that affects the digestive tract. While some patients may choose not to take medication to maintain remission, others may opt for drug therapy. The two main options are azathioprine and mercaptopurine, but it is important to measure thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity before using these drugs. Sulfasalazine is effective in maintaining remission for ulcerative colitis but has limited efficacy for Crohn’s disease. Methotrexate may be considered if other drugs fail or are not tolerated. Metronidazole is used for perianal disease but not for maintaining remission. Conventional corticosteroids like prednisolone or budesonide should not be used for long-term maintenance due to the risks associated with prolonged steroid use. Preventative treatment may be particularly appropriate for those with adverse prognostic factors such as early age of onset, perianal disease, corticosteroid use at presentation, and severe illness at presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents as an emergency to her GP with acute vomiting which began some 3-4 h after attending an afternoon meeting. Cream cakes were served during the coffee break.
Select from the list the most likely causative organism of this acute attack of vomiting.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Understanding Bacterial Food Poisoning: Causes and Symptoms
Bacterial food poisoning is a common problem that can result from consuming contaminated food or water. Among the different types of bacteria that can cause food poisoning, Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, Yersinia, Campylobacter, and Salmonella are the most common. Each of these bacteria has its own unique characteristics and symptoms.
Staphylococcus aureus is known to multiply rapidly in foods that are rich in carbohydrates and salt, such as dairy products, ice cream, cold meats, or mayonnaise. It produces a heat-stable endotoxin that causes nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea within 1-6 hours of ingestion.
Bacillus cereus infection is associated with slow-cooked food and reheated rice. The bacterium produces an emetic toxin that leads to vomiting within 1-5 hours. It can be difficult to distinguish from other short-term bacterial foodborne intoxications such as by Staphylococcus aureus.
Yersinia infection results in diarrhea some 3-10 days after contact and presents with bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. The organism is acquired usually by insufficiently cooked pork or contaminated water, meat, or milk.
Campylobacter infection has an incubation period of 2-5 days and results in flu-like symptoms, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. It is the most common bacterium that causes food poisoning in the UK.
Salmonella infection normally leads to a picture of acute gastroenteritis with fever, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea between 12-36 hours after the ingestion of infected food. Infection occurs from a wide variety of infected foods that usually look and smell normal.
It is important for registered medical practitioners to notify the “proper officer” at their local council or local health protection team of suspected cases of food poisoning. By understanding the causes and symptoms of bacterial food poisoning, individuals can take steps to prevent infection and seek prompt medical attention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 179
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 9-year-old son who has been vomiting for the last day. He reports that since he was 4 years old he has had vomiting episodes 6 to 10 times a year every 4 to 8 weeks. The episodes last for around a day and no clear trigger has been found. He is a well and happy child who is able to eat, drink and gain weight appropriately between these episodes.
He has been thoroughly investigated previously and he has been diagnosed with cyclical vomiting syndrome (CVS).
He has now developed a new symptom associated with his attacks where he complains of abdominal pain, headache, and a sensitivity to light and noise.
What is the most likely cause of this new set of symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Migraine
Explanation:Patients who have cyclical vomiting syndrome have a high probability of developing migraines. The diagnosis of cyclical vomiting syndrome, along with the presence of migraine symptoms such as abdominal pain (which can occur in children), makes migraine the most likely diagnosis. Meningitis is unlikely due to normal examination findings, and meningioma is rare in children and less common than migraine. Gastroenteritis cannot explain the headache or sensitivity to light and noise. There is no indication in the patient’s history of drug overdose.
Understanding Cyclical Vomiting Syndrome
Cyclical vomiting syndrome is a rare condition that is more commonly seen in children than adults. Females are slightly more affected than males. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it has been observed that 80% of children and 25% of adults who develop CVS also have migraines.
The symptoms of CVS include severe nausea and sudden vomiting that can last for hours to days. Patients may also experience intense sweating and nausea before an episode. However, they may feel well in between episodes. Other symptoms that may be present include weight loss, reduced appetite, abdominal pain, diarrhea, dizziness, photophobia, and headache.
To diagnose CVS, doctors may perform routine blood tests to exclude any underlying conditions. A pregnancy test may also be considered in women. Treatment for CVS involves avoiding triggers and using prophylactic medications such as amitriptyline, propranolol, and topiramate. During acute episodes, medications such as ondansetron, prochlorperazine, and triptans may be used.
