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  • Question 1 - A 58-year-old woman, with a history of fibromyalgia, presents to her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman, with a history of fibromyalgia, presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of a constant soreness in the pelvic and perineal area. She reports it is there most of the time, and she struggles to carry on with her daily activities and sleep. She is tearful and fatigued. She tried paracetamol and ibuprofen, but these have not worked. She denies any postmenopausal bleeding or vaginal discharge.
      Examination is unremarkable. She had a recent abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan for investigation of acute diverticulitis that revealed no abnormality in the uterus and ovaries.
      Which of the following is the next step in the patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Gabapentin

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Management of Unprovoked Vulvodynia: Medications, Referrals, and Other Modalities

      Unprovoked vulvodynia is a chronic pain syndrome characterized by chronic vulvovaginal pain lasting at least three months, without identifiable cause. The pain can be localized or generalized, has no triggers, and cannot be provoked by light touch on examination. In addition, there is associated dyspareunia. The intensity of the pain and the impact on the patient varies greatly between cases. The mainstay of first-line treatment is pain-modifying medication such as amitriptyline, an oral tricyclic antidepressant medication, which is also used in the management of depression, migraines, and chronic pain. However, if an adequate trial of amitriptyline fails to improve symptoms or if the side-effects are not tolerated by the patient, then gabapentin or pregabalin can be offered as second line. Other modalities that should be considered in the management of unprovoked vulvodynia include cognitive behavioural therapy, acupuncture, and pelvic floor exercise training. Severe unprovoked vulvodynia that persists despite the above measurements should be dealt with in secondary care by the pain team. Referral to the Gynaecology team is unnecessary unless there are concerning factors in the history or examination to point towards causes like carcinoma, sexually transmitted infections, or chronic inflammatory skin conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      70.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 59-year-old man has been undergoing regular haemodialysis for the past 6 years....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man has been undergoing regular haemodialysis for the past 6 years. He previously had an AV fistula in his left arm, but it became infected 4 years ago and was no longer functional. Currently, he is receiving dialysis through an AV fistula in his right forearm. He presents with pain in his right hand and wrist. Upon examination, there is redness and a necrotic ulcer on his right middle finger. His right hand strength is normal. He is not experiencing any constitutional symptoms and is not taking any medications. He had undergone uncomplicated dialysis the day before. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Correct Answer: Distal hypoperfusion ischaemic syndrome (DHIS)

      Explanation:

      Possible Complications of AV Fistula in Dialysis Patients

      AV fistula is a common vascular access for patients undergoing dialysis. However, it can lead to various complications, including distal hypoperfusion ischaemic syndrome (DHIS). DHIS, also known as steal syndrome, occurs when blood flow is shunted through the fistula, causing distal ischaemia, which can result in ulcers and necrosis. Surgical revision or banding of the fistula may be necessary in severe cases. Older patients with atherosclerotic arteries are more prone to DHIS. Other possible complications include unrelated local pathology, infected AV fistula, infective endocarditis, and thrombosis with distal embolisation. It is important to identify and manage these complications promptly to prevent further harm to the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      161.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A mother brings her 3-year-old daughter to surgery. For the past three weeks,...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 3-year-old daughter to surgery. For the past three weeks, she has been complaining of an itchy bottom. She is otherwise well and clinical examination including that of the perianal area is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Hygiene measures + single dose mebendazole for all the family

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to treat household contacts of patients with threadworms, even if they do not show any symptoms. Referral to the child protection officer is not necessary for an itchy bottom, as it is a common symptom of threadworms.

      Threadworm Infestation in Children

      Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, hypertension and angina arrives at...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, hypertension and angina arrives at the Emergency Department with severe chest pain that radiates down his left arm. He is sweating heavily and the pain does not subside with rest or sublingual nitroglycerin. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST segment elevation in leads II, III and avF.

      What is the leading cause of death within the first hour after the onset of symptoms in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrhythmia

      Explanation:

      After experiencing an inferior-wall MI, the most common cause of death within the first hour is a lethal arrhythmia, such as ventricular fibrillation. This can be caused by various factors, including ischaemia, toxic metabolites, or autonomic stimulation. If ventricular fibrillation occurs within the first 48 hours, it may be due to transient causes and not affect long-term prognosis. However, if it occurs after 48 hours, it is usually indicative of permanent dysfunction and associated with a worse long-term prognosis. Other complications that may occur after an acute MI include emboli from a left ventricular thrombus, cardiac tamponade, ruptured papillary muscle, and pericarditis. These complications typically occur at different time frames after the acute MI and present with different symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
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  • Question 5 - A 27-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of depressed mood. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of depressed mood. He reports feeling fatigued and having suicidal thoughts on a daily basis. His appearance is disheveled and he has made multiple suicide attempts in the past few months. The psychiatrist decides to initiate electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for his depression, scheduled to begin in a week. The patient is currently taking 100 mg of sertraline daily. What is the appropriate course of action regarding his medication prior to ECT treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduce the sertraline daily dose

      Explanation:

      Before commencing ECT treatment, it is important to reduce the dosage of antidepressant medication, but not to stop it completely. The recommended approach is to gradually decrease the dosage to the minimum level. In some cases, an increased dosage of antidepressants may be added towards the end of the ECT course. It is not advisable to increase the dosage or discontinue the medication altogether. Switching to an alternative psychiatric drug, such as another SSRI or lithium, is also not recommended as it can be risky before ECT treatment.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.

      Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.

      Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
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  • Question 6 - A study is conducted to investigate whether a new medication for hypertension has...

    Incorrect

    • A study is conducted to investigate whether a new medication for hypertension has any impact on blood pressure control. Six hundred patients are enrolled from various clinics and are randomly assigned to receive either the new medication or standard treatment. Blood pressure readings are recorded from the time of enrollment for a duration of six months.
      What is the most effective method of graphically presenting the data?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kaplan-Meier plot

      Explanation:

      Kaplan-Meier Plot: A Graphical Representation of Survival Probability

      The Kaplan-Meier plot is a graphical representation of the probability of survival over time. It is considered the best way to display this information in a clear and concise manner. The plot shows the cumulative probability of an individual remaining alive at any given time after the baseline. By comparing two lines on the graph, it is easy to determine if there is a survival benefit between two groups.

      To determine if the difference between the two groups is significant, a log rank test may be used. This statistical test compares the survival curves of the two groups and calculates the probability that the observed difference is due to chance. The Kaplan-Meier plot and log rank test are commonly used in medical research to analyze the effectiveness of treatments or interventions on patient survival.

      Overall, the Kaplan-Meier plot is a powerful tool for visualizing survival data and can provide valuable insights into the effectiveness of medical interventions. Its simplicity and ease of interpretation make it a popular choice for researchers and clinicians alike.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently undergoing treatment for heart failure and gastro-oesophageal reflux. Which medication that he is taking is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Medications Associated with Gynaecomastia

      Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, can be caused by various medications. Spironolactone, ciclosporin, cimetidine, and omeprazole are some of the drugs that have been associated with this condition. Ramipril has also been linked to gynaecomastia, but it is a rare occurrence.

      Aside from these medications, other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include digoxin, LHRH analogues, cimetidine, and finasteride. It is important to note that not all individuals who take these medications will develop gynaecomastia, and the risk may vary depending on the dosage and duration of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden breathlessness and haemoptysis....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden breathlessness and haemoptysis. He had just returned from a trip to Thailand and had been complaining of pain in his left leg. His oxygen saturation is 88% on room air, blood pressure is 95/70 mmHg, and heart rate is 120 bpm. He has a history of hypertension managed with lifestyle measures only and used to work as a construction worker. While receiving initial management, the patient suddenly becomes unresponsive, stops breathing, and has no pulse. Despite prolonged resuscitation efforts, the patient is declared dead after 40 minutes. Which vessel is most likely to be affected, leading to this patient's death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Thrombosis in Varicose Veins: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Pulmonary artery thrombosis is a serious condition that can cause sudden-onset breathlessness, haemoptysis, pleuritic chest pain, and cough. It is usually caused by a deep vein thrombosis that travels to the pulmonary artery. Computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis.

      Pulmonary vein thrombosis is a rare condition that is typically associated with lobectomy, metastatic carcinoma, coagulopathies, and lung transplantation. Patients usually present with gradual onset dyspnoea, lethargy, and peripheral oedema.

      Azygos vein thrombosis is a rare occurrence that is usually associated with azygos vein aneurysms and hepatobiliary pathologies. It is rarely fatal.

      Brachiocephalic vein thrombosis is usually accompanied by arm swelling, pain, and limitation of movement. It is less likely to progress to a pulmonary embolus than lower limb deep vein thrombosis.

      Coronary artery thrombus resulting in myocardial infarction (MI) is characterised by cardiac chest pain, hypotension, and sweating. Haemoptysis is not a feature of MI. Electrocardiographic changes and serum troponin and cardiac enzyme levels are typically seen in MI, but not in pulmonary embolism.

      In summary, the symptoms and diagnosis of thrombosis vary depending on the affected vein. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and perform appropriate imaging and laboratory tests for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
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  • Question 9 - A seventy-one-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis is recovering on the ward 6 days...

    Incorrect

    • A seventy-one-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis is recovering on the ward 6 days following a right hemi-colectomy for a tumour in the ascending colon. He complains to the nurse looking after him that he has developed pain in his abdomen. The pain is diffuse and came on suddenly but has gradually been getting worse since onset. He ranks it an 8/10. He has not opened his bowels or passed flatus since the procedure.

      On examination:

      Blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg; Heart rate: 100/minute; Respiratory rate: 18/minute; Temperature: 38.5 ºC; Oxygen saturations: 97%.

      Abdominal exam: abdomen is distended. Diffusely tender upon palpation and evidence of guarding throughout. No organomegaly. No pulsatile masses. Kidneys are non-ballotable. No shifting dullness. Absent bowel sounds.

      There is feculent matter in the abdominal wound drain.

      What is the most appropriate imaging modality to investigate this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal CT

      Explanation:

      A possible complication after an elective left hemi-colectomy is an anastomotic leak, which typically occurs 5-7 days after the procedure. This patient has rheumatoid arthritis and may be taking steroids and other anti-rheumatic drugs, which increases the risk of developing an anastomotic leak. Abdominal pain and fever are common signs of this condition, but they are not specific, so it is important to rule out an anastomotic leak promptly to avoid further complications. The best imaging modality for diagnosing an anastomotic leak is an abdominal CT scan. Abdominal X-rays are not sufficient for visualizing soft tissues, and ileus alone is not enough to confirm the diagnosis. Abdominal ultrasound is inferior to CT scans, and pelvic ultrasound is unlikely to provide adequate visualization. Colonoscopy is not recommended in this case, as the patient is peritonitic and suspected of having a leak.

      Complications can occur in all types of surgery and require vigilance in their detection. Anticipating likely complications and appropriate avoidance can minimize their occurrence. Understanding the anatomy of a surgical field will allow appreciation of local and systemic complications that may occur. Physiological and biochemical derangements may also occur, and appropriate diagnostic modalities should be utilized. Safe and timely intervention is the guiding principle for managing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old man visits the renal clinic eight weeks after a successful renal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the renal clinic eight weeks after a successful renal transplant. He has some inquiries about his immunosuppression. The consultant explains that the typical regimen for renal transplant patients involves the use of an induction agent initially, followed by a combination of a calcineurin inhibitor, antimetabolite, and steroids. This combination is intended to prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. Can you identify the agent that acts as a purine analogue to disrupt DNA synthesis and induce apoptosis in rapidly dividing cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Immunosuppressive Drugs

      Azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are two immunosuppressive drugs that interrupt DNA synthesis and act as antimetabolites. However, they achieve this through different mechanisms. Mycophenolate indirectly inhibits purine synthesis by blocking inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, while azathioprine is a pro-drug that is metabolized to 6-mercaptopurine, which is inserted into the DNA sequence instead of a purine. This triggers apoptosis by recognizing it as a mismatch.

      Basiliximab is an anti-CD25 monoclonal antibody that blocks T cell proliferation by inhibiting CD25, the alpha chain of the IL-2 receptor. On the other hand, sirolimus inhibits mTOR, the mammalian target of rapamycin, which is a protein kinase that promotes T cell proliferation and survival downstream of IL-2 signaling. Finally, tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor that reduces the activation of NFAT, a transcription factor that promotes IL-2 production. Since IL-2 is the main cytokine that drives T cell proliferation, tacrolimus effectively suppresses the immune response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 11 - A 27-year-old female comes to the GP seeking advice on her contraceptive options....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female comes to the GP seeking advice on her contraceptive options. She has been relying on condoms but has recently entered a new relationship and wants to explore other methods. She expresses concern about the possibility of gaining weight from her chosen contraception.
      What should this woman avoid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Injectable contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Depo-provera is linked to an increase in weight.

      If this woman is concerned about weight gain, it is best to avoid depo-provera, which is the primary injectable contraceptive in the UK. Depo-provera can cause various adverse effects, including weight gain, irregular bleeding, delayed return to fertility, and an increased risk of osteoporosis.

      While some users of the combined oral contraceptive pill have reported weight gain, a Cochrane review does not support a causal relationship. There are no reasons for this woman to avoid the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      The progesterone-only pill has not been associated with weight gain and is safe for use in this woman.

      The intra-uterine system (IUS) does not cause weight gain in users and is a viable option for this woman.

      The subdermal contraceptive implant can cause irregular or heavy bleeding, as well as progesterone-related side effects such as headaches, nausea, and breast pain. However, it is not typically associated with weight gain and is not contraindicated for use in this situation.

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of depression. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of depression. During the examination, the PCP notices a lump in the center of her neck and proceeds to conduct a cardiovascular and thyroid assessment. The patient displays signs of fatigue and has a subdued mood. Her heart rate is 68 bpm and her blood pressure is 112/82 mmHg, and there is paleness in the conjunctivae. The lump is symmetrical without skin alterations, moves upward when swallowing, and has a nodular consistency.
      What is the most appropriate initial test to perform for diagnostic assistance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Function Tests: Initial Investigation for Hypothyroidism

      When a patient presents with symptoms and signs suggestive of hypothyroidism, the most appropriate initial test is thyroid function tests. However, if a neck swelling is also present, an ultrasound scan may be useful to assess for a goitre. If a cystic swelling is identified, a fine-needle aspirate sample may be taken for cytological analysis. A radio-isotope scan may also be performed to further assess thyroid pathology. While a full blood count is typically checked at the same time, it is not the best answer given the scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for guidance. He lost his...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for guidance. He lost his wife to cancer and has been a widower for 6 months. The patient has a supportive family and is not experiencing clinical depression, but he was very emotional after his wife's passing. He occasionally feels indifferent and disheartened, but this has improved significantly over time. However, he has heard his late wife speaking to him on several occasions over the last 2 weeks. He also believed he saw her once while shopping with a friend, but he acknowledges that this is impossible. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure and safety-net

      Explanation:

      It is possible for pseudo hallucinations to be a normal part of the grieving process. People who are grieving may experience hearing, seeing, or smelling their deceased loved one, especially during acute grief. This can happen at any stage of bereavement. Therefore, the patient in question can be reassured that this is a common experience.

