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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male patient visits his GP with complaints of progressive tunnel vision and difficulty seeing at night for the past year. He recalls his grandfather experiencing similar symptoms but is unsure of the cause. During fundus examination, bone-spicule pigmentation is observed in the peripheral retina. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa
Explanation:The presence of black bone-spicule pigmentation on fundoscopy is a classic sign of retinitis pigmentosa, an inherited retinal disorder that causes tunnel vision and night blindness by affecting the peripheral retina.
Understanding Retinitis Pigmentosa
Retinitis pigmentosa is a condition that primarily affects the peripheral retina, leading to tunnel vision. The initial sign of this condition is often night blindness, which can progress to a loss of peripheral vision. Fundoscopy, a diagnostic test, reveals black bone spicule-shaped pigmentation in the peripheral retina and mottling of the retinal pigment epithelium. Retinitis pigmentosa is often associated with other diseases such as Refsum disease, Usher syndrome, abetalipoproteinemia, Lawrence-Moon-Biedl syndrome, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, and Alport’s syndrome.
To better understand retinitis pigmentosa, it is important to know that it is a genetic disorder that affects the retina’s ability to respond to light. This condition can lead to the death of photoreceptor cells in the retina, which are responsible for detecting light and transmitting visual information to the brain. As a result, individuals with retinitis pigmentosa may experience difficulty seeing in low light conditions, loss of peripheral vision, and, in severe cases, complete blindness.
In summary, retinitis pigmentosa is a genetic condition that primarily affects the peripheral retina, leading to tunnel vision. It is often associated with other diseases and can cause night blindness, loss of peripheral vision, and, in severe cases, complete blindness. Early diagnosis and management are crucial in preventing further vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You are asked by the nursing staff to review an elderly patient in recovery overnight. As you arrive, the nurse looking after the patient informs you that she is just going to get a bag of fluid for him.
On examination, the patient is unresponsive with an obstructed airway (snoring). You notice on the monitor that his heart rate is 33 beats per minute (bpm) and blood pressure 89/60 mmHg. His saturation probe has fallen off.
What is the most appropriate immediate management option?Your Answer: Re-intubate the patient
Correct Answer: Call for help and maintain the airway with a jaw thrust and deliver 15 litres of high-flow oxygen
Explanation:Managing a Patient with Bradycardia and Airway Obstruction: Priorities and Interventions
When faced with a patient who is unresponsive and has both an obstructed airway and bradycardia, it is crucial to prioritize interventions based on the A-E assessment. The first priority is to maintain the airway with a jaw thrust and deliver high-flow oxygen. Once help is called, the patient’s response is monitored, and if bradycardia persists, atropine is given in 500 µg boluses IV. If the airway obstruction cannot be managed with simple measures or non-definitive airways, re-intubation may be necessary. In cases where atropine is ineffective, an isoprenaline infusion may be considered. While a second IV access line may be beneficial, it is not a priority in this situation. By following these interventions, the patient’s condition can be stabilized and managed effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of visible blood in his urine for the past day. He reports no pain while urinating or abdominal pain. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. He had a mild cold four days ago. Upon analysis, his urine shows positive for blood and trace amounts of protein, but negative for leucocytes, nitrites, and glucose. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:The classic presentation of IgA nephropathy is visible haematuria that occurs after a recent upper respiratory tract infection. This patient’s new-onset haematuria following a recent URTI is consistent with a diagnosis of IgA nephropathy, which is the most common cause of haematuria worldwide. IgA nephropathy typically presents acutely in young males, in contrast to post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, which presents after 2 weeks from an upper or lower respiratory tract infection. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis and minimal change disease are unlikely diagnoses as they present with proteinuria rather than haematuria. While post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a possible differential diagnosis, it differs from this patient’s presentation as it typically presents with haematuria after 2 weeks following an acute infection.
Understanding IgA Nephropathy
IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It is characterized by the deposition of IgA immune complexes in the mesangium, leading to mesangial hypercellularity and positive immunofluorescence for IgA and C3. The classic presentation is recurrent episodes of macroscopic hematuria in young males following an upper respiratory tract infection. Unlike post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy is not associated with low complement levels and typically does not present with nephrotic range proteinuria or renal failure.
Management of IgA nephropathy depends on the severity of proteinuria and renal function. Isolated hematuria with no or minimal proteinuria and normal GFR requires only follow-up to monitor renal function. Persistent proteinuria with normal or slightly reduced GFR can be treated with ACE inhibitors. If there is active disease or failure to respond to ACE inhibitors, immunosuppression with corticosteroids may be necessary. The prognosis of IgA nephropathy varies, with 25% of patients developing ESRF. Factors associated with a poor prognosis include male gender, proteinuria, hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidemia, and ACE genotype DD, while frank hematuria is a marker of good prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 27-year-old female presents to a dermatology appointment with several new scaly plaques on her scalp that are causing itching and redness, especially around the occipital region. She has a past medical history of chronic plaque psoriasis that is typically managed well with topical treatment and emollients. The dermatologist confirms a diagnosis of scalp psoriasis. What is the best course of action for treating her recent diagnosis?
Your Answer: Topical betamethasone valerate
Explanation:When it comes to managing scalp psoriasis, the approach is slightly different from managing plaque psoriasis. The first-line treatment typically involves using potent corticosteroids topically. Among the options, betamethasone valerate is the best answer as it is a potent corticosteroid that can be prescribed as a shampoo or mousse for easier application. For severe and extensive psoriasis, oral methotrexate may be recommended, but this is not applicable to the patient in question. Phototherapy is also an option for extensive psoriasis, but not for this patient who has well-controlled chronic plaque psoriasis. If no improvement is seen after 8 weeks of using a topical potent corticosteroid, second-line treatment may involve using topical vitamin D.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man comes to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. Upon conducting an ECG, it is found that he has sinus rhythm with a rate of 85 bpm. The QRS duration is 110 ms, PR interval is 180 ms, and corrected QT interval is 500ms. What is the reason for the abnormality observed on the ECG?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Long QT syndrome can be caused by hypokalaemia, which is an electrolyte imbalance that leads to a prolonged corrected QT interval on an ECG. This condition is often seen in young people and can present as cardiac syncope, tachyarrhythmias, palpitations, or cardiac arrest. Long QT syndrome can be inherited or acquired, with hypokalaemia being one of the acquired causes. Other causes include medications, CNS lesions, malnutrition, and hypothermia. It’s important to note that hypercalcaemia is associated with a shortened QT interval, not a prolonged one.
Understanding Long QT Syndrome
Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes delayed repolarization of the ventricles, which can lead to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. The most common types of LQTS are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other medical conditions. Some drugs that can prolong the QT interval include amiodarone, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, and subarachnoid hemorrhage can also cause a prolonged QT interval.
LQTS may be picked up on routine ECG or following family screening. The symptoms and events associated with LQTS can vary depending on the type of LQTS. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress or exercise. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest.
Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers may be used, and in high-risk cases, implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary. It is important to recognize and manage LQTS to prevent sudden cardiac death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is a risk factor for the development of surfactant deficient lung disease in a neonate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maternal diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants
Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.
The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.
Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube. With proper management, the prognosis for infants with SDLD is generally good.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of right-sided abdominal discomfort during sexual intercourse, specifically during deep penetration, which has been ongoing for a month. A transvaginal ultrasound scan is scheduled, and it reveals a 5cm ovarian cyst filled with fluid and having regular borders. What type of ovarian cyst is most probable?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Follicular cyst
Explanation:The most frequent type of ovarian cyst is the follicular cyst, which is often a physiological cyst in young women. A simple cyst in a young woman is likely to be a follicular cyst. The endometrioma is typically filled with old blood, earning it the nickname chocolate cyst. The dermoid cyst contains dermoid tissue, while the corpus luteum cyst is also a physiological cyst but is less common than follicular cysts.
Understanding the Different Types of Ovarian Cysts
Ovarian cysts are a common occurrence in women, and they can be classified into different types. The most common type of ovarian cyst is the physiological cyst, which includes follicular cysts and corpus luteum cysts. Follicular cysts occur when the dominant follicle fails to rupture or when a non-dominant follicle fails to undergo atresia. These cysts usually regress after a few menstrual cycles. Corpus luteum cysts, on the other hand, occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and disappear after the menstrual cycle. These cysts may fill with blood or fluid and are more likely to cause intraperitoneal bleeding than follicular cysts.
Another type of ovarian cyst is the benign germ cell tumour, which includes dermoid cysts. Dermoid cysts are also known as mature cystic teratomas and are usually lined with epithelial tissue. They may contain skin appendages, hair, and teeth. Dermoid cysts are the most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 30, and they are usually asymptomatic. However, torsion is more likely to occur with dermoid cysts than with other ovarian tumours.
Lastly, there are benign epithelial tumours, which arise from the ovarian surface epithelium. The most common benign epithelial tumour is the serous cystadenoma, which bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer (serous carcinoma). Serous cystadenomas are bilateral in around 20% of cases. The second most common benign epithelial tumour is the mucinous cystadenoma, which is typically large and may become massive. If it ruptures, it may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of ovarian cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Complex ovarian cysts should be biopsied to exclude malignancy, while benign cysts may require monitoring or surgical removal depending on their size and symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man tells his family doctor (FD) that he discovered six months ago that his wife is having an affair. He seems upset and reports feeling fatigued and experiencing difficulty sleeping for the past six months.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of a Patient with Depressive Symptoms
Depression is a common mental health condition that can present with a variety of symptoms. In this vignette, the patient shows signs of anhedonia, change in appetite, early morning awakening, psychomotor retardation, decreased sexual drive, poor concentration, ideas of worthlessness or guilt, and thoughts of death and suicide. To diagnose and classify depression, various assessment tools are available, such as the PHQ-9, Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) Scale, and Beck Depression Inventory.
Other possible diagnoses that need to be ruled out include acute alcohol withdrawal, acute psychosis, hypomania, and schizophrenia. Acute alcohol withdrawal typically manifests with psychomotor agitation, anxiety, tremor, insomnia, nausea, vomiting, hallucinations, seizures, and autonomic instability. Delirium tremens is a severe complication of alcohol withdrawal that can be life-threatening. Acute psychosis is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, or thought disorder. Hypomania is a milder form of mania that features elated mood, pressure of speech, increased energy, activity, appetite, sexual desire, and pain threshold, but does not cause significant impairment. Schizophrenia is a chronic and severe mental disorder that involves a range of cognitive, emotional, and behavioral symptoms, including hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and social withdrawal.
Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s history, physical examination, and mental status is necessary to arrive at an accurate diagnosis and develop an appropriate treatment plan. Collaborating with a mental health specialist may also be beneficial in managing complex cases of depression or other mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with concerns about her heavy periods. She has been trying to conceive for the past 10 months without success. She has noticed that her periods have been getting progressively heavier over the past year, and she has experienced episodes of flooding. She initially attributed this to getting older, but now it has become unmanageable. During the examination, you palpate a supra-pubic mass. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibroids
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of menorrhagia, subfertility, and an abdominal mass strongly suggest the presence of fibroids. While ectopic pregnancy should be ruled out, it is less likely due to the absence of severe pain. Endometriosis and endometrial cancer are also unlikely causes of an abdominal mass. Although ovarian cancer cannot be completely ruled out, it is not the most probable diagnosis. Fibroids are benign tumors that commonly occur in the myometrium. Symptoms include heavy menstrual bleeding, pain (if the fibroid twists), and subfertility. As fibroids grow larger, they can cause additional symptoms such as dysuria, hydronephrosis, constipation, and sciatica. Initial treatment typically involves medications such as tranexamic acid, NSAIDs, or progesterones to manage menorrhagia, but surgery is often necessary for persistent fibroids.
Understanding Uterine Fibroids
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.
Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.
Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.
Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A mother who refused regular prenatal check-ups delivers a male infant. During delivery, a defect is observed on the side of the belly button, revealing the intestines.
What could be the possible diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroschisis
Explanation:Gastroschisis is a bowel condition where the intestines are exposed and not encased by a sac. It is not associated with cardiac and kidney diseases, unlike exomphalos. It can be diagnosed through routine ultrasound, but may be missed if the mother does not engage in antenatal care. It is not a normal variant and is not necessarily associated with prematurity.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-month history of lethargy and generalised weakness. On examination, she is found to have a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg. The rest of the examination is unremarkable.
Routine blood tests show a hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis, along with a hypernatraemia of 152 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l). Primary aldosteronism is suspected and investigations reveal bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia.
