-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old female comes to the clinic from her nursing home with an atypical rash on her arms and legs. The rash appeared after starting furosemide for her mild ankle swelling. Upon examination, there are multiple tense lesions filled with fluid, measuring 1-2 cm in diameter on her arms and legs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Erythema multiforme
Correct Answer: Pemphigoid
Explanation:Pemphigoid: A Skin Condition Caused by Furosemide
Pemphigoid is a skin condition that typically affects elderly individuals, presenting as tense blisters on the arms and legs. The use of furosemide, a diuretic, is a common cause of this condition. While other diuretics can also cause pemphigoid, it is a rarer occurrence. A positive immunofluorescence test confirms the diagnosis, and treatment with steroids is usually successful.
It is important to differentiate pemphigoid from pemphigus, which presents in younger age groups and causes flaccid blisters that easily erupt, leading to widespread lesions. Overall, recognizing the signs and symptoms of pemphigoid and identifying its underlying cause can lead to effective treatment and management of this skin condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man presents to the Dermatology Outpatient Department with mildly itchy, erythematous plaques with oily, yellow scales on the scalp, forehead and behind his ears. The plaques have been present for two weeks. He has no significant medical history and is otherwise well.
What is the definitive management for this patient?Your Answer: Oral corticosteroids
Correct Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo and topical corticosteroid therapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: Focus on Ketoconazole Shampoo and Topical Corticosteroid Therapy
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common skin condition characterized by erythematous patches with fine scaling on the scalp, forehead, and behind the ears. To manage this condition, a four-week course of mild-potency topical corticosteroid therapy with ketoconazole shampoo is recommended. This treatment approach has been shown to improve the signs and symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis. While antihistamines can provide symptomatic relief, they do not address the underlying cause of the disease. Oral corticosteroids and retinoids are not recommended for the treatment of seborrhoeic dermatitis. Vitamin C also has no role in the management of this condition. Overall, the combination of ketoconazole shampoo and topical corticosteroid therapy is a safe and effective treatment option for seborrhoeic dermatitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 25-year-old man without prior history of skin issues comes in with severe itching that worsens at night. The rash is made up of small, red, extremely itchy bumps on the limbs and torso. His girlfriend is also experiencing itching. Upon closer examination of his skin, what finding would most likely confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Burrows
Explanation:Understanding Scabies: Symptoms and Characteristics
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the infestation of the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, variety hominis. The female mite burrows into the skin, creating characteristic lesions known as burrows. However, the absence of burrows does not rule out a diagnosis of scabies. Other symptoms include erythema, or redness and scaling of the skin, and excoriations, or skin abrasions caused by scratching. In severe cases, crusting patches may develop, particularly in crusted scabies, a highly contagious variant of the condition. Prurigo nodules, or small bumps on the skin, may also occur in scabies, especially in young children. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have scabies, as prompt treatment can prevent the spread of the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 6-month-old infant has been diagnosed with diaper rash. What is the best course of action for treating a mild case of diaper rash?
Your Answer: Bactroban cream
Correct Answer: Exposure to air
Explanation:Napkin Rash: Causes and Treatment
Napkin rash, also known as nappy rash, is a common skin condition that affects infants. It is caused by a variety of factors, including contact dermatitis, bacterial and fungal infections, psoriasis, and atopic dermatitis. The condition is often exacerbated by the presence of infantile eczema, but it is not more common in boys or less common in soy-fed infants.
The primary cause of napkin rash is contact dermatitis, which occurs when the skin comes into contact with ammonia from urine. This can cause burning and irritation, leading to a rash. Infection with bacteria and Candida yeasts can also cause nappy rash, as can psoriasis and atopic dermatitis affecting the nappy area. Infection is often superimposed, making the condition more severe.
Prevention is the best treatment for napkin rash. Frequent nappy changing and fluid feeding early in the day can help lessen night-time urination, reducing the risk of contact dermatitis. Anti-fungal lotions may also be useful in treating the condition. By the causes and treatment options for napkin rash, parents can help their infants avoid this uncomfortable and painful condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment. He has been experiencing facial flushing and developed a red rash on his face a few months ago. Upon examination, there are numerous erythaematous papules scattered across his cheeks and his nose appears red and bulbous.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Nodulocystic acne
Correct Answer: Acne rosacea
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Acne Rosacea, Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus, Seborrhoeic Dermatitis, Acne Vulgaris, and Nodulocystic Acne
Skin conditions can be a source of discomfort and embarrassment for many people. Here are five common skin conditions and their features:
Acne Rosacea is a chronic rash that affects the central face, typically in those aged 30 to 60. Symptoms include facial flushing, telangiectasia, rhinophyma, papules, and pustules. Treatment options include topical metronidazole and oral antibiotics.
Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus is an autoimmune disorder that can affect various organs, including the skin. Common dermatological signs include a butterfly malar rash and discoid lupus.
Seborrhoeic Dermatitis is a chronic or relapsing form of eczema that mainly affects the scalp, face, and upper trunk. Symptoms include indurated hyperpigmented plaques and creases around the nose, behind ears, and within eyebrows.
Acne Vulgaris is a common variety of acne that affects the pilosebaceous unit. It is most common in young adults with high levels of sex hormones and is graded according to the number of comedones and inflammatory lesions seen.
Nodulocystic Acne is a severe form of acne that affects the face, chest, and back, mainly in men. Symptoms include multiple inflamed and uninflamed nodules and scars.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
For her 4-year-old son Oliver's atopic eczema, Mrs Simpson takes him to the general practice surgery. Despite using aqueous cream regularly, Oliver has not seen much improvement. The general practitioner suggests trying a topical steroid cream. Which topical steroid would be the most suitable option to try next?
Your Answer: Hydrocortisone 1%
Explanation:Understanding Topical Steroid Creams for Atopic Eczema Treatment
Atopic eczema is a common skin condition that can be managed with the use of topical steroid creams. These creams come in different potencies, and it is important to use the least potent effective cream for children to avoid side effects. The first step in treatment is emollients such as aqueous cream, followed by mild potency hydrocortisone 1-2.5%. If there is no response, a moderately potent cream like Eumovate may be used. Potent creams like Betnovate and very potent creams like Dermovate are not appropriate next steps in management. Trimovate is a moderate steroid cream with antimicrobial effect. The goal is to achieve control of eczema and step down the ladder of potency until maintenance is achieved on the least potent agent. Understanding the different types of topical steroid creams can help in the effective management of atopic eczema.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
At this stage, what is the most appropriate treatment for John Parker, a 28-year-old IT consultant who has been diagnosed with plaque psoriasis confined to his elbows?
Your Answer: Retinoids
Correct Answer: Dovobet®
Explanation:Treatment Options for Localised Plaque Psoriasis
Localised plaque psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that causes red, scaly patches on the skin. There are several treatment options available, including Dovobet®, Infliximab, Methotrexate, Photochemotherapy (PUVA), and Retinoids.
Dovobet® is an ointment or gel that contains both calcipotriol and betamethasone dipropionate. It works synergistically to relieve the symptoms of localised plaque psoriasis. However, it is contraindicated for patients with certain conditions and precautions should be taken in prescribing for certain patients.
Infliximab is an anti-TNF alpha biologic agent that is used in systemic arthritis, particularly psoriatic arthritis. It is not used for localised plaque psoriasis.
Methotrexate is an antifolate immunosuppressant and chemotherapy agent. It would not be a first-line therapy for localised psoriasis.
Photochemotherapy (PUVA) is a type of ultraviolet radiation treatment that can be used for localised psoriasis but would not be first line.
Retinoids are derived from vitamin A and cause proliferation and reduced keratinisation of skin cells. They would not be first line for localised psoriasis.
In conclusion, the choice of treatment for localised plaque psoriasis depends on the severity of the condition, the patient’s medical history, and other factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of redness and itching on his face and hands. He has been to another GP for similar issues in the past two years and has been on sick leave from his job as a builder. He is currently receiving benefits and is in the process of making an insurance claim for loss of earnings. He mentions that there was one ointment that worked for him, but he has not been able to find it again. On examination, there are no visible skin lesions or rash. The patient appears unconcerned and requests that his GP sign his insurance claim paperwork. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Munchausen syndrome
Correct Answer: Malingering
Explanation:Somatoform Disorders, Malingering, and Munchausen’s Syndrome
Somatoform disorders are characterized by the unconscious drive to produce illness and the motivation to seek medical attention. On the other hand, malingering involves a conscious effort to fake or claim a disorder for personal gain, such as financial compensation. Meanwhile, Munchausen’s syndrome is a chronic condition where patients have a history of multiple hospital admissions and are willing to undergo invasive procedures.
In somatoform disorders, patients are not intentionally faking their symptoms. Instead, their unconscious mind is producing physical symptoms as a way to cope with psychological distress. This can lead to a cycle of seeking medical attention and undergoing unnecessary tests and procedures. In contrast, malingering is a deliberate attempt to deceive medical professionals for personal gain. Patients may exaggerate or fabricate symptoms to receive compensation or avoid legal consequences.
Munchausen’s syndrome is a rare condition where patients repeatedly seek medical attention and undergo invasive procedures despite having no actual medical condition. This behavior is driven by a desire for attention and sympathy from medical professionals. Patients with Munchausen’s syndrome may go to great lengths to maintain their deception, including intentionally harming themselves to produce symptoms.
In summary, somatoform disorders, malingering, and Munchausen’s syndrome are all conditions that involve the production or faking of physical symptoms. However, the motivations behind these behaviors differ. these conditions can help medical professionals provide appropriate care and support for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents with a 4-year history of a progressively worsening rash on her face, characterised by dark-coloured lesions with periodic background scaling, burning and pruritus. Physical examination reveals well-defined patches of flaky skin which is yellow and dry on the scalp. There is also flaking in the nasolabial folds, eyebrows and behind the ears. The patient’s eyelids are also red and inflamed. They report itchiness and discomfort.
Given the likely diagnosis of this patient, what is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Emollients
Correct Answer: Ketoconazole
Explanation:Treatment Options for Seborrheic Dermatitis and Psoriasis
Seborrheic dermatitis and psoriasis are two common skin conditions that can cause discomfort and irritation. Fortunately, there are several treatment options available to help manage symptoms and improve overall skin health.
Ketoconazole is the preferred medication for treating seborrheic dermatitis in adults. It is available as a 2% cream and should be applied once or twice daily for at least four weeks. Antifungal shampoo can also be used on the scalp. For infants with seborrheic dermatitis, clotrimazole is a suitable option and should be applied 2-3 times a day for up to four weeks.
Emollients are often used to relieve symptoms of psoriasis by moisturizing dry skin and reducing itching. They can be used before starting steroid treatment for psoriasis. It is important to avoid using soap and shaving creams on the face, as they can exacerbate irritation. Instead, non-greasy emollients or emollient soaps can be used as an alternative.
Topical steroids are commonly used to treat psoriasis by reducing skin inflammation. Mild topical steroids can be used on the face or skinfolds. It is important to follow the instructions provided by your healthcare provider and to use these medications as directed.
In summary, there are several treatment options available for managing seborrheic dermatitis and psoriasis. By working with your healthcare provider, you can find the best approach to improve your skin health and overall quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 28-year-old fair-skinned woman presents with a facial rash and is concerned it may be acne. She is frustrated as she did not experience it severely during her teenage years. The rash is characterized by erythema on the cheeks, nose, and centre of the forehead, with additional lesions present in the affected area. Based on this presentation, what skin lesion would suggest a diagnosis of acne vulgaris rather than rosacea?
Your Answer: Comedone
Explanation:Differences and Similarities between Acne and Rosacea
Acne vulgaris and rosacea are two common skin conditions that affect the face. While they share some similarities, they also have distinct differences.
Acne vulgaris is characterized by a mixture of comedones, papules, pustules, nodules, and cysts. Comedones are formed when the cells lining the sebaceous duct proliferate excessively and block the duct. Open comedones are blackheads, while closed comedones are whiteheads. Other types of comedones include giant comedones and solar comedones. Acne vulgaris usually starts in puberty and can continue into adulthood.
On the other hand, rosacea is a chronic or intermittent rash that affects the central face. It is characterized by blushing or flushing and persistent redness and telangiectasia. Telangiectasias are small, dilated blood vessels that appear as red lines on the skin. Papules and pustules may also develop, and the skin may be dry and flaky. The nose may have prominent pores due to sebaceous gland hyperplasia.
While both acne and rosacea can present with papules, pustules, and crusting, comedones are a characteristic feature of acne and are not present in rosacea. Additionally, acne vulgaris usually starts in puberty and is more common in younger individuals, while rosacea typically affects those aged 30-60.
In summary, while acne and rosacea share some similarities in their presentation, they also have distinct differences that can help differentiate between the two conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 42-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of thick, well-defined, red patches with silvery scales on the extensor surfaces of his elbows and knees. He has been experiencing these skin lesions intermittently for the past 3 years. The lesions tend to improve during the summer months, worsen during times of stress, and reappear at the site of trauma, particularly where he scratches. A skin biopsy specimen reveals epidermal hyperplasia and parakeratosis, with neutrophils present within the epidermis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Plaque psoriasis
Explanation:Differentiating Skin Conditions: A Brief Overview
Psoriasis is a skin condition characterized by a rash with typical histology and location. The Koebner phenomenon, where lesions occur at sites of trauma, is a common feature of psoriasis. Treatment involves exposure to ultraviolet light, tar-based treatments, and immunosuppressant drugs. Pruritus is not always present.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis presents as itchy, ill-defined erythema and greasy scaling on the scalp, nasolabial folds, or post-auricular skin in adults and adolescents.
Lichen planus is characterized by flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red-to-violaceous papules or plaques. Lesions are often located on the wrist, with papules demonstrating central dimpling.
Atopic dermatitis is a chronic inflammatory skin disease characterized by itchy, red rashes often found in the flexor areas of joints.
Tinea corporis is a ringworm infection characterized by expanding patches with central clearing and a well-defined active periphery. The active periphery is raised, pruritic, moist, erythematosus, and scaly, with papules, vesicles, and pustules.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old woman injures her arm on a sharp object while hiking. Within a few days, a small blister forms at the site of the injury, which eventually turns into an open sore. The sore has an uneven purple edge and quickly becomes wider and deeper. The woman experiences severe pain at the site of the sore.
What is the probable medical diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: T1 diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease
Explanation:Skin Conditions Associated with Various Diseases
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a skin condition associated with Crohn’s disease. It is diagnosed based on clinical history and examination, and treatment options include topical or systemic steroid therapy. Coeliac disease is not associated with pyoderma gangrenosum, but is linked to dermatitis herpetiformis, which causes itchy papules on the scalp, shoulders, buttocks, or knees. Pretibial myxoedema is a skin condition associated with Grave’s disease, characterized by waxy, discolored induration on the Pretibial areas. SLE is not associated with pyoderma gangrenosum, but is linked to a facial butterfly rash. T1DM is not associated with pyoderma gangrenosum, but is linked to necrobiosis lipoidica and granuloma annulare, which cause tender patches and discolored plaques, respectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old retired gardener is referred to the Dermatology Clinic with a 2-month history of an ulcerated lesion on the left ear. He explains that the lesion was initially a small white lump which was present for many months, which then broke down into the ulcer.
On examination, a 0.5 cm ulcerated lesion is noted on the left pinna, with a rolled pearly edge. Closer inspection with a dermatoscope shows some telangiectasia around the edge. The dermatologist suspects that the lesion is a rodent ulcer.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding rodent ulcers?Your Answer: They metastasise via the bloodstream
Correct Answer: They are basal cell carcinomas
Explanation:Understanding Rodent Ulcers: Characteristics and Treatment Options
Rodent ulcers, also known as basal cell carcinomas, are malignant skin lesions that commonly occur on the upper part of the face and ears, particularly in sun-exposed areas. They present as a pearly white nodule with telangiectasia and may ulcerate with a rolled edge as they enlarge. Unlike squamous cell carcinomas, rodent ulcers rarely metastasize via the bloodstream. Instead, they are malignant through local invasion, causing significant tissue damage by eroding into local tissue.
Treatment options for rodent ulcers depend on the depth of the ulcer. Surgical excision with an excision margin of 3-5 mm, Mohs micrographic surgery, radiotherapy, and curettage, cautery, and cryotherapy are all viable options. Mohs micrographic surgery is particularly useful for lesions on the face where wide excision is not appropriate.