      Since there is no evidence of an organic cause for the patient’s symptoms, it would not be appropriate to arrange blood tests or urinalysis.

      While antidepressants may be used to treat severe or atypical cases of grief, the patient is not clinically depressed and is unlikely to benefit from them. In fact, they may cause harm due to their adverse effects.

      The patient is fully aware of the situation and has insight into their condition. Therefore, there is no need for urgent psychiatric involvement or sectioning under the Mental Health Act 1983.

      Understanding Pseudohallucinations

      Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.

      One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.

      Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - In the context of biostatistics, which statement accurately describes type I error in...

    Incorrect

    • In the context of biostatistics, which statement accurately describes type I error in relation to the clinical trial evaluating the efficacy of a new HPV vaccine compared to the current vaccine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected erroneously

      Explanation:

      Understanding Type I and Type II Errors in Statistical Analysis

      In statistical analysis, errors can occur when interpreting data. Type I errors occur when the null hypothesis is rejected erroneously, leading to the incorrect conclusion that something is true when it is not. This is also known as a false-positive error or alpha error. On the other hand, type II errors occur when an investigator mistakenly concludes that there is no difference between two study populations when a difference actually exists. This is also referred to as a false-negative error or beta error, represented by the Greek letter beta.

      The probability of a type I error decreases as the significance level decreases, while the probability of a type II error increases. The cut-off points set for a particular test determine the magnitudes of both type I and type II errors. Therefore, decreasing the significance level increases the chance of a type I error being made, but decreases the chance of a type II error occurring, and vice versa.

      Understanding these types of errors is crucial in statistical analysis to ensure accurate conclusions are drawn from the data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of sudden pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of sudden pain and curvature in his penis, along with loss of erection. He reports that the incident occurred during sexual intercourse when his penis bent in an abnormal direction, causing a loud popping sensation and acute pain. Upon examination, the penis appears flaccid and significantly swollen with visible bruising. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tear of one corpus cavernosum

      Explanation:

      Anatomy and Physiology of the Penis

      The penis is composed of three cylindrical structures: two corpora cavernosa and one corpus spongiosum. These structures are surrounded by the tunica albuginea and Buck’s fascia. During an erection, the sinusoids within the corpora cavernosa fill with arterial blood, causing the penis to enlarge longitudinally and transversely. The internal pudendal arteries provide the blood supply to the penis and the urethra, with the cavernosal artery supplying the corpus cavernosum.

      In the flaccid state, the penis is mobile and flexible, making injury rare. However, sudden direct trauma or abnormal bending of the penis during an erection can cause a transverse tear of the tunica albuginea, resulting in injury to the underlying corpus cavernosum. This injury typically affects one corpus cavernosum, but both can be involved, leading to penile laceration and urethral injury.

      As the penis transitions from a flaccid state to an erect state, the tunica albuginea thins, stiffens, and loses elasticity. This expansion and stiffness impede venous return, maintaining tumescence during male erection. the anatomy and physiology of the penis is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and disorders of the male reproductive system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no significant medical history and this is her first pregnancy. During the screening, her fasting blood glucose level is measured at 7.2 mmol/L. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start insulin only

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate course of action for gestational diabetes with a fasting glucose level of >= 7 mmol/L at diagnosis is to commence insulin. While lifestyle changes and co-prescribing metformin should also be discussed, starting insulin is the priority according to NICE guidelines. Re-checking glucose in 2 weeks, starting exenatide, or relying on lifestyle changes alone would not be appropriate. Metformin alone may not be sufficient for glucose levels above 7 mmol/L, but it can be used in combination with insulin. If glucose levels are below 7 mmol/L, lifestyle changes can be trialed before considering metformin.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 17 - Which statement about Giardia lamblia is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about Giardia lamblia is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May cause intestinal malabsorption

      Explanation:

      Giardia Lamblia and its Treatment

      Giardia lamblia is a common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea and intestinal malabsorption, along with E. coli. The most effective treatment for this condition is metronidazole. However, detecting cysts and oocysts in stool microscopy is laborious and lacks sensitivity. The current test of choice is the detection of antigens on the surface of the organisms in the stool specimen. A single stool examination can identify about 50% of cases, while three stool samples can identify about 90%. It is important to note that blood loss is not a feature of this condition. HUS, on the other hand, may be caused by E. coli 0157 infection, but not giardiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute joint swelling. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute joint swelling. He has a history of type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolemia and takes metformin and atorvastatin. He smokes 25 cigarettes daily and drinks 20 units of alcohol per week.

      His left knee joint is erythematosus, warm, and tender. His temperature is 37.2ºC, his heart rate is 105 bpm, his respiratory rate is 18 /min, and his blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg. Joint aspiration shows needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals.

      What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measure serum urate 2 weeks after inflammation settles

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gout: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation and pain in the joints. Patients experience episodes of intense pain that can last for several days, followed by periods of no symptoms. The acute episodes usually reach their peak within 12 hours and are characterized by significant pain, swelling, and redness. The most commonly affected joint is the first metatarsophalangeal joint, but other joints such as the ankle, wrist, and knee can also be affected. If left untreated, repeated acute episodes of gout can lead to chronic joint problems.

      To diagnose gout, doctors may perform a synovial fluid analysis to look for needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarized light. Uric acid levels may also be checked once the acute episode has subsided, as they can be high, normal, or low during the attack. Radiological features of gout include joint effusion, well-defined punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins in a juxta-articular distribution, and eccentric erosions. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, there is no periarticular osteopenia, and soft tissue tophi may be visible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 19 - What is the most appropriate mechanism to describe the action of simvastatin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate mechanism to describe the action of simvastatin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreases hepatic cholesterol synthesis

      Explanation:

      How Statins Work to Lower Cholesterol

      Cholesterol is primarily produced within the body through the HMG-CoA reductase pathway, which is responsible for manufacturing around 1000 mg of cholesterol per day via carbohydrate metabolism. However, statins work by competitively inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase, which is the first enzyme in this pathway. By doing so, statins can effectively lower circulating cholesterol levels. For those looking to learn more about statins and other lipid-lowering medicines, Patient.info offers additional resources and information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 20 - You have just received a 70-year-old woman into the resus room who had...

    Incorrect

    • You have just received a 70-year-old woman into the resus room who had a witnessed collapse after complaining of chest pain. There was no pulse and CPR was performed at the scene. CPR is ongoing upon patient arrival in the Emergency Department. Pulse check demonstrates no palpable central pulse and there is no respiratory effort. A 3-lead ECG demonstrates no coordinated electrical activity or recognisable complexes, looking very much like a wandering flat line.
      What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 mg of adrenaline 1 : 10 000 intravenously (iv), and continue CPR

      Explanation:

      Correct Management of Cardiac Arrest: Understanding the Appropriate Interventions

      When faced with a patient in cardiac arrest, it is crucial to understand the appropriate interventions for the specific situation. In the case of a patient in asystole, the non-shockable side of the Advanced Life Support algorithm should be followed, with CPR 30 : 2 and 1 mg of adrenaline 10 ml of 1 : 10 000 iv every other cycle of CPR. It is important to note that a shock is not indicated for asystole.

      Adrenaline 1 : 1000 im should not be given in cardiac arrest situations, as it is used for anaphylaxis. External pacing is unlikely to be successful in the absence of P-wave asystole. Atropine is no longer recommended for use in Advanced Life Support.

      By understanding the appropriate interventions for different cardiac arrest situations, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 21 - Activation of which receptor is believed to enhance the activity of brown fat,...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of which receptor is believed to enhance the activity of brown fat, resulting in the production of heat/energy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta-3 receptor

      Explanation:

      The Role of Beta-3 Adrenoceptors and Brown Fat Cells in Energy Metabolism

      The beta-3 adrenoceptor found on brown fat cells is believed to play a crucial role in increasing lipolysis and thermogenesis. However, despite the potential benefits, beta-3 adrenoreceptor agonists that have been tested so far have not shown any significant impact on weight loss or energy expenditure.

      In the past, fat was considered to be an inactive substance. However, recent research has revealed that fat is actually an endocrine organ that produces hormones that regulate energy metabolism. This discovery has shed new light on the complex mechanisms involved in maintaining a healthy weight and has opened up new avenues for exploring potential treatments for obesity and related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 22 - A 68-year-old woman visits her GP for a wound check, one week after...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman visits her GP for a wound check, one week after undergoing a total knee replacement surgery. Despite a smooth recovery and increased mobility, she complains of difficulty in dorsiflexing her foot while walking. Based on this information, which structure is most likely to have been affected during the TKA procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Joint Replacement for Osteoarthritis

      Joint replacement, also known as arthroplasty, is the most effective treatment for patients with osteoarthritis who experience significant pain. Around 25% of patients are now younger than 60 years old, and while obesity is often thought to be a barrier to joint replacement, there is only a slight increase in short-term complications. There is no difference in long-term joint replacement survival.

      For hips, the most common type of operation is a cemented hip replacement, where a metal femoral component is cemented into the femoral shaft, accompanied by a cemented acetabular polyethylene cup. However, uncemented hip replacements are becoming increasingly popular, particularly in younger and more active patients, despite being more expensive than conventional cemented hip replacements. Hip resurfacing is also sometimes used, where a metal cap is attached over the femoral head, often in younger patients, and has the advantage of preserving the femoral neck, which may be useful if conventional arthroplasty is needed later in life.

      Post-operative recovery involves both physiotherapy and a course of home-exercises. Walking sticks or crutches are usually used for up to 6 weeks after hip or knee replacement surgery. Patients who have had a hip replacement operation should receive basic advice to minimize the risk of dislocation, such as avoiding flexing the hip more than 90 degrees, avoiding low chairs, not crossing their legs, and sleeping on their back for the first 6 weeks.

      Complications of joint replacement surgery include wound and joint infection, thromboembolism, and dislocation. NICE recommends that patients receive low-molecular weight heparin for 4 weeks following a hip replacement to reduce the risk of thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus has been diagnosed with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus has been diagnosed with a spot urinary albumin:creatinine ratio of 3.4 mg/mmol.
      Which medication can be prescribed to slow down the advancement of his kidney disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Microalbuminuria as a Predictor of Diabetic Nephropathy

      Microalbuminuria is a condition where there is an increased amount of albumin in the urine, which is the first sign of diabetic nephropathy. In men, a urinary ACR of over 2.5 mg/mmol indicates microalbuminuria, while in women, it is over 3.5 mg/mmol. This condition is a predictor of the development of overt nephropathy, which is a severe kidney disease. Therefore, it is recommended that all patients with diabetes over the age of 12 years should be screened for microalbuminuria. Moreover, patients who develop microalbuminuria should receive an ACE inhibitor, even if they do not have systemic hypertension. An angiotensin-II receptor antagonist can also be used as an alternative to an ACE inhibitor. It is essential to diagnose and treat microalbuminuria early to prevent the progression of diabetic nephropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 24 - As a paediatrician, you are reviewing a 1-month-old who was delivered at 39+2...

    Incorrect

    • As a paediatrician, you are reviewing a 1-month-old who was delivered at 39+2 weeks vaginally and without any complications. The parents of the child have a concern that their child might have achondroplasia as the child's father has been diagnosed with this condition. Apart from measuring the child's length, what other physical characteristic should you look for to determine if the child has achondroplasia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trident hand deformity

      Explanation:

      Identifying physical features of congenital conditions is crucial for exam purposes and diagnosis. One such feature of achondroplasia is trident hands, characterized by short, stubby fingers with a gap between the middle and ring fingers. Other physical features include short limbs (rhizomelia), lumbar lordosis, and midface hypoplasia. Fragile X syndrome is associated with low set ears, while Down’s syndrome is characterized by saddle-gap deformity and a single palmar crease. It is important to note that achondroplasia is characterized by macrocephaly with frontal bossing, not microcephaly.

      Understanding Achondroplasia

      Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR-3) gene, which leads to abnormal cartilage development. This results in short stature, with affected individuals having short limbs (rhizomelia) and shortened fingers (brachydactyly). They also have a large head with frontal bossing and a narrow foramen magnum, midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge, ‘trident’ hands, and lumbar lordosis.

      In most cases, achondroplasia occurs as a sporadic mutation, with advancing parental age at the time of conception being a risk factor. There is no specific therapy for achondroplasia, but some individuals may benefit from limb lengthening procedures. These procedures involve the application of Ilizarov frames and targeted bone fractures, with a clearly defined need and endpoint being essential for success.

      Overall, understanding achondroplasia is important for individuals and families affected by this condition. While there is no cure, there are treatment options available that can improve quality of life for those living with achondroplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic with complaints of involuntary muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic with complaints of involuntary muscle movements of the tongue, fingers and trunk for the past 2 months. He was diagnosed with schizophrenia 15 years ago and has been taking haloperidol, with good compliance. On examination, his temperature is 37.7 °C, blood pressure 110/80 mmHg and pulse 90 bpm. His respiratory rate is 13 cycles/min. There is pronounced choreoathetoid movement of his hands and fingers. His haloperidol was stopped and clozapine was prescribed.
      What is the next line of investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Side-Effects of Clozapine Treatment

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and psychosis in Parkinson’s disease. However, it can cause side-effects such as neutropenia and agranulocytosis, making it crucial to monitor the full blood count and white cells of patients on clozapine treatment. Other potential side-effects include extrapyramidal symptoms, tachycardia, arrhythmias, myocarditis, cardiomyopathy, hyperglycaemia, hypersalivation, constipation, anorexia, speech disorders, and urinary incontinence. However, measuring PT and PTT, haloperidol levels, clozapine levels, or blood electrolytes is not relevant to monitoring the side-effects of clozapine treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of pharyngitis and is prescribed amoxicillin...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of pharyngitis and is prescribed amoxicillin for a week. She also requests a refill of her oral contraceptive pill, bendroflumethiazide, lansoprazole, and naproxen, which she has been taking for the past nine months due to a skiing injury.

      After three weeks, she returns to the doctor with joint pains and a mild rash. Blood tests reveal a creatinine level of 356 µmol/L and an eosinophilia of 1.7 ×109/L (NR 0-0.4). The doctor refers her to renal services with a suspected diagnosis of tubulointerstitial nephritis.

      Which medication is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of tubulointerstitial nephritis in this case is amoxicillin, which can cause acute inflammation of the tubules and interstitium of the kidney. TIN can also be caused by other drugs, infections, and autoimmune disorders. Treatment involves removing the causative agent and using oral steroids to dampen inflammation. Chronic TIN can lead to end stage renal failure. Drug-induced TIN is usually due to hypersensitivity reactions and is characterized by raised IgE levels and eosinophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 27 - A middle-aged Bangladeshi man presents to the emergency department with back pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged Bangladeshi man presents to the emergency department with back pain and fever. An MRI is performed and a diagnosis of discitis is made. A CT guided biopsy is performed and cultures were taken. They come back showing Staphylococcus aureus as the causative organisms and antibiotic therapy was started based on sensitivity testing. 2 weeks later he returns to the emergency department as he has spiked another fever and the back pain is worsening.