Which of the following is the best treatment option?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate treatment from the list below.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:The patient’s hypertension, hypokalaemia, and hypernatremia suggest a diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism, where high levels of aldosterone cause increased water and sodium reabsorption in the kidneys and potassium loss. The recommended treatment for primary hyperaldosteronism due to bilateral adrenal disease is a mineralocorticoid antagonist, with spironolactone as the primary agent and eplerenone as an alternative. Losartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, is an alternative to angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors for managing primary hypertension in patients under 55 years of age who are not Afro-Caribbean or diabetic. Nifedipine, a calcium-channel blocker, is a first-line drug for essential hypertension in patients aged 55 years or older or Afro-Caribbean patients. Perindopril, an ACEi, is a first-line drug for managing primary hypertension in patients under 55 years of age who are not Afro-Caribbean or diabetic. However, it is not appropriate for treating hyperaldosteronism, where spironolactone is the preferred option. Unilateral laparoscopic adrenalectomy is recommended for cases of hyperaldosteronism due to unilateral adrenal diseases, but not for bilateral adrenal disease like in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman contacts the endocrinology nurse seeking advice. She has been experiencing vomiting for the past 24 hours and has been unable to take her regular medications due to this. She has a medical history of Addison's disease and usually takes oral hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. She denies any other symptoms apart from reduced oral intake and has not experienced dizziness on standing, blackouts, or diarrhea. Her temperature has been normal. She has IM hydrocortisone available at home. What is the most appropriate advice to give regarding her hydrocortisone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise her to take the IM hydrocortisone at home whilst vomiting
Explanation:If a person with Addison’s disease experiences vomiting and is unable to take their regular oral hydrocortisone, they should be administered IM hydrocortisone until the vomiting subsides. This is crucial to prevent an Addisonian crisis. It is recommended that all patients with Addison’s disease have access to IM hydrocortisone in case of such situations. In case of systemic involvement, hospitalization for IV fluids and IV hydrocortisone may be necessary.
Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.
During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old man who has recently been discharged from hospital in France following a heart attack. He presents with an echocardiogram report indicating his left ventricular ejection fraction is 38%. Upon examination, his pulse is regular at 76 beats per minute, blood pressure is 126/74 mmHg, and his chest is clear. He is currently taking aspirin, simvastatin, and lisinopril. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding his medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add bisoprolol
Explanation:The use of carvedilol and bisoprolol has been proven to decrease mortality in stable heart failure patients, while there is no evidence to support the use of other beta-blockers. NICE guidelines suggest that all individuals with heart failure should be prescribed both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker.
Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with two episodes of painless, transient left monocular visual loss lasting up to a minute; each episode was like a curtain descending from the upper visual field to affect the whole vision of his left eye. Neurological examination is normal. His blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), glucose and lipids are all within the normal ranges. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus rhythm. Computerised tomography (CT) of the brain is normal. Doppler ultrasound of the carotid arteries shows 50% stenosis of the left internal carotid artery.
Which of the following is the treatment of choice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis
Transient visual loss can be caused by various factors, including retinal ischemia and emboli from atherosclerotic carotid arteries. In cases where Doppler ultrasound shows 40% stenosis of the internal carotid artery, surgery is not recommended. Instead, best medical treatment should be administered, including control of blood pressure, antiplatelet agents, cholesterol-lowering drugs, and lifestyle advice. Acute treatment with 300 mg aspirin is recommended, followed by high-dose treatment for two weeks before initiating long-term antithrombotic treatment.
Prednisolone is used in the treatment of giant cell arteritis, which can also cause transient visual loss. Diagnosis requires three out of five criteria, including age over 50, new headache, temporal artery abnormality, elevated ESR, and abnormal artery biopsy.
Carotid artery angioplasty may be considered as an alternative to carotid endarterectomy for revascularization in select cases. However, there are concerns regarding stent placement and the risk of stroke. Surgical management is only indicated for carotid artery stenosis over 50%.
Anticoagulation treatment is not routinely used for the treatment of acute stroke. It may be considered for those in atrial fibrillation or at high risk of venous thromboembolism. For patients with a history of transient ischemic attack, high-dose aspirin is recommended for two weeks post-event, followed by long-term secondary prevention with aspirin and modified-release dipyridamole or clopidogrel.
Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has recently undergone a partial abdominal hysterectomy and unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, and is discussing hormone replacement therapy.
Which of the following pieces of advice may she be offered?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The benefits of oestrogen therapy are maintained only so long as treatment is continued for the next 5-10 years at least
Explanation:Oestrogen therapy must be continued for at least 5-10 years to maintain its benefits, including a decreased risk of fragility fractures. Starting oestrogen therapy immediately can prevent osteoporotic fractures in old age. Bisphosphonates are the first-line treatment for bone-sparing. HRT should not be prescribed solely for preventing osteoporosis, but a combination of oestrogen and progesterone should be used in women with a uterus. Patients who have a salpingo-oophorectomy should be monitored for hormone-related conditions. SSRIs, SNRIs, and clonidine should not be the first-line treatment for vasomotor symptoms alone. Vaginal oestrogen can be offered to women with urogenital atrophy, even if they are on systemic HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old diabetic right-handed woman complains of left shoulder discomfort. She reports a rigid shoulder that is frequently more painful at night and struggles with dressing or fastening her bra. Upon examination, there is no pinpoint tenderness, but you observe weakness in external rotation.
What could be the probable reason for her shoulder pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adhesive capsulitis
Explanation:Adhesive capsulitis typically results in a reduction of external rotation, both in active and passive movements.
Understanding Adhesive Capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder)
Adhesive capsulitis, commonly known as frozen shoulder, is a prevalent cause of shoulder pain that primarily affects middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood. However, studies have shown that up to 20% of diabetics may experience an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over several days, with external rotation being more affected than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. In some cases, the condition may affect both shoulders, which occurs in up to 20% of patients. The episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.
Diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis is usually clinical, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. Unfortunately, no single intervention has been proven to improve the outcome in the long-term. However, there are several treatment options available, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Breast cancer is a disease that affects many women. What is true about breast cancer? Choose one statement from the options provided.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is the second most common cancer in women.
Explanation:Breast cancer is the second most common cancer in women and the leading cause of cancer death among women worldwide. Tamoxifen is a drug that can be used to treat breast cancer that requires estrogen to grow. It works by either blocking estrogen receptors or blocking the production of estrogen. For women with estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer, continuing tamoxifen for 10 years instead of stopping at 5 years can further reduce the risk of recurrence and mortality. However, tamoxifen does not affect the risk of breast cancer recurrence. The risk of endometrial cancer is slightly increased with tamoxifen treatment. Screening modalities include breast self-examination, clinical breast examination, mammography, ultrasonography, and magnetic resonance imaging. Early detection is crucial in preventing breast cancer, and screening intervals may need to be shortened to prevent more deaths. Physical examination and biopsy are also important diagnostic approaches. Treatment for breast cancer typically involves surgery, radiation therapy, and adjuvant hormone or chemotherapy when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding elderly advanced life support is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest compressions should continue whilst the defibrillator is charged
Explanation:The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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In the UK, what is the primary reason for irreversible blindness in individuals over the age of 65?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macular degeneration
Explanation:Common Eye Diseases and Conditions
Age-related macular degeneration, diabetic retinopathy, glaucoma, senile cataract, and corneal abrasion are some of the most common eye diseases and conditions that affect people worldwide.
Macular Degeneration
Macular degeneration is a leading cause of irreversible vision loss in developed countries. The non-exudative (dry) form of the disease is the most common, characterized by the presence of drusen in the macular region. Dry AMD progresses slowly over decades, while the exudative (wet) form can cause rapid central visual loss and distortion.
Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a complication of diabetes that can lead to blindness. It is the most common cause of new blindness in people aged 25-64 years globally. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy is rare within the first decade of a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus, but increases with disease duration.
Glaucoma
Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that damage the optic nerve and can cause specific visual field defects over time. Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type, and it is described as a chronic, progressive, and irreversible optic neuropathy. Glaucoma is the second leading cause of irreversible blindness in developed countries.
Senile Cataract
Senile cataract is an age-related disease that causes gradual progressive thickening of the lens of the eye. It is the world’s leading cause of treatable blindness.
Corneal Abrasion
Corneal abrasion is a common eye injury that occurs due to a disruption in the integrity of the corneal epithelium or because of physical external forces. Most people recover fully from minor corneal abrasions, but deeper scratches can cause corneal infections, erosion, or scarring, leading to long-term vision problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of fatigue and muscle weakness.
During the examination, her blood pressure is found to be 160/95 mmHg. The rest of the examination is normal. The General Practitioner decides to order routine blood tests. The results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 151 mmol
Potassium (K+) 3.0 mmol
Bicarbonate 29 mmol/l
Urea 5.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 70.5 µmol/l
Random glucose 5.8 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate first-line investigation to make a diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aldosterone/renin ratio
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of hypertension, hypokalaemia, and hypernatraemia suggest a diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism, which is characterized by increased water and sodium reabsorption in the kidneys and potassium loss due to high aldosterone levels. While muscle weakness and lethargy are common symptoms, they are only present in 40% of cases. Metabolic alkalosis is another common finding. Primary hyperaldosteronism is often caused by bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, rather than an adrenal adenoma. To diagnose hyperaldosteronism, a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is recommended as the first-line investigation, followed by a high-resolution CT scan of the abdomen and adrenal vein sampling to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. While an overnight dexamethasone suppression test is useful for diagnosing Cushing syndrome, it is not relevant in this case. Urine dipstick and formal urinalysis would be helpful in identifying renal causes of secondary hypertension, but are not necessary in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman complains of experiencing pain during sexual intercourse with her partner for the past year. She denies any discharge but mentions that her vagina feels dry and sore frequently. She has attempted to alleviate the soreness by using vaginal moisturisers and lubricants, which she believes have provided some relief. During the examination, the vagina appears dry and pale. What is the most appropriate treatment method for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical oestrogen cream
Explanation:Post-menopausal women often experience atrophic vaginitis, which is characterized by symptoms such as vaginal dryness, dyspareunia, and occasional spotting. During examination, the vagina may appear dry and pale. Treatment options include the use of vaginal lubricants and moisturizers. If these prove ineffective, topical oestrogen cream may be prescribed.
Atrophic vaginitis is a condition that commonly affects women who have gone through menopause. Its symptoms include vaginal dryness, pain during sexual intercourse, and occasional spotting. Upon examination, the vagina may appear dry and pale. The recommended treatment for this condition is the use of vaginal lubricants and moisturizers. If these do not provide relief, a topical estrogen cream may be prescribed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents with left-sided pleuritic chest pain and a dry cough. He reports that the pain is alleviated by sitting forward and has been experiencing flu-like symptoms for the past two days. What is the expected ECG finding for a diagnosis of acute pericarditis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Widespread ST elevation
Explanation:Understanding Acute Pericarditis
Acute pericarditis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardial sac that lasts for less than 4-6 weeks. The condition can be caused by various factors such as viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, post-myocardial infarction, autoimmune pericarditis, radiotherapy, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, malignancy, and trauma. Symptoms of acute pericarditis include chest pain, non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Patients may also experience pericardial rub.
To diagnose acute pericarditis, doctors may perform an electrocardiogram (ECG) to check for changes in the heart’s electrical activity. Blood tests may also be conducted to check for inflammatory markers and troponin levels. Patients suspected of having acute pericarditis should undergo transthoracic echocardiography.
Treatment for acute pericarditis depends on the underlying cause. Patients with high-risk features such as fever or elevated troponin levels may need to be hospitalized. However, most patients with pericarditis secondary to viral infection can be managed as outpatients. Strenuous physical activity should be avoided until symptoms resolve and inflammatory markers normalize. A combination of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and colchicine is typically used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis. The medication is usually tapered off over 1-2 weeks.
Overall, understanding acute pericarditis is important for prompt diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is diagnosed with haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), after a recent Salmonella infection. She is admitted to the hospital and blood tests demonstrate a platelet count of 85 × 109/l as well as a haemoglobin of 9 g/dl. She is maintaining good oral intake and her observations are normal.
What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supportive treatment with intravenous fluids
Explanation:Treatment Options for Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition that can lead to acute renal failure and even chronic renal failure if left untreated. The main treatment for HUS is supportive care, which often involves intravenous fluids to prevent renal damage and decline in renal function. Oral rehydration medications may be useful for patients with ongoing diarrhoea, but intravenous fluids are preferred for inpatients. Intravenous immunoglobulins are not used in the acute treatment of HUS, and transfusion of red blood cells and platelets is only necessary if the patient’s levels are significantly low. Intravenous steroids are not a viable treatment option for HUS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the Ophthalmology department with a 3-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen left eye. She complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements.
On examination, visual acuity is 6/24 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The periorbital area of the left eye is very swollen and erythematous. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the left eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the left. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the left eye. Vital observations are as follows:
Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
Heart rate 80 bpm
Respiratory rate 20 per minute
Oxygen saturation 97% on air
Temperature 38.2 °C
Computed tomography (CT) scan shows some opacities in the ethmoid sinuses.
What is the definitive treatment for this eye problem?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drainage of the ethmoid sinuses
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ethmoidal Sinusitis and Orbital Cellulitis
Ethmoidal sinusitis is a common cause of orbital cellulitis, which requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. The most effective treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis is surgical drainage of the sinuses to remove the pus and debris. Antibiotics are also necessary to aid recovery, but they should be administered after the drainage procedure.
While there are several antibiotics that can be used to treat orbital cellulitis, such as cefuroxime, metronidazole, co-amoxiclav, and Tazocin®, they are not sufficient to address the underlying cause of the condition. Therefore, drainage of the ethmoid sinuses is the definitive treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis.
In summary, the treatment options for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis include surgical drainage of the sinuses followed by antibiotics. Antibiotics alone are not enough to treat the condition, and the choice of antibiotic may vary depending on the patient’s age and other factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of lung cancer presents with a three-week history of loss of appetite, nausea, and fatigue. He appears mildly dehydrated on examination. You order some blood tests and the results are as follows:
Calcium 3.12 mmol/l
Albumin 40 g/l
Glucose (random) 6.7 mmol/l
Urea 10.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 115 µmol/l
Which medication that he is currently taking is most likely contributing to his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia is caused by thiazides.
Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. In most cases, two conditions account for 90% of hypercalcaemia cases. The first is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients. The second is malignancy, which is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. For this reason, measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial when investigating patients with hypercalcaemia.
Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. It is important to note that hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization in patients with Paget’s disease of the bone, although this condition is usually normal.
In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is essential in investigating patients with hypercalcaemia. Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of severe disabling arthritis presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of dyspnoea. She reports a dry cough of similar duration. She has never smoked and has never been employed. On cardiovascular examination, no abnormalities are detected. Respiratory examination reveals reduced air entry at the left base, which is stony dull to percussion. A chest X-ray shows blunting of the left costophrenic angle.
What is the most likely diagnosis associated with her current respiratory problem?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
Explanation:Respiratory Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an inflammatory arthritis that can affect various parts of the body, including the respiratory tract. One common manifestation of RA in the respiratory system is pleural involvement, which can present as pleural effusion, pleural nodules, or pleurisy. Other respiratory complications associated with RA include pulmonary fibrosis and bronchiolitis obliterans.
It is important to note that other types of arthritis, such as ankylosing spondylitis, Behçet’s disease, gout, and psoriatic arthritis, do not typically present with respiratory complications like pleural effusion. Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with apical fibrosis, while Behçet’s disease is known for neurological complications. Gout is caused by purine metabolism abnormality and affects the joints and renal tract, while psoriatic arthritis is strongly associated with psoriasis and can lead to ocular and cardiovascular complications.
Overall, if a patient with RA presents with respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider the possibility of pleural involvement and other respiratory complications associated with the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure and high cholesterol presents to the Emergency Department with occasional episodes of chest pain, lasting only for a few minutes. This occurs while at rest and is accompanied by palpitations. He is currently stable, with a blood pressure of 140/95 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 98% and a heart rate of 160 bpm. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is done which shows no P waves, with regular narrow QRS complexes interspersed along a saw-tooth baseline. Vagal manoeuvres have failed and three boluses of adenosine fail to control the arrhythmia.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following treatments is indicated?
Select the SINGLE best treatment option from the list below.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Management of Atrial Flutter: Medications and Procedures
Atrial flutter is a type of arrhythmia that can be managed through various medications and procedures. The first step in treatment is to control the ventricular rate, which can be achieved through the administration of beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium-channel blockers. For patients with diabetes mellitus, cardio-selective beta-blockers such as atenolol, bisoprolol, metoprolol, and nebivolol are preferred.
Amiodarone is not the first-line treatment for atrial flutter and is mainly used for ventricular tachycardias and chemical cardioversion in atrial fibrillation. Propranolol can be used for rate control, but cardio-selective beta-blockers are preferred for patients with diabetes mellitus.
Synchronised direct-current (DC) cardioversion is the first-line treatment for patients with haemodynamic instability caused by a tachyarrhythmia. However, if the patient exhibits no adverse signs, DC cardioversion is not indicated. Unsynchronised DC cardioversion is only given in cases of ventricular fibrillation.
All patients should be assessed for their risk of stroke and the need for thromboprophylaxis, with the choice of anticoagulant based on scoring criteria such as CHA2DS2-VASc. Overall, the management of atrial flutter involves a tailored approach based on the individual patient’s needs and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with blood-stained urine and coughing up blood.
On examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C. Her blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg, while her pulse is 92 beats per minute. Her respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute. Urine testing is positive for protein and red cell casts. Antibodies to the glomerular basement membrane are found on serum testing. A renal biopsy is performed.
What is likely to be seen on the renal biopsy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Linear immunofluorescence
Explanation:Differentiating Glomerular Diseases: Characteristics and Immunofluorescence Findings
Nephritic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, haematuria, and hypertension. The presence of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies suggests hypersensitivity angiitis or Goodpasture’s syndrome as the underlying cause. In this disease, crescent-shaped glomeruli are observed in renal biopsy specimens. Linear immunofluorescence reveals the deposition of immunoglobulin G (IgG) along the basement membrane.
Other glomerular diseases have distinct characteristics and immunofluorescence findings. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, commonly seen in children, presents with a lumpy bumpy appearance of the glomeruli. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy is characterized by immune complex deposition in the basement membrane. Hereditary nephritis or Alport syndrome, which is associated with deafness, shows splitting of the basement membrane. Finally, diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis presents with wire looping of capillaries.
In summary, recognizing the distinct characteristics and immunofluorescence findings of glomerular diseases is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man is diagnosed with Addison’s disease.
What should be prescribed in combination with hydrocortisone to benefit him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fludrocortisone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Addison’s Disease
Addison’s disease is a condition in which the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones. To manage this condition, patients are typically given replacement therapy with both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid medications. Fludrocortisone is a common mineralocorticoid medication used in this treatment. However, dexamethasone, aspirin, and both types of contraceptive pills have no role in the treatment of Addison’s disease. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man who comes to see you concerned about prostate cancer. You perform a digital rectal exam which reveals an enlarged, firm and irregular prostate. What would be the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to urology as 2 week wait referral
Explanation:The appropriate way to address the patient is as a 2-week wait referral. According to the NICE Guidelines for suspected cancer referrals, if a hard, irregular prostate indicative of prostate carcinoma is detected during rectal examination, urgent referral is necessary. Along with the referral, the PSA test result should also be included. It is important to note that the PSA test is not always reliable in detecting prostate cancer, as around 1 in 50 men with fast-growing prostate cancer have a normal PSA level.
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by both normal and cancerous prostate cells. It is commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer, but its effectiveness as a screening tool is still debated. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has released guidelines for handling requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. While a recent European trial showed a reduction in prostate cancer deaths, it also revealed a high risk of over-diagnosis and over-treatment. As a result, the National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a screening programme, but rather allow men to make an informed decision. The PCRMP recommends age-adjusted upper limits for PSA levels, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. PSA levels can also be raised by factors such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, and urinary tract infections.
The specificity and sensitivity of PSA testing are poor, with a significant number of men with elevated PSA levels not having prostate cancer, and some with normal PSA levels having the disease. Various methods are used to add meaning to PSA levels, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring changes in PSA levels over time. It is also debated whether digital rectal examination causes a rise in PSA levels. It is important to note that PSA testing should be postponed after certain events, such as ejaculation or instrumentation of the urinary tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a patient with Crohn's disease. Which of the following non-intestinal symptoms of Crohn's disease is associated with disease activity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that affects various parts of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. Although the exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, there is a strong genetic susceptibility. The disease is characterized by inflammation in all layers of the digestive tract, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions. Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and may include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It is important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some extra-intestinal features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Arthritis is the most common extra-intestinal feature in both Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis, while primary sclerosing cholangitis is much more common in ulcerative colitis. Understanding the symptoms and features of Crohn’s disease can help with early diagnosis and management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man contacts his General Practitioner to discuss screening for tuberculosis (TB) for himself and his two children. His wife has recently been diagnosed with active TB and started on treatment following release from hospital. He and the children are all completely asymptomatic.
Which of the following screening options would be appropriate for the family?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mantoux test
Explanation:Screening and Diagnosis of Tuberculosis: Methods and Recommendations
Tuberculosis (TB) is a serious infectious disease that can be fatal if left untreated. Screening and diagnosis of TB are crucial for early detection and treatment. In this article, we will discuss the recommended methods and guidelines for screening and diagnosis of TB.
Mantoux Test
The Mantoux test is a recommended screening method for latent TB in at-risk groups, such as close contacts of patients with active pulmonary or laryngeal TB, patients with human immunodeficiency virus, or immigrants from high-risk countries. The test involves injecting tuberculin intradermally and observing a reaction 2-3 days later. A positive result is indicated by an induration of greater than 6 mm at the injection site. Further investigations are warranted to diagnose or exclude active TB infection.Chest X-Ray
Screening for latent TB is advised for all household members and close contacts of patients diagnosed with active pulmonary TB. If screening is positive, investigations for active TB are indicated, which would include a chest X-ray. Typical features of pulmonary TB on an X-ray include a cavitating lesion, upper-lobe parenchymal infiltrates, pleural effusion, or mediastinal or hilar lymphadenopathy.Heaf Test
The Heaf test was previously used to diagnose latent TB but has since been replaced by the Mantoux test. Both tests involve injecting tuberculin intradermally and observing for a reaction. The Heaf test was performed using a Heaf gun, which had six needles in a circular formation. The more severe the reaction, the more likely it is that the patient has an active infection, but previous BCG vaccine exposure can also give a reaction.Screening and Diagnosis Recommendations
According to NICE guidance, close contacts of patients with active pulmonary TB should be screened for latent TB infection with a Mantoux test. Three sputum samples (including an early morning sample) for TB microscopy and culture are indicated to diagnose active pulmonary TB infection. This investigation is not indicated for screening for latent TB but should be performed if latent screening tests are positive.In conclusion, early detection and treatment of TB are crucial for preventing the spread of the disease and improving patient outcomes. The recommended screening and diagnosis methods should be followed to ensure accurate and timely detection of TB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department experiencing confusion and vomiting. Upon further inquiry, she reports six months of weight loss, fatigue, and dizziness upon standing. Blood tests reveal the following results: Na+ 126 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 5.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Urea 6.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and Creatinine 95 µmol/L (55 - 120). After stabilization, she undergoes additional testing and is prescribed a daily maintenance regimen of 20 mg hydrocortisone and 100mcg fludrocortisone. In the event of an acute illness, such as an infection, what dosage of medication should she take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 40mg hydrocortisone, 100mcg fludrocortisone
Explanation:To manage this patient with Addison’s disease who is experiencing an intercurrent illness, it is recommended to increase the glucocorticoid dose by double while keeping the fludrocortisone dose the same. The patient’s symptoms, including vomiting, confusion, fatigue, weight loss, and postural hypotension, suggest adrenal insufficiency. Blood tests reveal hyponatremia and hyperkalemia due to aldosterone deficiency. Aldosterone normally regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body, and its absence leads to sodium loss and potassium elevation. The prescribed steroid replacement regimen is appropriate for intercurrent illness, as it mimics the body’s natural response by increasing glucocorticoid secretion while maintaining mineralocorticoid secretion. The patient’s hydrocortisone dose has been doubled from 20mg to 40mg, while the fludrocortisone dose remains at 100mcg.
Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.
During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 34
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 65-year-old patient in the outpatient clinic who complains of weight loss and a painless, growing penile sore that has been present for more than two months. The patient has a history of genital warts. What tests would be suitable for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immunoassay for Human Immunodeficiency Virus
Explanation:Penile cancer is strongly linked to sexually transmitted diseases, including HIV infection. Therefore, it would be advisable to conduct an HIV test in cases where penile cancer is suspected. Liver function tests may not be as relevant as an HIV test since penile cancer is unlikely to spread to the liver. Instead, it can spread locally to lymph nodes, bones, and even the brain. Herpes is not a likely cause of penile cancer as it typically causes painful lesions that disappear within a week. Chancroid, caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, can cause painful lesions, while syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, can cause a painless ulcer known as a chancre. However, a chancre would not cause weight loss, and the lesion typically resolves within six to eight weeks, even without treatment.
Understanding Penile Cancer: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Penile cancer is a rare type of cancer that is typically characterized by squamous cell carcinoma. It is a condition that affects the penis and can cause a variety of symptoms, including penile lump and ulceration. There are several risk factors associated with penile cancer, including human immunodeficiency virus infection, human papillomavirus virus infection, genital warts, poor hygiene, phimosis, paraphimosis, balanitis, and age over 50.
When it comes to treating penile cancer, there are several options available, including radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and surgery. The prognosis for penile cancer can vary depending on the stage of the cancer and the treatment options chosen. However, the overall survival rate for penile cancer is approximately 50% at 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic with a history of deteriorating vision in both eyes for the past 3 years. He complains of a gradual loss of peripheral vision, as if viewing through a tunnel. He is unable to play basketball due to difficulty seeing the ball. Additionally, he is experiencing increasing difficulty with his vision in low light conditions, causing him to avoid driving at night. Apart from this, he reports feeling healthy. There is no significant medical history to note. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa
Explanation:Retinitis pigmentosa is responsible for causing tunnel vision, as reported by the patient who is experiencing a gradual decline in their peripheral vision and difficulty seeing at night. These symptoms are typical of retinitis pigmentosa. However, central vision loss is associated with Best disease and juvenile retinoschisis, not retinitis pigmentosa. Glaucoma is improbable in this age range.
Understanding Tunnel Vision and Its Causes
Tunnel vision is a condition where the visual fields become smaller and more concentrated. This means that the person affected can only see what is directly in front of them, while the peripheral vision is diminished. There are several causes of tunnel vision, including papilloedema, glaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, choroidoretinitis, optic atrophy secondary to tabes dorsalis, and hysteria.