In summary, cyclical vomiting syndrome is a rare condition that can be challenging to diagnose and manage. However, with proper treatment and avoidance of triggers, patients can experience relief from their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 180
Incorrect
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You are requested to visit a 38-year-old man with motor neurone disease at his residence. He was hospitalized for urosepsis and has just returned home. During his hospital stay, he underwent percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy to facilitate enteral nutrition at home. What is the most probable complication of enteral feeding that he may experience?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia
Explanation:Common Problems with Enteral Feeding
Enteral feeding, or tube feeding, can cause various gastrointestinal problems. Nausea is a common issue that can be caused by administering the feed too quickly or altered gastric emptying. Abdominal bloating and cramps can also occur for similar reasons. Constipation may be a problem, but it is unlikely that the lack of fiber in enteral feeds is the underlying cause. Diarrhea is the most common complication of enteral tube feeding, affecting up to 30% of patients on general medical and surgical wards and 68% of those on ITU. Diarrhea can be unpleasant for the patient and can worsen pressure sores and contribute to fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 181
Incorrect
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Primary biliary cirrhosis is most characteristically associated with:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:The M rule for primary biliary cholangitis includes the presence of IgM and anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, specifically the M2 subtype, in middle-aged women.
Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disorder that affects middle-aged women. It is thought to be an autoimmune condition that damages interlobular bile ducts, causing progressive cholestasis and potentially leading to cirrhosis. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman. It is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Diagnosis involves immunology and imaging tests. Management includes ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine for pruritus, and liver transplantation in severe cases. Complications include cirrhosis, osteomalacia and osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes to you complaining of severe, intermittent pain in his right flank. Upon urine dipstick examination, you find blood and suspect ureteric colic. Hospitalization is not necessary at this time, so you prescribe oral naproxen and schedule a non-contrast CT scan. What type of medication could also be helpful in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-adrenergic blocker
Explanation:Calcium channel blockers may be utilized to assist in the natural passage of the stone.
Management and Prevention of Renal Stones
Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain and discomfort. The British Association of Urological Surgeons (BAUS) has published guidelines on the management of acute ureteric/renal colic. Initial management includes the use of NSAIDs as the analgesia of choice for renal colic, with caution taken when prescribing certain NSAIDs due to increased risk of cardiovascular events. Alpha-adrenergic blockers are no longer routinely recommended, but may be beneficial for patients amenable to conservative management. Initial investigations include urine dipstick and culture, serum creatinine and electrolytes, FBC/CRP, and calcium/urate levels. Non-contrast CT KUB is now recommended as the first-line imaging for all patients, with ultrasound having a limited role.
Most renal stones measuring less than 5 mm in maximum diameter will pass spontaneously within 4 weeks. However, more intensive and urgent treatment is indicated in the presence of ureteral obstruction, renal developmental abnormality, and previous renal transplant. Treatment options include lithotripsy, nephrolithotomy, ureteroscopy, and open surgery. Shockwave lithotripsy involves generating a shock wave externally to the patient, while ureteroscopy involves passing a ureteroscope retrograde through the ureter and into the renal pelvis. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy involves gaining access to the renal collecting system and performing intracorporeal lithotripsy or stone fragmentation. The preferred treatment option depends on the size and complexity of the stone.
Prevention of renal stones involves lifestyle modifications such as high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and thiazide diuretics to increase distal tubular calcium resorption. Calcium stones may also be due to hypercalciuria, which can be managed with thiazide diuretics. Oxalate stones can be managed with cholestyramine and pyridoxine, while uric acid stones can be managed with allopurinol and urinary alkalinization with oral bicarbonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 183
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man presents with a six week history of persistent loose stools. Prior to this he opened his bowels once a day most days and his stools were easily passed and 'soft'. Over the last six weeks he complains of loose 'watery' stools and is opening his bowels four to five times a day. This pattern has been occurring every day for the last six weeks.
He denies any weight loss, abdominal pain, rectal bleeding or passage of rectal mucous. There is no family history of note. He feels well with no fever or systemic symptoms.
Abdominal and rectal examinations are normal.
You refer the patient urgently to a lower GI specialist.