In contrast, squamous cell carcinomas are malignant skin lesions that usually present as an ulcerated lesion with hard and raised edges in sun-exposed areas. They can occur on the lips in smokers and can metastasize, although spread is typically local. Treatment for squamous cell carcinomas involves excision and radiotherapy.
In summary, understanding the characteristics and treatment options for rodent ulcers is crucial for effective management of this type of skin cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old male patient complains of a sudden worsening of his pre-existing psoriasis over the past three days. Is it possible that one of his medications is responsible for this acute deterioration?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Medications that can worsen psoriasis
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can be triggered or worsened by certain medications. Beta-blockers, commonly used to treat high blood pressure and heart conditions, are known to induce psoriasis or make existing psoriasis worse. Other medications that can exacerbate psoriasis include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, antimalarials, and lithium. These medications can contribute to erythrodermic and pustular eruptions, which can be severe and require medical attention. It’s important to note that reactions to these medications can occur anywhere from less than a month to a year after starting the medication. Additionally, tapering doses of steroids can also lead to a worsening of psoriasis symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 54-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with complaints of bloody diarrhoea that has persisted for the past 6 months. The patient also reported experiencing fever, weight loss, abdominal pain, and a painful, erythematosus rash on the anterior surface of the leg. A positive faecal occult blood test was obtained, and colonoscopy revealed crypt abscesses. What type of skin lesion is frequently observed in this patient?
Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions and Their Causes
Erythema Nodosum: A subcutaneous inflammation, erythema nodosum is often associated with inflammatory bowel disease, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, or a recent streptococcal infection. It is characterized by raised nodules on the lower extremities.
Morbilliform Rash: A mild hypersensitivity skin reaction, the morbilliform rash is a maculopapular eruption that blanches with pressure. It is caused by drugs such as penicillin, sulfonylurea, thiazide, allopurinol, and phenytoin.
Erythema Multiforme: A target-like lesion that commonly appears on the palms and soles, erythema multiforme is usually caused by drugs such as penicillins, phenytoin, NSAIDs, or sulfa drugs. It can also be caused by Mycoplasma or herpes simplex.
Tinea Corporis: A fungal infection, tinea corporis is characterized by ring-shaped, scaly patches with central clearing and a distinct border.
Urticaria: A hypersensitivity reaction that results in wheals and hives, urticaria is most often associated with drug-induced mast cell activation. Aspirin, NSAIDs, and phenytoin are common culprits.
Understanding Common Skin Conditions and Their Causes
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old girl came to the clinic with several erythematosus lesions on her trunk. The lesions had a collarette of scales at their periphery and were asymptomatic. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea
Explanation:Pityriasis Rosea: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Pityriasis rosea is a skin condition that typically begins with a single patch, known as the herald or mother patch. This is followed by smaller patches that appear in clusters, resembling a Christmas tree pattern on the upper trunk of the body. These patches have a fine ring of scales around their edges, known as a collarette. The condition is believed to be caused by a viral infection and typically lasts for six to eight weeks. While there is no specific treatment for pityriasis rosea, symptoms can be managed with over-the-counter medications and topical creams.
Pityriasis rosea is a common skin condition that can cause discomfort and embarrassment for those affected. the symptoms, causes, and treatment options can help individuals manage the condition and alleviate symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
You are asked to see a 40-year-old man with difficult-to-treat psoriasis. He has extensive plaque psoriasis and has tried a number of therapies, including retinoids, topical corticosteroids and photochemotherapy (PUVA).
What would be the next best step in management?Your Answer: Add a vitamin D analogue
Correct Answer: Start methotrexate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis
Chronic plaque psoriasis can be a challenging condition to manage, especially when topical therapies are not effective. In such cases, systemic therapies may be considered. Methotrexate and ciclosporin are two such options that can be effective in inducing remission. However, it is important to weigh the potential side-effects of these medications before starting treatment. Vitamin D analogues and coal tar products may not be effective in severe cases of psoriasis. Oral steroids are also not recommended as a long-term solution. Biological therapy, such as etanercept, should only be considered when standard systemic therapies have failed. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and trial other treatments before considering biological agents.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 19-year-old man is suffering from acne vulgaris, with inflamed, open comedones on his face, chest and neck. What micro-organism degrades sebum to produce inflammatory fatty acids in such cases?
Your Answer: Propionibacterium acnes
Explanation:Common Skin Infections and their Causes
Acne vulgaris is a prevalent skin condition among adolescents and young adults, particularly men. Hormonal changes stimulate the sebaceous glands to produce more sebum, leading to the formation of open comedones, which are inflamed follicles with a central dark plug of keratin. Propionibacterium acnes is responsible for breaking down complex lipids in sebum into free fatty acids, which cause inflammation of hair follicles. Treatment with antibiotics and 13-cis-retinoic acid can alleviate the symptoms of acne vulgaris.
Molluscum contagiosum is caused by the poxvirus, which leads to epidermal hyperplasia and ellipsoid molluscum bodies in the stratum corneum.
Impetigo is a bacterial infection of the skin caused by Staphylococcus aureus. It is highly contagious and often affects healthy children. The infection starts as a reddened macule and progresses to multiple serum-filled pustules that rupture and form a yellowish crust.
Papillomavirus causes warts or verrucae, which are common on the hands. They appear as several papules with a rough, irregular surface.
Tinea versicolor is caused by Malassezia furfur, a fungus that causes superficial fungal infections in the skin. Other forms of tinea are also caused by fungal infections.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man presents to his physician with a complaint of excessive dandruff. He also reports the presence of scaling lesions on his face. Upon examination, there is waxing scale with underlying erythema on his eyebrows, scalp, and nasolabial fold. The patient has a history of HIV for the past 3 years and is currently taking retroviral medication. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Atopic dermatitis
Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Treatment Options
Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: This condition is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to a superficial fungal infection, Malassezia furfur. It typically affects the scalp and face, presenting as yellow papules and scaling plaques with underlying erythema. Treatment involves topical steroid and anti-fungal drugs.
Contact Dermatitis: Hypersensitivity reactions to substances like latex, jewellery, soap, and detergents can cause pruritic erythematous rashes with papulo-vesicular lesions at the site of contact.
Atopic Dermatitis: Patients with atopic dermatitis have high levels of immunoglobulin E (IgE) and present with scaly, erythematosus, pruritic skin lesions, most commonly on the flexor surfaces.
Acne: More common in women than men, acne presents as papulo-pustular lesions on the face and other body areas. Rupture of these lesions releases free fatty acids, which further irritate the skin and extend the lesions. Both black open comedones and closed white comedones may be present.
Alopecia Areata: This autoimmune disease causes discrete, smooth, circular areas of hair loss on the scalp, without associated scaling, inflammation, or broken hair. It can involve a single or multiple areas.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old diabetic patient presents with an abscess on the nape of his neck with multiple discharging sinuses.
Which one of the following terms would you use to describe the presentation?Your Answer: Necrotising fasciitis
Correct Answer: Carbuncle
Explanation:Common Skin Infections and Conditions
Carbuncles, cellulitis, furuncles, infected sebaceous cysts, and necrotising fasciitis are all common skin infections and conditions that can cause discomfort and pain. Carbuncles are collections of pus that discharge to the surface via multiple sinuses and are usually caused by staphylococcal infection. Cellulitis is a bacterial infection of the lower dermis and subcutaneous tissue, presenting with a localised area of painful, red, swollen skin and fever. Furuncles are perifollicular abscesses, also typically caused by staphylococcal infection. Infected sebaceous cysts are round, dome-shaped, encapsulated lesions containing fluid or semi-fluid material. On the other hand, necrotising fasciitis is a serious bacterial infection of the soft tissue and fascia that can result in extensive tissue loss and death if not promptly recognised and treated with antibiotics and debridement. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these conditions are suspected, especially in patients with diabetes or those who are immunosuppressed. Clinical assessment and appropriate diagnostic tests should be conducted to ensure proper treatment and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
An 82-year-old retired landscape gardener presents to clinic with his daughter, who is concerned about a lesion on his scalp.
The lesion is 45 mm × 30 mm, irregular, and she feels it has changed colour to become darker over recent months. He states it has occasionally bled and is more raised than before. He has a history of travel with the armed forces in South-East Asia.
You suspect malignant melanoma.
Which of the following features is most likely to be associated with a poor prognosis in this patient?Your Answer: Change in colour
Correct Answer: Depth of lesion on biopsy
Explanation:Understanding Prognostic Indicators for Melanoma Diagnosis
When it comes to diagnosing melanoma, the depth of the lesion on biopsy is the most crucial factor in determining prognosis. The American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) depth is now used instead of Breslow’s thickness. A raised lesion may indicate nodular malignant melanoma, which has a poor prognosis. Bleeding may occur with malignant melanoma, but it is not a reliable prognostic indicator. While a change in color and irregular border may help identify melanoma, they are not directly linked to prognosis. The size of the lesion is also not a reliable indicator, as depth is required to assess prognosis. Understanding these prognostic indicators is essential for accurate diagnosis and treatment of melanoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
An 8-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of an itchy scalp. Upon detection combing, head lice are found. What is a recognized treatment for head lice?
Your Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo
Correct Answer: Dimeticone 4% gel
Explanation:Treatment Options for Head Lice
Head lice infestations are a common problem, especially among children. There are several treatment options available, but not all of them are effective or recommended. Here are some of the commonly used treatments and their effectiveness:
Dimeticone 4% gel: This gel works by suffocating and coating the lice, making it a well-recognized treatment for head lice.
Ketoconazole shampoo: While this medicated shampoo is used to treat suspected fungal infections in the scalp, it is not a recognized treatment for head lice.
Permethrin 5% cream: Although permethrin is an insecticide used to treat scabies, it is not recommended for head lice treatment as the 10-minute contact time may not be enough for it to be effective.
Topical antibiotics: These are not recommended for head lice treatment.
Topical antifungal: Topical antifungals have no role in the management of head lice.
In conclusion, dimeticone 4% gel is a well-recognized treatment for head lice, while other treatments such as ketoconazole shampoo, permethrin 5% cream, topical antibiotics, and topical antifungal are not recommended. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of head lice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old man comes to his primary care clinic complaining of an itchy rash on his arm. During the examination, you observe polygonal, violaceous papules on the inner part of his forearm. Some of these papules have merged to form plaques. He has no history of skin disorders and is not presently taking any medications.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Plaque psoriasis
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Dermatological Disorders: Characteristics and Differences
Lichen planus is a skin disorder that is believed to be autoimmune in nature. It is characterized by a purple, polygonal, and papular rash that is often accompanied by itching. This condition is rare in both young and elderly populations and typically appears acutely on the flexor aspect of the wrists, forearms, and legs.
Atopic dermatitis, also known as eczema, is a condition that usually presents as a red, itchy rash on the flexural areas of joints such as the elbows and knees. It is most commonly seen in children under the age of 5. As the patient in question has no history of skin disease, it is unlikely that he has eczema.
Scabies is a contagious skin condition that is most commonly seen in children, young adults, and older adults in care homes. It causes widespread itching and linear burrows on the sides of fingers, interdigital webs, and the flexor aspect of the wrists.
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin disease that typically presents with itchy white spots. It is most commonly seen on the vulva in elderly women or on the penis in men.
Plaque psoriasis is a skin condition that presents as itchy white or red plaques on the extensor surfaces of joints such as the elbows.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old male presented with numerous blisters on his trunk and limbs. Linear IG deposits were observed along the basement membrane in direct immunofluorescence studies. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris
Correct Answer: Bullous pemphigoid
Explanation:Bullous Pemphigoid
Bullous pemphigoid is a skin condition that is characterized by the presence of tense bullae, which are filled with clear fluid and appear on normal or erythematosus skin. Unlike pemphigus vulgaris, which causes blisters at the dermal-epidermal junction, bullous pemphigoid causes blistering at the subepidermal level, resulting in the formation of tense blisters. In contrast, pemphigus vulgaris causes thin-walled and fragile blisters that are rarely intact.
To differentiate bullous pemphigoid from other skin conditions, such as pemphigus vulgaris, a skin biopsy for routine and direct immunofluorescence is necessary. This test helps to identify the presence of linear basement membrane zone deposition of immunoglobulin and complement, which are of the IgG type.
In summary, bullous pemphigoid is a skin condition that causes the formation of tense bullae on normal or erythematosus skin. It is important to differentiate it from other skin conditions, such as pemphigus vulgaris, through a skin biopsy for routine and direct immunofluorescence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old patient presents with a history of well demarcated, erythematous lesions with silvery-white scaling plaques on the extensor surfaces of the elbows. There is evidence of nail pitting.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical betnovate + vitamin D
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for psoriasis is the application of betnovate (or another potent steroid) plus vitamin D for four weeks. If there is no or minimal improvement, referral to a specialist may be considered. Dermovate, a very potent steroid, should only be initiated by a specialist who may alter the treatment or advance it to include phototherapy or biologics. Hydrocortisone is not recommended for psoriasis treatment as it is not potent enough. Phototherapy is not the first-line treatment and should only be initiated by a dermatologist after considering all risks and benefits. Biologics are the last stage of treatment and are only initiated by a dermatologist if the detrimental effects of psoriasis are heavily impacting the patient’s life, despite other treatments.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A lesion is observed on the left cheek of a 4-year-old child, and impetigo is being considered as a possible diagnosis.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding impetigo?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Characterised by scab-covered weeping lesions
Explanation:Impetigo: A Contagious Skin Infection
Impetigo is a skin infection that can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, or both. This condition results in the formation of yellow-crusted sores and small blisters filled with yellow fluid, which can appear anywhere on the body but are most commonly found on the face, arms, or legs. The infection is highly contagious and can be spread through direct person-to-person contact.
While impetigo does not require formal isolation, it is important to take precautions to prevent its spread. Children who are affected should stay home from school until they have received 48 hours of effective treatment. Personal hygiene, particularly hand washing and drying, should be emphasized, and children should have their own towels to prevent the spread of infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old West Indian diplomat, while on secondment in the United Kingdom, develops an uncomfortable raised rash on the anterior aspects of both her lower legs. She has prided herself with her remarkably good health over the years. She has recently visited Nigeria, Guyana and Vietnam for her work.
What would be the most appropriate initial investigation to conduct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest X-ray
Explanation:The patient is presenting with erythema nodosum, which may have an unknown cause or could be related to their extensive travel history. While a skin biopsy may provide a definitive diagnosis, the best initial investigation is a chest X-ray to rule out tuberculosis and sarcoidosis. A blood film is not necessary as there is no indication of malaria. An ultrasound of the abdomen is not useful in this case, as the skin lesions are the primary concern. Stool microbiology is not necessary as there is no mention of diarrhea. While a skin biopsy may provide information on the lesions themselves, it does not aid in identifying the underlying cause.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old builder comes to the GP complaining of large itchy silvery white scaly patches on his elbows and knees. He has no history of skin problems, but his father had psoriasis. What is the most suitable initial treatment to prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical steroid and topical calcipotriol
Explanation:Topical Treatments for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis: NICE Recommendations
Chronic plaque psoriasis is a common skin condition that can be managed with topical treatments. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends a stepwise approach to treatment, with different options depending on the severity of the condition and the response to previous therapies.
First-line treatment for chronic plaque psoriasis is a potent corticosteroid applied once daily, combined with a vitamin D analogue, for up to 4 weeks. This combination therapy has been shown to be effective in reducing inflammation and improving symptoms.
If there is no improvement with both steroid and calcipotriol after 8 weeks, topical calcipotriol alone can be used as a second-line management option. However, it is insufficient to prescribe alone as a first-line treatment.
Topical steroid alone is a third-line management option for psoriasis if there is no improvement after 8-12 weeks. This is because long-term use of topical steroids can have side effects such as skin thinning and increased risk of infection.
Short-acting dithranol could be used as a fourth-line option, but not as initial management. Topical coal tar is also part of third-line management for psoriasis.
In summary, the NICE recommendations for topical treatments for chronic plaque psoriasis involve a stepwise approach, with combination therapy as the first-line option and other treatments used if there is no improvement or if side effects occur. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to find the most effective and safe treatment plan for each individual.