Papilloedema is a condition where there is swelling of the optic nerve head, which can cause pressure on the surrounding tissues. Glaucoma is a condition where there is damage to the optic nerve, which can lead to vision loss. Retinitis pigmentosa is a genetic disorder that affects the retina, causing progressive vision loss. Choroidoretinitis is an inflammation of the choroid and retina, which can cause vision loss. Optic atrophy secondary to tabes dorsalis is a condition where there is damage to the optic nerve due to syphilis. Hysteria is a psychological condition that can cause physical symptoms, including tunnel vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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The mother of a 3-month-old boy presents to the clinic with concerns about a soft lump in his right groin area. The baby has been breastfeeding well and having regular bowel movements. There is no significant medical history. Upon examination, a 1 cm swelling is noted in the right inguinal region, which is reducible and disappears when the baby is laid flat. Scrotal examination reveals no abnormalities. What is the best course of action in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to paediatric surgery
Explanation:Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his family doctor complaining of recurrent episodes of severe facial pain that have been occurring for the past 6 months. He reports experiencing sharp shooting pains in his right cheek and teeth, which worsen during the cold winter months and when he brushes his teeth. Despite visiting the dentist multiple times, no abnormality has been found. His neurological and ENT examination is normal.
What is the most suitable primary care treatment for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Comparing Medications for Trigeminal Neuralgia Treatment
Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition characterized by severe facial pain that occurs in one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve. To treat this condition, anticonvulsant medications are often prescribed. Here, we compare five commonly used medications for trigeminal neuralgia treatment.
Carbamazepine is the recommended first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). Topiramate is not typically used for trigeminal neuralgia, as it is primarily indicated for migraine prophylaxis. Amitriptyline is recommended for neuropathic pain, but not specifically for trigeminal neuralgia. Duloxetine is also indicated for neuropathic pain, but not for trigeminal neuralgia. Gabapentin is recommended for neuropathic pain, but not for trigeminal neuralgia, as carbamazepine is the preferred first-line treatment for this condition.
In summary, carbamazepine is the recommended first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia, while the other medications mentioned may be more appropriate for other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Fragile X is commonly associated with all of the following symptoms except?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small, firm testes
Explanation:Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder
Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat. It affects both males and females, but males are more severely affected. Common features in males include learning difficulties, large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate, macroorchidism, hypotonia, and a higher likelihood of autism. Mitral valve prolapse is also a common feature. Females, who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome, may have a range of symptoms from normal to mild.
Diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. The number of CGG repeats can be analyzed using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis. Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms of Fragile X syndrome and improve the quality of life for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 39
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease comes in for a check-up. He had a heart attack two decades ago but has been symptom-free since. His current medications include bisoprolol, ramipril, atorvastatin, and clopidogrel. He has been experiencing dizziness lately, and an ECG reveals that he has atrial fibrillation. What is the appropriate antithrombotic medication for him now?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to an oral anticoagulant
Explanation:Patients who have AF and stable CVD are typically prescribed anticoagulants while antiplatelets are discontinued. This is because such patients are at risk of stroke, as indicated by their CHADS-VASC score, which takes into account factors such as age, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease. Therefore, the patient in question needs to be treated accordingly. In this case, the patient should discontinue their antiplatelet medication and switch to oral anticoagulant monotherapy.
Managing Combination Antiplatelet and Anticoagulant Therapy
With the rise of comorbidity, it is becoming increasingly common for patients to require both antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy. However, this combination increases the risk of bleeding and may not be necessary in all cases. While there are no guidelines to cover every scenario, a recent review in the BMJ offers expert opinion on how to manage this situation.
For patients with stable cardiovascular disease who require an anticoagulant, it is recommended that they receive antiplatelet therapy as well. However, if the patient has an indication for an anticoagulant, such as atrial fibrillation, it is best to prescribe anticoagulant monotherapy without the addition of antiplatelets.
In patients who have experienced an acute coronary syndrome or undergone percutaneous coronary intervention, there is a stronger indication for antiplatelet therapy. Typically, patients are given triple therapy (two antiplatelets and one anticoagulant) for four to six months after the event, followed by dual therapy (one antiplatelet and one anticoagulant) for the remaining 12 months. However, the stroke risk in atrial fibrillation varies according to risk factors, so there may be variation in treatment from patient to patient.
For patients who develop venous thromboembolism while on antiplatelets, they will likely be prescribed anticoagulants for three to six months. An ORBIT score should be calculated to determine the risk of bleeding. Patients with a low risk of bleeding may continue taking antiplatelets, while those with an intermediate or high risk of bleeding should consider stopping them.
Overall, managing combination antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with sudden-onset back pain radiating down to his feet. He reports weakness in his legs and a tingling sensation around his scrotum. He has experienced urinary incontinence a few times today. Upon examination, he displays decreased power, tone, and sensation in both legs and absent ankle reflexes.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cauda equina syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Back Pain with Neurological Symptoms
Back pain with neurological symptoms can be a sign of various conditions. Here are some of the differential diagnoses to consider:
Cauda Equina Syndrome
This condition occurs when the lumbar and sacral nerve roots are compressed, leading to bilateral sciatica, neurological deficit in the legs, urinary retention or incontinence, faecal incontinence, and saddle paraesthesia. It is an emergency that requires prompt treatment to prevent irreversible damage to the spinal nerves.Guillain–Barré Syndrome (GBS)
GBS is a rare acute polyneuropathy that causes gradually worsening, ascending muscle weakness, usually starting in the legs and potentially affecting respiratory function. It rarely presents with sensory symptoms, making it an unlikely diagnosis for a patient with acute back pain and sciatica.Multiple Sclerosis (MS)
MS is a chronic inflammatory condition of the central nervous system that leads to demyelination. Patients may present with various neurological symptoms, such as visual disturbance, sensory loss, limb weakness, or urinary symptoms. However, sudden onset of back pain is not a typical feature of MS.Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Spinal Cord
This rare condition is caused by untreated vitamin B12 deficiency and presents with gradually developing symptoms, such as unsteadiness, leg weakness, sensory or visual disturbances, and memory problems. However, lower motor-neurone signs in the legs and acute back pain are not typical features of subacute spinal cord degeneration.Urinary-Tract Infection (UTI)
An upper UTI (pyelonephritis) may cause back or loin pain, rigors, vomiting, and urinary symptoms, such as dysuria, increased urinary frequency, or incontinence. However, bilateral sciatica and lower motor-neurone signs are not typical features of a UTI. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman who is 34 weeks pregnant has been found to have a urinary tract infection through routine dipstick testing. The cause is identified as group B streptococcus and treated with a brief course of oral antibiotics. What is the appropriate management plan for delivering her baby in a few weeks?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrapartum antibiotics
Explanation:GBS bacteriuria is linked to an increased risk of chorioamnionitis and neonatal sepsis, therefore, the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends that women with GBS bacteriuria should receive intrapartum antibiotics along with appropriate treatment upon diagnosis. In cases where the patient is not allergic to penicillin, intravenous benzylpenicillin should be administered as soon as possible after the onset of labor and then every 4 hours until delivery. Postnatal antibiotic treatment is not necessary unless there are indications of neonatal infection. Caesarean section is not recommended. [RCOG Green-top Guideline No. 36]
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor concerned about her family's history of inherited illnesses. Her grandmother experienced vision loss at the age of 70, while her mother began to have similar symptoms at the age of 50. What is the genetic mechanism responsible for the earlier age of onset in each generation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anticipation
Explanation:Genetic Phenomena: Anticipation, Incomplete Penetrance, Genetic Imprinting, Mosaicism, and Translocation of a Chromosome
Genetics is a complex field that involves the study of inherited traits and conditions. There are several genetic phenomena that can occur, each with its own unique characteristics and implications.
Anticipation is a term used to describe inherited conditions that become more severe and have an earlier onset in subsequent generations. This is often associated with trinucleotide repeats of DNA bases, which can lead to an expansion of the repeat and an increase in severity.
Incomplete penetrance refers to the likelihood of a condition being present in individuals with a certain trait. In some cases, only some people who inherit a certain trait will develop the associated condition, while others will not.
Genetic imprinting involves the silencing of one copy of an allele, which can lead to conditions such as Angelman and Prader-Willi syndromes.
Mosaicism is the presence of two cell lines with different genetic compositions within the same individual. This can occur in conditions such as mosaic trisomy 21.
Translocation of a chromosome involves the exchange of genetic material between non-homologous chromosomes. This can lead to conditions such as chronic myeloid leukemia, which is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome resulting from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22.
Understanding these genetic phenomena is important for diagnosing and treating inherited conditions, as well as for predicting the likelihood of certain conditions in future generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man complains of lower back pain and 'sciatica' that has been bothering him for the past few days. He reports feeling a sudden 'pop' while lifting a heavy object, and now experiences severe pain that radiates from his back down his left leg. During the examination, he reports experiencing paraesthesia on the lateral aspect of his left foot and the posterior aspect of his thigh. Muscle strength is normal, but the left knee reflex is reduced. The straight leg raise test is positive on the left side. Which nerve root is most likely affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman, with a history of gallstones, arrives at the emergency department complaining of central abdominal pain that radiates to her back. Upon conducting blood tests, you observe the following result:
Amylase 480 U/L (30 - 110). The patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis and inquires about the severity of her condition. What is the primary factor in determining the clinical severity of acute pancreatitis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of any systemic or local complications
Explanation:When determining the severity of pancreatitis, the presence of systemic or local complications is the most important factor to consider. Mild acute pancreatitis is characterized by the absence of both organ failure and local complications. Local complications in severe cases may include peripancreatic fluid collections, pancreatic or peripancreatic necrosis, pseudocysts, and walled-off areas of necrosis. The Atlanta classification system categorizes acute pancreatitis as mild, moderate, or severe. Mild cases have no organ failure, local or systemic complications, and typically resolve within a week. Pain level and initial CRP levels are not used to classify severity, but a high white blood cell count may indicate an increased risk of severe pancreatitis. Serum amylase levels and pancreatic calcification on CT scans are also not reliable indicators of severity.
Managing Acute Pancreatitis in a Hospital Setting
Acute pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires management in a hospital setting. The severity of the condition can be stratified based on the presence of organ failure and local complications. Key aspects of care include fluid resuscitation, aggressive early hydration with crystalloids, and adequate pain management with intravenous opioids. Patients should not be made ‘nil-by-mouth’ unless there is a clear reason, and enteral nutrition should be offered within 72 hours of presentation. Antibiotics should not be used prophylactically, but may be indicated in cases of infected pancreatic necrosis. Surgery may be necessary for patients with acute pancreatitis due to gallstones or obstructed biliary systems, and those with infected necrosis may require radiological drainage or surgical necrosectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of metastatic breast cancer experiences a grand mal seizure at home. She has been experiencing worsening headaches over the past few weeks. What is the most suitable initial management to be provided while awaiting brain imaging, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:It is probable that this female patient has cerebral metastases and the recommended initial treatment is administering high-dose dexamethasone to alleviate cerebral edema. Additionally, anti-epileptic medication like phenytoin may be prescribed to decrease the occurrence of seizures.
Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.
Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.
On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Room with a 3-day history of flu-like symptoms. She is now experiencing severe central chest pain that worsens with coughing and improves when she sits upright. Upon examination, she has a rapid heart rate and a temperature of 38.5 °C. A third heart sound is heard upon auscultation.
What is the probable cause of this patient's chest pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:Pericarditis is an inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart, causing chest pain that is relieved by sitting forward and worsened by lying flat or coughing. Patients may display signs of infection, and a pericardial friction rub may be heard during examination. Blood tests, electrocardiography, chest X-ray, and echocardiography are used to diagnose pericarditis. Causes include viral, bacterial, and fungal infections, as well as other conditions. Treatment aims to address the underlying cause and may include analgesia and bed rest. Aortic dissection, myocardial ischemia, gastroesophageal reflux disease, and pneumonia are other possible causes of chest pain, but each has distinct symptoms and characteristics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman goes to her first prenatal appointment and is found to have a urinary tract infection based on a urine dipstick test. Despite being asymptomatic, which antibiotic should she steer clear of during the first trimester of pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Urinary tract infections in pregnancy should be treated to prevent pyelonephritis. Trimethoprim should be avoided in the first trimester due to teratogenicity risk. Erythromycin is not typically used for UTIs and nitrofurantoin should be avoided close to full term. Sulfonamides and quinolones should also be avoided in pregnancy.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his left eye upon waking up this morning. He reports no pain in his eye. His medical history includes diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Upon fundoscopic examination, the right eye appears normal, but the left eye shows multiple retinal haemorrhages. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion
Explanation:The sudden painless loss of vision and severe retinal haemorrhages observed on fundoscopy in this patient are indicative of central retinal vein occlusion. Amaurosis fugax, which is caused by atheroembolism from the carotid arteries, results in temporary vision loss that resolves within a few minutes. In contrast, this patient’s vision loss is persistent. While central retinal artery occlusion also causes acute painless vision loss, it is characterized by a loss of relative afferent pupillary defect, a cherry-red macula, and a white/pale retina on fundoscopy. Hypertensive retinopathy may cause flame-shaped haemorrhages and cotton wool spots on the retina, but it does not result in sudden vision loss.
Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.
Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.
Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.
Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is presented with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. Upon examination, she exhibits bilateral expiratory wheezing, but there are no indications of respiratory distress. Her respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and her PEF is approximately 50% of normal. What is the best course of action regarding steroid treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone for 3 days
Explanation:According to the 2016 guidelines of the British Thoracic Society, children should be given a specific dose of steroids based on their age. For children under 2 years, the dose should be 10 mg of prednisolone, for those aged 2-5 years, it should be 20 mg, and for those over 5 years, it should be 30-40 mg. Children who are already taking maintenance steroid tablets should receive a maximum dose of 60 mg or 2 mg/kg of prednisolone. If a child vomits after taking the medication, the dose should be repeated, and if they are unable to retain the medication orally, intravenous steroids should be considered. The duration of treatment should be tailored to the number of days required for recovery, and a course of steroids exceeding 14 days does not require tapering.
Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children
When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old Nigerian woman comes to the clinic with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding and pelvic discomfort for the past 3 months. During the physical examination, a solid, non-painful abdominal mass is detected, which originates from the pelvis. The pelvic ultrasound confirms the presence of a sizable uterine fibroid. The medical team decides to perform a hysterectomy. What medication should be administered to prepare her for the surgery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: GnRH agonist e.g. Leuprolide
Explanation:GnRH agonists can be effective in reducing the size of uterine fibroids, but their use is typically limited to short-term treatment. It is important to note that these agonists are primarily used to decrease the size of the uterus prior to surgery, as the risk of post-operative blood loss is directly related to the size of the uterus. Progesterone receptor inhibitors, on the other hand, do not have an impact on overall uterine size and are therefore not useful in preparing for surgery. However, they can be helpful in reducing the severity of fibroid-related bleeding. It is also important to avoid taking COCP 4-6 weeks prior to major surgery due to an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, and to avoid antiplatelet drugs such as Ibuprofen before surgery. While antifibrinolytics like tranexamic acid can be useful in reducing the severity of uterine bleeding, they are not helpful in preparing for surgery.
Understanding Uterine Fibroids
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.
Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.
Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.
Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old homeless female IVDU presents to the ER with a respiratory rate of 8/min and drowsiness. Her blood pressure is 85/60 mmHg and her heart rate is 120 bpm. The doctor observes pinpoint pupils and needle track marks on both arms during the physical examination. After receiving emergency treatment, she responds well and is recommended to stay as an inpatient for detoxification. What medication is suitable for her detoxification?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methadone
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for opioid detoxification is methadone or buprenorphine. A patient with pinpoint pupils, hypotension, tachycardia, drowsiness, and low respiratory rate is likely to have overdosed on opioids. Methadone, a man-made opioid, is used to reduce withdrawal symptoms in those dependent on stronger opioids like heroin. NICE guidelines suggest outpatient detoxification as the routine option, unless the patient has not benefited from it in the past, has physical or mental health needs, social issues, or requires polydrug detoxification. Flumazenil and naloxone are not used in opioid detoxification, but in benzodiazepine poisoning and emergency management of opioid overdose, respectively. Pralidoxime is used in organophosphate poisoning, not in opioid overdoses.
Understanding Opioid Misuse and Management
Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including both natural and synthetic opioids. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning. Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death.
In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C can also be helpful.
Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male has been diagnosed with nasal polyps. Which medication sensitivity is commonly linked to this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Understanding Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.
The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.
The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several areas of pale skin on her hands. Despite using an emollient and topical hydrocortisone, there has been no improvement. During the examination, you observe multiple depigmented patches on the back of both hands. The patient's medical history includes a previous diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, for which she is currently taking carbimazole and thyroxine. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Patients with autoimmune conditions like thyrotoxicosis are more likely to have vitiligo, but there are no other indications in the medical history that point towards Addison’s disease.
Understanding Vitiligo
Vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in the loss of melanocytes and causing depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing between the ages of 20-30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the peripheries being the most affected. Trauma can also trigger new lesions, known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. Management of the condition includes the use of sunblock for affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up, and topical corticosteroids, which may reverse the changes if applied early. There may also be a role for topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution needs to be exercised with light-skinned patients.
In summary, vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that can be managed with various treatments, including sunblock, make-up, and topical corticosteroids. It is often associated with other autoimmune disorders, and caution should be exercised when using certain treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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You and your consultant are examining a CT head of a middle-aged patient who arrived at the emergency department with decreased consciousness following a fall and hitting the side of their head. Your consultant notes a crescent-shaped lesion on the right frontoparietal region. Which blood vessel is likely to have been affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bridging vein
Explanation:The bleeding of damaged bridging veins between the cortex and venous sinuses is the cause of subdural haemorrhage. This condition is the most probable reason for the reduced consciousness in this case. A crescent-shaped lesion is typically seen on CT scans, and it occurs in the subdural space, crossing sutures. Unlike subdural haemorrhage, epidural haemorrhage is linked to the middle meningeal artery, while subarachnoid haemorrhages are associated with vessels of the circle of Willis, such as basilar and anterior circulating arteries.
Understanding Subdural Haemorrhage
A subdural haemorrhage is a condition where blood collects deep to the dural layer of the meninges. This collection of blood is not within the brain substance and is referred to as an ‘extra-axial’ or ‘extrinsic’ lesion. Subdural haematomas can be classified based on their age, which includes acute, subacute, and chronic. Although they occur within the same anatomical compartment, acute and chronic subdurals have significant differences in terms of their mechanisms, associated clinical features, and management.
An acute subdural haematoma is a collection of fresh blood within the subdural space and is commonly caused by high-impact trauma. This type of haematoma is associated with high-impact injuries, and there is often other underlying brain injuries. Symptoms and presentation vary depending on the size of the compressive acute subdural haematoma and the associated injuries. CT imaging is the first-line investigation, and surgical options include monitoring of intracranial pressure and decompressive craniectomy.
On the other hand, a chronic subdural haematoma is a collection of blood within the subdural space that has been present for weeks to months. Elderly and alcoholic patients are particularly at risk of subdural haematomas since they have brain atrophy and therefore fragile or taut bridging veins. Infants also have fragile bridging veins and can rupture in shaken baby syndrome. If the chronic subdural is an incidental finding or if it is small in size with no associated neurological deficit, it can be managed conservatively. However, if the patient is confused, has an associated neurological deficit, or has severe imaging findings, surgical decompression with burr holes is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman is referred to the medical team from the orthopaedic ward. She underwent a right total-hip replacement six days ago. She is known to have mild COPD and is on regular inhaled steroids and a short-acting b2 agonist. She now complains of left-sided chest pain and is also dyspnoeic. Your clinical diagnosis is pulmonary embolism (PE).
Which of the following is usually NOT a feature of PE in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Symptoms and Signs of Pulmonary Embolism
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that can be life-threatening. It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of PE to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment. Here are some of the common symptoms and signs of PE:
Dyspnoea: This is the most common symptom of PE, present in about 75% of patients. Dyspnoea can occur at rest or on exertion.
Tachypnoea: This is defined as a respiratory rate of more than 20 breaths per minute and is present in about 55% of patients with PE.
Tachycardia: This is present in about 25% of cases of PE. It is important to note that a transition from tachycardia to bradycardia may suggest the development of right ventricular strain and potentially cardiogenic shock.
New-onset atrial fibrillation: This is a less common feature of PE, occurring in less than 10% of cases. Atrial flutter, atrial fibrillation, and premature beats should alert the doctor to possible right-heart strain.
Bradycardia: This is not a classic feature of PE. However, if a patient with PE transitions from tachycardia to bradycardia, it may suggest the development of right ventricular strain and potentially cardiogenic shock.
In summary, dyspnoea, tachypnoea, tachycardia, and new-onset atrial fibrillation are some of the common symptoms and signs of PE. It is important to have a high level of suspicion for PE, especially in high-risk patients, to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe chest pain that started an hour ago and is radiating to his left arm. He has a history of type two diabetes and has smoked 50 packs of cigarettes in his lifetime. An ECG shows ST-elevation in leads V2-4, indicating a STEMI. As the healthcare provider, you decide to initiate treatment and give the patient 300mg of aspirin orally. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-reversible COX 1 and 2 inhibitor
Explanation:Aspirin irreversibly inhibits both COX 1 and COX 2, preventing the conversion of arachidonic acid into prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. Thromboxane A2 is responsible for platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction. In cases of acute coronary syndrome, high doses of aspirin are administered to prevent the enlargement of the coronary thrombus.
The Mechanism and Guidelines for Aspirin Use in Cardiovascular Disease
Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By inhibiting the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, leading to changes in guidelines. Aspirin is now recommended as a first-line treatment for patients with ischaemic heart disease, but it should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. The medication can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a drug safety update in January 2010, reminding prescribers that aspirin is not licensed for primary prevention. NICE now recommends clopidogrel as a first-line treatment following an ischaemic stroke and for peripheral arterial disease. However, the situation is more complex for TIAs, with recent Royal College of Physician (RCP) guidelines supporting the use of clopidogrel, while older NICE guidelines still recommend aspirin + dipyridamole – a position the RCP state is ‘illogical’. Despite these changes, aspirin remains an important medication in the treatment of cardiovascular disease, and its use should be carefully considered based on individual patient needs and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling generally unwell. He reports experiencing daily frontal headaches for the past three months, which have not improved with regular paracetamol. Additionally, he has noticed some unusual symptoms such as his wedding ring no longer fitting, his shoe size apparently increasing, and a small amount of milky discharge from both nipples. During examination, his blood pressure is found to be 168/96 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acromegaly
Explanation:Acromegaly: Excess Growth Hormone and its Features
Acromegaly is a condition characterized by excess growth hormone, which is usually caused by a pituitary adenoma in over 95% of cases. However, a minority of cases are caused by ectopic GHRH or GH production by tumours such as pancreatic. The condition is associated with several features, including a coarse facial appearance, spade-like hands, and an increase in shoe size. Patients may also have a large tongue, prognathism, and interdental spaces. Excessive sweating and oily skin are also common, caused by sweat gland hypertrophy.
In addition to these physical features, patients with acromegaly may also experience symptoms of a pituitary tumour, such as hypopituitarism, headaches, and bitemporal hemianopia. Raised prolactin levels are also seen in about one-third of cases, which can lead to galactorrhoea. It is important to note that 6% of patients with acromegaly have MEN-1, a genetic disorder that affects multiple endocrine glands.
Complications of acromegaly include hypertension, diabetes (seen in over 10% of cases), cardiomyopathy, and an increased risk of colorectal cancer. Early diagnosis and treatment of acromegaly are crucial to prevent these complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with psoriasis affecting the scalp and legs visits his General Practitioner with ongoing symptoms despite using once-daily Betnovate® (a potent steroid) and a vitamin D analogue for six weeks.
What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop steroid treatment and continue vitamin D analogue twice daily
Explanation:Psoriasis management follows a stepwise approach, as per NICE guidelines. In this case, the patient has already received eight weeks of potent steroid with a vitamin D analogue. The next step is to stop the steroid and increase the vitamin D analogue to twice daily. Steroids should not be used at the same site for more than eight weeks, and patients require a 4-week steroid-free break. If symptoms persist, twice-daily steroids or a coal tar preparation can be tried. Referral to Dermatology may be necessary for severe cases, but starting the next stage of treatment while awaiting review is appropriate. An ultra-potent steroid may be considered after the steroid-free break or as a short course if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old primigravida woman presents to the emergency department after a fall. She is currently 36 weeks pregnant and experienced convulsions for approximately 1 minute following the fall. The patient has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and has been experiencing headaches and swollen feet for the past 48 hours. Upon assessment, her heart rate is 87 bpm and blood pressure is 179/115 mmHg. What is the next best course of action for her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulphate
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for eclampsia is intravenous magnesium sulphate. In this case, the woman has been diagnosed with eclampsia due to her tonic-clonic seizure and her symptoms of pre-eclampsia for the past two days. The initial management should focus on preventing further seizures and providing neuroprotection to the fetus, followed by considering delivery. It is important to monitor both the mother and fetus for signs of hypermagnesaemia, such as hyperreflexia and respiratory depression, and to continuously monitor their cardiotocography. Emergency caesarean section is not the most appropriate initial management as the woman needs to be stabilized first, given her high risk of having further seizures. Intravenous anti-hypertensives should also be administered after magnesium sulphate to lower her blood pressure. Intravenous furosemide and monitoring cardiotocography are not recommended as furosemide does not lower blood pressure in eclampsia. Intramuscular steroids are not necessary in this case as the woman is 35 weeks pregnant, and fetal lungs should be fully developed by now. Steroids are also not the most important management at this stage, even if the woman was earlier in her pregnancy.
Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment
Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.
In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presents for a check-up. She is experiencing a resurgence of her chronic acne and is interested in finding a solution. What should she steer clear of?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical isotretinoin
Explanation:Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.
The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.
Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department via ambulance after experiencing a sudden onset of facial droop and speech impairment. Upon examination, she is conscious but displays both expressive and receptive aphasia. The patient's GP summary record indicates that she is only taking tamoxifen. Based on this information, what is the most probable medical condition in her past medical history?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer
Explanation:Pre-menopausal women with oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer are managed using Tamoxifen.
Tamoxifen is ineffective in treating oestrogen receptor-negative breast cancer or ovarian cancer.
However, Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer.
Colorectal cancer is not treated with Tamoxifen.Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient complains of vision problems. Upon examination, a left inferior homonymous quadrantanopia is observed. What is the most probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right parietal lobe
Explanation:A visual field defect known as left homonymous hemianopia indicates a loss of vision to the left side, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. Homonymous quadrantanopias, which affect the parietal-inferior and temporal-superior areas, are also a type of visual field defect. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by lesions in the optic radiation or occipital cortex.