      What could be the reason for the deterioration of symptoms in this middle-aged Bangladeshi man with discitis despite antibiotic therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epidural abscess

      Explanation:

      The patient’s worsening fever and pain, despite being given antibiotics that were effective against the organism causing the discitis, suggest the presence of an abscess that cannot be reached through the systemic circulation. One possible complication of discitis is an epidural abscess, which is characterized by fever and back pain. While acute pyelonephritis can also cause back pain, it typically radiates from the loin to the groin and may be accompanied by urinary symptoms. Vertebral metastasis is unlikely in this patient without a history of cancer and with the presence of spiking temperatures. Pott’s disease, caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, can present with similar symptoms but is not the cause of this patient’s infection, which is caused by Staphylococcus aureus. An epidural hematoma can cause severe back pain, but the absence of fever and no history of trauma make it an unlikely diagnosis.

      Understanding Discitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Discitis is a condition characterized by an infection in the intervertebral disc space, which can lead to serious complications such as sepsis or an epidural abscess. The most common cause of discitis is bacterial, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most frequent culprit. However, it can also be caused by viral or aseptic factors. The symptoms of discitis include back pain, pyrexia, rigors, and sepsis. In some cases, neurological features such as changing lower limb neurology may occur if an epidural abscess develops.

      To diagnose discitis, imaging tests such as MRI are used due to their high sensitivity. A CT-guided biopsy may also be required to guide antimicrobial treatment. The standard therapy for discitis involves six to eight weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The choice of antibiotic depends on various factors, with the most important being the identification of the organism through a positive culture, such as a blood culture or CT-guided biopsy.

      Complications of discitis include sepsis and epidural abscess. Therefore, it is essential to assess the patient for endocarditis, which can be done through transthoracic echo or transesophageal echo. Discitis is usually due to haematogenous seeding of the vertebrae, which implies that the patient has had a bacteraemia, and seeding could have occurred elsewhere. Understanding the causes, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of discitis is crucial in managing this condition and preventing its complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 28 - A 6-year-old boy is brought in to see his GP by his father,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought in to see his GP by his father, who reports that he has been complaining of a sore throat and has developed a skin rash over the past few days. During examination, you observe erythematous macules and papules measuring 3-4 mm on the dorsum of his hands and feet. You diagnose him with hand, foot and mouth disease. The father inquires if his son should stay home from school. What guidance will you provide regarding school exclusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No need to stay off school if she feels well

      Explanation:

      Exclusion from a childcare setting or school is not necessary for a child with hand, foot and mouth disease, as long as they are feeling well.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries. The symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, as well as oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option for hand, foot and mouth disease. This includes general advice about hydration and analgesia, as well as reassurance that there is no link to disease in cattle. Children do not need to be excluded from school, but the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better. If there is a suspected large outbreak, it is advised to contact the Health Protection Agency for further guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old construction worker arrives at the emergency department with severe left-sided renal...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old construction worker arrives at the emergency department with severe left-sided renal colic pain that extends to his groin. He is experiencing persistent vomiting and is receiving IV fluids. What is the most suitable analgesic for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular diclofenac

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Renal Colic

      Renal colic is a condition that causes severe pain in the lower back and abdomen due to the presence of kidney stones. The first line of treatment for this condition is non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), which can be administered either intramuscularly or by suppository. These drugs are effective in reducing pain and inflammation caused by kidney stones. If NSAIDs are not effective, strong opiates are considered as appropriate second line therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - A clinical trial is currently underway to evaluate the effectiveness of Smellexat, a...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial is currently underway to evaluate the effectiveness of Smellexat, a new medication for mild-moderate hayfever symptoms, compared to standard therapy with cetirizine. At what stage of drug development is this trial?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase 3

      Explanation:

      The Phases of Drug Testing

      New drugs undergo a series of studies known as phases 0-4. Phase 0 is a pre-clinical study that involves animals and/or cells. Phase 1 is the first testing on humans and usually involves healthy volunteers. Phase 2 involves patients with the relevant disease, while phase 3 involves thousands of patients to prove the drug’s effectiveness and safety. If the drug passes phase 3, the company can apply for regulatory approval to market the drug. Phase 4 is post-regulatory monitoring, where companies review the drug’s performance and assess any risk of side effects in a particular population. The yellow card system is also used to report any new or rare side effects. Each phase serves a specific purpose in ensuring the safety and effectiveness of new drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 31 - A 28-year-old patient presents to the Emergency Department with fresh red vaginal bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents to the Emergency Department with fresh red vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain.
      The patient is at 36 weeks gestation and gravida 3, para 2. She is rhesus positive and a current smoker. Access to her current maternity notes is unavailable. She tells you she has pre-eclampsia for which she takes labetalol.
      Maternal observations are normal and there are no concerns with foetal movements. A cardiotocograph (CTG) demonstrates that the foetal heart rate is 140 beats/min, variability is 15 beats/min, accelerations are present and there are no decelerations noted.
      On examination, the uterus is hard and tender to palpation. The doctor suspects that the foetus may be in a transverse lie. The patient's pad is partially soaked but there is no active bleeding noted on a quick inspection.
      What would the most appropriate first course of action be in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer corticosteroids and arrange admission to the ward

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant patient presents with painful bleeding and a hard, tender uterus, it may indicate placental abruption. In this case, the patient has risk factors such as being a smoker, having pre-eclampsia, and a transverse lie. The management of placental abruption depends on the gestation, maternal condition, and fetal condition. In this scenario, the patient is stable, at 34 weeks gestation, and the fetus is not showing signs of distress. Therefore, the appropriate plan is to admit the patient and administer steroids for observation.

      Administering anti-D and performing a Kleihauer test is unnecessary as the patient is already known to be rhesus positive. Induction of labor is not indicated as the fetus has not matured to term. Emergency caesarean section would only be necessary if fetal distress was present. Performing a sterile speculum examination is not appropriate as it could cause or worsen hemorrhage, especially if the patient has placenta previa. The best course of action is to admit the patient to the ward until access to notes becomes available or an ultrasound is performed.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Management, and Complications

      Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal haemorrhage. The severity of the condition depends on the extent of the separation and the gestational age of the fetus. Management of placental abruption is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.

      If the fetus is alive and less than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, close observation, administration of steroids, and no tocolysis are recommended. The decision to deliver depends on the gestational age of the fetus. If the fetus is alive and more than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, vaginal delivery is recommended. If the fetus is dead, vaginal delivery should be induced.

      Placental abruption can lead to various maternal complications, including shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, and postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). Fetal complications include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), hypoxia, and death. The condition is associated with a high perinatal mortality rate and is responsible for 15% of perinatal deaths.

      In conclusion, placental abruption is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Close monitoring and timely intervention can improve the prognosis for both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 32 - A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of severe back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of severe back pain and a high fever. The pain began in his lower back three days ago and has progressively worsened, now extending to his left thigh and groin. He finds relief by lying on his back and keeping his left knee slightly bent and hip externally rotated. Hip extension is particularly painful.

      The patient has a history of intravenous drug use. On examination, he has a fever of 38.2ºC and a heart rate of 132 beats per minute. A mild systolic murmur is present, and tenderness is noted over L1 to L3.

      His urine dip reveals protein 1+ and blood 1+, but is negative for nitrites and leukocytes. What is the most likely cause of his back pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoas abscess

      Explanation:

      When considering the potential causes of back pain in an intravenous drug user, it is important to keep psoas abscess in mind as a possible differential diagnosis. In this particular case, the patient’s symptoms suggest the presence of infective endocarditis, as indicated by the presence of blood and protein in the urine and a systolic murmur during auscultation. However, it is unlikely that this condition is responsible for the patient’s back pain.

      An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.

      The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.

      The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 33 - A 21-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of food poisoning...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of food poisoning and has taken an anti-sickness tablet. She is now experiencing difficulty focusing, tongue protrusion, jaw spasms, facial grimacing, and torticollis. She is concerned about the possibility of a stroke. The following investigations were conducted: haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, sodium, potassium, and creatinine. What is the most effective treatment for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benztropine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Dystonic Reaction

      Acute dystonic reactions can occur as a result of antiemetic therapy, particularly in young women exposed to metoclopramide and prochlorperazine. These reactions are not recommended in younger patients. Benztropine is a medication that can be used to treat acute dystonic reactions by blocking striatal cholinergic receptors, leading to a rebalancing of cholinergic and dopaminergic activity within the brain. Treatment is typically continued for 48-72 hours post-initial presentation to reduce the chance of relapse. Procyclidine may also be used as an alternative. Potassium supplementation is not necessary if the potassium result in the blood tests is within the normal range. Diazepam may be appropriate for torticollis alone, but in the case of a dystonic reaction, it should be treated as described above. Midazolam is not the most appropriate treatment in this scenario, as it is often used for procedural sedation. Atropine is not indicated for the treatment of acute dystonic reactions, as it is most commonly used for bradycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 34 - A 35-year-old male patient (undergoing chemotherapy treatment for Hodgkin’s lymphoma) complains of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient (undergoing chemotherapy treatment for Hodgkin’s lymphoma) complains of severe mouth pain. On examination, you see white plaques over his tongue.
      Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole for 7–14 days

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Oral Candida Infection During Chemotherapy

      During chemotherapy, patients may experience immunosuppression, which can lead to oral candida infection. There are several treatment options available for this condition, including oral fluconazole, nystatin mouthwash, and oral mycafungin. However, the most appropriate choice for mild to moderate oral candida infection is oral fluconazole, as it is more likely to prevent or delay recurrence than nystatin. Intravenous amphotericin B and oral voriconazole are not recommended for this condition, as they are used for systemic fungal infections and other types of fungal infections, respectively. It is important for healthcare providers to consider the patient’s individual needs and medical history when selecting a treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 35 - The ward nurses express concern about a 46-year-old man who was admitted with...

    Incorrect

    • The ward nurses express concern about a 46-year-old man who was admitted with jaundice yesterday. They discovered him in the linen cupboard, disoriented and searching for his luggage so he could check-out before midday. Upon your arrival, he is still confused and unsteady, with a tachycardia of 120 bpm and nystagmus. However, he poses no immediate danger to himself or others. Which medication would be suitable for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiamine IV and chlordiazepoxide orally (PO)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Plan for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcohol Withdrawal

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a disorder caused by thiamine deficiency commonly seen in alcohol withdrawal. The triad of ophthalmoplegia, confusion, and ataxia characterizes it. If left untreated, it can lead to Korsakoff syndrome with lasting memory impairment. The following treatment plan is recommended:

      Treatment Plan for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcohol Withdrawal

      1. Thiamine IV: Parenteral thiamine (Pabrinex®) is required and should be given in a setting where resuscitation facilities are available due to the risk of anaphylaxis. Thiamine is also given prophylactically in alcohol withdrawal.

      2. Chlordiazepoxide PO: Given orally as required (PRN) to control the symptoms of delirium tremens. The dosage should be adjusted according to symptom severity.

      3. Haloperidol IM: Antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol or IM benzodiazepines are not required in this instance where the patient is not at risk to himself or others.

      4. N-acetylcysteine IV: N-Acetylcysteine is used commonly for the treatment of paracetamol overdose. There is no evidence that this patient has a liver impairment as a result of paracetamol overdose.

      5. Propranolol PO: Propranolol is used for the treatment of portal hypertension and although likely, there is no evidence this patient has portal hypertension.

      6. Thiamine IM and midazolam IM: Thiamine is not given IM. There is no indication for IM benzodiazepines as this patient is co-operating with treatment. A chlordiazepoxide withdrawal regime would be better suited to this patient’s needs. This can be given orally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 36 - You have just helped deliver a 3 week premature baby and are asked...

    Incorrect

    • You have just helped deliver a 3 week premature baby and are asked to quickly assess the current APGAR score. The baby has a slow irregular cry, is pink all over, a slight grimace, with a heart rate of 140 BPM and moving both arms and legs freely. What is the current APGAR score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 37 - A 38-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a two-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a two-week history of palpitations and breathlessness. She has a past medical history of diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled on metformin 850 mg bd, and longstanding hypertension for which she has been on therapy for several years. Her current medications include captopril 50 mg bd, furosemide 40 mg od, and nifedipine 20 mg bd. She recently consulted her GP with symptoms of breathlessness, and he increased the dose of furosemide to 80 mg od.

      On examination, the patient is overweight and appears distressed. She is afebrile, with a pulse of 120, regular, and a blood pressure of 145/95 mmHg. Heart sounds 1 and 2 are normal without added sounds or murmurs. Respiratory rate is 28/minute, and the chest is clear to auscultation. The rest of the examination is normal.

      Investigations:
      - Hb: 134 g/L (normal range: 115-165)
      - WBC: 8.9 ×109/L (normal range: 4-11)
      - Platelets: 199 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - Sodium: 139 mmol/L (normal range: 137-144)
      - Potassium: 4.4 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9)
      - Urea: 5.8 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (normal range: 60-110)
      - Glucose: 5.9 mmol/L (normal range: 3.0-6.0)
      - Arterial blood gases on air:
      - pH: 7.6 (normal range: 7.36-7.44)
      - O2 saturation: 99%
      - PaO2: 112 mmHg/15 kPa (normal range: 75-100)
      - PaCO2: 13.7 mmHg/1.8 kPa (normal range: 35-45)
      - Standard bicarbonate: 20 mmol/L (normal range: 20-28)
      - Base excess: -7.0 mmol/L (normal range: ±2)

      What is the appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calming reassurance

      Explanation:

      Managing Respiratory Alkalosis in Patients with Panic Attacks

      Patients experiencing hyperventilation may develop respiratory alkalosis, which can be managed by creating a calming atmosphere and providing reassurance. However, the traditional method of breathing into a paper bag is no longer recommended. Instead, healthcare providers should focus on stabilizing the patient’s breathing and addressing any underlying anxiety or panic.

      It’s important to note that panic attacks can cause deranged ABG results, including respiratory alkalosis. Therefore, healthcare providers should be aware of this potential complication and take appropriate measures to manage the patient’s symptoms. While paper bag rebreathing may be effective in some cases, it should be administered with caution, especially in patients with respiratory or cardiac pathology.

      In summary, managing respiratory alkalosis in patients with panic attacks requires a holistic approach that addresses both the physical and emotional aspects of the condition. By creating a calming environment and providing reassurance, healthcare providers can help stabilize the patient’s breathing and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 38 - A 19-year-old male comes to the emergency department after ingesting an excessive amount...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male comes to the emergency department after ingesting an excessive amount of his father's medication. Upon examination, his serum potassium level is found to be 6 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9). Which medication is the probable culprit for this abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Overdose Effects of Various Drugs

      Betablockers, specifically propranolol, can lead to hyperkalaemia due to transmembrane shifts when taken in overdose. Conversely, beta-agonists like salbutamol are known to cause hypokalaemia. Salicylate overdose can cause metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis, with adults typically experiencing an alkalosis with a high pH, while children under 4-years-old may experience an acidosis. Hypokalaemia is more common than hyperkalaemia in patients following a salicylate overdose. Overdosing on SSRI medication, such as fluoxetine, rarely causes significant issues unless taken in extremely high doses, which may lead to tachycardia and prolonged QT interval. Zopiclone can cause excessive drowsiness, but respiratory depression is rare. Digoxin therapy overdose usually results in rhythm disturbance, which may be worsened by hypokalaemia.