What additional investigation should be arranged at this stage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Request tumour markers including CEA
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Patient with Change in Bowel Habit
This patient requires urgent referral as he is over 60 years old and has experienced a change in bowel habit. According to NICE guidelines, the only test that may be helpful in this case is a full blood count, which can be performed alongside the referral. This will ensure that the result is available for the specialist in clinic.
NICE guidelines recommend testing for occult blood in faeces to assess for colorectal cancer in adults without rectal bleeding who are aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or are aged 60 and over and have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. However, in this case, there has been no history of weight loss or abdominal pain, and the patient is not known to be anaemic. Therefore, other tests or investigations are not recommended as they will only serve to delay the process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with chronic left iliac fossa pain and alternating bowel habit is diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. She has been treated with a combination of antispasmodics, laxatives and anti-motility agents for 6 months but there has been no significant improvement in her symptoms. What is the most appropriate next step according to recent NICE guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low-dose tricyclic antidepressant
Explanation:NICE suggests that psychological interventions should be taken into account after a period of 12 months. Tricyclic antidepressants are recommended over selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 185
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man comes to the clinic with bilateral angular stomatitis. He wears dentures that have become a bit loose and his diet is not varied.
In the process of advising and treating his angular stomatitis, which of the following is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: May be due to chronic constipation
Explanation:Stomatitis: Causes and Associated Factors
Stomatitis is a condition that can be caused by ill-fitting dentures and slack facial muscles, which can lead to Candida overgrowth. It is not associated with reactive arthritis, but it may be seen in Behçet’s disease. While it is not directly linked to constipation, it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease.
Iron deficiency is a possible factor in the development of stomatitis, as are deficiencies in riboflavin, niacin, pyridoxine, folic acid, and cyanocobalamin. Vitamin C deficiency can also cause stomatitis, as well as scurvy.
It is important to address the underlying causes of stomatitis in order to effectively treat the condition. Proper dental care and nutrition can help prevent stomatitis from developing or recurrent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 186
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of intermittent central abdominal pain and bloating, which is often relieved when she opens her bowels. She also experiences loose stools and occasional urgency to pass a stool. These symptoms have been occurring on and off for about six months, and she has not experienced any weight loss or bleeding. On examination, her abdomen appears normal. The patient has recently been promoted to a more responsible position at work. What is the most appropriate intervention to relieve this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mebeverine
Explanation:Appropriate Medications for Irritable Bowel Syndrome: A Case Study
A patient presents with symptoms consistent with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), including abdominal pain relieved by defecation and the absence of red-flag symptoms. The likely cause of her flare-up is increased stress following a job promotion. Antispasmodics such as mebeverine are appropriate for symptomatic relief of abdominal pain in IBS, while omeprazole is not indicated for this patient. Domperidone is not necessary for the relief of nausea and vomiting, and lactulose is not recommended due to potential bloating. Linaclotide is not appropriate for this patient as her symptoms have only been present for six months and there is no evidence that other laxatives have failed. Overall, mebeverine and lifestyle changes are the recommended interventions for this patient with IBS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 187
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man initially reported experiencing itching on his back. Subsequently, he began to experience abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, weight loss, and fatigue. An x-ray was performed, which showed no abnormalities. What would be the gold standard management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent CT scan
Explanation:Urgent CT Scan for Pancreatic Cancer in Elderly Patients with Red Flag Symptoms
An urgent direct access CT scan is recommended within two weeks for patients aged 60 and over who have experienced weight loss and any of the following symptoms: diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes. CT scan is preferred over ultrasound unless CT is not available. Endoscopy is not necessary as the symptoms do not suggest stomach or oesophageal cancer, which would present with more dysphagia and dyspepsia. While a gastroenterology opinion may be required, it should not be requested routinely as the patient’s red flag symptoms warrant a more urgent approach. Although the patient is currently medically stable, an immediate referral to the medical assessment unit is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine review. He denies alcohol excess and has a body mass index of 36 kg/m2. He is also noted to be a diet-controlled type II diabetic and smokes 10 cigarettes per day.