Understanding Visual Field Defects
Visual field defects refer to the loss of vision in certain areas of the visual field. One common type of visual field defect is left homonymous hemianopia, which means that there is a visual field defect to the left due to a lesion of the right optic tract. Another type is homonymous quadrantanopias, which can be remembered using the acronym PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior). Incongruous defects indicate an optic tract lesion, while congruous defects suggest a lesion of the optic radiation or occipital cortex. A congruous defect means complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while an incongruous defect is incomplete or asymmetric.
Homonymous hemianopia can also be caused by a lesion of the optic tract, with macula sparing indicating a lesion of the occipital cortex. Homonymous quadrantanopias can be caused by a lesion of the inferior optic radiations in the temporal lobe (Meyer’s loop) for superior defects, and a lesion of the superior optic radiations in the parietal lobe for inferior defects.
Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion of the optic chiasm. An upper quadrant defect that is greater than the lower quadrant defect suggests inferior chiasmal compression, which is commonly caused by a pituitary tumor. Conversely, a lower quadrant defect that is greater than the upper quadrant defect suggests superior chiasmal compression, which is commonly caused by a craniopharyngioma. It is important to note that while this information is useful for exams, actual studies suggest that the majority of quadrantanopias are caused by occipital lobe lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old with chronic kidney disease stage 4 and metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing uncontrolled pain despite taking co-codamol. Considering his impaired renal function, which opioid would be the most suitable option to alleviate his pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Buprenorphine
Explanation:Patients with chronic kidney disease are recommended to use alfentanil, buprenorphine, and fentanyl as their preferred opioids.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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What is the most accurate statement regarding the use of radioactive iodine (131I) for treating thyrotoxicosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is not associated with an increased incidence of late leukaemia.
Explanation:Radioactive Iodine (131I) Treatment for Hyperthyroidism: Uses and Potential Complications
Radioactive iodine (131I) is a commonly used treatment for hyperthyroidism, particularly in cases of toxic nodular hyperthyroidism and Graves’ disease. It works by inducing DNA damage in the thyroid gland, leading to the death of thyroid cells. This treatment is typically administered orally as a capsule or solution, and a standard dosage of 10 mCi is often used. However, the dosage may be increased if necessary, especially in cases of multinodular goitre.
While 131I treatment is generally safe and effective, there are potential complications to be aware of. For example, it should not be administered to pregnant women, as it can cross the placenta and affect the thyroid gland of the fetus. Women should avoid becoming pregnant for at least six months after treatment, and men should not father children for at least four months after treatment. Additionally, there is a risk of hypoparathyroidism, which occurs in about 30% of cases and typically has a latency period of more than a decade.
It is important to note that 131I treatment is not recommended for patients with active Graves’ ophthalmopathy, as it may cause progression of the condition. However, early treatment with levothyroxine may help reduce this risk. On the other hand, rapid regression of exophthalmos is expected in almost all cases within the first three months of treatment.
Overall, 131I treatment is a safe and effective option for many patients with hyperthyroidism. However, it is important to discuss potential risks and benefits with a healthcare provider before undergoing this treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute confusion. She arrives unaccompanied and is unable to provide any information about her medical history. Upon examination, she appears overweight and has non-pitting edema in her eyes and legs. Additionally, she has dry skin and coarse hair. Her vital signs include a heart rate of 50 beats/min, blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg, respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min, temperature of 30°C, and oxygen saturation of 90% on air. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myxoedema coma
Explanation:Understanding Myxoedema Coma
Myxoedema coma is a serious medical condition that can lead to confusion and hypothermia. It is a medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The treatment for myxoedema coma includes IV thyroid replacement, IV fluid, IV corticosteroids (until the possibility of coexisting adrenal insufficiency has been excluded), electrolyte imbalance correction, and sometimes rewarming.
In simpler terms, myxoedema coma is a condition that can cause confusion and low body temperature. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent treatment. The treatment involves giving medications through an IV, correcting any imbalances in the body’s fluids and electrolytes, and sometimes warming the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation and undergoes a salpingectomy. She is also rhesus negative. What is the advice regarding anti-D?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-D should be given
Explanation:When managing an ectopic pregnancy through surgery, it is necessary to administer Anti-D immunoglobulin. However, if the ectopic pregnancy is being treated medically or if the location of the pregnancy is unknown, Anti-D is not needed. The Coombs test has two types: Direct Coombs, which is used to detect autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, and Indirect Coombs, which is used during pregnancy to identify antibodies in the mother’s blood that can cause haemolytic disease in the newborn.
Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of joint pain. She has previously sought medical attention for this issue, but her high BMI of 30 kg/m² was deemed to be the cause and weight loss was recommended. Upon examination, the doctor notes a significant effusion in her left knee and limited range of motion. The metacarpophalangeal joints in her right hand appear swollen and her fingers have a sausage-like appearance. Her left hand does not show any obvious deformities. The patient has tested positive for HLA-B27 and has a blood pressure of 138/87 mmHg and a temperature of 36.7ºC. Based on this information, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that can occur without prior psoriatic skin lesions and is often associated with dactylitis, also known as ‘sausage fingers’. HLA-B27 is commonly found in patients with psoriatic arthritis. Gout is unlikely in a woman under 60 and typically affects the big toe joint. Rheumatoid arthritis is also unlikely as it causes symmetrical polyarthritis and is associated with HLA-DRB1 rather than HLA-B27. Therefore, given the patient’s age, sex, dactylitis, and nail changes, psoriatic arthritis is a more likely diagnosis.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of a painful and swollen right ankle. She is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.2 °C. Examination of her cardiovascular and respiratory systems is normal, and an abdominal examination is also normal. She mentions that she developed a painful left ear and saw another doctor 4 days ago, who told her that she had an infected ear and prescribed antibiotics. Her right ankle is swollen, red, tender and slightly flexed. A diagnosis of septic arthritis is made.
Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
Select the SINGLE most likely causative organism.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus)
Explanation:Common Bacterial Infections and their Causes
Septic arthritis is a joint infection caused by pyogenic organisms, with S. aureus being the most common culprit. Other organisms responsible include streptococci, Neisseria species, and Gram-negative bacilli. The infection typically spreads to the joint via the bloodstream or from adjacent osteomyelitis or trauma. Symptoms include pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in the affected joint. Diagnosis is established by aspirating and culturing the joint fluid. Immediate treatment with appropriate antibiotics is crucial to prevent cartilage destruction, and needle aspiration or surgical drainage may be necessary.
N. meningitidis is a Gram-negative bacterium that causes meningococcaemia and meningococcal meningitis, particularly in children and young adults. It is spread via respiratory secretions and can be carried asymptomatically by 5-10% of adults, with higher rates in close communities. The disease carries significant morbidity and mortality.
S. viridans is commonly found in the mouth and can cause endocarditis if introduced into the bloodstream. It is the most common cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis.
S. epidermidis is a Gram-positive staphylococcus that normally resides on human skin and mucosa. It commonly causes infections on catheters and implants, and is a frequent cause of nosocomial infections, particularly in TPN and bone marrow transplant patients.
E. coli is commonly found in the large intestine and is a major cause of urinary tract infections, cholecystitis and cholangitis, and neonatal meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She had her last period 6 weeks ago and is sexually active without using any hormonal contraception. She has no significant medical history. Upon examination, she has a heart rate of 84 bpm and a blood pressure of 128/78 mmHg. There is tenderness in the left iliac fossa. A pregnancy test confirms that she is pregnant, and further investigations reveal a 40 mm left adnexal mass with no heartbeat. The serum b-hCG level is 6200 IU/L. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laparoscopic salpingectomy and monitoring
Explanation:For women with no other risk factors for infertility, salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for ectopic pregnancy requiring surgical management, rather than salpingotomy. In the case of a patient with acute-onset abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding after 6-8 weeks following her last period, a positive pregnancy test, and ultrasound findings confirming an ectopic pregnancy, laparoscopic salpingectomy and monitoring is the correct course of action. This is especially true if the size of the ectopic pregnancy is greater than 35 mm and the beta-hCG levels are higher than 5000 IU/L. Salpingotomy may require further treatment with methotrexate and may not remove the ectopic pregnancy entirely, making salpingectomy the preferred method. Expectant management and monitoring, laparoscopic salpingotomy and monitoring, and methotrexate and monitoring are all inappropriate for this patient’s case.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man came to your GP clinic complaining of blurred vision for the past month. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. During direct ophthalmoscopy, you observed a ring of hard exudates at the fovea, but the rest of the retina appeared normal. What is the probable diagnosis for his vision blurring?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetic maculopathy
Explanation:Diabetic maculopathy refers to any structural anomaly in the macula caused by diabetes. The patient in this case had hard exudates in the macula, which resulted in blurred vision. As there were no abnormalities in the rest of the retina, options 1-3 (background, pre-proliferative and proliferative diabetic retinopathies) are incorrect. Although vitreous hemorrhage can cause blurred vision in cases of proliferative retinopathy, there is no indication of it in the given history.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for non-proliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presented with worsening pains in the small joints of both her feet with swelling and redness. She experienced stiffness which was worse in the morning. She was initially started on oral prednisolone with a proton-pump inhibitor whilst awaiting a specialist review from a rheumatologist. After seeing the specialist who performed blood tests and x-rays on her feet she was started on a new medication called hydroxychloroquine.
What serious side effects does the specialist need to counsel the patient on when starting this new medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinopathy
Explanation:Hydroxychloroquine, a drug used to prevent and treat malaria, is now commonly included in treatment guidelines for conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, and porphyria cutanea tarda. However, it is important for patients to be aware of the potential severe and permanent retinopathy that can result from chronic use of the drug. The mechanism behind this adverse effect is uncertain, but it can lead to permanent visual loss. To prevent eye toxicity, the daily safe maximum dose of hydroxychloroquine can be estimated based on the patient’s height and weight.
Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects
Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Paediatric Emergency with fever and fatigue. She seems sick and sleepy. Neck stiffness is found during examination.
What is the main factor that would prevent a lumbar puncture (LP) in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extensive rash on trunk and limbs
Explanation:Contraindications for Lumbar Puncture in Children with Suspected Bacterial Meningitis
When a child presents with suspected bacterial meningitis, a lumbar puncture (LP) should be performed as soon as possible. However, there are certain contraindications that must be considered before attempting an LP. These include signs of raised intracranial pressure (ICP), haemodynamic instability, extensive or spreading purpura, seizures (until stabilised), coagulation abnormalities, infection at the site of LP, and respiratory compromise.
A Glasgow coma scale (GCS) score of 13 is not a contraindication for LP. However, an LP should not be attempted when there are signs of raised ICP, such as a GCS score < 9, drop in GCS of 3, relative bradycardia and hypertension, focal neurological signs, abnormal posturing, anisocoria (unequal pupils), papilloedema, or tense or bulging fontanelle. A history of febrile seizure in the past is not a contraindication for LP. However, if the child has ongoing seizures, an LP should not be attempted. Tachycardia is also not a contraindication for LP, as it could be a result of fever. However, if there is any feature of haemodynamic compromise, such as prolonged capillary refill, hypotension, or reduced urine output, an LP should not be attempted. Coagulation abnormalities are contraindications for LP. A LP should not be attempted when the platelet count is < 100 × 109/l, the patient is on anticoagulants, or bleeding and clotting parameters are deranged. It is important to consider these contraindications before attempting an LP in children with suspected bacterial meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman with isolated systolic hypertension, who also has urinary tract infections, osteoporosis and diabetes, attends outpatient clinic with a blood pressure reading of 192/88 mmHg. Which of the following medications would you prescribe for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Valsartan
Explanation:When it comes to treating hypertension, there are several medications to choose from. NICE recommends an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) as first-line treatment for those under 55, while calcium channel blockers (CCBs) are preferred for patients over 55 and those of Afro-Caribbean origin. Beta blockers, once a common choice, are no longer recommended as first-line treatment.
If initial treatment is not effective, a thiazide diuretic can be added to an ACE inhibitor or ARB and CCB. Alpha blockers, such as doxazosin, are no longer commonly used for hypertension and are contraindicated in patients with urinary incontinence. Valsartan, an ARB, is an alternative for patients who cannot tolerate an ACE inhibitor.
For elderly patients with isolated systolic hypertension, a dihydropyridine CCB like amlodipine is the drug of choice, especially if thiazides are not an option. Beta blockers should be used with caution in patients with asthma and are not indicated in this case. By carefully considering the patient’s age, ethnicity, and medical history, healthcare providers can choose the most appropriate medication for treating hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to the GUM clinic with penile discharge and dysuria for the past 5 days. Urethral swabs are taken and microscopy reveals the presence of diplococci. Sensitivities are not yet available, and he is diagnosed with gonorrhoea. What is the recommended initial treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IM ceftriaxone
Explanation:Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, and it is crucial to notify and treat sexual partners. All patients with gonorrhoea should undergo a test of cure after 2 weeks.
Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.
Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.
Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the hospital with a flare-up of his condition. He has been experiencing up to five bloody stools per day for the past three days, and has developed abdominal pain and a low-grade fever in the last 24 hours. His blood work shows the following results:
- Hemoglobin: 13.9 g/dL
- Platelets: 422 * 10^9/L
- White blood cells: 10.1 * 10^9/L
- Erythrocyte sedimentation rate: 88 mm/hr
- C-reactive protein: 198 mg/L
What is the most crucial investigation to conduct next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal x-ray
Explanation:It is possible that this individual has developed toxic megacolon, which is characterized by a transverse colon diameter exceeding 6 cm and accompanying symptoms of systemic distress. Treatment for toxic megacolon typically involves intensive medical intervention for a period of 24-72 hours. If there is no improvement in the patient’s condition during this time, a colectomy may be necessary.