NICE Recommendations for Topical Treatments for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man who has been experiencing a lot of stress at work lately presents with an itchy, red rash above the right corner of his mouth. The rash appeared 4 months ago, went away briefly, and then returned. He has used a topical corticosteroid to alleviate the symptoms, but had to discontinue it due to a flare-up of his facial acne. He admits to drinking excessive amounts of alcohol recently. On examination, there is a poorly defined red rash on the right side of his face, affecting the nasolabial fold. Additionally, there are fine, oily scales present.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics
Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: This condition is characterized by an ill-defined, itchy, erythematosus rash with fine, greasy scales. It typically affects the scalp, nasolabial fold, or post-auricular skin in adolescents and adults.
Dermatitis Herpetiformis: Often seen in patients with coeliac disease and malabsorption, this condition presents with intensely itchy grouped vesicles/papules over the extensor surfaces of the elbow, knee, upper back, and buttocks.
Lichen Planus: This condition is characterized by flat-topped, pruritic, red to violaceous polygonal papules or plaques. Lesions are often located on the wrists.
Atopic Dermatitis: This condition involves flexural regions in adult patients and is often associated with a history of atopy. The acute form of atopic dermatitis presents with erythema, oedema, vesicles, and papules.
Psoriasis: This condition is characterized by thick, well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over the extensor surface of the elbows and knees.
Characteristics of Common Skin Conditions
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old boy visits his pediatrician with skin lesions. Upon conducting a thorough examination and taking a medical history, the doctor informs the mother that the skin lesions are likely caused by a viral infection.
What is the most probable condition that could be caused by a virus in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Molluscum contagiosum
Explanation:Common Skin Infections and Their Causes
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral infection that spreads through direct contact and causes pink papules with a central umbilicus. The lesions contain cheese-like material and can be treated with cryotherapy or imiquimod.
Cellulitis is a bacterial infection that affects the lower dermis and subcutaneous tissue, causing red, swollen, and painful skin. It is commonly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus.
Folliculitis is an inflammation of the hair follicles, often caused by staphylococcal infections.
Impetigo is a bacterial infection that results in pustules and honey-colored, crusted erosions. It is commonly caused by S. aureus.
Necrotizing fasciitis is a severe bacterial infection that affects soft tissue and fascia. The bacteria release toxins and enzymes that lead to thrombosis and destruction of soft tissue and fascia. Bacterial causes include S. aureus and Clostridium perfringens, among others.
Overview of Common Skin Infections and Their Causes
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old music teacher who presented to her General Practitioner (GP) with a skin lesion on her forearm. On examination, the lesion is a 4-mm red, raised lesion with multiple scratch marks surrounding it. The GP wishes to refer Mrs Green to a local dermatologist.
Which of the following descriptions most accurately describes this lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: erythematosus papule with excoriation
Explanation:Understanding Dermatological Terms: Describing Skin Lesions
Accurately describing skin lesions is crucial in diagnosing skin conditions. Dermatological terms can help healthcare professionals communicate effectively about skin lesions. Here are some common terms:
– Bulla: A fluid-filled lesion (blister) that may be single or multiloculated.
– Crust: Dried serum, pus, or blood.
– Erythema: Vascular dilation and inflammation producing redness on the skin.
– Excoriation: Scratch marks, often self-induced and secondary to itching.
– Lichenification: Chronic thickening and increased marking of the skin caused by scratching.
– Macule: A change in color or texture of the skin without any change in elevation. When >1 cm in diameter, it is called a ‘patch.’
– Nodule: A raised lesion with a rounded surface greater than 0.5 cm in diameter.
– Papule: A solid, raised lesion less than 1 cm in diameter.
– Plaque: An elevated plateau of the skin, often greater than 0.5 cm.
– Pustule: A pus-filled lesion.
– Scale: Flakes arising from an abnormal stratum corneum.
– Telangiectasia: Small dilated blood vessels near the skin surface.
– Vesicle: A fluid-filled lesion less than 1 cm in diameter.
– Weal: A raised compressible area of dermal edema.Understanding Dermatological Terms: Describing Skin Lesions
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
An 18-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of painful lesions on his face, neck, and upper back. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Upon examination, the GP observes multiple pustules on erythematous bases that express serosanguinous fluid and occasional pus. Based on these findings, the GP makes a tentative diagnosis and recommends daily application of topical benzoyl peroxide. What structure is most likely responsible for the development of this patient's skin condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sebaceous glands
Explanation:The Skin and its Glands: A Brief Overview
The skin is the largest organ of the human body and is responsible for protecting the body from external factors such as bacteria, viruses, and physical trauma. It is composed of several layers, with the outermost layer being the stratum corneum, a keratinised squamous epithelial layer.
One of the most common skin conditions is acne, which is caused by the sebaceous glands associated with hair follicles secreting sebum and plugging the hair follicle. If left untreated, acne can cause scars or pock marks after the lesions heal. Treatment options include benzoyl peroxide, tetracycline antibiotics, or retinoic acid.
Apocrine glands secrete a viscous, milky substance and are found in the axillary and genital regions. They become active during puberty and are associated with a characteristic foul odor due to bacteria consuming the fluid expressed from these glands.
Eccrine glands are sweat glands and are found all over the body. They play a crucial role in regulating body temperature and eliminating waste products.
Hemidesmosomes connect basal cells to the underlying basal membrane. Antibodies to hemidesmosomes can lead to the formation of bullous pemphigoid, a rare autoimmune disorder that causes blistering of the skin and mucous membranes.
Understanding the different glands and layers of the skin can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various skin conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man presents with erythema, vesicles and crusted ulcerations on the right scalp, forehead and periorbital region. The affected area is swollen and causing him pain. Additionally, there are some vesicles present at the tip of his nose. He reports experiencing a headache in that area several days prior to the onset of the rash. What is the most probable causative organism for this rash?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicella-zoster virus
Explanation:Common Skin Infections and Their Causes
Skin infections can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses, fungi, and bacteria. Here are some common skin infections and their causes:
Varicella-zoster virus: This virus causes shingles, which is a reactivation of the virus that has been dormant in the dorsal root ganglia after the patient’s initial exposure to the virus in the form of chickenpox. A live attenuated vaccine is now available that is effective in preventing shingles.
Herpes simplex virus infection: This virus can occasionally appear in a dermatomal distribution, mimicking shingles. It presents with erythema and vesicles, but the area of skin involved is usually much less than in shingles and pain is not as prominent.
Malassezia furfur: This fungus causes tinea versicolor, a common benign, superficial cutaneous fungal infection characterized by hypopigmented or hyperpigmented macules and patches on the chest and back.
Trichophyton verrucosum: This dermatophyte fungus of animal origin (zoophilic) causes a kerion, a severely painful inflammatory reaction with deep suppurative lesions on the scalp or beard area.
Staphylococcus aureus: This bacterium causes impetigo, sycosis, ecthyma, and boils.
Common Skin Infections and Their Causes
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old professional footballer comes to the Dermatology Clinic with a lesion on his leg. The lesion started as a small cut he got during a match, but it has progressed over the past few weeks, becoming a large, painful ulcer.
During the examination, the doctor finds that the lesion is 50 mm × 75 mm and ulcerated with a necrotic centre. The patient has no medical history, but his general practitioner (GP) recently investigated him for a change in bowel habit, including bloody stools, and fatigue.
The patient's anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody test comes back positive, and no organisms grow from the wound swab. The doctor prescribes systemic steroids, and the patient experiences rapid improvement.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Painful Cutaneous Ulcer in a Patient with IBD Symptoms
When presented with a painful cutaneous ulcer, it is important to consider the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient is experiencing fatigue and change in bowel habit, which could be indicative of underlying inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). One possible diagnosis is pyoderma gangrenosum, which is commonly associated with IBD, rheumatoid arthritis, or hepatitis. This condition presents with a rapidly progressing, painful, necrolytic cutaneous ulcer that responds well to systemic steroids. Livedo reticularis, erythema nodosum, and lupus pernio are other possible diagnoses, but they do not typically present with ulceration in this pattern or are not associated with IBD. While squamous cell carcinoma should be considered, it is unlikely in this case due to the patient’s young age and the rapid deterioration of the ulcer. Overall, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the underlying condition causing the cutaneous ulcer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman presents with shiny, flat, red papules over her anterior wrists and forearms. The papules are extremely pruritic and some of them have a central depression. Similar papules are seen along the scratch line at the volar surface of the forearm. The patient is a nurse and has had at least three needlestick injuries during the past 2 years. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is negative. Hepatitis B surface antigen and anti-HBc antibody are negative, but anti-HBs antibody is positive. Anti-hepatitis C (HCV) antibody is positive.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions and Associated Antibodies
Lichen Planus: This skin condition is associated with viral hepatitis, specifically hepatitis B and C. Antibodies may indicate the presence of hepatitis and other conditions such as erythema multiforme, urticaria, polyarteritis nodosa, cryoglobulinemia, and porphyria cutanea tarda.
Chronic Hepatitis B: A negative anti-HBc antibody status suggests that the patient has not been exposed to the hepatitis B virus. A positive anti-HBs antibody status may indicate vaccination.
Dermatitis Herpetiformis: This condition is characterized by extremely itchy papulovesicles on the elbows, knees, upper back, and buttocks. It is often associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. Autoantibodies such as anti-gliadin, anti-endomysial, and anti-tissue transglutaminase may be present.
Essential Mixed Cryoglobulinemia: This condition presents with palpable purpura and arthritis, among other signs of systemic vasculitis. It is also associated with hepatitis C virus infection, and rheumatoid factor is usually positive.
Dermatomyositis: Gottron’s papules, which are violet, flat-topped lesions, are associated with dermatomyositis and the anti-Jo-1 autoantibody. They are typically seen over the metacarpophalangeal or interphalangeal joints.
Skin Conditions and Their Antibody Associations
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old patient with a chronic skin condition is under annual review with the Dermatology team. At her review appointment, the patient mentions that she has been experiencing episodes of new skin lesions appearing in areas where she has scratched, often appearing in straight lines. The doctor examines a typical lesion, and notes that they are examples of Koebner phenomenon.
In which one of the following conditions is the Koebner phenomenon MOST likely to be seen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:The Koebner Phenomenon: Skin Conditions and Cutaneous Injury
The Koebner phenomenon is a term used to describe the appearance of new skin lesions in areas of cutaneous injury, often caused by scratching, in otherwise healthy skin. This phenomenon is commonly seen in skin conditions such as psoriasis, vitiligo, and lichen planus. It may also manifest in association with other conditions such as viral warts, pyoderma gangrenosum, and molluscum contagiosum.
In cases where the Koebner phenomenon occurs, the new lesions have the same clinical and histological features as the patient’s original skin disease. They are often linear in nature, following the route of cutaneous injury.
It is important to note that not all skin conditions exhibit the Koebner phenomenon. Rosacea, eczema, pityriasis rosea, and cellulitis are examples of skin conditions that do not exhibit this phenomenon.
In summary, the Koebner phenomenon is a unique characteristic of certain skin conditions that can occur in response to cutaneous injury. Understanding this phenomenon can aid in the diagnosis and management of these skin conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old Irish man presents to the Dermatology clinic with a 3-cm pigmented lesion on his right shin. He also has a Fitzpatrick skin type 1. The lesion appears macular and contains three different shades of pigment. What is the most crucial next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biopsy
Explanation:Importance of Biopsy in Diagnosing Melanoma
When a patient with type 1 or 2 skin presents with a pigmented lesion that is large and has multiple colors, it is suggestive of melanoma. It is crucial to inquire about any changes over time and symptoms such as bleeding or itching. A comprehensive medical history should include family history of skin cancers, risk factors such as sun exposure, hobbies, travel, sunburns as a child, previous skin cancers or abnormal moles, and history of immunosuppression. The ABCDE rule should be followed for suspicious pigmented lesions.
A biopsy is necessary for diagnosis and determining the prognosis of melanoma based on the Breslow depth. Clinical photographs and follow-up in 3 months may be appropriate in some cases, but if there is a suspicion of melanoma, an urgent biopsy is necessary. Scrapings for mycology are not useful in diagnosing pigmented lesions, and measuring ACE levels is not appropriate in this scenario.
In conclusion, a biopsy is essential in diagnosing melanoma and determining its prognosis. It is crucial to follow the ABCDE rule and obtain a comprehensive medical history to identify any risk factors. Early detection and prompt treatment can significantly improve the patient’s outcome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old boy with worsening dry, itchy skin, mainly affecting the flexor surfaces on his arms, attends a routine GP clinic with his mother. Despite regular liberal use of emollient cream, the symptoms have not improved significantly. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing the child's eczema?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe hydrocortisone cream 1%
Explanation:Managing Eczema in Children: Treatment Options and Referral Considerations
When a child presents with eczema, the first step is often to use emollient cream to manage the symptoms. However, if the eczema persists or worsens, a topical corticosteroid cream may be necessary. It is important to use this sparingly and in conjunction with emollients. While oral corticosteroids may be considered in severe cases, they should be used with caution and ideally under the guidance of a dermatologist. Emollient ointments may also be helpful, but a short course of topical corticosteroids is often more effective for managing flare-ups. If symptoms continue to worsen despite treatment, referral to a dermatology clinic may be necessary. Watchful waiting is not appropriate in this situation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
In what condition is lupus pernio observed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:Lupus Pernio in Sarcoidosis
Lupus pernio is a distinct skin manifestation that is commonly associated with sarcoidosis. This condition is characterized by the presence of chronic, hardened papules or plaques that primarily affect the mid-face, particularly the alar rim of the nose. Even small papules in this area may indicate the presence of granulomatous infiltration in the nasal mucosa and upper respiratory tract, which can lead to the formation of masses, ulcerations, or even life-threatening airway obstruction. Therefore, it is important to promptly diagnose and manage lupus pernio in patients with sarcoidosis to prevent further complications. Proper treatment may involve the use of systemic corticosteroids, immunosuppressive agents, or other targeted therapies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
What is the probable reason for the nail changes observed in Mr Williams, an 86-year-old retired dock worker with a history of hypertension and mitral valve replacement, who visited his general practitioner with symptoms of fever, night sweats and fatigue? During examination, his hands showed loss of angle between the nail fold and nail plate, a bulbous fingertip, and painful, erythematous nodules present on both hands.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infective endocarditis
Explanation:The patient’s nail signs suggest a diagnosis of clubbing, which is commonly seen in various internal conditions such as cardiac issues like infective endocarditis and cyanotic congenital heart disease, respiratory problems like bronchial cancer, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, cystic fibrosis, and pulmonary fibrosis, gastrointestinal issues like inflammatory bowel disease, biliary cirrhosis, and malabsorption, and other conditions like thyroid acropachy. The presence of Osler’s nodes, painful nodules caused by immune complex deposition, further supports a diagnosis of infective endocarditis, which is commonly associated with this symptom. Although the patient has a history of potential asbestos exposure, the history of heart valve replacement, current symptoms, and nail signs point towards infective endocarditis as the likely diagnosis. Other conditions like inflammatory bowel disease, pulmonary fibrosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis can cause clubbing but not Osler’s nodes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
An 85-year-old man who lives alone visits his General Practitioner complaining of a worsening itchy, red rash over his trunk, arms and legs. He has a medical history of psoriasis, hypertension and high cholesterol. Upon examination, the doctor observes an extensive erythematosus rash with scaling covering a large portion of his body. The patient has a normal temperature, a blood pressure of 110/88 mmHg and a heart rate of 101 bpm. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:Management of Erythroderma in an Elderly Patient Living Alone
Erythroderma is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent treatment. In elderly patients who are systemically unwell and live alone, urgent admission to the hospital is necessary. This is the case for an 86-year-old man with a history of psoriasis who presents with erythroderma. The patient needs to be managed in the hospital due to the high risk of infection and dehydration. Topical emollients and steroids are essential in the management of erythroderma, but this patient requires intravenous fluids and close monitoring. Oral antibiotics are not indicated in the absence of features of infection. A topical steroid with a vitamin D analogue would be appropriate for a patient with psoriasis, but urgent assessment by Dermatology in an inpatient setting is necessary. An urgent outpatient Dermatology appointment is not appropriate for an elderly patient with abnormal observations and living alone.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman with uncontrolled psoriasis is returning with deteriorating symptoms. Despite using potent topical treatments, her psoriasis remains uncontrolled.