      Overall, it is important to be aware of the potential effects of overdosing on various medications and seek medical attention immediately if an overdose is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 39 - A 35-year-old teacher presents at the Thyroid Clinic with a swelling in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher presents at the Thyroid Clinic with a swelling in her neck that has been present for 4 months, along with a weight loss of 5 kg. During examination, a diffuse smooth swelling of the thyroid gland is observed, and she is found to be in atrial fibrillation. Lid lag and proximal myopathy are also noted, along with a rash on the anterior aspects of her legs, indicative of pretibial myxoedema. Which clinical sign is most indicative of Graves' disease as the underlying cause of her hyperthyroidism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pretibial myxoedema

      Explanation:

      Most Specific Sign of Graves’ Disease

      Graves’ disease is a type of hyperthyroidism that has a classic triad of signs, including thyroid ophthalmopathy, thyroid acropachy, and pretibial myxoedema. Among these signs, pretibial myxoedema is the most specific to Graves’ disease. It is characterized by swelling and lumpiness of the shins and lower legs, and is almost pathognomonic of the condition. Other signs of hyperthyroidism, such as weight loss and diffuse thyroid swelling, are non-specific and may occur with other thyroid diseases. Atrial fibrillation and proximal myopathy may also occur in Graves’ disease, but are not specific to this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 40 - You are assisting in receiving a priority call in the Emergency Department for...

    Incorrect

    • You are assisting in receiving a priority call in the Emergency Department for a 27-year-old individual who attempted suicide by drinking insecticide. Which drug should be readily available for this patient upon arrival?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atropine

      Explanation:

      Organophosphate insecticides are highly toxic and contain cholinergic activity that can cause bradycardia. Atropine is essential in treating organophosphate poisoning as it can reverse bradycardia and overwhelming cholinergic activity. Adenosine, adrenaline, amiodarone, and amlodipine are not indicated in organophosphate poisoning as they are used for different medical conditions.

      Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning

      Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when there is an accumulation of acetylcholine in the body, leading to the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase. This, in turn, causes an upregulation of nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects. The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD, which stands for salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation/diarrhea. Other symptoms include hypotension, bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.

      The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine, which helps to counteract the effects of acetylcholine. However, the role of pralidoxime in the treatment of this condition is still unclear. Meta-analyses conducted to date have failed to show any clear benefit of pralidoxime in the management of organophosphate poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 41 - A 56-year-old woman with a 28-year history of psoriasis presents to the Dermatologist....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman with a 28-year history of psoriasis presents to the Dermatologist. Despite treatment with ciclosporin, she has multiple patches on her arms, legs and scalp, which affect her sleep and work. The Dermatologist decides to initiate biological therapy with a TNF-alpha inhibitor. The patient has a past medical history of inactive tuberculosis.
      Which TNF-alpha inhibitor is the Dermatologist likely to prescribe for the patient's severe psoriasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adalimumab

      Explanation:

      Biological Agents for the Treatment of Psoriasis

      Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the skin and joints. Biological agents have revolutionized the treatment of psoriasis by targeting specific molecules involved in the immune response. Here are some commonly used biological agents for the treatment of psoriasis:

      Adalimumab: This agent targets tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), a cytokine involved in systemic inflammation. Adalimumab is used when other systemic treatments have failed and the disease is severe.

      Brodalumab: This agent targets the interleukin 17 receptor found on CD8+ cytotoxic T cells. It is used when methotrexate or ciclosporin have failed.

      Infliximab: This agent is also a TNF-alpha inhibitor, but it has been shown to reactivate latent tuberculosis. Therefore, it should be used with caution in patients with a history of tuberculosis.

      Guselkumab: This agent targets interleukin 23, which is involved in the activation of T17 lymphocytes. It is used in the treatment of moderate to severe psoriasis.

      Secukinumab: This agent targets interleukin 17, which is found on CD8+ cytotoxic T cells. It is used in the treatment of moderate to severe psoriasis.

      Before starting any of these agents, certain criteria must be met, such as failure of other treatments and severity of the disease. Additionally, some agents may be contraindicated in patients with certain medical histories, such as a history of tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 42 - A patient presents to the Emergency Department with palpitations and weakness. The senior...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents to the Emergency Department with palpitations and weakness. The senior doctor finds the arterial blood gas is as follows:
      pH 7.5
      pO2 12.6 kPa
      pCO2 5.0 kPa
      HCO3− 35 mmol/l
      Which of the following could be the underlying cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolonged vomiting

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of metabolic alkalosis in a patient with prolonged vomiting

      Prolonged vomiting can lead to metabolic alkalosis, a condition characterized by an elevated pH and bicarbonate level in the blood. However, the underlying cause of metabolic alkalosis can vary, and a differential diagnosis is necessary to guide appropriate treatment. Here, we consider several potential diagnoses for a patient with prolonged vomiting and metabolic alkalosis, based on the available information.

      First, we note that the patient’s normal PaCO2 suggests a metabolic, rather than respiratory, cause of the alkalosis. One possible mechanism for metabolic alkalosis in this context is the loss of hydrochloric acid (HCl) and water through vomiting, which can lead to an alkaline tide and compensatory renal retention of bicarbonate. Hypokalemia may also occur as a result of renal compensation, contributing to symptoms such as palpitations and weakness.

      However, other conditions may also cause metabolic alkalosis in a patient with prolonged vomiting. For example, chronic renal failure can lead to metabolic acidosis, but vomiting may complicate the picture. In contrast, COPD is associated with respiratory acidosis, characterized by CO2 retention and a low pH, making this diagnosis unlikely in our patient. Similarly, Addison’s disease, which involves adrenal insufficiency and impaired proton excretion, would lead to metabolic acidosis rather than alkalosis.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis of metabolic alkalosis in a patient with prolonged vomiting includes several possibilities, such as loss of HCl and water, chronic renal failure, and other underlying conditions. Further evaluation and management should be guided by the specific clinical context and laboratory findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 43 - A 72-year-old man is undergoing open surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is undergoing open surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia. In theatre, the hernial sac is noted to lie medial to the inferior epigastric artery.
      To weakness of which of the following structures can the hernia best be attributed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Explanation:

      Types of Abdominal Hernias and Their Characteristics

      Abdominal hernias occur when an organ or tissue protrudes through a weak point in the abdominal wall. There are different types of abdominal hernias, each with its own characteristics and symptoms.

      Direct Inguinal Hernia

      A direct inguinal hernia occurs medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. The bowel sac is pushed directly through a weak point in the conjoint tendon, which is formed by the aponeurosis of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles. This type of hernia is more common in men and worsens with exercise, coughing, or straining.

      Aponeurosis of External Oblique

      In a direct inguinal hernia, the bowel sac does not push through the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle.

      Muscular Fibres of Internal Oblique

      A ventral hernia occurs through the muscular fibres of the anterior abdominal muscles, such as the internal oblique. It can be incisional or occur at any site of muscle weakening. Epigastric hernias occur above the umbilicus, and hypogastric hernias occur below the umbilicus.

      Muscular Fibres of Transversus Abdominis

      Another type of ventral hernia occurs through the muscular fibres of the transversus abdominis. It becomes more prominent when the patient is sitting, leaning forward, or straining. Ventral hernias can be congenital, post-operative, or spontaneous.

      Superficial Inguinal Ring

      An indirect inguinal hernia is the most common type of abdominal hernia. It occurs in men and children and arises lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The bowel sac protrudes through the deep inguinal ring into the inguinal canal and then through the superficial inguinal ring, extending into the scrotum. It may be asymptomatic but can also undergo incarceration or strangulation or lead to bowel obstruction.

      Understanding the Different Types of Abdominal Hernias

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 44 - A 30-year-old woman in the delivery room experienced a primary postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman in the delivery room experienced a primary postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) 3 hours after delivery. Following adequate resuscitation, she was assessed and diagnosed with uterine atony as the underlying cause. Pharmacological treatment was initiated, but proved ineffective. What is the most suitable initial surgical intervention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrauterine balloon tamponade

      Explanation:

      The majority of cases of postpartum hemorrhage are caused by uterine atony, while trauma, retained placenta, and coagulopathy account for the rest. According to the 2009 RCOG guidelines, if pharmacological management fails to stop bleeding and uterine atony is the perceived cause, surgical intervention should be attempted promptly. Intrauterine balloon tamponade is the recommended first-line measure for most women, but other interventions may also be considered depending on the clinical situation and available expertise. These interventions include haemostatic brace suturing, bilateral ligation of uterine arteries, bilateral ligation of internal iliac (hypogastric) arteries, selective arterial embolization, and hysterectomy.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 45 - A 5-year-old boy visited his doctor last week due to recurring nosebleeds and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy visited his doctor last week due to recurring nosebleeds and bruises on his sides. Upon examination, his clotting was found to be prolonged. The following are his test results, along with the normal ranges for a 5-year-old:
      - Hemoglobin: 80g/l (115-135)
      - Platelets: 100 * 109/l (150-450)
      - White blood cells: 10.0 * 109/l (5.0-17.0)
      - Neutrophils: 1.0 * 109/l (1.5-8.5)
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Leukaemia is the most probable diagnosis given the presence of epistaxis and bruising, along with anaemia and low platelets. The prolonged prothrombin time and low platelets suggest disseminated intravascular coagulation, which is consistent with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Acute myeloid leukaemia is unlikely due to the patient’s age. The normal white blood cell count rules out a chronic infection. Aplastic anaemia and myelodysplasia would not account for the symptoms of epistaxis and bruising.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 46 - Mrs. Smith is a 67-year-old woman who presents with worsening abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Smith is a 67-year-old woman who presents with worsening abdominal pain and nausea. She has not had a bowel movement in 5 days.

      During examination, her vital signs are as follows: O2 saturation of 97%, respiratory rate of 18, heart rate of 110, and blood pressure of 100/70. She does not have a fever.

      Upon palpation of her abdomen, there is significant guarding and she experiences pain when pressure is released. It is suspected that she has peritonism due to bowel obstruction and an urgent abdominal x-ray is ordered.

      The x-ray reveals that Mrs. Smith is suffering from large bowel obstruction caused by a sigmoid volvulus. What is the most appropriate course of treatment for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent laparotomy

      Explanation:

      If a patient with sigmoid volvulus experiences bowel obstruction accompanied by symptoms of peritonitis, it is recommended to forego flexible sigmoidoscopy and opt for urgent midline laparotomy. This is especially important if previous attempts at decompression have failed, if necrotic bowel is observed during endoscopy, or if there is suspicion or confirmation of perforation or peritonitis. Urgent laparotomy is crucial in preventing bowel necrosis or perforation.

      Understanding Volvulus: A Condition of Twisted Colon

      Volvulus is a medical condition that occurs when the colon twists around its mesenteric axis, leading to a blockage in blood flow and closed loop obstruction. Sigmoid volvulus is the most common type, accounting for around 80% of cases, and is caused by the sigmoid colon twisting on the sigmoid mesocolon. Caecal volvulus, on the other hand, occurs in around 20% of cases and is caused by the caecum twisting. This condition is more common in patients with developmental failure of peritoneal fixation of the proximal bowel.

      Sigmoid volvulus is often associated with chronic constipation, Chagas disease, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and psychiatric conditions like schizophrenia. Caecal volvulus, on the other hand, is associated with adhesions, pregnancy, and other factors. Symptoms of volvulus include constipation, abdominal bloating, abdominal pain, and nausea/vomiting.

      Diagnosis of volvulus is usually done through an abdominal film, which shows signs of large bowel obstruction alongside the coffee bean sign for sigmoid volvulus. Small bowel obstruction may be seen in caecal volvulus. Management of sigmoid volvulus involves rigid sigmoidoscopy with rectal tube insertion, while caecal volvulus usually requires operative management, with right hemicolectomy often being necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 47 - A 15-year-old girl comes to your clinic with concerns about not having started...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl comes to your clinic with concerns about not having started her menstrual cycle yet. As her physician, you decide to investigate the reason for this delay. During the physical examination, you observe that she has low set ears and a short stature. What type of murmur are you likely to detect upon auscultation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur

      Explanation:

      An ejection systolic murmur is commonly heard in individuals with Turner’s syndrome, which is often caused by a bicuspid aortic valve. Therefore, this is the most probable answer. Aortic or pulmonary regurgitation can cause early diastolic murmurs, while AV stenosis is associated with late diastolic murmurs. Late systolic murmurs are linked to mitral regurgitation, and aortic stenosis is associated with a pansystolic murmur. Given the patient’s symptoms and characteristics, it is essential to consider heart defects or murmurs that are commonly associated with Turner’s syndrome.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 48 - A 4-year-old girl, Lily, is taken to the pediatrician by her father. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl, Lily, is taken to the pediatrician by her father. He is concerned about an umbilical hernia that Lily has had since birth. He was told that it would likely go away on its own, but it has not yet resolved. The pediatrician conducts an examination and finds a 1.5 cm umbilical hernia that is easily reducible. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this, according to the guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delaying referral for elective outpatient surgical repair until 5 years of age, if still unresolved

      Explanation:

      According to medical guidelines, umbilical hernias in children usually close on their own by the age of 4-5. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age or is large and causing symptoms, surgical repair is recommended. In the case of a small hernia in a 3-year-old child, observation is appropriate until the age of 5. If the hernia becomes incarcerated, it should be manually reduced and surgically repaired within 24 hours. The use of compression therapy after surgery is not recommended. Waiting for the hernia to self-resolve after the age of 5 is not advised as it is unlikely to happen and could lead to incarceration. These recommendations are based on BMJ Best Practice guidelines.

      Umbilical Hernia in Children: Causes and Treatment

      Umbilical hernias are a common occurrence in children and are often detected during the newborn examination. This condition is characterized by a bulge or protrusion near the belly button, caused by a weakness in the abdominal muscles. While umbilical hernias can occur in any child, they are more common in Afro-Caribbean infants and those with Down’s syndrome or mucopolysaccharide storage diseases.

      Fortunately, in most cases, umbilical hernias in children do not require treatment and will resolve on their own by the age of three. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age or becomes painful, surgery may be necessary to repair the abdominal wall. It is important to monitor the hernia and seek medical attention if there are any changes in size or symptoms.