Investigations Results Normal value
Cholesterol 7.7 mmol/l <5 mmol/l
Fasting triglyceride 2.5 mmol/l <1.7 mmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 150 IU/l <40 IU/l
Which of the following is the single most likely explanation regarding the significance of his raised liver enzyme?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Probably has non alcoholic steatohepatitis, which can include fibrosis
Explanation:Understanding Liver Function Test Results in a Patient with Metabolic Risk Factors
Liver function tests are an important tool for assessing liver health. In a patient with metabolic risk factors such as obesity, dyslipidaemia, and abnormal glucose tolerance, elevated liver transaminases may indicate non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), a condition that can lead to fibrosis and eventually cirrhosis if left untreated. Weight loss and control of comorbidities are the mainstay of management for NASH. While autoimmune hepatitis is a rarer possibility, it may be considered if the patient has a history of other autoimmune disorders and a normal body mass index and lipid profile. Regardless of the specific diagnosis, abnormal liver function test results in a patient with metabolic risk factors require further investigation and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 189
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He reports feeling well and having recently undergone foot and optometrist checks. He enjoys drinking alcohol on the weekends, limiting himself to 4-5 standard drinks each Saturday. His HbA1c remains stable at 48 mmol/L while taking metformin. However, his liver function tests reveal the following results:
Bilirubin: 18 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP: 95 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT: 157 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT: 40 u/L (8 - 60)
AST: 74 u/L (3 - 40)
Albumin: 37 g/L (35 - 50)
What is the most likely cause of these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Explanation:Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease is the most common cause of abnormal liver function tests (LFT) in patients with type 2 diabetes. This condition is prevalent in developed countries and should be assessed through a reassessment of the patient’s LFTs and an ultrasound if necessary. The patient’s weekend drinking habits are not significant enough to suggest alcoholic liver disease as the cause of the LFT derangement. Drug-induced liver injuries (DILI) are not predictable and can present with various LFT changes, including cholestatic and mixed patterns. Gallstone disease is more common in overweight fertile females and presents with a cholestatic pattern of LFT derangement. Viral hepatitis is a possible cause but not the most likely answer in this case. A liver screen may be necessary if the LFT derangement persists without explanation from an ultrasound.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man admitted to the care of the elderly ward is experiencing diarrhoea and has been isolated in a side room with barrier nursing due to the isolation of Clostridium difficile in his stool samples. What medication is most likely causing his diarrhoea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clindamycin
Explanation:The use of clindamycin as a treatment is strongly associated with an increased risk of developing C. difficile infection. This is because broad spectrum antibiotics, including clindamycin, can disrupt the normal gut flora and allow for the overgrowth of C. difficile. Other antibiotics commonly used to treat C. difficile include vancomycin and metronidazole, which are administered orally to ensure high concentrations in the colon. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole and lansoprazole are also believed to contribute to the development of C. difficile infection.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old Chinese man comes to the General Practice Surgery complaining of weight loss, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain that has been going on for 3 months. He is a non-smoker and only drinks alcohol occasionally.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
Explanation:Comparison of Liver Cancer Types and Symptoms
Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a primary liver cancer that originates from hepatocytes and is commonly caused by alcohol abuse, viral hepatitis, and metabolic liver disease. It is more prevalent in Asia and Africa due to the high incidence of hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and aflatoxin exposure. Symptoms of HCC include right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and weight loss.
Oesophageal cancer, cholangiocarcinoma, pancreatic carcinoma, and stomach cancer can also present with similar symptoms to HCC, but each has its own unique risk factors and prevalence. Oesophageal cancer is mainly caused by alcohol and tobacco use, while cholangiocarcinoma is a rare cancer of the bile ducts. Pancreatic carcinoma is more common in older individuals or those with chronic pancreatitis. Stomach cancer may cause similar symptoms if it metastasizes to the liver, but it is less common than HCC.
In summary, while these cancers may present similarly, the patient’s ethnicity, age, and risk factors can help determine the most likely type of liver cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 192
Incorrect
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A 27 year old male with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with rectal symptoms and bloody diarrhoea. Upon examination, he appears comfortable and well hydrated. His vital signs include a regular pulse of 88 beats per minute, a temperature of 37.5ºC, and a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. There is mild tenderness in the left iliac fossa, but no palpable masses or rebound tenderness. Rectal examination reveals tenderness and blood in the rectum. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient's mild/moderate proctitis flare?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectal mesalazine
Explanation:When experiencing a mild-moderate flare of distal ulcerative colitis, the initial treatment option is the use of topical (rectal) aminosalicylates. It is recommended to start with local treatment for rectal symptoms. Topical aminosalicylates are more effective than steroids, but a combination of both can be used if monotherapy is not effective. If the disease is diffuse or if symptoms do not respond to topical treatments, oral aminosalicylates can be used. In cases of severe disease, oral steroids can be considered.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman with a previous history of surgery for a ruptured ovarian cyst as a teenager presents with colicky central abdominal pain of 24 hours’ duration. She has now started to vomit and on further questioning admits to constipation for the last 12 hours. There is nothing else significant in her medical history.