What is the next appropriate step in managing her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add in narrow-band ultraviolet B (UVB) phototherapy
Explanation:Next Steps in Psoriasis Treatment: Narrow-Band UVB Phototherapy
When topical treatments fail to improve psoriasis symptoms, the next step in treatment is often narrow-band ultraviolet B (UVB) phototherapy. While it has a reasonable success rate, it also comes with potential complications such as an increased risk of skin cancer. Patients with a history of skin cancer may not be recommended for this treatment.
Changing topical steroids would not be an appropriate step in the management plan. Instead, it is necessary to move onto the next step of the psoriasis treatment ladder. Biologics are not indicated at this stage and should only be considered as an end-stage treatment due to their high cost and significant side effects.
Psoralen with local ultraviolet A (UVA) irradiation may be appropriate for patients with palmoplantar pustulosis. However, for most patients, stopping steroids is not recommended. Instead, narrow-band UVB phototherapy should be commenced without stopping steroids to optimize treatment and increase the chances of success.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old swimming instructor presents with an abrupt onset of diffuse inflamed, red, scaly skin changes that developed within 2 days. The medical team suspects erythroderma and initiates treatment with oral steroids. What is the most probable dermatological disorder that can lead to erythroderma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions and Their Relationship to Erythroderma
Erythroderma is a condition that causes inflammation, redness, and scaling of over 90% of the skin surface. It can be caused by various dermatological conditions, including eczema, psoriasis, cutaneous T cell lymphoma, drug reactions, blistering conditions, and pityriasis rubra pilaris. Complications of erythroderma include hypothermia, dehydration, infection, and high-output heart failure. Treatment involves identifying and stopping any causative drugs, nursing in a warm room, and systemic steroids.
Livedo reticularis is another skin condition that causes a mottled discoloration of the skin in a reticular pattern due to a disturbance of blood flow to the skin. However, it does not cause erythroderma.
Lichen planus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that presents with a pruritic, papular eruption characterized by its violaceous color and polygonal shape, sometimes with a fine scale. It does not commonly cause erythroderma.
Norwegian scabies is a severe form of scabies caused by a mite infestation, but it does not cause erythroderma.
Pityriasis rosea is a viral rash characterized by a herald patch followed by smaller oval, red patches located on the torso. It does not cause erythroderma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with a complaint of a pale, velvety, hypopigmented patch on his chest and shoulder that he has been experiencing for the past few months. He reports no pain, itching, or scaling on the lesion. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking methotrexate. Upon examination, scraping revealed scaling.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tinea versicolor
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Causes
Skin conditions can range from mild to severe and can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some common skin conditions and their symptoms:
Tinea Versicolor: This fungal infection appears as pale, velvety, hypopigmented macules that do not tan and are non-scaly. It is usually non-pruritic or mildly pruritic and occurs on the chest, back, and shoulders.
Tinea Corporis: This fungal infection causes ring-shaped, scaly patches with central clearing and a distinct border.
Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis: This is a serious skin hypersensitivity reaction that affects a large portion of the body surface area. It is usually drug-induced and can be caused by NSAIDs, steroids, methotrexate, allopurinol, or penicillins. The Nikolsky sign is usually present and the skin easily sloughs off.
Vitiligo: This autoimmune condition causes areas of depigmentation lacking melanocytes. It is usually associated with other autoimmune conditions such as hyperparathyroidism.
Fixed Drug Reaction: This sharply distinguished lesion occurs in the same anatomic site with repeated drug exposure. It is most commonly caused by barbiturates, tetracycline, NSAIDs, phenytoin, or clarithromycin.
Understanding Common Skin Conditions and Their Symptoms
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of pruritic, polygonal, violaceous papules on the inner aspect of his forearm. Several of these papules have merged to form plaques.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Common Skin Disorders and Their Characteristics
Lichen planus is a skin disorder that has an unknown cause but is likely autoimmune. On the other hand, lichen sclerosus is characterized by itchy white spots that are commonly seen on the vulva of elderly women. Scabies, which typically affects children and young adults, causes widespread itching and linear burrows on finger sides, interdigital webs, and the flexor aspect of the wrist. Eczema usually presents as an itchy, red rash in the flexural areas, while psoriasis is characterized by itchy white or red patches on the extensor surfaces. These are some of the most common skin disorders and their distinct characteristics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman came to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the inside of her mouth and the front of her chest, with some areas appearing red and weeping. The dermatologist performed a skin biopsy, which revealed a superficial intra-epidermal split just above the basal layer with acantholysis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris
Explanation:Skin Disorders: Pemphigus Vulgaris, Bullous Pemphigoid, Dermatitis Herpetiformis, Epidermolysis Bullosa, and Tuberous Sclerosis
Skin disorders can manifest in various ways, including blistering and erosions on the skin and/or mucous membranes. Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering and erosions on the skin and mucous membranes, with IgG autoantibodies to desmoglein 3 being a key characteristic. In contrast, bullous pemphigoid involves sub-epidermal splitting and tense blisters that are less easily ruptured. Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterised by intensely pruritic blisters on specific areas of the body, often associated with coeliac disease. Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare inherited disorder that causes fragile skin, while tuberous sclerosis is not associated with blistering. Diagnosis and treatment vary depending on the specific disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old recently arrived female with several skin blisters comes in for assessment. A few of the blisters have burst, resulting in a sore, exposed region. The base of one of the erosive lesions is scraped for Tzanck test. Upon examination, acantholytic keratinocytes with significant hyperchromatic nuclei are detected under the microscope.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris
Explanation:Distinguishing Skin Conditions on Tzanck Smear: Pemphigus Vulgaris, Cytomegalovirus, Herpes Simplex, Chickenpox, and Bullous Pemphigoid
When examining a patient’s bullous skin lesions on a Tzanck smear, it is important to distinguish between various skin conditions. In the case of acantholytic keratinocytes, the most likely diagnosis is pemphigus vulgaris. This autoimmune disorder is caused by an antibody against intraepithelial desmosomal junctions, resulting in the separation of keratinocytes and the formation of intraepithelial blisters.
Cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex, and chickenpox can also present with multinucleated giant cells on a Tzanck smear. However, these conditions are caused by viral infections rather than autoimmune disorders.
Bullous pemphigoid, on the other hand, is caused by an antibody against the dermal-epidermal junction. The associated blisters are sub-epidermal in location and do not contain acantholytic keratinocytes.
In summary, a Tzanck smear can provide valuable information in diagnosing various skin conditions, including pemphigus vulgaris, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex, chickenpox, and bullous pemphigoid. Proper diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
Which statement about nail changes is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ridges in the nails may be seen in psoriasis
Explanation:Common Nail Changes and Their Causes
Nail changes can be a sign of underlying health conditions. Here are some common nail changes and their causes:
Psoriasis: Ridges, pits, and onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed) are features of psoriasis.
Splinter haemorrhages: Although splinter haemorrhages occur in bacterial endocarditis, trauma is the most common cause. They can also be associated with rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, systemic lupus erythematosus, and psoriasis.
White nails: White nails are a feature of hypoalbuminaemia.
Koilonychia: Iron deficiency causes koilonychia and may cause onycholysis. Vitamin B12 deficiency does not cause nail changes.
Clubbing: Ischaemic heart disease does not cause clubbing.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 49
Incorrect
-
A General Practitioner is summoned to the nursing home to examine a 70-year-old man with dementia and severe pruritus. During the examination, the doctor observes excoriations on the patient's trunk and limbs. The patient also has scaling on his palms, particularly in the web spaces. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scabies infestation
Explanation:Understanding Scabies Infestation
Scabies infestation is a skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. It is commonly transmitted through close contact and is prevalent in nursing homes and other institutions. The primary symptom of scabies is severe itching, and if present, burrows (linear crusted lesions) and penile papules are highly suggestive. The condition typically affects the web-spaces and around the nipples, with scalp involvement only occurring in young babies and debilitated adults. Excoriations are also common.
The treatment for scabies usually involves the use of permethrin, and close contacts should be treated simultaneously. Atopic eczema is unlikely to present at this age, and chronic kidney disease and diabetes are associated with several skin conditions but do not typically cause pruritus. Iron-deficiency anaemia may cause pruritus, but it is rarely as severe as scabies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man with a history of hypercholesterolaemia and psoriasis is admitted to the hospital after experiencing central crushing chest pain. He was diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) and received appropriate treatment. While in the hospital, he had a psoriasis flare-up.
Which medication is most likely responsible for the psoriasis flare-up?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta blockers
Explanation:Medications and Psoriasis: Which Drugs to Avoid
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can be triggered by various factors, including stress, infection, and certain medications. While sunlight can help alleviate psoriasis symptoms in most patients, it can worsen the condition in some individuals. Among the drugs that can exacerbate psoriasis are β blockers, antimalarials, lithium, and interferons. Therefore, if possible, people with psoriasis should avoid taking these medications. However, drugs such as clopidogrel, glyceryl trinitrate spray, low-molecular-weight heparin, and statins are not known to cause psoriasis flares. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication if you have psoriasis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 51
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old female patient expresses concerns about her hair loss. She has noticed patches of hair loss for the past three months without any associated itching. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and takes 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily. She also takes the combined oral contraceptive and has regular withdrawal bleeds. On physical examination, the patient appears healthy with a BMI of 22 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 122/72 mmHg. Two distinct patches of hair loss, approximately 2-3 cm in diameter, are visible on the vertex of her head and the left temporo-occipital region. What is the most probable cause of her hair loss?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alopecia areata
Explanation:Hair Loss and Autoimmune Conditions
Hair loss can be caused by a variety of factors, including autoimmune conditions and thyroid disease. In the case of alopecia areata, which is a type of hair loss characterized by discrete patches of hair loss, about 1% of cases are associated with thyroid disease. However, this type of hair loss is not typically seen in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which often presents with scarring alopecia. Androgenic alopecia, which is the most common type of hair loss in both men and women, typically causes thinning at the vertex and temporal areas rather than discrete patches of hair loss. Over-treatment with thyroxine to cause hyperthyroidism or the use of oral contraceptives can also lead to general hair loss. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hair loss in order to determine the appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
A toddler is brought to the clinic with severe eczema. What is the appropriate treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Might benefit from a diet free of cow's milk
Explanation:Managing Eczema in Infants
Eczema is a common skin condition in infants that can cause discomfort and distress. Cow’s milk allergy may trigger severe eczema, but switching to a soy-based formula may help alleviate symptoms. While complete cure may not be possible, appropriate preventative measures and topical preparations can minimize the condition’s impact. Most infants outgrow eczema by the age of 2-3 years.
There is no evidence to suggest that infants with eczema should not receive measles or pertussis immunization, but they should avoid immunization if they have a concurrent skin infection. Oral steroids are a last resort and are rarely used in infants with severe eczema. By following these guidelines, parents and caregivers can help manage eczema in infants and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 53
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old man with a history of eczema presents with itchy, red patches of skin on his antecubital fossae, lateral thighs, and popliteal fossae. The skin on his right thigh is weeping and inflamed. He reports feeling fatigued and wonders if he has had a fever. His vital signs are within normal limits. Based on your examination, you diagnose him with moderately severe eczema.
What is the best course of action for managing his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regular Diprobase® ointment and once-daily betamethasone valerate 0.025% cream plus 10 days of oral flucloxacillin
Explanation:Treatment Regime for Moderately Severe Eczema with Superimposed Infection
Moderately severe eczema with evidence of superimposed infection requires a specific treatment regime. The severity of eczema is categorized into four categories: clear, mild, moderate, and severe. In this case, the patient has small areas of dry skin mainly in the flexures, and there is evidence of infected eczema/cellulitis with an erythematosus, weeping patch of skin in the lateral thigh.
The treatment regime should include a regular emollient ointment, such as Diprobase®, applied generously to the skin multiple times a day. Additionally, a moderately potent topical corticosteroid, such as betamethasone valerate 0.025% or clobetasone butyrate 0.05%, should be used sparingly on the inflamed areas once a day. The patient must be advised to apply the steroid first and allow 15-20 minutes for it to be absorbed before applying the emollient. Treatment should last 7-14 days and continue until 48 hours after the eczematous patches have cleared.
Furthermore, oral antibiotics are necessary for the treatment of infected eczema. Oral flucloxacillin is considered first-line, and treatment usually lasts for a 10-day period.
Treatment Regime for Moderately Severe Eczema with Superimposed Infection
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a lump on the side of his head. During the examination, the GP suspects that the lump may be a basal cell carcinoma. What characteristic is most indicative of this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Telangiectasia
Explanation:Understanding Basal Cell Carcinomas: Characteristics and Warning Signs
Basal cell carcinomas are the most common type of skin cancer, typically found in sun-exposed areas such as the face and neck. They can be familial and associated with certain syndromes. A basal cell carcinoma often appears as a slow-growing, skin-colored, pearly nodule with surface telangiectasia, or fine vessels on the surface. It may also be an ulcerated lesion with rolled edges. Biopsy confirms the diagnosis, and treatment involves excision with a clear margin. While basal cell carcinomas rarely metastasize, they can be locally invasive and destructive. Pigmentation is a feature of melanocytic lesions, but basal cell carcinomas may rarely show pigmentation. Size is not a specific feature of malignancy, but sudden increases in size should be referred for further assessment. Other warning signs include crusted edges and unprovoked bleeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman presents with multiple large, ruptured, eroded plaques on her upper arm, scalp and groin, along with an ulcerated blister on the mucosa of her lower lip. The cause is determined to be pemphigus vulgaris, with the pathogenesis of the disease attributed to IgG autoantibodies against which protein?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Desmoglein
Explanation:Autoantibodies and Skin Disorders: Understanding the Role of Desmoglein, Bullous Pemphigoid Antigen, Collagen Type XVIII, Keratin, and Desmoplakin
Skin disorders can be caused by various factors, including autoimmune reactions. In particular, autoantibodies targeting specific proteins have been linked to several skin conditions. Here are some of the key proteins involved in these disorders:
Desmoglein: This protein is targeted by autoantibodies in about 80% of pemphigus cases, specifically in pemphigus vulgaris. The autoantibodies disrupt desmosomes, leading to blister formation above the stratum basale.
Bullous pemphigoid antigen and collagen type XVIII: These proteins are associated with bullous pemphigoid, which is characterized by autoimmune disruption of the hemidesmosome. This structure attaches the basal surface of cells in the stratum basale to the underlying epidermal basement membrane.
Keratin: Mutations in genes encoding keratin have been linked to epidermolysis bullosa, a disorder that causes blistering and skin fragility.
Desmoplakin: This intracellular protein links keratin intermediate filaments to desmosomes, but it is not directly involved in the pathogenesis of pemphigus vulgaris.
Understanding the role of these proteins in skin disorders can help researchers develop better treatments and therapies for these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 56
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old man presents with thick, demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over the extensor surface of the elbows and knees. He has had these skin lesions on and off over the last 2 years. The lesions become less severe during summer, aggravate at the time of stress and recur at the site of skin trauma. Histopathological examination of the skin biopsy specimen shows epidermal hyperplasia and parakeratosis, with neutrophils inside the epidermis.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics
Psoriasis, Lichen Planus, Seborrheic Dermatitis, Lichen Simplex Chronicus, and Tinea Corporis are all common skin conditions with distinct characteristics.
Psoriasis is identified by thick, well-defined, erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over the extensor surface of the elbows and knees. The Koebner phenomenon, the occurrence of typical lesions at sites of trauma, is often seen in psoriasis. Exposure to ultraviolet light is therapeutic for psoriatic skin lesions, which is why the lesions become less severe during summer. Pruritus is not always present in psoriasis.
Lichen Planus is characterised by flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red to violaceous papules or plaques. Lesions are often located on the wrist, with papules demonstrating central dimpling.
Seborrheic Dermatitis manifests with itching, ill-defined erythema, and greasy scaling involving the scalp, nasolabial fold or post-auricular skin in adolescents and adults.
Lichen Simplex Chronicus is characterised by skin lichenification in the area of chronic itching and scratching. Epidermal hyperplasia and parakeratosis with intraepidermal neutrophils are features of psoriasis, not lichen simplex chronicus.