      In summary, umbilical hernias are a common condition in children that typically resolve on their own without treatment. However, certain factors such as ethnicity and underlying medical conditions may increase the likelihood of developing an umbilical hernia. Parents should be aware of the signs and symptoms of umbilical hernias and seek medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 49 - A 25-year-old man with Down syndrome is brought to see the General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with Down syndrome is brought to see the General Practitioner (GP) by his mother to discuss his acne. His mother takes care of all his medications, as he cannot understand the instructions. He lives with his parents and depends on them to do all his cooking and washing. He does not work but attends a day centre a few days per week, where he enjoys craft activities and has a number of close friends. The staff report he is always very polite and interacts well with everyone at the centre. His mother says he is unable to be left alone in the house and cannot go out on his own without the support of another adult.
      Which one of the following conditions does he have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Learning disability

      Explanation:

      The patient is unable to function independently and relies on his parents for daily care, indicating a possible diagnosis of a learning disability. This condition is defined by the Department of Health as a significant reduction in the ability to learn new skills and understand complex information, leading to a decreased ability to cope independently. Symptoms must have started before adulthood and have a lasting impact on development. Other potential diagnoses, such as ADHD, autism spectrum disorder, learning difficulty, and oppositional defiant disorder, do not fit the patient’s symptoms and behaviors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 50 - A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic for his regular follow-up of psoriasis....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic for his regular follow-up of psoriasis. He had been managing it well with phototherapy six months ago, but recently his condition has worsened. He is currently using topical calcipotriol (Dovonex), topical coal tar ointment, and topical hydromol ointment, and is taking amoxicillin for a recent respiratory infection. He is in good health otherwise.

      During the examination, he has an erythematosus rash that covers most of his torso, with widespread plaques on his limbs and neck. The rash is tender and warm, and he is shivering. There are no oral lesions. His heart rate is 101 bpm, blood pressure is 91/45 mmHg, and temperature is 37.7 °C.

      What is the most crucial next step in treating this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of Erythrodermic Psoriasis

      Erythrodermic psoriasis is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent hospital admission. This is evident in a patient presenting with a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, borderline pyrexia, and rigors. Supportive care, including IV fluids, cool wet dressings, and a systemic agent, is necessary. The choice of systemic agent depends on the patient and may involve rapid-acting therapies like ciclosporin or slower agents like methotrexate. Discontinuing amoxicillin is crucial as it can cause Stevens–Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, admission is essential in both emergency presentations. Starting ciclosporin or methotrexate orally is not appropriate without investigations. Repeat phototherapy should be avoided as it can worsen erythroderma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 51 - A 56-year-old male presents with a history of a sore area on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male presents with a history of a sore area on his tongue, which has failed to heal for over three months and is becoming increasingly bothersome. The patient is otherwise well, with a history of mild osteoarthritis of the knees, but nil else of note. He is a builder, and smokes 30 cigarettes a day for the past 30 years. He drinks around 30 units of alcohol a week.
      Following examination, the patient is referred urgently as a case of suspected cancer of the tongue.
      Which one of the following statements is correct about tongue cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may be associated with human papillomavirus (HPV)

      Explanation:

      Myth-busting: Tongue Cancer Risk Factors

      Tongue cancer is a rare form of oral carcinoma, accounting for only 2% of overall cancers. While it can be associated with human papillomavirus (HPV), there are several misconceptions about its risk factors. Contrary to popular belief, smoking and alcohol are known risk factors, while coconut ingestion is not. Betel nut ingestion, on the other hand, is associated with an increased risk of tongue cancer. It is important to note that tongue cancer usually metastasises to the upper cervical and submandibular nodes, not the lower cervical nodes. However, early detection and treatment with a combination of surgery and chemoradiotherapy can often lead to a cure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 52 - Which statement about childhood squints is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about childhood squints is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The corneal light reflection test is a suitable screening test

      Explanation:

      Both paralytic and non-paralytic squints can lead to the development of amblyopia.

      Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.

      To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.

      If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 53 - A 16-year-old girl presents with a 24-hour history of pain in the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents with a 24-hour history of pain in the right iliac fossa. A pregnancy test is negative and bloods show a raised white cell count. Her parents tell you she has had a ‘cold’ for the past week. She also began to suffer from headaches two days before the pain.
      The girl is taken to theatre for a laparoscopic appendicectomy. However, during the operation, the appendix is found to be completely normal.
      How should the surgical team proceed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Remove the appendix anyway

      Explanation:

      Mesenteric Lymphadenitis and the Role of Appendicectomy

      Mesenteric lymphadenitis is a common condition in children and adolescents that causes inflammation of the lymph nodes in the mesentery. It is typically associated with a recent cold or infection, and can present with abdominal pain, fever, and a raised white cell count. While it can be difficult to diagnose, it responds well to antibiotics.

      In some cases, mesenteric lymphadenitis can mimic the symptoms of acute appendicitis, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. In such cases, even if the appendix appears normal, it may be beneficial to remove it anyway. This can prevent the patient from developing acute appendicitis in the future, which can be life-threatening if it ruptures prior to hospitalization. Additionally, removing the appendix can protect the patient from certain cancers that originate in the appendix.

      While a laparotomy may be necessary to explore the rest of the abdomen in some cases, a skilled surgeon can often rule out other causes of pain laparoscopically. It is important to consider the possibility of mesenteric lymphadenitis when working through the differential diagnosis of right iliac fossa pain.

      In conclusion, mesenteric lymphadenitis is a common condition that can mimic the symptoms of acute appendicitis. While it can be difficult to diagnose, it responds well to antibiotics. In cases where the appendix appears normal, it may still be beneficial to remove it to prevent future complications. A skilled surgeon can often explore the abdomen laparoscopically to rule out other causes of pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 54 - A 68-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She experiences stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and has difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She also has constant pain in her arms, shoulders, and jaw when chewing. She has lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, she has tenderness with reduced mobility in the proximal muscles of her arms and legs. Her investigations reveal a low Hb, high WCC, and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal arthritis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is a condition that can cause a variety of symptoms. It may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as muscle pain and stiffness, or arthritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. Systemic features like fever, malaise, and weight loss may also be present. Weakness is not a typical feature, but it may be apparent due to pain or stiffness with weight loss. The ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is usually very high in this condition.

      Temporal arthritis is a serious complication of this condition that can result in blindness. It is important to note that temporal arthritis is a vasculitis that affects medium and large-sized arteries throughout the body, not just the temporal artery. The superficial temporal artery supplies the orbit of the eye and is a branch of the external carotid artery, while the ophthalmic artery supplies the majority of the blood to the eye itself and is a branch of the internal carotid artery. Inflammation and narrowing of the temporal artery can cause blindness.

      If temporal arthritis is suspected, it must be treated with high-dose steroids. This condition is a reminder that prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 55 - A 50-year-old male patient complains of a painful swelling at the back of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male patient complains of a painful swelling at the back of his elbow, without any history of injury. Upon examination, an erythematosus and tender swelling is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olecranon bursitis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Elbow Pain

      Elbow pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own characteristic features. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. Pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years, with acute pain lasting for 6-12 weeks.

      Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle. Pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and symptoms may be accompanied by numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement.

      Radial tunnel syndrome is most commonly due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve, and is thought to be a result of overuse. Symptoms are similar to lateral epicondylitis, but the pain tends to be around 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm.

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Initially, patients may experience intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger, which may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods. Later, numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness may occur.

      Olecranon bursitis is characterized by swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, with associated pain, warmth, and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients. Understanding the characteristic features of these conditions can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 56 - You encounter a 36-year-old woman during her antenatal check-up. She has recently undergone...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 36-year-old woman during her antenatal check-up. She has recently undergone an anomaly scan and is undergoing a routine review. During the consultation, she expresses her concern about not feeling any fetal movement yet, despite experiencing it by 18 weeks gestation in her previous pregnancies.
      At what point in her gestation would it be appropriate to refer her to the maternal fetal medicine unit for further evaluation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 weeks

      Explanation:

      Referral to a maternal fetal medicine unit is recommended if fetal movements have not been felt by 24 weeks, as reduced movements can be a sign of fetal distress and hypoxia. While most women feel their babies move around 18-20 weeks, it can happen earlier in some cases. Although singular episodes of reduced movements may not be harmful, they can also indicate stillbirths and restricted growth. The absence of movements is particularly concerning and requires further investigation. The RCOG has set the 24 week cut off as a guideline.

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 57 - A 30-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after being involved in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after being involved in an altercation, during which he was stabbed in his lower back. On examination, he has right leg weakness in all muscle groups. Further examination reveals that he has loss of vibration and proprioception on the same side. In his left leg, there is loss of pain and temperature sensation, but preserved motor strength. He has no problems with bladder or bowel retention. His motor strength is preserved in his upper limbs.
      With which one of the following spinal cord syndromes is his presentation consistent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hemisection of the cord

      Explanation:

      Overview of Spinal Cord Syndromes

      Spinal cord syndromes are a group of neurological disorders that affect the spinal cord and its associated nerves. These syndromes can be caused by various factors, including trauma, infection, and degenerative diseases. Here are some of the most common spinal cord syndromes:

      Hemisection of the Cord (Brown-Sequard Syndrome)
      This syndrome is characterized by ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, as well as ipsilateral hemiplegia. On the other hand, there is contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Hemisection of the cord is usually caused by a stab injury.

      Central Cord Syndrome
      Central cord syndrome causes bilateral weakness of the limbs, with the upper limbs being more affected than the lower extremities. This is because the upper limbs are represented medially in the corticospinal tracts.

      Anterior Cord Syndrome
      In anterior cord syndrome, proprioception, vibratory sense, and light touch are preserved. However, there is bilateral weakness and loss of pain and temperature sensation due to involvement of the spinothalamic tracts.

      Posterior Cord Syndrome
      Posterior cord syndrome is characterized by loss of vibratory sense and proprioception below the level of the lesion, as well as total sensory loss at the level of the lesion.

      Cauda Equina Syndrome
      Cauda equina syndrome is caused by compressive lesions at L4/L5 or L5/S1. Symptoms include asymmetric weakness, saddle anesthesia, decreased reflexes at the knee, and radicular pain. Bowel and bladder retention may develop as late complications.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of spinal cord syndromes is crucial in diagnosing and treating patients with neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 58 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerning symptoms that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerning symptoms that have been occurring on and off for the past few months. She reports experiencing episodes of weakness accompanied by rapid, involuntary movements of her arms. Additionally, she has been experiencing persistent tingling sensations, occasional double vision, electric shocks down her arms and trunk when she flexes her neck, and constipation. Based on these symptoms, what would be the most appropriate initial test to diagnose her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Multiple Sclerosis: The Importance of MRI

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a debilitating disease that affects many individuals, particularly women. Symptoms can range from spastic weakness to loss of vision, making it difficult to diagnose. However, the first line investigation for somebody with MS is an MRI of the brain and spinal cord. This is because MRI is much more sensitive for picking up inflammation and demyelination than a CT scan, and it does not involve irradiation. Additionally, lumbar puncture can be used to detect IgG oligoclonal bands, which are not present in the serum. While other tests such as antibody testing and slit-lamp examination of the eyes may be useful, they are not first line investigations. It is important to diagnose MS early to prevent further damage to myelin sheaths and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 59 - A 2-year-old presents with a 5-day history of high fever and coryza. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old presents with a 5-day history of high fever and coryza. His parents bring him to clinic with a rash that started today on his chest and has now spread to his arms. He has been off his food for the last 48 hours, but his fever has settled. On examination, he is apyrexial. Other vital signs are normal. He is alert and responsive. He has cervical lymphadenopathy, with enlarged red tonsils but no pus. Both tympanic membranes are slightly pink. His chest is clear. He has a pink blanching maculopapular rash to his torso and arms.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Roseola infantum

      Explanation:

      Common Childhood Infections and Their Symptoms

      Roseola Infantum, Glandular Fever, Parvovirus Infection, Scarlet Fever, and Meningococcal Septicaemia are some of the common childhood infections that parents should be aware of.

      Roseola Infantum is caused by herpesvirus 6 and is characterized by high fever lasting for 3-5 days, followed by a rash on the body. Glandular Fever, caused by Epstein-Barr virus, presents with general malaise, sore throat, fever, and abdominal pain. Parvovirus Infection causes erythema infectiosum, with a rash starting on the cheeks and spreading to the limbs. Scarlet Fever, associated with Streptococcus pyogenes, presents with a sandpaper-like rash on the neck, chest, and trunk, and a red, strawberry-like tongue. Meningococcal Septicaemia is characterized by a haemorrhagic, non-blanching rash or purpura found all over the body.

      It is important for parents to be aware of the symptoms of these infections and seek medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 60 - A 70-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus presents to the Emergency Department....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus presents to the Emergency Department. She was found to be confused at home by her son. According to her son, the patient is independent and able to take care of herself. On examination she has a temperature of 38.1 °C. Her blood pressure is 136/74 mmHg, and her heart rate is 110 bpm. She is disorientated and not able to provide any history. Physical examination is unremarkable except for tenderness elicited at the right lower back.
      Urine dipstick results are shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Colour Turbid Clear
      pH 6.7 7.35–7.45
      Glucose 2+ Negative
      Bilirubin Negative Negative
      Ketone 1+ Negative
      Nitrite 2+ Negative
      Leukocytes 3+ Negative
      Blood 1+ Negative
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute pyelonephritis

      Explanation:

      Pyelonephritis is an infection of the upper urinary tract system, including the kidney and ureter. Symptoms include fever, chills, flank pain, and costovertebral angle tenderness. Elderly patients may present with confusion, delirium, or urinary retention/incontinence. Positive nitrite and leukocytes in the urine suggest a urinary infection, while glucose and ketones may indicate chronic diabetes or starvation. Cystitis, a bladder infection, presents with dysuria, urinary frequency, urgency, and suprapubic tenderness. Renal stones cause dull pain at the costovertebral angle and positive blood on urine dipstick, but negative leukocytes and nitrites. Acute appendicitis in an elderly patient may be difficult to diagnose, but costovertebral angle tenderness and a positive urine dipstick suggest pyelonephritis. Prolapsed intervertebral disc causes chronic back pain and leg symptoms, but does not typically cause fever or delirium, and the tenderness is specific to pyelonephritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 61 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic 8 weeks after her last menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic 8 weeks after her last menstrual period with complaints of severe nausea, vomiting, and vaginal spotting. Upon examination, she is found to be pregnant and a transvaginal ultrasound reveals an abnormally enlarged uterus. What would be the expected test results for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High beta hCG, low TSH, high thyroxine

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described in this question are indicative of a molar pregnancy. To answer this question correctly, a basic understanding of physiology is necessary. Molar pregnancies are characterized by abnormally high levels of beta hCG for the stage of pregnancy, which serves as a tumor marker for gestational trophoblastic disease. Beta hCG has a similar biochemical structure to luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). Consequently, elevated levels of beta hCG can stimulate the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), leading to symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. High levels of T4 and T3 negatively impact the pituitary gland, reducing TSH levels overall.
      Sources:
      Best Practice- Molar Pregnancy
      Medscape- Hydatidiform Mole Workup

      Gestational trophoblastic disorders refer to a range of conditions that originate from the placental trophoblast. These disorders include complete hydatidiform mole, partial hydatidiform mole, and choriocarcinoma. Complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, resulting in all 46 chromosomes being of paternal origin. Symptoms of this disorder include bleeding in the first or early second trimester, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, a uterus that is large for dates, and very high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the serum. Hypertension and hyperthyroidism may also be present. Urgent referral to a specialist center is necessary, and evacuation of the uterus is performed. Effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months, as around 2-3% of cases may develop choriocarcinoma.