Understanding Ulcerative Colitis Flares
Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can cause flares or periods of worsening symptoms. While most flares occur without a clear trigger, there are several factors that are often associated with them. These include stress, certain medications such as NSAIDs and antibiotics, and even quitting smoking.
Flares of ulcerative colitis can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the frequency and severity of symptoms. Mild flares may involve fewer than four stools a day with or without blood, while moderate flares may include four to six stools a day with minimal systemic disturbance. Severe flares, on the other hand, may involve more than six stools a day containing blood, as well as evidence of systemic disturbance such as fever, tachycardia, abdominal tenderness, distension, reduced bowel sounds, anemia, and hypoalbuminemia.
Patients with evidence of severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for close monitoring and treatment. Understanding the triggers and symptoms of ulcerative colitis flares can help patients manage their condition and seek appropriate medical care when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents with fatigue, joint pain, and abnormal liver function tests. After investigation, he is diagnosed with hereditary hemochromatosis. His wife undergoes genetic testing and is found to not carry the disease. What is the likelihood that their child will develop hemochromatosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0%
Explanation:Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms, Causes, and Complications
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to the accumulation of iron in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is more common in people of European descent, with a prevalence of 1 in 200.
In the early stages of haemochromatosis, symptoms are often non-specific, such as fatigue and joint pain. As the disease progresses, patients may develop bronze skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis.
Treatment for haemochromatosis involves regular phlebotomy to remove excess iron from the body. Reversible complications of haemochromatosis include cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, liver cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy. However, irreversible complications include cirrhosis, which can lead to liver failure and other serious health problems.
In conclusion, haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron metabolism and can lead to serious health complications if left untreated. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent irreversible damage and improve quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent falls due to orthostatic hypotension. Despite trying conservative measures such as increasing fluid and salt intake, reviewing medications, and wearing compression stockings, he still experiences dizziness upon standing. What medication options are available to alleviate his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fludrocortisone
Explanation:Fludrocortisone and midodrine are two medications that can be used to treat orthostatic hypotension. However, doxazosin, a medication used for hypertension, can actually worsen orthostatic hypotension. Prochlorperazine is used for vertigo and isoprenaline and dobutamine are not used for orthostatic hypotension as they are ionotropic agents used for patients in shock.
Fludrocortisone works by increasing renal sodium reabsorption and plasma volume, which helps counteract the physiological orthostatic vasovagal reflex. Its effectiveness has been supported by two small observational studies and one small double-blind trial, leading the European Society of Cardiology to give it a Class IIa recommendation.
To manage orthostatic hypotension, patients should be educated on lifestyle measures such as staying hydrated and increasing salt intake. Vasoactive drugs like nitrates, antihypertensives, neuroleptic agents, or dopaminergic drugs should be discontinued if possible. If symptoms persist, compression garments, fludrocortisone, midodrine, counter-pressure manoeuvres, and head-up tilt sleeping can be considered.
Understanding Syncope: Causes and Evaluation
Syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness caused by a sudden decrease in blood flow to the brain. This condition is characterized by a rapid onset, short duration, and complete recovery without any medical intervention. It is important to note that syncope is different from other causes of collapse, such as epilepsy. To better understand syncope, the European Society of Cardiology has classified it into three categories: reflex syncope, orthostatic syncope, and cardiac syncope.
Reflex syncope, also known as neurally mediated syncope, is the most common cause of syncope in all age groups. It can be triggered by emotional stress, pain, or other situational factors such as coughing or gastrointestinal issues. Orthostatic syncope occurs when there is a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing up, and it is more common in older patients. Cardiac syncope is caused by heart-related issues such as arrhythmias, structural abnormalities, or pulmonary embolism.
To evaluate syncope, doctors may perform a series of tests, including a cardiovascular examination, postural blood pressure readings, ECG, carotid sinus massage, tilt table test, and 24-hour ECG monitoring. These tests help to identify the underlying cause of syncope and determine the appropriate treatment plan. By understanding the causes and evaluation of syncope, patients and healthcare providers can work together to manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of blurring of vision and headache. He does not complain of any pain when touching the scalp or any pain when eating and chewing food.
Past medical history includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
On further history taking, he tells you that he has a family history of brain cancer and he is afraid that this could be relevant to his symptoms.
On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, you could see some arterioles narrower than others. You also see venules being compressed by arterioles. There are also some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages, as well as some cotton-wool spots. There is no optic disc swelling.
His vital observations are as follows:
Heart rate 80 bpm
Blood pressure 221/119 mmHg
Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
Respiratory rate 14 per minute
Temperature 37 °C
According to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification of hypertensive retinopathy, what grade of hypertensive retinopathy is this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Grade 3
Explanation:Stages of Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes of people with diabetes. It is important to detect and treat it early to prevent vision loss. There are different stages of diabetic retinopathy, each with its own set of features.
Grade 1 is characterized by arteriolar narrowing. Grade 2 includes features of grade 1 and arteriovenous nipping. Grade 3 includes features of grade 2 and microaneurysms, dot-and-blot haemorrhages, flame-shaped haemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and hard exudates. Grade 4 includes features of grade 3 and optic disc swelling.
It is important to have regular eye exams if you have diabetes to detect any signs of diabetic retinopathy early. With proper management and treatment, vision loss can be prevented or delayed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with weakness of his right upper limb. On examination, there is weakness of the right triceps muscle, brachioradialis and extensor digitorum. Sensation is normal. The right triceps jerk is absent. There is some wasting of the dorsum of the forearm.
Where is the most likely site of the lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right radial nerve
Explanation:The patient has multiple nerve-related issues, including a right radial nerve palsy, a possible brachial plexus injury, and weakness of the brachioradialis muscle. The right radial nerve palsy is likely due to a humeral or proximal radial fracture or compression, resulting in weak wrist, elbow, and MCP extension and wrist drop. The brachial plexus injury may be affecting a specific nerve rather than the whole plexus, with symptoms consistent with an upper or lower trunk lesion. The weakness of the brachioradialis muscle suggests a possible C5-6 nerve root involvement. The patient does not have any sensory deficits, which is unusual for these types of nerve injuries. Testing of dermatomes, motor function, and reflexes can help identify the specific nerve root or nerve affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male is being seen in the nurse-led heart failure clinic. Despite being on current treatment with furosemide, bisoprolol, enalapril, and spironolactone, he continues to experience breathlessness with minimal exertion. Upon examination, his chest is clear to auscultation and there is minimal ankle edema. Recent test results show sinus rhythm with a rate of 84 bpm on ECG, cardiomegaly with clear lung fields on chest x-ray, and an ejection fraction of 35% on echo. Isosorbide dinitrate with hydralazine was recently attempted but had to be discontinued due to side effects. What additional medication would be most effective in alleviating his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman complains of abdominal bloating and is found to have shifting dullness on examination. What is a risk factor for ovarian cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: BRCA2 gene
Explanation:The risk factors for ovarian cancer are associated with a higher frequency of ovulations.
Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is found to have a shortened QT interval on her ECG. Which medication is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Effects of Different Anti-Arrhythmic Drugs on QT Interval
The QT interval is an important measure of cardiac repolarization, and abnormalities in this interval can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Different anti-arrhythmic drugs have varying effects on the QT interval.
Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin and ouabain can shorten the QT interval, even at therapeutic doses. This is due to their ability to shorten the atrial and ventricular refractory periods.
Class Ia drugs like disopyramide, class Ic drugs like flecainide, and class III drugs like amiodarone and sotalol all prolong the QT interval. Disopyramide can result in a long PR interval, while flecainide can cause a broad QRS or prolonged QT interval. Amiodarone is a class III drug that prolongs the QT interval, and sotalol causes dose-related prolongation of the QT interval.
β-blockers like atenolol have a neutral effect on the QT interval in patients with a normal QT interval. However, they can act to stabilise the QT interval in patients with long QT syndrome.
In summary, different anti-arrhythmic drugs have varying effects on the QT interval, and it is important to monitor this interval when prescribing these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with a 20-year history of treatment with antipsychotic medications for bipolar disorder complains of the onset of writhing tongue and finger movements.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Explanation:Understanding Movement Disorders Associated with Anti-Psychotic Medication
Anti-psychotic medication can cause a range of movement disorders, including tardive dyskinesia, akathisia, and Parkinsonism. Tardive dyskinesia is a common side-effect of long-term treatment with anti-psychotics, but can also occur with minimal doses. It is characterized by choreoathetoid movements, often starting in the fingers and tongue and becoming more generalized. Treatment is often unsuccessful, but may involve switching to a different medication or using agents such as tetrabenazine or benzodiazepines. Akathisia is an inner feeling of motor restlessness, with voluntary movements such as pacing or rocking. Parkinsonism is characterized by resting tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. These movement disorders can be mistaken for other conditions such as Huntington’s or Wilson’s disease, but the association with anti-psychotic medication and the specific symptoms make tardive dyskinesia a more likely option. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients on anti-psychotic medication for these potential side-effects and adjust treatment as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of a headache. She has been experiencing flu-like symptoms for the past three days and the headache started gradually yesterday. The headache is described as being all over and worsens when looking at bright light or bending her neck. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.2º, pulse is 96/min, and blood pressure is 116/78 mmHg. There is neck stiffness present, but no focal neurological signs are observed. During a closer inspection, several petechiae are noticed on her torso. The patient has been cannulated and bloods, including cultures, have been taken. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV cefotaxime
Explanation:Immediate administration of appropriate intravenous antibiotics is crucial for this patient diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. In light of modern PCR diagnostic techniques, there is no need to delay potentially life-saving treatment by conducting a lumbar puncture in suspected cases of meningococcal meningitis.
The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a sore throat, runny nose, cough, feeling feverish and generally unwell for the past week. He reports no difficulty eating or drinking.
Upon examination, his temperature is 37.2°C, and his chest is clear, but he has a dry cough. His tonsils are inflamed, but there is no exudate. He has no significant medical history.
Based on his Fever PAIN score, what would be the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise her that antibiotics are not indicated at this point and to return in one week if there is no improvement
Explanation:Using the FeverPAIN Score to Determine Antibiotic Use for Pharyngitis
When a patient presents with symptoms of pharyngitis, it can be difficult to determine whether antibiotics are necessary. The FeverPAIN Score for Streptococcus pharyngitis was developed to help assess which patients have streptococcal pharyngitis and therefore require antibiotics.
The score assigns points based on the presence of fever, pus, quick attenuation of symptoms, inflamed tonsils, and cough.
Fever PAIN score
Fever – 1
Pus – 1
Attenuates quickly – 1
Inflamed tonsils – 1
No cough – 1
A score of 0-1 is associated with a low likelihood of streptococcal infection and does not require antibiotics. A score of 2-3 may warrant a delayed antibiotic prescription, while a score of 4 or more may require immediate antibiotics.In the case of a patient with a low FeverPAIN score, it is important to advise against antibiotics and instead recommend a follow-up visit in one week if there is no improvement. Safety netting should also be provided to ensure the patient is aware of potential warning signs of deterioration. By using the FeverPAIN score, healthcare providers can reduce inappropriate antibiotic use in pharyngitis and promote more effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of palpitations that have been ongoing for the past day. He has no significant medical history. There are no accompanying symptoms of chest pain or difficulty breathing. Physical examination is normal except for an irregularly fast heartbeat. An electrocardiogram reveals atrial fibrillation with a rate of 126 bpm and no other abnormalities. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit patient
Explanation:Admission to hospital is necessary for this patient as they are a suitable candidate for electrical cardioversion.
Atrial Fibrillation and Cardioversion: Elective Procedure for Rhythm Control
Cardioversion is a medical procedure used in atrial fibrillation (AF) to restore the heart’s normal rhythm. There are two scenarios where cardioversion may be used: as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. In the elective scenario, cardioversion can be performed either electrically or pharmacologically. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.
According to the 2014 NICE guidelines, rate or rhythm control should be offered if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and rate control should be started if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain. If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised and may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological means. However, if the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately.
NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological. If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old child visits the pediatrician with symptoms of recurrent sinusitis. After reviewing the child's medical history, the pediatrician discovers that the child has had multiple respiratory and gastrointestinal infections in the past. The pediatrician suspects a possible primary immunoglobulin deficiency and wants to conduct further tests.
What investigation is necessary to confirm a primary immunoglobulin deficiency in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measurement of immunoglobulin G (IgG), IgA and IgM
Explanation:Common Medical Tests and Their Uses
Immunoglobulin Measurement: This test measures the levels of immunoglobulin G (IgG), IgA, and IgM proteins in response to infection. Low levels of these proteins can lead to increased susceptibility to infections.
Flow Cytometry: This test is used to differentiate between different T cell populations and count the number of cells in a sample. It works by passing cells through a laser beam and analyzing the amount of light scatter to identify cell size and granularity.
Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) Typing: This test matches patients and donors for cord blood or bone marrow transplants by analyzing proteins used by the immune system to differentiate between self and non-self.
Patch Test: This test diagnoses delayed type IV hypersensitivity reactions by applying test substances to the skin and examining it for any inflammatory response.