Tinea Corporis is a ringworm characterised by expanding patches with central clearing and a well-defined, active periphery. The active periphery is raised, pruritic, moist, erythematous and scaly with papules, vesicles and pustules.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old woman presents to her dermatologist with a 4-year history of acne on her back, chest and face. She has comedones, pustules and scars that have not improved with previous treatments. The dermatologist decides to prescribe isotretinoin. What other medication should be prescribed alongside this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive
Explanation:The patient has severe acne and topical treatment has not been effective. The dermatologist will prescribe oral isotretinoin, which is a specialist drug that can only be prescribed in secondary care. However, isotretinoin is teratogenic, so women of reproductive age must use at least two methods of contraception while taking the drug. The combined oral contraceptive pill is often co-prescribed with isotretinoin to help balance the hormonal profile and improve the skin condition. Topical retinoids are the treatment of choice for mild to moderate acne, but they are not indicated for severe acne. Oral oxytetracycline can be used in combination with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide for moderate acne, but it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Topical erythromycin is used for mild to moderate acne and should always be prescribed in combination with benzoyl peroxide to prevent microbial resistance. Topical benzoyl peroxide is used for mild or moderate acne and can be combined with a topical retinoid or antibiotic, or an oral antibiotic for moderate acne.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
A patient has been diagnosed with a melanoma on his left hand, which measures 1.5 cm. He is booked in to have surgery to remove it.
During the excision biopsy what margin size will be taken?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 mm
Explanation:Surgical Margins for Skin Cancer Excision
When removing skin cancer through excision biopsy, it is important to use appropriate surgical margins to ensure complete removal of the cancerous cells. The size of the margin depends on the type and thickness of the cancer.
For melanomas, a 2 mm margin is used for the initial excision biopsy. After calculating the Breslow thickness, an additional wide excision is made with margins ranging from 1 cm to 2 cm, depending on the thickness of the melanoma. A 1 cm margin is used for melanomas measuring 1.0–4.0 mm, while a 2 cm margin is used for melanomas measuring >4 mm.
Squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC) requires a 4 mm excision margin, while basal-cell carcinoma (BCC) requires a 3 mm margin.
Using appropriate surgical margins is crucial for successful removal of skin cancer and preventing recurrence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 59
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old female patient complains of erythematous papulo-pustular lesions on the convexities of her face for the past two years. She also has a history of erythema and telangiectasia. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rosacea
Explanation:Differentiating Skin Conditions
Skin conditions can be easily differentiated based on their characteristic symptoms. Acne is identified by the presence of papules, pustules, and comedones. On the other hand, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is characterized by a photosensitive erythematosus rash on the cheeks, along with other systemic symptoms. Meanwhile, polymorphous light eruption (PLE) does not cause telangiectasia.
One telltale sign of acne is the presence of papules, pustules, and comedones. These are often accompanied by background erythema and telangiectasia. In contrast, SLE is identified by a photosensitive erythematosus rash on the cheeks, which may be accompanied by other systemic symptoms. PLE, on the other hand, does not cause telangiectasia. By the unique symptoms of each skin condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner concerned about excessive hair growth on her face, back, and arms. Despite trying various hair removal methods and bleaching, she is considering treatment to prevent hair growth. Her BMI is 30 kg/m2, and she reports irregular periods, menstruating once every 7-9 months. Her recent blood tests showed elevated levels of testosterone and luteinising hormone. What is the best course of action for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral combined contraceptive pill
Explanation:Management of Hirsutism in Polycystic Ovary Syndrome: First-Line Options
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition characterized by irregular menstrual cycles, excess hair growth, and raised hormone levels. In patients with PCOS experiencing hirsutism and irregular periods, the first-line management option is the oral combined contraceptive pill. This medication reduces hyperandrogenism by suppressing ovarian androgen secretion and increasing binding of androgens, thereby reducing excess hair growth. Metformin can also be used to improve insulin resistance and aid weight management, but it would not be the first-line choice for managing hirsutism. Eflornithine can be used for hirsutism, but in this patient, starting the contraceptive pill will not only treat her hirsutism but also allow for regular withdrawal bleeds and regulate her menstrual cycle. The progesterone-only pill and topical minoxidil are not recommended as first-line options for managing hirsutism in PCOS patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 61
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old woman presents with acne vulgaris. On examination there are mixed comedones and pustules. She has three slight acne scars to her left cheek. The lesions are multiple and prominent but do not extend beyond the face. She has not tried any medications for the acne to date and is requesting your advice on treatment. You note that she last attended for an emergency contraception prescription, which was in the last 6 weeks. She does not use any regular contraception and does not want to commence contraception as she indicates she is no longer sexually active. She says that she does not feel overly self-conscious about her acne but wants something to help improve the appearance of the spots.
Which treatment plan is most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical application of clindamycin and benzoyl peroxide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acne Vulgaris: A Comprehensive Guide
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that affects many individuals, particularly during adolescence. It is characterized by blocked hair follicles and sebaceous glands, resulting in inflammatory and non-inflammatory lesions on the face, back, and chest. The severity of acne can range from mild to severe, with the latter causing scarring and significant distress to the patient.
There are several treatment options available for acne vulgaris, depending on the severity of the condition. For mild to moderate acne, topical benzoyl peroxide can be prescribed as monotherapy. However, for moderate acne with a risk of scarring, a combination therapy of a topical antibiotic and benzoyl peroxide, such as clindamycin aqueous solution, is recommended.
In cases of extensive acne on the back or shoulders, or if there is a significant risk of scarring or skin pigmentation, an oral antibiotic may be considered for an 8-week period. However, it is important to note that oral antibiotics should be used judiciously to avoid the development of antibiotic resistance.
For severe acne or acne causing severe distress to the patient, referral to a dermatologist for treatment with isotretinoin may be necessary. Isotretinoin is a retinoid that is used for systemic treatment of severe acne. However, it should only be given to women on contraception as it is teratogenic.
In conclusion, the treatment of acne vulgaris requires a tailored approach based on the severity of the condition and the risk of scarring or other complications. A combination of topical and oral therapies, as well as referral to a dermatologist when necessary, can help to effectively manage this chronic skin condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 62
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after developing a severe cutaneous hypersensitivity reaction. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he was taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), but his symptoms did not improve and his general practitioner prescribed him methotrexate a few days ago. On examination, Nikolsky’s sign is present and affects 45% of his body’s surface area.
Which of the following is the underlying condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis
Explanation:Common Skin Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Causes
Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a severe skin hypersensitivity reaction that can be fatal and affects a large portion of the body’s surface area. It is often caused by drugs such as NSAIDs, steroids, and penicillins.
Morbilliform rash is a milder skin reaction that appears as a generalised rash that blanches with pressure. It is caused by drugs like penicillin, sulfa drugs, and phenytoin.
Erythema nodosum is an inflammatory condition that causes painful nodules on the lower extremities. It can be caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, and inflammatory bowel disease.
Fixed drug reaction is a localised allergic reaction that occurs at the same site with repeated drug exposure. It is commonly caused by drugs like aspirin, NSAIDs, and tetracycline.
Erythema multiforme is characterised by target-like lesions on the palms and soles. It is caused by drugs like penicillins, phenytoin, and NSAIDs, as well as infections like mycoplasma and herpes simplex.
Understanding Common Skin Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Causes
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 63
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She reports that some of the blisters have healed and left scars, but others are still growing and new ones are appearing. Despite taking antibiotics prescribed by her primary care physician, the blisters have not improved. Upon examination, the patient has multiple superficial skin lesions and oral lesions that easily slough off. A skin punch biopsy with immunofluorescent examination reveals circular intra-epidermal deposits. What other symptoms may this patient be experiencing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibodies against desmosomes
Explanation:Understanding Pemphigus Vulgaris: An Autoimmune Blistering Condition
Pemphigus vulgaris is a blistering condition that primarily affects middle-aged individuals. It is caused by IgG autoantibodies against desmosomal components, specifically desmogleins 1 and 3, in the superficial layers of the skin. This results in flaccid blisters that easily rupture, leading to erosions and scarring. The oral mucosa is often affected early on, and Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Immunofluorescence reveals intra-epidermal circular deposits, and antibodies against desmosomes are typically positive. Treatment involves high-dose steroids and may require life-long maintenance doses. In contrast, bullous pemphigoid, which affects older individuals, is characterized by antibodies against hemidesmosomes in the deeper basement membrane of the skin, resulting in tense, firm blisters that do not rupture easily. Psoriasis, alopecia, and HIV are not linked to pemphigus vulgaris.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 64
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old black woman comes in with depigmented patches of skin on her hands and face. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Common Skin Pigmentation Disorders
Vitiligo, Pityriasis alba, Albinism, Melasma, and Melanoma are all skin pigmentation disorders that affect people of different ages and ethnicities. Vitiligo is a rare autoimmune condition that destroys melanocytes, causing white patches on the skin. Pityriasis alba is a scaly, white patch that usually affects children’s facial skin. Albinism is a genetic disorder that reduces tyrosinase activity in melanocytes, resulting in a lack of pigment in the skin, hair, and irises. Melasma is a condition of increased pigmentation, usually occurring underneath the eyes, and is common in pregnant women and oral contraceptive users. Melanoma is a malignant skin cancer that develops from melanocytes and is characterized by irregular, highly pigmented moles. Understanding these disorders can help individuals identify and manage their skin conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 65
Incorrect
-
What is the dermatological condition that is linked to neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Café au lait spots
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis Type 1 and Type 2
Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects the 17th chromosome and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. There are two types of neurofibromatosis: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is also known as von Recklinghausen’s disease and is characterized by flat, light-brown skin lesions called café au lait spots, axillary freckling, small purple-colored lesions called dermal neurofibromas, nodular neurofibromas that can cause paraesthesia when compressed, and Lisch nodules on the iris. Complications of type 1 neurofibromatosis include nerve compression, phaeochromocytoma, mild learning disability, and epilepsy.
Type 2 neurofibromatosis is much rarer than type 1 and also demonstrates autosomal dominant inheritance. In addition to café au lait spots, individuals with type 2 may also develop vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas) and premature cataracts. It is important to note that while both types of neurofibromatosis share some similarities, they also have distinct differences in their clinical presentation and associated complications. these differences can aid in accurate diagnosis and management of these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 66
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old woman with a 28-year history of psoriasis presents to the Dermatologist. Despite treatment with ciclosporin, she has multiple patches on her arms, legs and scalp, which affect her sleep and work. The Dermatologist decides to initiate biological therapy with a TNF-alpha inhibitor. The patient has a past medical history of inactive tuberculosis.
Which TNF-alpha inhibitor is the Dermatologist likely to prescribe for the patient's severe psoriasis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adalimumab
Explanation:Biological Agents for the Treatment of Psoriasis
Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the skin and joints. Biological agents have revolutionized the treatment of psoriasis by targeting specific molecules involved in the immune response. Here are some commonly used biological agents for the treatment of psoriasis:
Adalimumab: This agent targets tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), a cytokine involved in systemic inflammation. Adalimumab is used when other systemic treatments have failed and the disease is severe.
Brodalumab: This agent targets the interleukin 17 receptor found on CD8+ cytotoxic T cells. It is used when methotrexate or ciclosporin have failed.
Infliximab: This agent is also a TNF-alpha inhibitor, but it has been shown to reactivate latent tuberculosis. Therefore, it should be used with caution in patients with a history of tuberculosis.
Guselkumab: This agent targets interleukin 23, which is involved in the activation of T17 lymphocytes. It is used in the treatment of moderate to severe psoriasis.
Secukinumab: This agent targets interleukin 17, which is found on CD8+ cytotoxic T cells. It is used in the treatment of moderate to severe psoriasis.
Before starting any of these agents, certain criteria must be met, such as failure of other treatments and severity of the disease. Additionally, some agents may be contraindicated in patients with certain medical histories, such as a history of tuberculosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 67
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of generalised itch for the past few days. He mentions that it is causing him to lose sleep at night. Upon examination, the GP observes linear burrows on the hands and evidence of excoriation on the abdomen and limbs. The GP suspects scabies as the underlying cause.
What is the initial treatment recommended for non-crusted scabies?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Permethrin 5% cream
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scabies: Understanding the Role of Different Medications
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei parasite. The primary treatment for non-crusted scabies is permethrin 5% cream, which is an insecticide. If permethrin is not tolerated or contraindicated, malathion can be used as a second-line agent. It is important to apply permethrin cream over the entire body and wash it off after 8-12 hours. Treatment should be repeated after one week.
Clotrimazole 2% cream, which is an antifungal medication, is not effective in treating scabies. Similarly, topical antibiotics like fusidic acid cream are not used to treat scabies unless there is a secondary bacterial infection.
Steroids like hydrocortisone 1% ointment are not used to treat scabies directly, but they can be used to alleviate symptoms like itching. Oral antibiotics like flucloxacillin are only necessary if there is a suspected secondary bacterial infection.
In summary, understanding the role of different medications in treating scabies is crucial for effective management of the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 68
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man with a history of asthma and ulcerative colitis presents with an itchy, red rash in the right and left popliteal regions. He works as a teacher and continuously scratches the back of his knees when he is at work. This is the second time he has suffered from such a popliteal rash. He states that previously he has had similar skin conditions affecting his anterior wrist and antecubital areas. On examination, both popliteal areas are erythematosus with slight oedema and weeping. There are some overlying vesicles and papules.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atopic dermatitis
Explanation:Differentiating Skin Conditions Based on Location and Distribution
When it comes to diagnosing skin conditions, the location and distribution of the rash or lesion are just as important as its appearance. For example, a rash in the flexural regions of an adult patient, such as the popliteal region, is likely to be atopic dermatitis. This is especially true if the patient has a history of asthma, indicating an atopic tendency. Acute dermatitis typically presents with redness, swelling, vesicles, and papules.
Other skin conditions have different characteristic distributions. Dermatitis herpetiformis, which is associated with coeliac disease and malabsorption, typically appears as grouped vesicles or papules on the elbows, knees, upper back, and buttocks. Seborrhoeic dermatitis is found in areas with sebaceous glands, such as the scalp, eyebrows, and presternal regions. Lichen planus presents as flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red-to-violaceous papules or plaques, usually on the wrists, ankles, or genitalia. Psoriasis, on the other hand, produces silvery, scaling, erythematosus plaques, primarily on the extensor surfaces.
In summary, understanding the location and distribution of a skin condition can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 69
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of extensive psoriasis affecting the trunk, arms, buttock and nail beds is seen for review in Dermatology Outpatients. He has previously completed a course of phototherapy, with minimal improvement, and has shown no benefit on methotrexate for the past 12 months.
What is the next most appropriate step in the management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infliximab
Explanation:Management of Severe Extensive Psoriasis: Consideration of Anti-TNF Alpha Therapy
Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that is managed in a stepwise manner, as per the National Institute of Health Care and Excellence (NICE) guidelines. For patients with extensive psoriasis who have failed topical therapy, phototherapy, and systemic agents such as methotrexate, acitretin, and ciclosporin, or where these are not tolerated and/or contraindicated, the next step in management is to trial an anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) alpha, such as infliximab, etanercept, or adalimumab, given by injection.
While on anti-TNF alpha therapy, patients are at an increased risk of pneumococcal and seasonal influenzae, and should receive vaccination against these illnesses. Live vaccines should be avoided.
Repeating a further course of phototherapy may not be the most appropriate answer for patients who have already failed systemic therapy and previously showed only minimal response to phototherapy. Hydroxychloroquine is not commonly used in the management of plaque psoriasis, and rituximab is not indicated for psoriasis.
Topical tacrolimus may be used in the management of psoriasis affecting the face or flexural regions, but for patients with severe extensive psoriasis on the trunk, arms, and buttocks who have already tried and failed management with oral regimes and phototherapy, it is unlikely to be of benefit. If it has not already been used, it would not be unreasonable to trial tacrolimus for a short period. However, the next most appropriate step in management is an anti-TNF alpha.
In summary, for patients with severe extensive psoriasis who have failed previous therapies, consideration of anti-TNF alpha therapy is the next step in management, with appropriate vaccination and monitoring for potential adverse effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 70
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old girl has a 3 cm-diameter patch of alopecia in the left parietal region with another smaller similar area nearby. The skin in the patch is itchy and the few remaining hairs seem to have fallen out near the scalp surface. Her father has noticed that the area of alopecia is spreading. There is no itching of the right scalp and there is no rash elsewhere on her body.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tinea capitis
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Hair Loss: A Guide
Hair loss can be a distressing experience, but it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some common causes of hair loss and their distinguishing features:
Tinea Capitis: This fungal infection can cause abnormal scalp skin and alopecia. The affected area may be scaly or inflamed, and broken hairs do not taper at the base.