      Partial hydatidiform mole, on the other hand, occurs when a normal haploid egg is fertilized by two sperms or by one sperm with duplication of the paternal chromosomes. As a result, the DNA is both maternal and paternal in origin, and the fetus may have triploid chromosomes, such as 69 XXX or 69 XXY. Fetal parts may also be visible. It is important to note that hCG can mimic thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), which may lead to hyperthyroidism.

      In summary, gestational trophoblastic disorders are a group of conditions that arise from the placental trophoblast. Complete hydatidiform mole and partial hydatidiform mole are two types of these disorders. While complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, partial hydatidiform mole occurs when a normal haploid egg is fertilized by two sperms or by one sperm with duplication of the paternal chromosomes. It is important to seek urgent medical attention and effective contraception to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 62 - A 28-year-old patient presents with a lump in the neck. On examination, there...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with a lump in the neck. On examination, there is a 2-cm smooth, round lump at the anterior border of the upper third of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Branchial cyst

      Explanation:

      Common Neck Swellings and Their Characteristics

      There are several types of neck swellings that can occur, each with their own unique characteristics. Here are some common neck swellings and their descriptions:

      1. Branchial cyst – This type of cyst typically appears as a painless, smooth swelling in young adults. The cause is unknown, but surgical removal is usually recommended to prevent the development of an abscess.

      2. Goitre – A goitre, or thyroid lump, is a swelling that rises on swallowing and is usually located in the midline of the neck.

      3. Acute parotitis – This condition presents as a painful swelling in front of the ear.

      4. Cystic hygroma – These benign cystic structures are typically found in infants and are located in the posterior triangle of the neck.

      5. Thyroglossal cyst – This type of cyst is located in the midline of the neck and moves as the tongue protrudes.

      It is important to seek medical attention if you notice any unusual swelling in your neck, as some of these conditions may require treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 63 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with a painful and swollen right...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with a painful and swollen right leg that has been bothering her for the past three days. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis in the same leg ten years ago after returning from her honeymoon in Australia. Additionally, she was treated for pleurisy three years ago by her general practitioner. She has been experiencing recurrent water infections for the past two years, with intermittent bouts of flank pain and dark urine in the morning. Her general practitioner has recently investigated this issue, but the ultrasound scan of her renal tract and intravenous pyelogram were normal. She works as a cashier in a building society and lives with her husband and two children. She does not have a recent history of travel, but she smokes 10 cigarettes daily and occasionally drinks alcohol. On examination, her right calf is swollen, red, and tender, but she appears otherwise well. Her blood tests show low hemoglobin, white cell count, and platelets, as well as elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

      Explanation:

      Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria: A Clonal Defect of Red Cells

      Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) is a condition where red blood cells have an increased susceptibility to lysis by complement due to an acquired clonal defect. This disorder typically presents in young adults and is often associated with other stem cell disorders, such as aplastic anaemia. The classic symptom of PNH is the intermittent passage of bloody urine, which tends to occur more frequently at night for unknown reasons. Diagnosis is often made through investigation of anaemia, pancytopenia, or recurrent thrombotic episodes, which are likely caused by complement-induced platelet aggregation. Flow cytometry can confirm the diagnosis by demonstrating a lack of erythrocyte membrane proteins CD59 and decay accelerating factor (DAF).

      Overall, PNH is a rare but serious condition that can lead to significant complications if left untreated. Early diagnosis and management are crucial for improving outcomes and preventing further damage to the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 64 - A 35-year-old man who is an accountant presents with complaints of fainting spells,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man who is an accountant presents with complaints of fainting spells, dizziness, palpitations and pressure in his chest. He experiences these symptoms for 5-10 minutes during which he becomes anxious about fainting and dying. He takes a longer route to work to avoid crossing busy streets as he fears getting hit by a car if he faints. He avoids public speaking and works late into the night from home, which exacerbates his symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Panic disorder with agoraphobia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Panic Disorder from Other Conditions

      Panic disorder is a mental health condition characterized by intense anxiety episodes with somatic symptoms and an exaggerated sense of danger. However, it can be challenging to distinguish panic disorder from other conditions that share similar symptoms. Here are some examples:

      Panic Disorder vs. Somatisation Disorder

      Patients with somatisation disorder also experience physical symptoms, but they fall into four different clusters: pain, gastrointestinal, urogenital, and neurological dysfunction. In contrast, panic disorder symptoms are more generalized and not limited to specific bodily functions.

      Panic Disorder vs. Hypoglycemia

      Hypoglycemia rarely induces severe panic or anticipatory anxiety, except in cases of insulin reactions. Patients with hypoglycemia typically experience symptoms such as sweating and hunger, which are not necessarily associated with panic disorder.

      Panic Disorder vs. Paroxysmal Atrial Tachycardia

      Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia is a heart condition that causes a doubling of the pulse rate and requires electrocardiographic evidence for diagnosis. While it may cause some anxiety, it is not typically accompanied by the intense subjective anxiety seen in panic disorder.

      Panic Disorder vs. Specific Phobia

      Specific phobias involve reactions to limited cues or situations, such as spiders, blood, or needles. While they may trigger panic attacks and avoidance, they are not as generalized as panic disorder and are limited to specific feared situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 65 - You are consulting with a family whose daughter has been referred due to...

    Incorrect

    • You are consulting with a family whose daughter has been referred due to suspected learning difficulties. Whilst talking to her parents, you notice that she has a friendly and sociable personality. You begin to wonder if she might have William's syndrome.

      What physical characteristic would be the strongest indicator of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elfin facies

      Explanation:

      William’s syndrome is linked to unique physical characteristics such as elfin facies, a broad forehead, strabismus, and short stature. It is important to note that Klinefelter’s syndrome is characterized by a tall and slender stature. Edward’s syndrome is associated with rocker-bottom feet, while foetal alcohol syndrome is linked to a flattened philtrum. Turner’s syndrome and Noonan’s syndrome are associated with webbing of the neck. Individuals with William’s syndrome often have an elongated, not flat philtrum.

      Understanding William’s Syndrome

      William’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects neurodevelopment and is caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 7. The condition is characterized by a range of physical and cognitive features, including elfin-like facies, short stature, and learning difficulties. Individuals with William’s syndrome also tend to have a very friendly and social demeanor, which is a hallmark of the condition. Other common symptoms include transient neonatal hypercalcaemia and supravalvular aortic stenosis.

      Diagnosis of William’s syndrome is typically made through FISH studies, which can detect the microdeletion on chromosome 7. While there is no cure for the condition, early intervention and support can help individuals with William’s syndrome to manage their symptoms and lead fulfilling lives. With a better understanding of this disorder, we can work towards improving the lives of those affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 66 - A 52-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain, fever and weight loss. Abdominal imaging...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain, fever and weight loss. Abdominal imaging revealed multiple retroperitoneal lymph nodes. She was diagnosed with intestinal tuberculosis and received a full drug regimen for six months. However, after completion of treatment, her symptoms remain. She presents to us with a body weight of 38 kg. There is angular stomatitis and diffuse loss of hair. She looks tanned. Repeat abdominal imaging reveals persistence of the lymph nodes. Her son, who accompanied her, complains that his mother is becoming listless and she has even given up her favourite hobby of Sudoku. She also has a few involuntary movements of her face, such as chewing.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Whipple’s disease

      Explanation:

      Whipple’s Disease: A Multisystem Disorder with Malabsorption and Cognitive Decline

      This patient presents with iron deficiency, abdominal lymphadenopathy, hyperpigmentation, and cognitive decline. Despite treatment for tuberculosis, there has been no improvement. These symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of Whipple’s disease, a multisystem disorder caused by infection with Tropheryma whipplei. Malabsorption with abdominal lymphadenopathy is a common manifestation, and extraintestinal symptoms can include cognitive decline with facial involuntary movements, arthritis, hyperpigmentation, retinitis, and endocarditis. HIV dementia, prion disease, Huntington’s chorea, and coeliac disease are all ruled out based on the patient’s clinical presentation and lack of risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 67 - A 32-year-old woman visits the GP clinic with her partner as they are...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits the GP clinic with her partner as they are facing difficulty in conceiving. Despite having regular sexual intercourse for a year, they have not been successful. What would be the initial investigation recommended in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Day 21 progesterone

      Explanation:

      If a woman of reproductive age has been having unprotected vaginal sexual intercourse for a year without conceiving and there is no known cause of infertility, NICE guidance recommends that she and her partner undergo further clinical assessment and investigation. The most appropriate initial investigation for this patient is a day 21 progesterone test, which is non-invasive and can determine if the patient is ovulating. Serum prolactin and thyroid function tests are not recommended unless there is a specific reason for testing, such as a pituitary tumor or overt thyroid disease. Transvaginal or abdominal ultrasounds are unlikely to reveal the cause of subfertility and are therefore not necessary. As part of the initial assessment, the male partner should also undergo a semen analysis.

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 68 - A 10-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department following a fall from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department following a fall from a swing, landing on her outstretched right hand. She is experiencing wrist pain and has difficulty moving it. The X-ray report shows:
      Fracture of the distal radius affecting the growth plate and the distal part of the diaphysis, without involvement of the distal epiphysis.
      What Salter-Harris fracture type is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Paediatric Fractures and Pathological Conditions

      Paediatric fractures can be classified into different types based on the injury pattern. Complete fractures occur when both sides of the cortex are breached, while greenstick fractures only have a unilateral cortical breach. Buckle or torus fractures result in incomplete cortical disruption, leading to a periosteal haematoma. Growth plate fractures are also common in paediatric practice and are classified according to the Salter-Harris system. Injuries of Types III, IV, and V usually require surgery and may be associated with disruption to growth.

      Non-accidental injury is a concern in paediatric fractures, especially when there is a delay in presentation, lack of concordance between proposed and actual mechanism of injury, multiple injuries, injuries at sites not commonly exposed to trauma, or when children are on the at-risk register. Pathological fractures may also occur due to genetic conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta, which is characterized by defective osteoid formation and failure of collagen maturation in all connective tissues. Osteopetrosis is another pathological condition where bones become harder and more dense, and radiology reveals a lack of differentiation between the cortex and the medulla, described as marble bone.

      Overall, paediatric fractures and pathological conditions require careful evaluation and management to ensure optimal outcomes for the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 69 - Sophie is a 16-year-old girl who is admitted with abdominal pain. An ultrasound...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 16-year-old girl who is admitted with abdominal pain. An ultrasound scan report comes back with findings consistent with appendicitis. Her parents do not want her to undergo surgery.

      Sophie appears to be a mature and intelligent young woman and is currently in a stable condition. After extensive discussions with her parents and the surgical team, Sophie expresses her desire to undergo surgery. However, her parents are unhappy with her decision and threaten to sue the hospital if she goes through with the operation.

      What is the appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obtain written consent for appendicectomy from Jessica and take her to theatre

      Explanation:

      Jessica is deemed to have Gillick competence by the medical team, as she is a bright young woman who has thoroughly discussed the situation and appears to comprehend it. Therefore, she can provide consent for the procedure, even if her parents disagree. As she is stable, written consent should be obtained instead of verbal consent, which could be used in an emergency. It is not advisable to try and persuade her parents of the advantages of surgery, as this could delay her treatment. If Jessica has given her own valid consent, there is no need to wait for her parents’ decision. According to GMC’s 0-18 years guidance, parents cannot override the competent consent of a young person for treatment that is deemed to be in their best interests. However, parental consent can be relied upon when a child lacks the capacity to provide consent.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 70 - You have been requested to evaluate a 40-year-old man who recently underwent a...

    Incorrect

    • You have been requested to evaluate a 40-year-old man who recently underwent a cholecystectomy with general anaesthesia. Although the procedure was uneventful, he has developed vomiting, headache, and flank pain. Upon examination, he displays weakness in his limbs, a capillary refill time of 6 seconds, and a blood pressure of 98/43 mmHg. His 8am cortisol level is 1.5µg/dL (normal range: 10-20µg/dL), and his ACTH level is 140ng/dL (normal range: >100ng/dL). What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Etomidate

      Explanation:

      Etomidate is a medication that enhances the activity of GABAa receptors and is often preferred for patients with heart problems due to its lower risk of causing low blood pressure compared to other drugs like propofol and thiopental. However, it can lead to adrenal suppression and should not be used in patients with hypocortisolism.

      Isoflurane is a liquid anesthetic that can be used to induce and maintain anesthesia, but it may cause heart problems and malignant hyperthermia, making it unsuitable for patients with a history of cardiac issues.

      Nitrous oxide is a safe option for maintaining anesthesia in this case, but it should be avoided in pregnant patients during their first trimester or those with certain injuries like pneumothorax.

      Propofol is likely to be used to induce general anesthesia in this case and has the added benefit of reducing the risk of postoperative vomiting.

      Overview of General Anaesthetics

      General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.

      Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.

      It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 71 - A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of constipation and back...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of constipation and back pain for the past 6 months. Her husband, who accompanies her, also mentions that she has been acting strangely during this time. On examination, a nodule is found in the patient's neck, just left of the midline. Further investigations reveal an elevated parathyroid hormone level and abnormal levels of various electrolytes. The patient undergoes surgery and subsequently develops hoarseness. What is the most probable cause of the patient's voice change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Effects of Nerve Damage on Laryngeal Function

      Hypercalcaemia and Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Hypercalcaemia, often caused by parathyroid adenoma, can lead to transection of the recurrent laryngeal nerve during surgical removal of the adenoma. This can result in hoarseness.

      External Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Transection of the external laryngeal nerve can affect the cricothyroid muscle, leading to difficulty in increasing the pitch of one’s voice.

      Internal Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Damage to the internal laryngeal nerve can impair sensation in the pharynx above the vocal cords, but it does not cause hoarseness.

      Spinal Accessory Nerve Damage
      Damage to the spinal accessory nerve can impair shoulder shrugging and head rotation.

      Vagus Nerve Damage
      Damage to the vagus nerve can cause widespread effects involving autonomic dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 72 - A 29-year-old female comes to the emergency department complaining of vaginal bleeding and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female comes to the emergency department complaining of vaginal bleeding and right lower quadrant abdominal pain. The pain worsens with movement and extends to her right shoulder. She has no gastrointestinal symptoms and her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. A pregnancy test confirms she is pregnant. What is a potential risk factor for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis increases the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy, which is evident from the lower abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, absence of gastrointestinal symptoms, and positive pregnancy test in this case. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, and endometriosis can cause scar tissue and adhesions that hinder the zygote’s journey to the uterus. The use of combined oral contraceptive pills or emergency hormonal contraception does not elevate the risk of ectopic pregnancy, as per NICE guidelines. However, a history of previous ectopic pregnancies is associated with an increased risk.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: Incidence and Risk Factors

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes. This condition is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention. According to epidemiological studies, ectopic pregnancy occurs in approximately 0.5% of all pregnancies.

      Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy. These include damage to the fallopian tubes due to pelvic inflammatory disease or surgery, a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, the use of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs), and the progesterone-only pill. In vitro fertilization (IVF) also increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy, with approximately 3% of IVF pregnancies resulting in ectopic implantation.

      It is important to note that any factor that slows down the passage of the fertilized egg to the uterus can increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Early detection and prompt treatment are crucial in managing this condition and preventing serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 73 - A 19-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He was prescribed haloperidol,...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He was prescribed haloperidol, but after two weeks, he was discovered to be confused and drowsy. Upon examination, he was found to have a fever of 40.7°C, rigid muscles, and a blood pressure of 200/100 mmHg. What treatment would you recommend in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dantrolene

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a serious medical condition that is commonly caused by potent neuroleptics. Its major features include rigidity, altered mental state, autonomic dysfunction, fever, and high creatinine kinase. The condition can lead to potential complications such as rhabdomyolysis and acute renal failure.

      The treatment of choice for NMS is dantrolene and bromocriptine. However, withdrawal of neuroleptic treatment is mandatory to prevent further complications. It is important to note that NMS can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention. Therefore, it is crucial to recognize the symptoms and seek medical help as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 74 - A 70-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He also...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He also notes he has been bruising more easily of late. He is noted to be in sinus tachycardia but otherwise is haemodynamically stable. Examination reveals conjunctival pallor and hepatosplenomegaly. No definite lymphadenopathy is palpable. A full blood count is performed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 69 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 0.7 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets 14 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Blood film is reported as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped erythrocytes. A bone marrow aspirate is attempted, but this is unsuccessful.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myelofibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Myelofibrosis: A Comparison with Other Bone Marrow Disorders

      Myelofibrosis is a rare disorder that primarily affects older patients. It is characterized by bone marrow failure, which can also be found in other diseases such as advanced prostate cancer, acute lymphoblastic leukemia, acute myelocytic leukemia, and chronic myeloid leukemia. However, myelofibrosis can be distinguished from these other disorders by specific diagnostic clues.

      One of the key diagnostic features of myelofibrosis is the presence of a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells, which is also seen in advanced prostate cancer. However, in myelofibrosis, a failed bone marrow aspirate, or dry tap, is frequent and a bone marrow trephine biopsy is needed for diagnosis. This is not the case in other bone marrow disorders.

      Myelofibrosis is caused by the proliferation of megakaryocytes, which leads to intense bone marrow fibrosis, marrow failure, and secondary hepatosplenomegaly due to extramedullary hematopoiesis. Patients may present with systemic upset, symptoms of marrow failure, or abdominal discomfort from hepatosplenomegaly. Treatment is supportive, with bone marrow transplant reserved for younger patients. The median survival is 4-5 years, and transformation to acute myeloid leukemia is relatively common.

      In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukemia is a disease of childhood that presents with elevated white cell count and blasts on peripheral blood film. Acute myelocytic leukemia and chronic myeloid leukemia both present with raised white cell counts and blasts on blood film, but are more common in younger patients. Advanced prostate cancer may cause bone marrow failure if there is replacement of enough bone marrow by metastases, but patients would also complain of bone pain.

      In summary, while bone marrow failure may be found in various diseases, specific diagnostic clues such as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells and a failed bone marrow aspirate can help distinguish myelofibrosis from other bone marrow disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 75 - A 50-year-old man is worried about pain control during his upcoming radical prostatectomy....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is worried about pain control during his upcoming radical prostatectomy. The consultant goes over various options, including general and regional anesthesia. What is a definite reason to avoid using regional anesthesia, such as spinal, epidural, or plexus block?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Concurrent administration of therapeutic dose of warfarin

      Explanation:

      The use of regional anesthesia is not recommended for patients undergoing therapeutic anticoagulation due to the potential risk of bleeding and the severity of hematoma formation within the central nervous system. To prepare for surgery, warfarin is typically discontinued five days prior and replaced with a Low Molecular Weight Heparin, with the dosage determined by the individual’s thrombosis risk stratification (such as CHADs score or time from pulmonary embolism). Additionally, the patient’s INR should be monitored and ideally kept below 1.4, while also ensuring there are no other coagulation abnormalities present.

      Pain management can be achieved through various methods, including the use of analgesic drugs and local anesthetics. The World Health Organisation (WHO) recommends a stepwise approach to pain management, starting with peripherally acting drugs such as paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). If pain control is not achieved, weak opioid drugs such as codeine or dextropropoxyphene can be introduced, followed by strong opioids such as morphine as a final option. Local anesthetics can also be used to provide pain relief, either through infiltration of a wound or blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves.

      For acute pain management, the World Federation of Societies of Anaesthesiologists (WFSA) recommends a similar approach, starting with strong analgesics in combination with local anesthetic blocks and peripherally acting drugs. The use of strong opioids may no longer be required once the oral route can be used to deliver analgesia, and peripherally acting agents and weak opioids can be used instead. The final step is when pain can be controlled by peripherally acting agents alone.

      Local anesthetics can be administered through infiltration of a wound with a long-acting agent such as Bupivacaine, providing several hours of pain relief. Blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves can also provide selective analgesia, either for surgery or postoperative pain relief. Spinal and epidural anesthesia are other options, with spinal anesthesia providing excellent analgesia for lower body surgery and epidural anesthesia providing continuous infusion of analgesic agents. Transversus Abdominal Plane block (TAP) is a technique that uses ultrasound to identify the correct muscle plane and injects local anesthetic to block spinal nerves, providing a wide field of blockade without the need for indwelling devices.

      Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA) allows patients to administer their own intravenous analgesia and titrate the dose to their own end-point of pain relief using a microprocessor-controlled pump. Opioids such as morphine and pethidine are commonly used, but caution is advised due to potential side effects and toxicity. Non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and NSAIDs can also be used, with NSAIDs being more useful for superficial pain and having relative contraindications for certain medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 76 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman is recuperating from cavernous venous sinus thrombosis. The wall...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman is recuperating from cavernous venous sinus thrombosis. The wall of the sinus has impacted all nerves passing through it.
      What is the most prominent clinical indication of cranial nerve impairment caused by this pathological condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ipsilateral corneal reflex absent

      Explanation:

      Trigeminal Nerve Dysfunction and its Effects on Facial and Oral Function

      The trigeminal nerve is responsible for carrying sensory and motor information from the face and oral cavity to the brain. Dysfunction of this nerve can lead to various symptoms affecting facial and oral function.

      One common symptom is the absence of the ipsilateral corneal reflex, which is carried by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. Damage to this nerve interrupts the reflex arc of the corneal reflex.

      Another symptom is the inability to resist forced lateral mandibular excursion with the mouth partially open. This is due to damage to the pterygoid muscles, which are innervated by the motor fibers in the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.

      Loss of sensation over the lower lip is also a result of trigeminal nerve dysfunction. The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve carries general somatic afferent nerves from the lower lip.

      Similarly, loss of somatic sensation over the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is also carried by the trigeminal nerve.

      Lastly, the facial nerve innervates the buccinator muscle, which is responsible for the ability to blow out the cheeks. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to perform this action.

      Overall, dysfunction of the trigeminal nerve can have significant effects on facial and oral function, highlighting the importance of this nerve in everyday activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 77 - A 55-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease presents with an acutely painful joint....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease presents with an acutely painful joint. The joint is red and swollen upon examination. The patient reports waking up with the pain, which has worsened to a 9/10 severity throughout the day. Despite taking simple analgesia, the pain has not improved.

      The patient's vital signs are as follows:
      - Heart rate: 115 bpm
      - Blood pressure: 120/56 mmHg
      - Respiratory rate: 21
      - Oxygen saturation: 98%
      - Temperature: 39.1°C

      Based on the symptoms, what is the most likely joint affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Knee

      Explanation:

      Septic arthritis is most commonly found in the knee joint in adults.

      The symptoms described in the scenario, such as acute swelling, pain, redness, and fever, are indicative of septic arthritis. In adults, the knee joint is the most frequently affected site for this condition. The patient’s systemic illness rules out gout as a possible diagnosis, which typically presents differently and is less common in females. Pseudogout, which is more common in women and can also affect the knee joint, is another possible differential diagnosis. However, given the patient’s overall presentation, septic arthritis is the most likely diagnosis. Ankle joint septic arthritis is possible but less common, while the base of the big toe is more commonly associated with acute gout attacks. Although septic arthritis can affect large joints like the hip, the knee joint is still the most commonly affected site in adults.

      Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.

      To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 78 - You are advising a 35-year-old woman with major depressive disorder who is contemplating...

    Incorrect

    • You are advising a 35-year-old woman with major depressive disorder who is contemplating electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
      What is a temporary side effect of this treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac arrhythmias

      Explanation:

      Knowing the side effects of ECT is crucial as it is a treatment that is often viewed with apprehension by the public. ECT is typically used to treat depression that is resistant to other treatments, as well as severe mania and catatonic schizophrenia. While it was once a feared treatment due to its use of high strengths and lack of anesthesia, it is now considered to be a relatively safe intervention. Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, memory problems, and cardiac arrhythmias. There are few long-term effects, although some patients may experience long-term memory issues. ECT is used to treat mania and is being studied as a potential treatment for Parkinson’s disease. It induces a generalized seizure but is not associated with epilepsy or glaucoma.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.

      Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.

      Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 79 - Which of the following is the least likely to worsen bronchospasm in severe...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least likely to worsen bronchospasm in severe asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alfentanil

      Explanation:

      Safe and Unsafe Medications for Asthmatics

      Alfentanil is a type of painkiller that belongs to the opioid family. It is commonly used during the induction of anesthesia and is considered safe for asthmatics. Adenosine, on the other hand, is a medication that can cause wheezing and bronchospasm, making it unsuitable for asthmatics. It can also cause other unpleasant side effects and is therefore contraindicated.

      Diclofenac is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that should not be given to patients with a history of asthma or those whose symptoms have worsened following aspirin. This is because it can trigger an asthma attack and worsen the symptoms. Labetalol, a beta-blocker, is also contraindicated for asthmatics.

      Morphine is another medication that should be used with caution in asthmatics. It can release histamine, which can make bronchospasm worse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 80 - A 6-month-old boy is brought to the paediatrics emergency department by his parents....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy is brought to the paediatrics emergency department by his parents. His parents report that he has had a fever for 2 days with reduced activity and feeding. On examination, he is not smiling, his respiratory rate is 50 breaths/minute (normal range: 30-60 breaths/minute) and his heart rate is 155 beats/minute (100-160 beats/minute). He also has reduced skin turgor and looks pale. A nurse looks up the NICE traffic light system to identify his risk of serious illness.
      What is the most concerning symptom in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced skin turgor

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE traffic light system, reduced skin turgor is a red flag symptom in children. This system is used to identify the risk of serious illness in children. Decreased activity is considered an amber symptom, while age <6 months is not a red flag symptom. Age 3-6 months with a temperature of >=39ºC is an amber flag symptom, and age <3 months with a temperature of >=38°C is a red flag symptom. A respiratory rate of >60 breaths/minute is also a red flag symptom. Finally, a heart rate of >160 beats/minute in children under 12 months is an amber flag symptom.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.

      The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 81 - A 30-year-old female comes to her primary care physician complaining of asymmetrical oligoarthritis...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female comes to her primary care physician complaining of asymmetrical oligoarthritis mainly affecting her lower limbs, accompanied by dysuria and conjunctivitis. She is typically healthy except for experiencing a bout of diarrhea a month ago.

      What would be the initial recommended treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NSAID

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, also known as Reiter’s syndrome, can be effectively treated with NSAIDs if there are no contraindications. The patient’s presentation of asymmetrical oligoarthritis with accompanying dysuria and conjunctivitis, following a recent diarrhoea illness, is a classic indication of this condition. Reactive arthritis is typically caused by exposure to certain gastrointestinal and genitourinary infections, with Chlamydia trachomatis, Salmonella enterica, and Campylobacter jejuni being the most common culprits. In this case, NSAIDs should be the first-line treatment option. Intra-articular glucocorticoids may be considered for cases of reactive arthritis that are limited to a small number of joints and are unresponsive to NSAID treatment. Methotrexate may be used for chronic cases of reactive arthritis that do not respond to NSAIDs or glucocorticoids. Oral glucocorticoids may also be considered if NSAIDs fail to control symptoms.

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, further studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA). Reactive arthritis is defined as arthritis that occurs after an infection where the organism cannot be found in the joint. The post-STI form is more common in men, while the post-dysenteric form has an equal incidence in both sexes. The most common organisms associated with reactive arthritis are listed in the table below.

      Management of reactive arthritis is mainly symptomatic, with analgesia, NSAIDs, and intra-articular steroids being used. Sulfasalazine and methotrexate may be used for persistent disease. Symptoms usually last for less than 12 months. It is worth noting that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that Reiter was a member of the Nazi party.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 82 - A 38-year-old patient presents with excessive thirst and abdominal pain.
    Bloods show:
    Investigation Result Normal...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old patient presents with excessive thirst and abdominal pain.
      Bloods show:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Calcium (Ca2+) 3.02 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Phosphate (PO43–) 0.42 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 324 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Looking at these blood results, which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Causes and Clinical Presentations of Hyperparathyroidism, Bone Metastases, Excessive Vitamin D, Renal Failure, and Hypoparathyroidism

      Hyperparathyroidism is a condition where the parathyroid glands secrete an excessive amount of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased serum calcium levels. This can be caused by a solitary parathyroid adenoma of parathyroid hyperplasia. The clinical presentation includes excessive bone resorption, kidney stone formation, gastrointestinal symptoms, and neurological effects.

      Bone metastases also present with hypercalcaemia and a high alkaline phosphatase level, but phosphate levels will be normal. Vitamin D excess can also cause hypercalcaemia with a normal or high phosphate level, but alkaline phosphatase will be normal.

      In chronic renal failure, there is a reduction in the excretion of phosphate and a low glomerular filtration rate, leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism with hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia.

      Hypoparathyroidism is associated with a decreased production of parathyroid hormone, leading to cramping and paraesthesiae due to low circulating calcium levels. Biochemical abnormalities include low circulating parathyroid hormone and calcium levels, raised phosphate levels, and normal alkaline phosphatase levels.

      Overall, understanding the causes and clinical presentations of these conditions is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 83 - A 25-year-old with cystic fibrosis was evaluated for cor pulmonale to determine eligibility...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old with cystic fibrosis was evaluated for cor pulmonale to determine eligibility for a deceased donor double-lung transplant.
      What is the surface landmark used to identify right ventricular hypertrophy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fourth intercostal space, left parasternal area

      Explanation:

      Anatomical Landmarks for Cardiac Examination

      When examining the heart, it is important to know the anatomical landmarks for locating specific valves and ventricles. Here are some key locations to keep in mind:

      1. Fourth intercostal space, left parasternal area: This is the correct location for examining the tricuspid valve and the right ventricle, particularly when detecting a right ventricular heave.