Select the single most correct option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should be thoroughly examined for a strangulated hernia
Explanation:Understanding Bowel Obstruction and Ischaemic Bowel
Bowel obstruction can occur as a result of adhesions, which are commonly caused by previous abdominal surgery. Symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and vomiting may indicate a small bowel obstruction. It is important to rule out a strangulated hernia, especially a small femoral hernia.
Ischaemic bowel, on the other hand, is typically seen in patients with pre-existing cardiovascular disease and risk factors. This condition often presents acutely and is caused by an arterial occlusion. Symptoms include severe abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and diarrhoea, which may be bloody. It is important to suspect ischaemic bowel in patients with acute abdominal pain that is out of proportion to clinical findings.
In summary, understanding the differences between bowel obstruction and ischaemic bowel can help healthcare professionals make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a recent diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and seeks advice on managing her condition. What treatment option is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants
Explanation:Treatment Options for Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
When it comes to treating irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), there are several options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends tricyclic antidepressants as a second-line treatment if other medications have not been effective. Treatment should start at a low dose and be reviewed regularly. Acupuncture and aloe vera are not recommended by NICE for the treatment of IBS. It is suggested to limit intake of high-fibre foods and increase intake of fresh fruit, but to limit it to three portions per day. It’s important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment plan for individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 195
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and lack of energy. His recent blood test showed macrocytosis and a low haemoglobin level, indicating a folic acid deficiency. He requests dietary recommendations from the physician to address this issue.
What is the most suitable food item to suggest?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinach
Explanation:Folate Content in Common Foods
Folate, also known as vitamin B9, is an essential nutrient that is important for cell growth and development. While it is found naturally in many foods, it is also added to processed foods and supplements in the form of folic acid. Here is a breakdown of the folate content in some common foods:
Spinach: With 194 μg of folic acid per 100g, spinach is the richest source of folate on this list.
Egg: While eggs contain 47 μg of folic acid per 100g, they only provide around a quarter of the folate per 100g that is found in spinach.
Carrot: Carrots contain about 21 μg of folic acid per 100g, less than half the amount of folate found in eggs and only around 11% of the amount provided by spinach.
Milk: Cow’s milk contains 5-7 μg of folic acid per 100g, making it the second-lowest source of folate in this range of options.
Apple: Apples provide the lowest source of folate in this range of options, with only about 3 μg of folic acid per 100g.
It is important to note that women who are pregnant or breastfeeding require more folate and should take a daily supplement of 400 micrograms. While many food manufacturers fortify their products with folic acid, wholegrain products already contain natural folate. Folate deficiency can occur due to poor intake, excessive alcohol consumption, or malnutrition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of constipation that has persisted since her last pregnancy two years ago. She has been using laxatives for the past few months. She reports no abdominal pain or diarrhoea and has not noticed any triggers or alleviating factors. Her weight is stable and she has not observed any blood in her stools. She is in good health otherwise.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic constipation
Explanation:Possible Causes of Chronic Constipation: A Differential Diagnosis
Chronic constipation is a common condition affecting approximately 14% of the global population. While most cases do not require investigation, it is important to consider potential underlying causes in certain patients. Here are some possible diagnoses to consider:
1. Idiopathic constipation: This is the most common cause of chronic constipation, especially in young patients. A high-fiber diet and physical activity can help alleviate symptoms.
2. Diverticular disease: This condition is characterized by abdominal pain and diarrhea, but it usually presents later in life and chronic constipation is a risk factor.
3. Colon cancer: While chronic constipation can be a symptom of colon cancer, other factors such as weight loss and rectal bleeding are usually present. This diagnosis is unlikely in younger patients.
4. Hypothyroidism: Constipation can be a symptom of an underactive thyroid, but other symptoms such as weight gain and fatigue are usually present.
5. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS): IBS can cause constipation and/or diarrhea, but it is usually associated with abdominal pain and bloating.
In summary, chronic constipation can have various underlying causes, and a careful history and physical examination can help determine the appropriate diagnostic approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 197
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with dyspepsia and is found to have a gastric ulcer and H. pylori infection on endoscopy. He undergoes H. pylori eradication therapy but continues to experience symptoms six weeks later. What is the best test to confirm eradication of H. pylori?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urea breath test
Explanation:The sole recommended test for H. pylori after eradication therapy is the urea breath test. It should be noted that H. pylori serology will still show positive results even after eradication. A stool antigen test, rather than culture, may be a suitable substitute.
Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with persistent reflux, nausea and retrosternal burning pain after eating over the last six weeks. There has been no change in bowel habit and has not noticed any melaena but he has lost a little weight.
On examination there is no abnormality in the abdomen. His weight is 76 kg.
He has a ten year history of dyspepsia which he has been treating with over-the-counter antacids. He had triple therapy nine years ago having had positive serology to Helicobacter pylori. He drinks around 16-20 units of alcohol per week and is an ex-smoker.
He was seen at the out of hours centre five weeks ago and prescribed prochlorperazine, but this has made no difference to his symptoms.
What is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe a daily H2 receptor antagonist (for example, ranitidine) for four weeks then review
Explanation:Managing Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease (GORD) with Alarm Symptoms
When managing someone with symptoms of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), it is crucial to look for alarm features such as unintentional weight loss, dysphagia, GI bleeding, persistent vomiting, and signs of anaemia. Patients may report weight loss, which should be recorded periodically for comparisons. In the presence of alarm symptoms, it is important to refer urgently for upper GI endoscopy, especially for patients aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. According to NICE guidelines, the referral should be made under the two-week wait. The positive serology to Helicobacter pylori nine years ago would not alter the management given the current presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 199
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman has chronic diarrhoea and is suspected to have irritable bowel syndrome. What is the most suitable test to diagnose bile acid malabsorption?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: SeHCAT (tauroselcholic [75 selenium] acid) test
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Bile Acid Malabsorption and Coeliac Disease
Bile acids play a crucial role in the absorption of lipids, and their malabsorption can lead to gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhoea, bloating, and faecal incontinence. Bile acid malabsorption can be classified into three types, with primary idiopathic malabsorption being particularly common in patients with irritable bowel syndrome. Crohn’s disease and certain surgeries or diseases can also cause bile acid malabsorption.
The SeHCAT test is a diagnostic tool that tracks the retention and loss of bile acids through the enterohepatic circulation. A capsule containing radiolabeled 75 SeHCAT is ingested, and the percentage retention of SeHCAT at seven days is calculated. A value less than 15% indicates excessive bile acid loss and suggests bile acid malabsorption.
Faecal fat estimation is a standard test for malabsorption, but it is not specific for bile acids. Anti-transglutaminase antibodies are found in coeliac disease, and higher levels of these antibodies suggest a diagnosis of that condition. Small bowel biopsy is performed to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease. The urea breath test is a rapid diagnostic procedure used in retesting for infections by Helicobacter pylori, which requires the triple-therapy regimen for treatment.
In summary, the SeHCAT test, faecal fat estimation, anti-transglutaminase antibodies, small bowel biopsy, and urea breath test are all diagnostic tools that can aid in the diagnosis of bile acid malabsorption and coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 200
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old lady came in with complaints of heartburn. She has a history of osteoporosis and has been on alendronate for several years.
What is the probable reason for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:Side Effects of Oral Bisphosphonates
Oral bisphosphonates can cause serious side effects in some patients, including esophagitis, gastritis, and diarrhea. However, when used as directed, these complications are rare. Patients with pre-existing esophageal conditions, such as achalasia, stricture, Barrett’s esophagus, severe reflux, and scleroderma, should avoid taking oral bisphosphonates.
Interestingly, if patients experience gastrointestinal side effects while taking bisphosphonates, treatment with proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) is often ineffective. The only way to alleviate these symptoms is by discontinuing the use of bisphosphonates. It is important for patients to discuss any concerns or pre-existing conditions with their healthcare provider before starting treatment with oral bisphosphonates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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