Alopecia Areata: This autoimmune disease results in circular areas of hair loss without scaling, inflammation, or broken hair.
Discoid Lupus Erythematosus: This condition causes red, scaly patches that leave white scars and permanent hair loss due to scarring alopecia.
Psoriasis: Thick scaling on the scalp may cause mild hair loss, but it does not result in permanent balding. Psoriasis may also be present elsewhere on the body.
Trichotillomania: Hair pulling disorder does not cause abnormalities to the scalp skin.
By understanding the distinguishing features of these causes of hair loss, prompt and appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent permanent hair loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 71
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old male patient comes to you with a complaint of an erythematosus rash in his groin area. He reports that the rash was initially raised and red, but it has now healed and left behind hyperpigmentation. Interestingly, he mentions that he has experienced this same rash in the same location before. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he had taken ibuprofen for a strained ankle prior to the onset of the rash. What is the probable cause of this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fixed drug eruption
Explanation:Fixed Drug Eruptions: Recurring Lesions Caused by Medications
Fixed drug eruptions are a type of skin reaction that occurs when a person takes a medication to which they are allergic. These eruptions are characterized by circular, violaceous, and oedematous plaques that appear in the same area where the offending drug was given. The lesions usually occur within 30 minutes to eight hours after drug administration and can be found in various parts of the body, with the hands, feet, and genitalia being the most common locations.
One of the distinguishing features of fixed drug eruptions is that the lesions tend to recur in the same area whenever the person takes the offending drug again. The lesions may resolve on their own, but they often leave behind macular hyperpigmentation, which is a darkening of the skin in the affected area. In some cases, perioral and periorbital lesions may also occur.
Overall, fixed drug eruptions can be a frustrating and uncomfortable experience for those who suffer from them. It is important to identify the offending drug and avoid it in the future to prevent further outbreaks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 72
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old nursing home resident with a history of hypothyroidism and heart failure presents to you with a complaint of dry, itchy skin that is particularly bothersome on her legs. Upon examination, you observe erythematosus, dry skin on her legs with an unusual pattern. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asteatotic eczema
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Asteatotic Eczema, Contact Dermatitis, Lichen Planus, Scabies, and Venous Ulceration
Asteatotic eczema is a skin condition that commonly affects elderly individuals due to over-washing and dry winter climate. It can also be associated with diuretic use and hypothyroidism. The condition causes dry, itchy skin with a unique crazy paving pattern on the limbs. Treatment involves using emollients and mild topical steroids.
Contact dermatitis, on the other hand, is caused by friction and environmental factors such as cold or exposure to chemicals like detergents and solvents. It typically affects the hands and does not display the crazy paving pattern seen in asteatotic eczema.
Lichen planus is characterized by a pruritic, papular eruption with a violaceous color and polygonal shape. It presents with a lace-like pattern, unlike the crazy paving pattern seen in asteatotic eczema.
Scabies is an itchy rash caused by mites that burrow under the skin’s surface. It often affects the very young and elderly, particularly those who live in crowded areas or institutional care. It presents with burrows, particularly on the web spaces between fingers, followed by a hypersensitivity rash. Treatment involves using topical insecticides like 5% permethrin.
Finally, venous ulceration is present on the lower limbs and can be itchy if associated with venous eczema. However, the legs often display a brown pigmentation of haemosiderin, and a venous ulcer would not present as described in this question.
In summary, understanding the characteristics of these common skin conditions can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 73
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old student presents to his GP a few days after returning from a regeneration project working with a fishing community in South America. His main complaint is of an itchy, erythematosus rash predominantly affecting both feet. He has no past medical history of note. On examination he has erythematosus, edematous papules and vesicles affecting both feet. There are serpiginous erythematosus trails which track 2-3 cm from each lesion. Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 138 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.0 × 109/l
(slight peripheral blood eosinophilia) 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 245 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 79 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Chest X-ray Normal lung fields
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cutaneous larva migrans
Explanation:Cutaneous Larva Migrans and Other Skin Conditions: A Differential Diagnosis
Cutaneous larva migrans is a common skin condition caused by the migration of nematode larvae through the skin. It is typically found in warm sandy soils and can be diagnosed based on the history and appearance of serpiginous lesions. Treatment involves the use of thiobendazole. Other skin conditions, such as impetigo, tinea pedis, and photoallergic dermatitis, have different causes and presentations and are less likely to be the correct diagnosis. Larva currens, caused by Strongyloides stercoralis, is another condition that can cause itching and skin eruptions, but it is typically associated with an intestinal infection and recurrent episodes. A differential diagnosis is important to ensure proper treatment and management of these skin conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 74
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man was seen in the Dermatology Outpatient Clinic with a chronic ulcer on his left forearm. On enquiry by the consultant, he revealed that he suffered full-thickness burn at the site of the ulcer nearly 20 years ago. The consultant told the patient he had a Marjolin’s ulcer.
Which of the following statements best describes a Marjolin’s ulcer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is often painless
Explanation:Understanding Marjolin’s Ulcer: A Squamous Cell Carcinoma in Scar Tissue
Marjolin’s ulcer is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that develops in scar tissue. This condition is often associated with chronic wounds and scar tissues, which are prone to an increased risk for skin cancer. While it most frequently occurs in old burn scars, it can also develop in relation to other types of injuries and wounds.
One of the unique characteristics of Marjolin’s ulcer is that it grows slowly due to the scar tissue being relatively avascular. Additionally, it is painless because the tissue contains no nerves. While it typically appears in adults around 53-59 years of age, the latency period between the initial injury and the appearance of cancer can be 25-40 years.
Contrary to popular belief, Marjolin’s ulcer is not a sarcoma. Instead, it is a squamous cell carcinoma that can invade normal tissue surrounding the scar and extend at a normal rate. While secondary deposits do not occur in the regional lymph nodes due to the destruction of lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes can become involved if the ulcer invades normal tissue.
In conclusion, understanding Marjolin’s ulcer is crucial for individuals who have experienced chronic wounds or scar tissue. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes and prevent further complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 75
Incorrect
-
Samantha Masters, a 16-year-old high school student, visits the Dermatology Clinic with concerns about her appearance. She has been struggling with severe acne for a few years and has tried various over-the-counter treatments and antibiotics, but none have worked. She has been researching Roaccutane® (isotretinoin) and is interested in trying it. What is the most frequent side effect Samantha may encounter while taking Roaccutane®?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dry skin and lips
Explanation:Understanding the Side-Effects of Roaccutane®: Dry Skin and Lips
Roaccutane® is a powerful medication used to treat severe acne when other treatments have failed. While it is highly effective, it is also associated with a range of side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is severe dry skin and lips, which can be uncomfortable and require additional moisturizing. Other potential side-effects include dryness of the eyes, mucous membranes, and scalp, as well as muscle pain and hair loss.
It is important to note that Roaccutane® is highly teratogenic, meaning it can cause birth defects if taken during pregnancy. Women who are taking Roaccutane® should use at least two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Additionally, all patients should have their liver function and lipid levels monitored before and during treatment, as Roaccutane® can cause elevated levels of both.
While night sweats and peptic ulceration are not recognised side-effects of Roaccutane®, photosensitivity is a potential side-effect, although it is not the most common. Weight gain is also not a recognised side-effect. Patients taking Roaccutane® should be aware of these potential side-effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 76
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman is worried about the appearance of her toenails. She has noticed a whitish discoloration that extends up the nail bed in several toes on both feet. After confirming a dermatophyte infection, she has been diligently cutting her nails and applying topical amorolifine, but without success. What is the best course of treatment for her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine
Explanation:Treatment for Fungal Nail Infection
Fungal nail infection is a common condition that affects many adults. If self-care measures and topical treatments are not successful or appropriate, treatment with an oral antifungal agent should be offered. The first-line treatment recommended is Terbinafine, which is effective against both dermatophytes and Candida species. On the other hand, ‘-azoles’ such as fluconazole do not have as much efficacy against dermatophytes. It is important to seek medical advice and follow the recommended treatment plan to effectively manage fungal nail infection. For further information, resources such as CKS Fungal nail infections, GP Notebook, and Patient.info can be consulted. The British Association of Dermatologists also provides guidelines for the treatment of onychomycosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 77
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man on the Stroke Ward has been found to have a grade 2 pressure ulcer over his sacrum.
Which of the following options correctly describes a grade 2 pressure ulcer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Partial-thickness skin loss and ulceration
Explanation:Understanding the Different Grades of Pressure Ulcers
Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, are a common problem for people who are bedridden or have limited mobility. These ulcers can range in severity from mild to life-threatening. Understanding the different grades of pressure ulcers is important for proper treatment and prevention.
Grade 1 pressure ulcers are the most superficial type of ulcer. They are characterized by non-blanching erythema of intact skin and skin discoloration. The skin remains intact, but it may hurt or itch, and it may feel either warm and spongy or hard to the touch.
Grade 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and ulceration. Some of the outer surface of skin (epidermis) or the deeper layer of skin (dermis) is damaged, leading to skin loss. The ulcer looks like an open wound or a blister.
Grade 3 pressure ulcers involve full-thickness skin loss involving damage/necrosis of subcutaneous tissue. Skin loss occurs throughout the entire thickness of the skin and the underlying tissue is also damaged. The underlying muscles and bone are not damaged. The ulcer appears as a deep, cavity-like wound.
Grade 4 pressure ulcers are the most severe type of ulcer. They involve extensive destruction (with possible damage to muscle, bone or supporting structures). The skin is severely damaged and the surrounding tissue begins to die (tissue necrosis). The underlying muscles or bone may also be damaged. People with grade 4 pressure ulcers have a high risk of developing a life-threatening infection.
It is important to note that any ulcer with focal loss of skin integrity ± pus/blood is not a pressure ulcer and may require different treatment. Understanding the different grades of pressure ulcers can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care and prevent further complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 78
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old African-American man undergoes a pre-employment health check. Chest radiograph demonstrates bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. More detailed history and examination reveals painful red papules on both shins of recent onset. He is otherwise well. Basic blood tests are normal.
What rash does the patient have?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Differentiating Skin Rashes: A Comparison of Erythema Nodosum, Erythema Multiforme, Kaposi’s Sarcoma, Tinea Corporis, and Steven-Johnson’s Syndrome
Erythema nodosum is a rash characterized by painful red papules caused by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat. It is commonly seen on the extensor surfaces of the lower limbs and can be linked to various conditions such as streptococcal and tuberculous infection, inflammatory bowel disease, lymphoma, drug-related causes, and sarcoidosis.
Erythema multiforme, on the other hand, presents with typical target lesions on the extremities. It is an uncommon condition that can be mistaken for other skin rashes.
Kaposi’s sarcoma is an AIDS-defining malignancy caused by human herpes virus 8. It appears as red/purple papules on the skin or mucosal surfaces. However, the description of the rash, normal blood results, and an otherwise healthy patient make this diagnosis unlikely.
Tinea corporis, also known as ringworm, is a fungal infection transmitted from common pets or human-to-human. It presents as an erythematosus, scaly ring-like rash with central clearing.
Steven-Johnson’s syndrome is a severe form of erythema multiforme with multiple erythematosus macules on the face and trunk, epidermal detachment, and mucosal ulceration. It is a rare condition that can cause significant morbidity and mortality.
In summary, differentiating between these skin rashes is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and laboratory tests can help identify the underlying cause of the rash.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 79
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man came to the clinic during the summer with complaints of itching and blistering on his hands and forehead. Upon examination, small areas of excoriation were found on the backs of his hands. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT)
Explanation:Photosensitivity and Skin Lesions: A Possible Case of PCT
The distribution of the skin lesions in this case suggests that there may be a photosensitive element involved. While both lupus erythematosus and porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) are associated with photosensitivity, it is more commonly seen in PCT. This condition is characterized by blistering of the hands and forehead, which can lead to small scars and milia formation as they heal. Excessive alcohol intake is also a known risk factor for PCT.
Overall, the presence of photosensitivity and the specific distribution of the lesions in this case point towards a possible diagnosis of PCT. Further testing and evaluation will be necessary to confirm this diagnosis and determine the best course of treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 80
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the past two years. Upon examination, it is noted that the rash is symmetrical and located on the cheeks, nose, and chin. The patient has multiple papules and pustules. What is the recommended treatment for this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxytetracycline
Explanation:Acne Rosacea Treatment with Tetracycline
Acne rosacea is a skin condition that is characterized by the presence of redness, bumps, and pimples on the face. This condition is usually long-lasting and can be quite uncomfortable for those who suffer from it. Unlike other types of acne, acne rosacea does not typically present with blackheads or whiteheads. The distribution of the condition is usually limited to the face, particularly the cheeks, nose, and forehead.
The most effective treatment for acne rosacea is a medication called tetracycline. This medication is an antibiotic that works by reducing inflammation and killing the bacteria that cause acne. Tetracycline is usually taken orally, and it is important to follow the prescribed dosage and duration of treatment. In addition to tetracycline, there are other medications and topical treatments that can be used to manage the symptoms of acne rosacea. However, tetracycline is often the first line of treatment due to its effectiveness and low risk of side effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 81
Incorrect
-
A mother brings her 9-month old to her General Practitioner (GP) worried about a raised red mark on the baby's cheek. The mark is now 7 mm in diameter, has a smooth outline, and is a regular circular shape with consistent color all over. It appeared about four months ago and has been gradually increasing in size. The baby was born at full term via normal vaginal delivery and has been generally healthy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infantile haemangioma (strawberry mark)
Explanation:Types of Birthmarks in Children: Characteristics and Considerations
Birthmarks are common in children and can vary in appearance and location on the body. Understanding the characteristics of different types of birthmarks can help parents and healthcare providers determine if further evaluation or treatment is necessary.
Infantile haemangiomas, also known as strawberry marks, are raised and red in color. They typically grow for the first six months of life and then shrink, disappearing by age 7. Treatment is usually not necessary unless they affect vision or feeding.
Café-au-lait spots are flat, coffee-colored patches on the skin. While one or two are common, more than six by age 5 may indicate neurofibromatosis.
Capillary malformations, or port wine stains, are dark red or purple and not raised. They tend to affect the face, chest, or back and may increase in size during puberty, pregnancy, or menopause.
Malignant melanoma is rare in children but should be considered if a lesion exhibits the ABCD rules.
Salmon patches, or stork marks, are flat and red or pink and commonly occur on the forehead, eyelids, or neck. They typically fade after a few months.
By understanding the characteristics and considerations of different types of birthmarks, parents and healthcare providers can ensure appropriate evaluation and treatment if necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 82
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old Romanian immigrant presents to his general practitioner, complaining of firm and tender reddish-blue raised nodules on the front of both shins. These have been present for a number of months. He has also lost weight and suffered from a chronic cough since the beginning of the year. On examination, there are multiple red/purple, firm, painful lesions affecting both shins. Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 220 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
area of upper lobe fibrosis in the right lung
Induced sputum Acid- and alcohol-fast bacilli seen
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for his rash?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Nodosum and Differential Diagnosis
Erythema nodosum is a painful, raised rash that typically occurs on the anterior aspect of the lower legs. It is a type of panniculitis and is often associated with tuberculosis and sarcoidosis. To rule out these serious conditions, a chest radiograph is usually performed at diagnosis. Diagnosis is made on clinical grounds, and patients are screened for associated medical conditions. Treatment involves managing the underlying condition, such as tuberculosis chemotherapy, and using non-steroidals for the skin rash.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include erythema infectiosum, which is caused by Parvovirus B19 and presents as a rash on the cheeks. Erythema multiforme causes target lesions that appear on the hands and feet before spreading to other areas of the body. Superficial thrombophlebitis, on the other hand, is inflammation of a superficial vein and is not associated with tuberculosis. Insect bites may cause swollen red lumps, but they are unlikely to cause the nodules seen in erythema nodosum.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 83
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man with psoriasis affecting the scalp and legs visits his General Practitioner with ongoing symptoms despite using once-daily Betnovate® (potent steroid) and a vitamin D analogue for six weeks. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop steroid treatment and continue vitamin D analogue twice daily
Explanation:Management of Psoriasis: Next Steps and Referral Considerations
Psoriasis management follows a stepwise approach, as per NICE guidance. For a patient who has already received eight weeks of once-daily potent steroid with a vitamin D analogue, the next step is to stop the steroid and start twice-daily vitamin D analogue. Steroids should not be applied at the same site for more than eight weeks, after which patients require a 4-week ‘treatment break’. If there is still no improvement in symptoms at the end of the 4-week steroid-free break, twice-daily steroids can be trialled or a coal tar preparation can be started.