Polymerase Chain Reaction: This test amplifies DNA segments for functional analysis of genes, diagnosis of hereditary diseases, and detection of infectious diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 88
Incorrect
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As a general practice doctor, you see a 35-year-old plumber who complains of shooting pains down his left leg for the past 3 weeks. The pain has been increasing in intensity and over the counter analgesia has not helped. The patient has no past medical history and takes no regular medications. During examination, you find normal power in both legs but altered sensation over the great toe on his left. There are no urinary symptoms or perianal sensation issues. An MRI scan of his lumbar spine shows a small left paracentral L4/5 disc prolapse causing compression of the transiting L5 nerve root. There is no compression of the cauda equina with CSF visible around all nerve roots. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start treatment with NSAIDs and refer for physiotherapy
Explanation:Most cases of sciatica can be resolved within 3 months through conservative treatment, and specialist referral is rarely necessary. However, if the pain persists after 4-6 weeks of physiotherapy and anti-neuropathic medication, referral to spinal surgery may be considered. Discharging the patient without proper intervention is not recommended as there is a risk of symptoms worsening and developing cauda equina syndrome. Patients should be advised to seek emergency care if they experience peri-anal or saddle sensory changes, difficulty urinating, or symptoms affecting both legs. Opiates are not recommended for neuropathic pain and may lead to dependence. Instead, a more appropriate and effective pain reliever for the patient’s age would be a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) like naproxen.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old teacher attends her first cervical smear appointment. She has never been pregnant before, but she had pelvic inflammatory disease that was treated 3 years ago. Currently, she has an intrauterine device in place. She has no other significant medical or social history. During the appointment, she asks what the test is for.
How would you explain it to her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The sample is tested for high-risk HPV first
Explanation:The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a common sexually transmitted infection that can lead to cervical cancer. There are over 100 types of HPV, with types 16 and 18 being high-risk types that are responsible for the majority of cervical cancers. Types 6 and 11 are low-risk types that typically cause benign genital warts. Although not part of the screening process, the Gardasil vaccine can protect against both HPV types 6 and 11.
Contrary to popular belief, not all samples undergo both HPV testing and cytology. Only samples that test positive for high-risk HPV undergo cytology testing. Samples that test negative for high-risk HPV do not require further testing.
In the past, samples were first examined under a microscope (cytology) before HPV testing. However, research has shown that testing for high-risk HPV first is more effective. If a woman tests positive for HPV, she will receive a single letter informing her of her HPV status and whether any abnormal cells were detected.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents with dyspepsia and an endoscopy reveals a gastric ulcer. A CLO test confirms H. pylori infection and she is treated with eradication therapy. However, at her follow-up appointment six weeks later, her symptoms persist. What is the best test to confirm H. pylori eradication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urea breath test
Explanation:The sole recommended test for H. pylori after eradication therapy is the urea breath test. It should be noted that H. pylori serology will still show positive results even after eradication. In such cases, a stool antigen test, rather than culture, may be a suitable alternative.
Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 (13C) enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which indicates the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and a pH indicator. If there is a color change, it indicates the presence of H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests can also be used, but they remain positive even after eradication. Culture of gastric biopsy can provide information on antibiotic sensitivity, while histological evaluation alone can be done through gastric biopsy. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
Overall, these tests have varying levels of sensitivity and specificity, and the choice of test depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the availability of resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling generally unwell. He reports experiencing body aches and waking up in a cold sweat at night. Upon examination, you observe injection marks on the antecubital fossa. His vital signs reveal a temperature of 38.1ºC, heart rate of 122 bpm, blood pressure of 110/90 mmHg, respiratory rate of 18/min, and oxygen saturation of 98%. You urgently order blood cultures and an echocardiogram. Based on the diagnosis, which site is most likely affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricuspid valve
Explanation:The tricuspid valve is the valve most commonly affected by infective endocarditis in intravenous drug users.
Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis
Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.
The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis are the two most notable viridans streptococci, commonly found in the mouth and dental plaque. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery.
Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition. Non-infective causes of endocarditis include systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy. Culture negative causes may be due to prior antibiotic therapy or infections caused by Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, or HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a gradual loss of vision over the past 2 years. She reports difficulty seeing objects up close, particularly at dusk and in the early morning when walking her dog. Amsler grid testing reveals distorted line perception. The patient has a history of osteoarthritis in her knees, which she treats with paracetamol as needed. What is the probable observation on fundoscopy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drusen
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and clinical findings suggest a diagnosis of dry macular degeneration, which is characterized by the presence of drusen – small yellowish deposits of lipids under the retina. The patient is experiencing a gradual loss of central vision, difficulty seeing in the dark, and distorted line perception on Amsler grid testing.
Hypertensive retinopathy can cause AV nicking, which is visible on fundoscopy, but it is unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms. Cotton wool spots, which are associated with hypertensive and diabetic retinopathy, are also an unlikely cause as the patient has no history of hypertension or diabetes, and these spots do not typically cause changes in vision. Cupping of the optic disc, seen in glaucoma, is also an unlikely diagnosis as the patient’s symptoms do not match those typically seen in glaucoma.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 3-week-old Somali male infant was brought to the paediatric Emergency Department by his mother who recently arrived in the UK. Due to inadequate antenatal care in their home country, the baby has been experiencing rapid breathing, poor feeding, and weight loss for the past 3 weeks. During examination, the baby displayed upslanting palpebral fissures, prominent inner epicanthal folds, a protuberant tongue, and single palmar creases. Additionally, an atypical murmur was heard. An urgent echocardiogram was performed, and the diagnosis was revealed. What is the most likely congenital cardiac abnormality in this baby?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:The most frequent congenital cardiac abnormality found in individuals with Down’s syndrome is atrioventricular septal defects. This baby, who displays typical syndromic features of Down’s syndrome, was not diagnosed during pregnancy due to inadequate antenatal care in Somalia. In the first few weeks of life, dyspnoea, failure to thrive, poor weight gain, and cyanosis can be common presentations. Although Tetralogy of Fallot can occur in Down’s syndrome, it is not the most common. Ventricular and atrial septal defects can also occur, but they are not as prevalent and do not align with the severity of this baby’s symptoms.
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.
Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.
Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes to the neurology clinic reporting olfactory hallucinations that have been occurring for the past 6 months. She works in an office and experiences sudden episodes of smelling burnt rubber, even though there is none present. These episodes last for approximately 2 minutes before subsiding, and she denies any accompanying headaches, visual disturbances, or loss of consciousness. The patient has a history of cannabis use disorder spanning 4 years and is currently receiving assistance to quit. She also has depression that is being managed with sertraline. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Focal aware seizure
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for a woman who suddenly experiences the sensation of smelling roses while at work, while remaining conscious throughout, is a focal aware seizure. This type of seizure affects a small part of one of the brain’s lobes, and in this case, it is likely originating from the temporal lobe. Focal aware seizures can lead to hallucinations, such as olfactory, auditory, or gustatory, as well as epigastric rising and automatisms.
Other options, such as absence seizure, focal impaired awareness seizure, and olfactory hallucination due to cannabis use, are not applicable in this case. Absence seizures typically occur in children and involve impaired consciousness, while focal impaired awareness seizures involve impaired consciousness as well. Olfactory hallucination due to cannabis use is unlikely, as the patient is receiving help for their cannabis-use disorder and there are no other signs of psychosis.
Epilepsy is classified based on three key features: where seizures begin in the brain, level of awareness during a seizure, and other features of seizures. Focal seizures, previously known as partial seizures, start in a specific area on one side of the brain. The level of awareness can vary in focal seizures, and they can be further classified as focal aware, focal impaired awareness, or awareness unknown. Focal seizures can also be motor, non-motor, or have other features such as aura. Generalized seizures involve networks on both sides of the brain at the onset, and consciousness is lost immediately. They can be further subdivided into motor and non-motor types. Unknown onset is used when the origin of the seizure is unknown. Focal to bilateral seizures start on one side of the brain in a specific area before spreading to both lobes and were previously known as secondary generalized seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man suffers an Achilles tendon rupture while playing basketball. He has never had any medical issues related to his muscles or bones. He recently began taking antibiotics for an infection and has been on them for the past week. What type of antibiotic is he likely taking?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:New-onset Achilles tendon disorders, including tendinitis and tendon rupture, are likely caused by ciprofloxacin, a medication with important side effects to consider.
Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.
In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man who is typically healthy presents with joint pain and swelling that has been ongoing for 2 weeks. During the examination, you observe a rash on his nose and detect 2+ protein in his urine upon dipping. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Explanation:The symptoms exhibited by this individual are indicative of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), as evidenced by the presence of the butterfly rash, joint pain, and proteinuria. In SLE, the impaired kidney function is responsible for the proteinuria. It is worth noting that SLE is more prevalent in females, with a ratio of 9:1 compared to males.
Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in women and people of Afro-Caribbean origin, and typically presents in early adulthood. The general features of SLE include fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.
SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, discoid rash in sun-exposed areas, photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia. Musculoskeletal symptoms include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis.
Cardiovascular manifestations of SLE include pericarditis and myocarditis, while respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis. Renal involvement can lead to proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.
Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, as well as more severe manifestations such as psychosis and seizures. Understanding the various features of SLE is important for early diagnosis and management of this complex autoimmune disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 26-year-old female complains of profuse diarrhoea and is worried after observing bright red blood in her stool. She has been feeling unwell for the past four days and denies consuming any unusual food, although she did attend a barbecue five days ago. What is the most probable organism responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of prodrome and bloody diarrhoea are indicative of a Campylobacter infection, which is the most common bacterial cause of infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The incubation period for this infection is typically 1-6 days, which aligns with the patient’s presentation. Bacillus cereus, which is associated with food poisoning from reheated rice, typically has a shorter incubation period and would not usually cause bloody diarrhoea. Clostridium difficile infection is more commonly found in hospital settings and is linked to antibiotic use, but there are no risk factors mentioned for this patient. Salmonella enteritidis, which has a shorter incubation period and is associated with severe vomiting and high fever, is less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
Campylobacter: The Most Common Bacterial Cause of Intestinal Disease in the UK
Campylobacter is a Gram-negative bacillus that is responsible for causing infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The bacteria is primarily spread through the faecal-oral route and has an incubation period of 1-6 days. Symptoms of Campylobacter infection include a prodrome of headache and malaise, diarrhoea (often bloody), and abdominal pain that may mimic appendicitis.
In most cases, Campylobacter infection is self-limiting and does not require treatment. However, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends treatment with antibiotics if the patient is immunocompromised or if symptoms are severe (high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day) and have lasted for more than one week. The first-line antibiotic for Campylobacter infection is clarithromycin, although ciprofloxacin is an alternative. It is important to note that strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated.
Complications of Campylobacter infection may include Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis, septicaemia, endocarditis, and arthritis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or persist for an extended period of time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female patient presents to you for her cervical cancer screening and expresses interest in learning more about HPV (human papillomavirus). What is a true statement regarding HPV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HPV 16 and 18 are most commonly associated with cervical cancer
Explanation:The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly types 16, 18, and 33. Among the approximately 15 types of HPV that are considered high-risk for cervical cancer, HPV 16 and 18 are responsible for about 70% of cases. HPV 6 and 11, on the other hand, are associated with the formation of genital warts.
Understanding Cervical Cancer: Risk Factors and Mechanism of HPV
Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.
The most important factor in the development of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus, early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. While the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet confirmed the link.
The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene. Understanding the risk factors and mechanism of HPV in the development of cervical cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection. Regular cervical cancer screening is recommended for all women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy presents to you with complaints of excessive sweating in his hands. He reports feeling embarrassed in social situations, particularly when he has to shake hands with someone. He is also concerned about how this may impact his upcoming A-level exams.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management approach for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aluminium chloride
Explanation:Hyperhidrosis is not treated with beta blockers like propranolol or calcium channel blockers like nifedipine.
Hyperhidrosis is a condition characterized by the excessive production of sweat. To manage this condition, there are several options available. The first-line treatment is the use of topical aluminium chloride preparations, although it may cause skin irritation as a side effect. Iontophoresis is another option that is particularly useful for patients with palmar, plantar, and axillary hyperhidrosis. Botulinum toxin is also licensed for axillary symptoms. Surgery, such as Endoscopic transthoracic sympathectomy, is another option, but patients should be informed of the risk of compensatory sweating. Overall, there are various management options available for hyperhidrosis, and patients should discuss with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) has increasing back pain and early morning stiffness.
Which of the following treatments would you recommend?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral NSAIDs
Explanation:Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the primary treatment for relieving symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis (AS). It is recommended to co-prescribe a proton pump inhibitor to protect the stomach. If one NSAID is ineffective, switching to another may be helpful. Slow-release NSAIDs may be beneficial for morning stiffness and pain. Colchicine is not recommended for AS due to severe side-effects. Paracetamol and codeine have no direct evidence for treating AS symptoms, but may be used in conjunction with NSAIDs if appropriate. Surgery may be necessary in cases of structural damage, severe deformity, spinal instability, or neurological deficit. Oral corticosteroids should be avoided due to long-term side-effects, but intra-articular injections may provide relief during acute flares. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)-blocking drugs are effective in reducing symptoms and inflammation in those with persistent, active inflammation. Rituximab has no role in treating seronegative arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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