Referral to Dermatology may be necessary if the patient is severely affected by psoriasis or struggling to manage the condition. However, starting the next stage of treatment, which is twice-daily vitamin D analogue, would be the most appropriate while awaiting secondary care review.
Continuing steroids for a further four weeks would result in an excessively long duration of steroid treatment and risk side-effects such as skin thinning. Patients should have a minimum of four weeks steroid-free after an 8-week treatment course.
While some patients with severe psoriasis may require an ultra-potent steroid, this patient has already received eight weeks of a potent steroid and requires a 4-week steroid-free break. Following this, it may be appropriate to trial a short course of an ultra-potent steroid or to retrial the potent steroid twice daily.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 84
Incorrect
-
A teenage care assistant from a local nursing home presents with sudden onset of an intensely itchy rash. This covers her whole body. She has no history of skin problems. On examination there is a combination of raised erythematous papules covering her arms and trunk and linear marks to her forearms. There is excoriated skin in the inter-digital spaces.
What is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Permethrin cream
Explanation:Understanding Scabies Treatment: Permethrin Cream and Other Options
Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which can lead to symptoms such as itching and a rash with superficial burrows and pimples. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is permethrin 5% dermal cream, which needs to be applied to the whole body and repeated a week later. In cases of moderate eczema, a regular emollient plus a moderately potent topical steroid may be used in addition to permethrin. However, a combination of moderately potent topical steroid and topical antifungal agent is not appropriate for scabies treatment. Oral antihistamines may provide symptomatic relief but are not a treatment for scabies. Malathion 5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment option for patients allergic to chrysanthemums who cannot use permethrin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 85
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old retired farmer has switched his General Practitioner (GP) and comes in for a check-up. During the appointment, he asks for a review of several lesions on his forehead.
Upon examination, he is bald and has multiple scaly, crusted lesions on his mid-frontal scalp, along with a keratinous horn with a smooth base on the helix of his right ear. He mentions that he had similar lesions on his scalp before. These were treated with a cream that made the lesions worse for four weeks before completely resolving when the treatment was finished.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Actinic keratosis
Explanation:Differentiating Skin Lesions: Actinic Keratosis, Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Helicis, Basal Cell Carcinoma, Lentigo Maligna, and Seborrhoeic Keratosis
Skin lesions can be difficult to differentiate, but understanding their characteristics can aid in diagnosis and treatment. Actinic keratosis is a pre-malignant condition that is more common in sun-exposed patients, often presenting as scaly lesions on bald areas. Treatment with Efudix may initially worsen the lesions before improving. Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis is a benign condition characterized by a tender, firm lesion on the ear due to pressure from sleeping on that side. It is treated with strong topical steroids and is not associated with a keratinous horn. Basal cell carcinoma is a common skin cancer associated with sun exposure, presenting with telangiectasia and a rolled edge. Lentigo maligna is a malignant lesion associated with sun exposure, typically pigmented and occurring on the face. Seborrhoeic keratosis is a common benign lesion that can mimic other lesions, but is not associated with sun exposure and is often found on the back, appearing stuck-on rather than scaly. Understanding the characteristics of these skin lesions can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 86
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) with an irregular mole on her back. The mole is oval in shape, 2 cm in length, and has an irregular border throughout. The colour is uniform, and there has been no change in sensation. The GP wants to evaluate the lesion using the weighted 7-point checklist for assessment of pigmented lesions to determine if the lesion requires referral to Dermatology.
What is a significant feature that scores 2 on the checklist?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irregular shape or border
Explanation:The 7-Point Checklist for Assessing Pigmented Lesions
The 7-point checklist is a tool used to assess pigmented lesions for potential malignancy. Major features, such as a change in size, irregular shape or border, and irregular color, score 2 points each. Minor features, including a largest diameter of 7 mm or more, inflammation, oozing or crusting of the lesion, and change in sensation (including itch), score 1 point each. The weighted 7-point checklist is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for use in General Practice. Lesions scoring three points or more should be referred urgently to Dermatology. Malignant melanomas can present with the development of a new mole or a change in an existing mole. The features highlighted in the 7-point checklist should be ascertained in the history to determine how urgently a mole needs to be referred to exclude malignancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 87
Incorrect
-
A large area of grey-blue pigment is noted over the left buttock of a 6-month-old baby by the pediatrician during a routine check-up. There are no other signs of bleeding or bruising visible on the baby. The baby was born full-term and the mother has no health conditions.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dermal melanocytosis
Explanation:Common Causes of Bruising in Newborns
Newborns may develop bruises for various reasons, and it is essential to identify the cause to ensure appropriate management. Here are some common causes of bruising in newborns:
1. Dermal melanocytosis: These blue-grey birthmarks are common in babies of African, Middle Eastern, Mediterranean, or Asian descent. They usually appear on the lower back or buttocks and do not require any treatment.
2. Haemophilia: This inherited clotting disorder may present later in childhood as prolonged bleeding following an injury or haemarthrosis.
3. Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn: This condition is caused by vitamin K deficiency and may present with bleeding from the GI tract, umbilical cord, or venipuncture sites.
4. Non-accidental injury: While rare in newborns, non-accidental injury can cause bruising. However, this is not a consideration in a newborn who has not yet been exposed to any risk of abuse.
5. Osteogenesis imperfecta: This genetic condition affects bone strength and may present with multiple fractures from minimal-impact injuries. A sign of the condition is blue-grey tingling of the sclera but not of the skin.
It is crucial to consult a healthcare provider if you notice any unexplained bruising in your newborn to rule out any underlying medical conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 88
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old accountant presents with an acute onset of widespread blistering of the skin. She is usually healthy but has been taking regular ibuprofen for the past two days due to a headache.
On examination, the patient has numerous tense bullae across the trunk and limbs. There is no involvement of the mouth. The dermatologist suspects bullous pemphigoid and wonders which adhesive structure is disrupted by autoimmune mechanisms in this condition.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hemidesmosome
Explanation:Cell Junctions: Types and Functions
Cell junctions are specialized structures that connect adjacent cells and play a crucial role in maintaining tissue integrity and function. There are several types of cell junctions, each with a unique structure and function.
Hemidesmosome: Hemidesmosomes are structures that anchor cells of the stratum basale of the skin to the underlying epidermal basement membrane. Autoantibodies to hemidesmosome components can cause bullous pemphigoid, a disease characterized by large, fluid-filled blisters.
Desmosome: Desmosomes bind cells together in the more superficial layers of the epidermis. Desmogleins are important proteins for desmosome integrity. Autoantibodies to desmogleins can cause pemphigus vulgaris and other types of pemphigus.
Zonula occludens: The zonula occludens is a tight junction that fuses the outer leaflets of the plasma membrane, preventing the passage of small molecules between cells.
Zonula adherens: The zonula adherens is an intercellular adhesion site that contains small gaps between adjacent plasma membranes in the junctional complex. It is reinforced by intracellular microfilaments.
Gap junction: Gap junctions create an aqueous channel between adjacent cells, allowing the passage of small signaling molecules for the coordination of various physiological activities.
In summary, cell junctions are essential for maintaining tissue integrity and function. Each type of junction has a unique structure and function, and disruptions in their integrity can lead to various diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 89
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old teacher, has recently discovered a suspicious spot on her left arm. Worried about the potential of skin cancer, she has been researching online to learn how to identify malignant melanoma.
What are the ABCDE characteristics that Samantha should be monitoring?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asymmetry, border irregularity, colour variation, diameter >6mm, evolving
Explanation:Understanding the ABCDE Criteria for Skin Lesion Screening
Skin cancer, particularly malignant melanoma, is becoming increasingly common. To aid in early detection, the ABCDE criteria is a widely used tool in screening for melanoma. The criteria includes Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, Diameter greater than 6mm, and Evolving. Other screening criteria, such as the Glasgow criteria, can also be used. It is important to note that an elevated lesion does not necessarily indicate pathology, and that crusting lesions should be examined carefully for other signs of suspicion. By understanding and utilizing these criteria, healthcare professionals can aid in the early detection and treatment of skin cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 90
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris, which includes papules, pustules, and comedones. She experienced acne during her adolescent years, and it has continued to persist. Her weight and menstrual cycle are normal, and there is no hirsutism. What is a probable cause of her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacteria
Explanation:Understanding the Aetiology of Acne: Factors and Myths
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that affects individuals beyond their teenage years, particularly women. The presence and activity of Propionibacterium acnes, a normally commensal bacteria, is a significant factor in the development of acne. Other aetiological factors include genetic predisposition, seborrhoea, sensitivity to normal levels of circulating androgen, blockage of the pilosebaceous duct, and immunological factors. Polycystic ovary syndrome is an unlikely cause of acne. P. acnes thrives in acne lesions due to elevated sebum production or follicle blockage, triggering inflammation. Diet and poor personal hygiene are not involved in the aetiology of acne. Combined oral contraceptives can be beneficial in treating acne. It is a myth that chocolate or dirt causes acne. Understanding these factors and myths can help in the effective management of acne.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 91
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old female has been experiencing multiple, non-tender, erythematosus, annular lesions with a collarette of scales at the periphery for the past two weeks. These lesions are only present on her trunk. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea
Explanation:Pityriasis Rosea
Pityriasis rosea (PR) is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents and young adults. It is often associated with upper respiratory infections and is characterized by a herald patch, which is a circular or oval-shaped lesion that appears on the trunk, neck, or extremities. The herald patch is usually about 1-2 cm in diameter and has a central, salmon-colored area surrounded by a dark red border.
About one to two weeks after the herald patch appears, a generalized rash develops. This rash is symmetrical and consists of macules with a collarette scale that aligns with the skin’s cleavage lines. The rash can last for up to six weeks before resolving on its own.
Overall, PR is a benign condition that does not require treatment. However, if the rash is particularly itchy or uncomfortable, topical corticosteroids or antihistamines may be prescribed to alleviate symptoms. It is important to note that PR is not contagious and does not pose any serious health risks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 92
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with scaly patches on his scalp. Upon examination, circular areas of hair loss with scaling and raised margins, measuring 2-5 cm in diameter, are observed. There is no scarring. What is the probable cause of this condition in the patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tinea capitis
Explanation:Causes of Non-Scarring and Scarring Alopecia
Non-scarring alopecia is a condition where hair loss occurs without any visible scarring on the scalp. The most common causes of this type of alopecia include telogen effluvium, androgenetic alopecia, alopecia areata, tinea capitis, and traumatic alopecia. In some cases, non-scarring alopecia can also be associated with lupus erythematosus and secondary syphilis.
Tinea capitis, caused by invasion of hairs by dermatophytes, most commonly Trichophyton tonsurans, is a common cause of non-scarring alopecia. This type of alopecia is characterized by hair loss in circular patches on the scalp.
On the other hand, scarring alopecia is a condition where hair loss occurs with visible scarring on the scalp. This type of alopecia is more frequently the result of a primary cutaneous disorder such as lichen planus, folliculitis decalvans, cutaneous lupus, or linear scleroderma (morphea). Scarring alopecia can be permanent and irreversible, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.
In conclusion, the different causes of non-scarring and scarring alopecia is important in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients experiencing hair loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 93
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old child has developed itchy, oozing sores on their body, palms, and soles. The child's two siblings are also experiencing similar symptoms. What is the best course of treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical permethrin
Explanation:Scabies: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin infestation that can cause lesions on the palms and soles, accompanied by intense itching. If a sibling has a similar history, it is likely that they are also infested with scabies. The lesions are caused by scratching and can become exudative. The treatment of choice for scabies is topical permethrin or malathion. These medications can help to kill the mites that cause scabies and alleviate the symptoms of itching and skin irritation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 94
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old girl visits her GP with her mother, complaining of a sore and itchy patch around her upper lip for the past 3 days. The mother noticed a few small blisters on the lip that burst, leaving brown and/or honey-coloured crusts on the affected area. The patch has been gradually increasing in size. After examination, the GP diagnoses impetigo.
What is the most probable cause of impetigo in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Understanding Impetigo and its Causes
Impetigo is a highly contagious skin infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus, which presents as red sores and blisters on the face, leaving behind golden crusts. While the condition is usually self-limiting, treatment is recommended to prevent spreading to others. Staphylococcus epidermidis, a normal human flora, is an unlikely cause of impetigo, but may infect immunocompromised patients in hospital settings. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is associated with urinary tract infections, while Streptococcus viridans is found in the oral cavity and can cause subacute bacterial endocarditis. Candida albicans, a pathogenic yeast, commonly causes candidiasis in immunocompromised individuals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 95
Incorrect
-
A 9-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents. She had a fever for four days, and as this disappeared she was noted to have a rash.
On examination, she is apyrexial, but has a macular rash on the trunk and lower limbs.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Roseola infantum
Explanation:Common Rashes and Their Characteristics
Roseola infantum is a viral infection caused by herpesvirus 6. It is known to cause a rash that appears as small, pink, flat spots on the skin. The rash usually starts on the trunk and spreads to the limbs, neck, and face. Along with the rash, the infected person may also experience fever and swollen lymph nodes.
Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that causes red, raised, and blistering lesions on the skin. The lesions are usually circular or oval in shape and have a target-like appearance. They can appear on any part of the body, but are most commonly found on the hands, feet, and face. The condition is often triggered by an infection or medication.
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia is a blood disorder that causes a low platelet count. This can lead to easy bruising and bleeding, and in some cases, a petechial rash. Petechiae are small, red or purple spots on the skin that are caused by bleeding under the skin.
Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a condition that causes inflammation of the blood vessels. This can lead to a purpuric rash on the buttocks and lower limbs, as well as joint pain and abdominal pain. The condition is most commonly seen in children.
Meningococcal septicaemia is a serious bacterial infection that can cause a non-blanching purpuric rash. This means that the rash does not fade when pressure is applied to it. Other symptoms of the infection include fever, headache, and vomiting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 96
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman presents with severe itching, mainly affecting her groin. The problem has been worsening over the past few weeks and is now unbearable. She admits to having slept with a new partner a few weeks before she noticed the problem. You notice an erythematosus, papular rash affecting the web spaces on the hands. She also has erythematous papules and scratch marks around the groin in particular. Investigations reveal normal values for haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, sodium, potassium, and creatinine. When you draw on the web spaces between her fingers with a felt-tip, rubbing off the excess reveals a number of burrows. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei hominis infection
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Differential Diagnosis
Scabies Infection
A scabies infection is a likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with itching between the web spaces and in the groin. The infection is typically acquired through skin-to-skin contact, often after sexual intercourse. Symptoms may not appear until three to four weeks after initial contact, and treatment involves the use of a topical agent such as permethrin cream.Atopic Dermatitis
Atopic dermatitis, or eczema, is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically presents with a rash and itching on the flexor aspects of the joints and is unrelated to sexual activity.Folliculitis
Folliculitis is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically presents with pinpoint erythematosus lesions on the chest, face, scalp, or back and is unrelated to sexual activity.Erythema Infectiosum Infection
Erythema infectiosum infection is a very unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It primarily affects children and results from infection with parvovirus B19. Symptoms include a slapped cheek appearance, fever, headache, and coryza.Keratosis Pilaris Infection
Keratosis pilaris is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically affects the upper arms, buttocks, and thighs and presents with small white lesions that make the skin feel rough. It results from the buildup of keratin and is more common in patients with dry skin. It is unrelated to sexual activity.Differential Diagnosis of Skin Conditions
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 97
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old construction worker presents with an area of redness on his right foot. The area of redness has grown in size over the past day and is warmer than the surrounding normal skin. The patient mentions that the area is also tender to touch.
Following taking a history and examining the patient, the physician suspects a diagnosis of cellulitis.
Which of these terms is best used to describe ‘cellulitis’?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Localised inflammation and cellular debris accumulation
Explanation:Understanding Different Forms of Skin Inflammation
Cellulitis, inflammation of subcutaneous tissue, is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and requires urgent treatment with antibiotics. Surgical wounds and malignant tumors can also cause inflammation, but the latter is a response by the immune system to control malignancy. Inflammation of the epidermis can be caused by various non-infective processes, such as sunburns or abrasions. Localized infection may lead to an abscess, which requires incision and drainage. It is important to understand the distinct pathology and treatment for each form of skin inflammation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 98
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old lifeguard presents with a lesion on the ear. The lesion had been present for a number of months and he claims it is slowly growing. On examination, there is 1 cm red, ulcerating exophytic nodule with heaped up margins. Excision of the lesion is performed and histology reveals a completely excised lesion containing irregular masses of anaplastic epidermal cells proliferating down to the dermis with keratin pearls.
Which of the following is true regarding this lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may arise from actinic keratosis
Explanation:Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the skin is a common type of skin cancer that typically affects older men with a history of sun exposure. It may also arise from chronic inflammation or pre-existing actinic keratosis. SCC is slow-growing and locally invasive, but spread to locoregional lymph nodes is uncommon. The typical appearance is small, red, ulcerating, exophytic nodules with varying degrees of scaling on sun-exposed areas. Biopsy features include keratin pearls. Treatment may involve topical creams or excision. SCC is the second commonest skin cancer after basal cell carcinoma. It is commonly found on the lower lip or ears, and spread to regional lymph nodes is uncommon. There is no link to preceding dermatophyte infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 99
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner because she is concerned about patches of depigmentation on her skin. There are patches on the back of her hands and her elbows, but she is particularly concerned about depigmentation around her mouth and affecting her breasts. Her only other past history of note is a tendency to gain weight over the past few months. Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 119 g/l 115–155 g/l
Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 80 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 6.0 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
Depigmented skin areas fluoresce bright blue-white on Wood’s lamp inspection.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions: Vitiligo, Lichen Planus, Leprosy, Pityriasis Versicolor, and Idiopathic Hypomelanosis
Vitiligo: This condition is characterized by depigmentation and is often associated with autoimmune diseases such as hypothyroidism, diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, and alopecia. It is caused by the destruction of melanocytes in the interfollicular dermis and can be treated with phototherapy, corticosteroids, and tacrolimus ointment.
Lichen Planus: This condition presents as a pruritic, papular eruption with a violaceous color and polygonal shape, often with a fine scale.
Leprosy: This infectious disease is caused by Mycobacterium leprae and is most commonly found in South East Asia, Africa, and South America. Diagnosis requires the presence of reddish patches or hypopigmented areas of skin with reduced sensation, thickened peripheral nerves, and the presence of acid-fast bacilli in skin smears or biopsies.
Pityriasis Versicolor: This common skin complaint is caused by the proliferation of the yeast Malassezia furfur and presents as flaky, discolored patches mainly on the chest and back.
Idiopathic Hypomelanosis: This condition is characterized by flat, white spots on the shins and forearms, typically appearing as part of the aging process and possibly due to sun damage. However, the age and distribution of the patient make this diagnosis doubtful.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 100
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by her mother. She has suffered an insect bite, and her mother is concerned about a small lump on the back of her hand.
Which of the following conditions is not pre-malignant?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dermatofibroma
Explanation:Common Pre-Malignant Skin Conditions
There are several pre-malignant skin conditions that can occur due to various factors. One such condition is dermatofibroma, which is an overgrowth of fibrous tissue in the dermis. It is usually benign and can be caused by minor skin trauma like an insect bite.
Another pre-malignant condition is Bowen’s disease, which is a type of intraepidermal carcinoma. It presents as scaly, erythematosus lesions and is often associated with sun exposure.
Lentigo maligna, also known as melanoma in situ, is an early form of melanoma that develops slowly over time. It typically appears on sun-exposed areas of the skin.
Leukoplakia is a pre-malignant condition that presents as white or grey patches in the oral cavity. It is important to have these patches evaluated by a healthcare professional.
Actinic keratoses, or solar keratoses, are pre-malignant conditions that occur due to chronic exposure to ultraviolet light. They are more common in fair-skinned individuals and typically affect sun-exposed areas of the skin. Regular skin checks and sun protection can help prevent these conditions from developing into skin cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 101
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old female with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus presents with symmetrical reticulated, violaceous patches. These patches become more prominent in cold weather and involve both lower limbs. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Livedo reticularis
Explanation:Livedo Reticularis
Livedo reticularis is a skin condition characterized by a net-like pattern of blue or purple discoloration on the skin. This occurs due to the dilation of capillary blood vessels and the stagnation of blood within these vessels. The condition is more pronounced in cold weather and is commonly found on the legs, arms, and trunk.
Livedo reticularis can be idiopathic, meaning it has no known cause, or it can be secondary to other conditions such as malignancy, vasculitis, SLE, or cholesterol embolization. The condition is caused by the accumulation of blood in the capillaries, which leads to the discoloration of the skin.
In summary, livedo reticularis is a skin condition that causes a net-like pattern of blue or purple discoloration on the skin. It is caused by the accumulation of blood in the capillaries and can be idiopathic or secondary to other conditions. The condition is more pronounced in cold weather and is commonly found on the legs, arms, and trunk.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 102
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with a growth on the left side of his cheek. The growth has been present for around six months, and it is not causing any discomfort. Upon examination, it is a raised pearly papule with central telangiectasia and a rolled edge. The GP suspects it to be a basal cell carcinoma, measuring approximately 8 mm in diameter.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer the patient routinely to Dermatology
Explanation:Management of Basal Cell Carcinoma: Referral and Treatment Options
Basal cell carcinomas (BCCs) are slow-growing skin cancers that require prompt referral to a dermatologist for assessment and management. While not urgent, referral should be routine to ensure timely treatment and prevent further growth and potential complications. Treatment options may include surgical excision, curettage and cautery, radiotherapy, or cryotherapy, depending on the size and location of the lesion.
5-fluorouracil cream and diclofenac topical gel are not recommended for the treatment of BCCs but may be used for pre-malignant lesions such as solar keratoses. Referral to oncology for radiotherapy may be considered, but dermatology should be consulted first to explore less invasive treatment options.
A watch-and-wait approach is not recommended for suspected BCCs, as delaying referral can lead to more extensive treatments and potential complications. All lesions suspected of malignancy should be referred to a specialist for further assessment and definitive treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 103
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old pharmacist with a longstanding diagnosis of sarcoidosis presents to the Dermatology Clinic with an unsightly rash. The rash has been present for a number of years, but the area affected is becoming more prominent and is making her feel very self-conscious. She has been told previously that the rash is connected to her sarcoidosis; however, she would like to know if anything can be done to treat it.
Which one of the following dermatological conditions is diagnostic of chronic sarcoidosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lupus pernio
Explanation:Cutaneous Manifestations of Sarcoidosis
Sarcoidosis is a systemic disease that can affect multiple organs, including the skin. Cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis can vary and may present differently depending on the stage of the disease. Here are some common cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis:
Lupus pernio: This is a specific skin involvement that affects the bridge of the nose and the area beneath the eyes and cheeks. It is diagnostic for the chronic form of sarcoidosis. The lesions are typically large, bluish-red and dusky purple, infiltrated, plaque-like nodules.
Erythema nodosum: This is seen in the acute stage of sarcoidosis, but it is also seen in many other diseases.
Keloid formation: This is a classic cutaneous lesion of sarcoidosis, but it is not diagnostic of chronic sarcoidosis.
Subcutaneous nodules: These can also be seen in rheumatoid arthritis and are not diagnostic of sarcoidosis.
It is important to note that cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis can be nonspecific and may resemble other skin conditions. Therefore, a thorough evaluation by a healthcare provider is necessary for proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 104
Incorrect
-
Bethany Johnson, a 20-year-old student, visits her GP complaining of generalized itching. She reports no allergies or recent changes in cosmetic or detergent products. During the examination, the GP observes multiple excoriation marks throughout her body. Bethany also mentions experiencing fatigue and weight gain recently. What is the probable cause of her systemic pruritus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Causes and diagnostic workup of systemic pruritus
Systemic pruritus, or generalized itching, can have various underlying causes, including pregnancy, primary biliary cholangitis, renal failure, diabetes, leukaemia, polycythaemia, psychological factors, and hypothyroidism. To diagnose the condition, blood tests are typically performed to rule out these potential causes. Hypothyroidism may be suspected if the patient also experiences weight gain and fatigue. Treatment for systemic pruritus involves addressing the underlying condition, as well as using measures such as keeping the skin cool, applying emollients, and taking sedating antihistamines at night.
Other conditions that may cause pruritus but are less likely in this case include iron deficiency anaemia, which typically presents with pallor rather than weight gain, and cholestasis, which usually causes jaundice, dark urine, and pale stool. Lymphoma, a type of cancer affecting the lymphatic system, may cause weight loss and lymphadenopathy rather than weight gain. Widespread dermatitis, characterized by a rash, is another possible cause of pruritus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 105
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man comes to the dermatology clinic with several small fleshy nodules around and under his finger and toe nails. Upon further inquiry, it is revealed that the patient has a history of seizures that are hard to manage.
What is the probable underlying condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:Genetic Tumor Disorders and Their Skin Manifestations
There are several genetic disorders that predispose individuals to the formation of tumors, including those in the nervous system. These disorders can also have distinct skin manifestations that aid in their diagnosis.
Tuberous Sclerosis: This rare multisystem genetic disease is caused by abnormalities on chromosome 9 and leads to the formation of benign tumors (hamartomas) in various organs, including the brain, eyes, skin, kidney, and heart. Skin problems associated with tuberous sclerosis include periungual fibromas, adenoma sebaceum, ‘ash leaf’ hypomelanotic macules, café-au-lait patches, subcutaneous nodules, and shagreen patches. Neurological symptoms such as seizures, developmental delay, behavioral problems, and learning difficulties can also occur.
Neurofibromatosis I: This inherited condition causes tumors (neurofibromas) to grow within the nervous system and is characterized by café-au-lait spots on the skin.
Von Hippel-Lindau Disease: This inherited tumor disorder is caused by a mutation in a tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 3 and is commonly associated with angiomatosis, hemangioblastomas, and pheochromocytomas.
Neurofibromatosis II: This disorder presents with bilateral hearing loss due to the development of bilateral acoustic neuromas.
Sturge-Weber Syndrome: This congenital disorder is identified by a port-wine stain on the forehead, scalp, or around the eye.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 106
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman with a history of ulcerative colitis visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a painful ulcer on her right shin that is rapidly increasing in size. The patient noticed a small blister in the area a few days ago, which has now broken down into an ulcer that is continuing to enlarge. The doctor suspects that the skin lesion may be pyoderma gangrenosum. What is the most commonly associated condition with pyoderma gangrenosum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Skin Conditions Associated with Various Diseases
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a skin condition characterized by a painful ulcer that rapidly enlarges. It is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease, hepatitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and certain types of leukemia. However, it is not commonly associated with HIV infection or coeliac disease. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition associated with coeliac disease, while patients with rheumatoid arthritis are at higher risk of developing pyoderma gangrenosum compared to those with osteoarthritis. Haematological malignancies commonly associated with pyoderma gangrenosum include acute myeloid leukemia and hairy cell leukemia, while cutaneous lesions in multiple myeloma are uncommon.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 107
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic for his regular follow-up of psoriasis. He had been managing it well with phototherapy six months ago, but recently his condition has worsened. He is currently using topical calcipotriol (Dovonex), topical coal tar ointment, and topical hydromol ointment, and is taking amoxicillin for a recent respiratory infection. He is in good health otherwise.
During the examination, he has an erythematosus rash that covers most of his torso, with widespread plaques on his limbs and neck. The rash is tender and warm, and he is shivering. There are no oral lesions. His heart rate is 101 bpm, blood pressure is 91/45 mmHg, and temperature is 37.7 °C.
What is the most crucial next step in treating this man?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange hospital admission
Explanation:Emergency Management of Erythrodermic Psoriasis
Erythrodermic psoriasis is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent hospital admission. This is evident in a patient presenting with a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, borderline pyrexia, and rigors. Supportive care, including IV fluids, cool wet dressings, and a systemic agent, is necessary. The choice of systemic agent depends on the patient and may involve rapid-acting therapies like ciclosporin or slower agents like methotrexate. Discontinuing amoxicillin is crucial as it can cause Stevens–Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, admission is essential in both emergency presentations. Starting ciclosporin or methotrexate orally is not appropriate without investigations. Repeat phototherapy should be avoided as it can worsen erythroderma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 108
Incorrect
-
Which therapy is unsuitable for the given condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgical excision for a cavernous haemangioma 3 cm × 4 cm on the arm
Explanation:Cavernous Haemangiomas and Alopecia Areata: Conditions and Treatment Options
Cavernous haemangiomas are benign growths that typically appear within the first two weeks of life. They are usually found on the face, neck, or trunk and are well-defined and lobulated. Surgical excision is not recommended, but treatment may be necessary if the growths inhibit normal development, such as obstructing vision in one eye. Treatment options include systemic or local steroids, sclerosants, interferon, or laser treatment.
Alopecia areata is an autoimmune condition that causes hair loss in discrete areas. Treatment options include cortisone injections into the affected areas and the use of topical cortisone creams. It is important to note that both conditions require medical attention and treatment to prevent further complications. With proper care and treatment, individuals with cavernous haemangiomas and alopecia areata can manage their conditions and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 109
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of facial erythema. She has developed papules and pustules with visible telangiectasia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acne Rosacea
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatments
Acne Rosacea:
Acne rosacea is a chronic skin condition that typically affects women and people with fair skin between the ages of 30-50. The exact cause is unknown, but environmental factors such as alcohol, caffeine, heat, and stress can aggravate the condition. Symptoms include a persistent erythematosus rash on the face, particularly over the nose and cheeks, with associated telangiectasia. Treatment involves lifestyle modifications and pharmacological interventions with topical or oral antibiotics.Acne Vulgaris:
Acne vulgaris is an inflammatory response to Propionibacterium acnes, a normal skin commensal. It commonly affects adolescents and presents with a variety of lesions ranging from comedones to cysts and scars. It predominantly affects areas with high concentrations of sebaceous glands, such as the face, back, and chest.Discoid Lupus Erythematosus:
Discoid lupus erythematosus is a cutaneous form of lupus erythematosus that affects sun-exposed areas of the skin. It typically presents in women between the ages of 20-40 and presents as red patches on the nose, face, back of the neck, shoulders, and hands. If left untreated, it can cause hypertrophic, wart-like scars.Pityriasis Rosea:
Pityriasis rosea is a self-limiting skin condition that affects young adults, mostly women. It presents with salmon-pink, flat or slightly raised patches with surrounding scale known as a collarette. The rash is usually symmetrical and distributed predominantly on the trunk and proximal limbs.Psoriasis:
Psoriasis is an autoimmune skin condition that presents with red scaly patches on the extensor surfaces of the limbs and behind the ears. Treatment involves topical or systemic medications to control symptoms and prevent flares. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 110
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with scabies.
Scabies is a skin condition caused by tiny mites that burrow into the skin and lay eggs. It is highly contagious and can spread through close physical contact or sharing of personal items such as clothing or bedding. Symptoms include intense itching, rash, and small bumps or blisters on the skin. Treatment typically involves prescription creams or lotions that kill the mites and their eggs. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have scabies to prevent further spread of the condition.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It causes itchiness in the skin even where there is no obvious lesion to be seen
Explanation:Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the microscopic mite Sarcoptes scabiei. It is a common condition that affects people of all races and social classes worldwide. The infestation spreads rapidly in crowded conditions where there is frequent skin-to-skin contact between people, such as in hospitals, institutions, child-care facilities, and nursing homes. Scabies can be transmitted through direct, prolonged, skin-to-skin contact with an infested person, and it can also spread by sharing clothing, towels, and bedding.
The symptoms of scabies include papular-like irritations, burrows, or rash of the skin, particularly in the webbing between the fingers, skin folds on the wrist, elbow, or knee, the penis, the breast, or shoulder blades. The condition is highly contagious and can easily spread to sexual partners and household members. However, a quick handshake or hug is usually not enough to spread the infestation.
Fortunately, there are several treatments available for scabies, including permethrin ointment, benzyl benzoate, and oral ivermectin for resistant cases. Antihistamines and calamine lotion may also be used to alleviate itching.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)