      2. Second intercostal space, left parasternal area: The pulmonary valve can be found at this location.

      3. Second intercostal space, right parasternal area: The aortic valve is located here.

      4. Fourth intercostal space, right parasternal area: In cases of true dextrocardia, the tricuspid valve and a right ventricular heave can be found at this location.

      5. Fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line: This is the location of the apex beat, which can be examined for a left ventricular heave and the mitral valve.

      Knowing these landmarks can help healthcare professionals accurately assess and diagnose cardiac conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 84 - A 68-year-old man with known bronchial carcinoma presents to hospital with confusion. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with known bronchial carcinoma presents to hospital with confusion. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain was reported as normal: no evidence of metastases. His serum electrolytes were as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 114 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 5.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 82 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Urinary sodium 54 mmol/l
      Which of the subtype of bronchial carcinoma is he most likely to have been diagnosed with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small cell

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Lung Cancer and Their Association with Ectopic Hormones

      Lung cancer is a complex disease that can be divided into different types based on their clinical and biological characteristics. The two main categories are non-small cell lung cancers (NSCLCs) and small cell lung cancer (SCLC). SCLC is distinct from NSCLCs due to its origin from amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation (APUD) cells, which have an endocrine lineage. This can lead to the production of various peptide hormones, causing paraneoplastic syndromes such as the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and Cushing syndrome.

      Among NSCLCs, squamous cell carcinoma is commonly associated with ectopic parathyroid hormone, leading to hypercalcemia. Large cell carcinoma and bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma are NSCLCs that do not produce ectopic hormones. Adenocarcinoma, another type of NSCLC, also does not produce ectopic hormones.

      Understanding the different types of lung cancer and their association with ectopic hormones is crucial for proper management and treatment of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 85 - A 70-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes and stable ischaemic heart disease presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes and stable ischaemic heart disease presents with palpitations lasting for 4 days. The patient is currently taking metformin 500 mg tds, aspirin 75 mg daily, ramipril 2.5 mg daily, and simvastatin 40 mg daily. Upon examination, the patient's pulse rate is 140/minute and blood pressure is 128/98 mmHg. There is no chest pain or evidence of acute heart failure, but the ECG confirms atrial fibrillation. What is the most appropriate treatment for managing the patient's atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Onset Symptomatic Atrial Fibrillation

      In cases of acute onset symptomatic atrial fibrillation (AF), the most appropriate chemical agent for rate control is beta blockers. However, if the patient has ischaemic heart disease, rate control is the initial management strategy. If beta blockers are contraindicated, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers can be used instead. In the event that the patient is hypotensive, IV digoxin is the preferred rate control medication. If the patient cannot tolerate beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin, amiodarone is given.

      Long-term anticoagulation is necessary after an appropriate risk assessment. Chemical cardioversion can be performed with amiodarone or flecainide, but the latter is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease. Although AF is generally well tolerated, patients with haemodynamic instability that is considered life-threatening require DC cardioversion. If there is a delay in DC cardioversion, amiodarone is recommended.

      Overall, the management of acute onset symptomatic AF involves careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and current condition to determine the most appropriate treatment strategy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 86 - A 27-year-old man comes to the GP clinic complaining of new onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to the GP clinic complaining of new onset of low back pain. The pain is more severe at night and frequently spreads to his hips. It gets better with physical activity. He is also experiencing light sensitivity in both eyes and decreased vision in his left eye. Despite taking oral NSAIDs, his symptoms have not improved. What would be the most suitable medication for the next stage of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Etanercept

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a condition that can cause acute iritis in approximately one-third of patients. This man is displaying typical symptoms of AS and is also experiencing acute iritis. Since oral NSAIDs have not been effective, the next course of action would be to consider TNF-alpha blockers like infliximab and etanercept. DMARDs such as methotrexate and leflunomide have not been found to be helpful in treating AS. While capsaicin may be useful for osteoarthritis, it is not indicated for AS.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 87 - A 60-year-old male undergoes an abdominal ultrasound scan as part of the abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male undergoes an abdominal ultrasound scan as part of the abdominal aortic aneurysm screening programme. The scan reveals an abdominal aortic aneurysm measuring 5.4 cm. After three months, a follow-up scan shows that the aorta width has increased to 5.5 cm. The patient remains asymptomatic.

      What is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to vascular surgery for repair

      Explanation:

      If a man has an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) measuring ≥5.5 cm, it is necessary to repair it due to the high risk of rupture. The most appropriate course of action in this situation is to refer the patient to vascular surgery for repair within 2 weeks. The repair is typically done through elective endovascular repair (EVAR), but if that is not possible, an open repair is required. Not taking any action is not an option as the patient’s large AAA requires repair. Rescanning the patient in 1 or 3 months is not appropriate as urgent repair is necessary. However, rescanning in 3 months would have been appropriate if the AAA had remained <5.5 cm on the second scan. Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 88 - A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and has been experiencing progressively worsening knee pain after exercising. She reports that her knee locks and she feels a painful popping sensation when extending it. She denies any recent injuries. Upon examination, there is slight swelling, tenderness on the inner side of the knee, and discomfort when flexing or extending the knee. What is the probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this young athlete is osteochondritis dissecans, which commonly affects children and young adults. Symptoms include knee pain after exercise, locking, and clunking. Further investigations such as X-ray and MRI are necessary, and referral to an orthopaedic specialist is required for management. While a medial collateral ligament sprain is possible, there is no history of an acute injury that could have caused it. Patellar subluxation is common in teenage girls but typically presents with giving-way episodes, which is not the case here. Patellar tendonitis, which is more common in teenage boys, presents with vague anterior knee pain that worsens with activities such as walking. However, the symptoms in this scenario are more consistent with a more serious diagnosis such as osteochondritis dissecans, including pain, swelling, and knee clunking.

      Understanding Osteochondritis Dissecans

      Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) is a condition that affects the subchondral bone, usually in the knee joint, and can lead to secondary effects on the joint cartilage. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults and can progress to degenerative changes if left untreated. Symptoms of OCD include knee pain and swelling, catching, locking, and giving way, as well as a painful clunk when flexing or extending the knee. Signs of the condition include joint effusion and tenderness on palpation of the articular cartilage of the medial femoral condyle when the knee is flexed.

      To diagnose OCD, X-rays and MRI scans are often used. X-rays may show the subchondral crescent sign or loose bodies, while MRI scans can evaluate cartilage, visualize loose bodies, stage the condition, and assess the stability of the lesion. Early diagnosis is crucial, as clinical signs may be subtle in the early stages. Therefore, there should be a low threshold for imaging and/or orthopedic opinion.

      Overall, understanding OCD is important for recognizing its symptoms and seeking appropriate medical attention. With early diagnosis and management, patients can prevent the progression of the condition and maintain joint health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 89 - A 67-year-old male is admitted with an intracranial bleed and is under the...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male is admitted with an intracranial bleed and is under the care of the neurosurgeons. After undergoing magnetic resonance angiography, he undergoes clipping of a cerebral arterial aneurysm and is stable the following morning. The surgical team records the following blood chemistry results on successive postoperative days:

      Day 1:
      - Plasma Sodium: 130 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.5 mmol/L
      - Urea: 4.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 95 µmol/L

      Day 2:
      - Plasma Sodium: 127 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
      - Urea: 4.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 90 µmol/L

      Day 3:
      - Plasma Sodium: 124 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
      - Urea: 4.4 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 76 µmol/L

      Day 4:
      - Plasma Sodium: 120 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.5 mmol/L
      - Urea: 5.0 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 70 µmol/L

      Normal Ranges:
      - Plasma sodium: 137-144 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.5-4.9 mmol/L
      - Urea: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 60-110 µmol/L

      On day four, the patient is put on a fluid restriction of 1 litre per day. Investigations at that time show:
      - Plasma osmolality: 262 mOsmol/L (278-305)
      - Urine osmolality: 700 mOsmol/L (350-1000)
      - Urine sodium: 70 mmol/L -

      What is the most likely diagnosis to explain these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)

      Explanation:

      The causes of hyponatremia are varied and can include several underlying conditions. One common cause is the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), which is characterized by elevated urine sodium, low plasma osmolality, and an osmolality towards the upper limit of normal. Diabetes insipidus, on the other hand, leads to excessive fluid loss with hypernatremia.

      Fluid overload is another possibility, but it is unlikely in patients who have commenced fluid restriction. Hypoadrenalism may also cause hyponatremia, but it is not likely in the context of this patient’s presentation. Other causes of SIADH include pneumonia, meningitis, and bronchial carcinoma.

      Sick cell syndrome is also associated with hyponatremia and is due to the loss of cell membrane pump function in particularly ill subjects. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hyponatremia to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 90 - What are the possible causes of cyanosis in a newborn? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the possible causes of cyanosis in a newborn?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a heart condition where there is a hole in the wall that separates the two lower chambers of the heart. This results in a left to right shunt, which means that oxygen-rich blood from the left side of the heart flows into the right side of the heart and mixes with oxygen-poor blood. This can lead to symptoms such as shortness of breath, fatigue, and poor growth in infants.

      Coarctation is another heart condition where there is a narrowing of the aortic arch, which is the main blood vessel that carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body. This narrowing can cause high blood pressure in the arms and head, while the lower body receives less blood flow. Symptoms may include headaches, dizziness, and leg cramps.

      Hyperbilirubinaemia, on the other hand, is not associated with cyanosis, which is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood. Hyperbilirubinaemia is a condition where there is an excess of bilirubin in the blood, which can cause yellowing of the skin and eyes.

      Lastly, Eisenmenger syndrome is a rare but serious complication that can develop much later in life following a left to right shunt, such as in VSD. This occurs when the shunt reverses and becomes a right to left shunt, leading to low oxygen levels in the blood and cyanosis. Symptoms may include shortness of breath, fatigue, and heart palpitations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 91 - A 57-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and blurred vision that started 1 day ago. He reports no pain when touching his scalp or eating and chewing food. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which he manages with metformin. He also mentions that his uncle died of brain cancer, and he is worried that he may have the same condition.

      During the examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. Dilated fundoscopy reveals some arterioles narrower than others, with venules being compressed by arterioles. There is optic disc swelling in both eyes, with some exudates lining up like a star at the macula. Additionally, there are some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages.

      His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 80 bpm, blood pressure 221/119 mmHg, oxygen saturation 98% on room air, respiratory rate 14 per minute, and temperature 37 °C.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Hypertensive Retinopathy: A Case Study

      The patient in question presented with a highly raised blood pressure and complained of headache and blurring of vision. Fundoscopy revealed typical features of hypertensive retinopathy, including bilateral optic disc swelling. Although the patient had a family history of intracranial space-occupying lesions, there were no accompanying symptoms such as early-morning vomiting and weight loss, making this diagnosis unlikely. Additionally, there was no evidence of drusen or choroidal neovascularisation, ruling out age-related macular degeneration. The absence of scalp tenderness and jaw claudication made giant-cell arthritis an unlikely diagnosis as well. Finally, the lack of new vessels at the disc and elsewhere ruled out proliferative diabetic retinopathy. In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms and fundoscopy findings point towards a diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 92 - A 40-year-old woman from Vietnam presents with abdominal swelling. She has no history...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman from Vietnam presents with abdominal swelling. She has no history of blood transfusion or jaundice in the past and is in a stable relationship with two children. Upon admission, she was found to be icteric. During the investigation, she experienced a bout of haematemesis and was admitted to the High Dependency Unit.
      What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B infection

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from chronic liver disease and portal hypertension, possibly caused by a hepatitis B infection. This is common in regions such as sub-Saharan Africa and East Asia, where up to 10% of adults may be chronically infected. Acute paracetamol overdose can also cause liver failure, but it does not typically present with haematemesis. Mushroom poisoning can be deadly and cause liver damage, but it is not a cause of chronic liver disease. Hepatitis C is another cause of liver cirrhosis, but it is more common in other regions such as Egypt. Haemochromatosis is a rare autosomal recessive disease that can present with cirrhosis and other symptoms, but it is less likely in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 93 - A 38-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of worsening lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of worsening lower back pain over the past 3 months. He denies any history of trauma or prior fractures, does not smoke, consume excessive alcohol, and has never been treated with corticosteroids. Upon review, he reports experiencing reduced libido and delayed puberty for several years, as well as the absence of morning erections. Alongside routine investigations, what crucial test should be performed given the following DEXA scan results?

      Lumbar vertebrae (L2-L4): -6.9
      Femoral neck: -3.5
      Total hip: -4

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Testosterone

      Explanation:

      When a man is suspected to have osteoporosis, it is important to check his testosterone levels through a blood test. This is because hypogonadism, which is a common cause of osteoporosis in men, can be classified as either hypergonadotropic or hypogonadotropic. Androgens play a twofold role in male bone metabolism by stimulating bone formation during puberty and preventing bone resorption during and after puberty. Other tests such as alpha fetoprotein, calcitonin, and serum protein electrophoresis are not useful in evaluating osteoporosis, but may be used to screen for other conditions such as Down syndrome, neural tube defects, thyroid cancer, and multiple myeloma.

      Understanding the Causes of Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a condition that affects the bones, making them weak and brittle. It is more common in women and older adults, with the prevalence increasing significantly in women over the age of 80. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis that should be considered. Some of the most important risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture, low body mass index, and smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, and endocrine disorders such as hyperthyroidism and diabetes mellitus.

      There are also medications that may worsen osteoporosis, such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors. If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include blood tests, bone densitometry, and other procedures as indicated. It is important to identify the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors in order to select the most appropriate form of treatment. As a minimum, all patients should have a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 94 - A 5-year-old girl presents with purpura following a recent upper respiratory infection. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents with purpura following a recent upper respiratory infection. Upon examination, her platelet count is found to be 20 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400) and a bone marrow examination reveals megakaryocyte hyperplasia. What is the correct statement regarding her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A spontaneous remission is likely

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Prognosis of Acute Temporary Thrombocytopenic Purpura

      Acute temporary thrombocytopenic purpura is a condition that often occurs after a viral infection. Fortunately, 85% of children with this condition will recover within a year. Platelet transfusions are not helpful unless there is active bleeding or surgery is necessary. Instead, treatment typically involves immune suppression with medications like prednisolone or intravenous immune globulin infusions. The clotting time remains normal because the coagulation factors are not affected. However, detecting antiplatelet antibodies can be challenging with many assays. While splenectomy may be an option in some cases, it is not recommended early in the disease as it may resolve on its own within a year. Overall, with proper treatment and monitoring, most children with acute temporary thrombocytopenic purpura can expect a positive outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 95 - A 32-year-old woman with schizophrenia has been under the care of mental health...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with schizophrenia has been under the care of mental health services for a few years with a fluctuating pattern of illness. Her consultant, in collaboration with the patient’s Community Psychiatric Nurse (CPN), decides to initiate clozapine treatment. As a component of the prescription, she is registered into the Clozapine Monitoring Service scheme.
      What is the primary rationale for her registration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To monitor the white cell count

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Monitoring White Cell Count in Patients on Clozapine Therapy

      Schizophrenia is commonly treated with anti-psychotic medications, including typical and atypical agents. Clozapine, an atypical anti-psychotic, is often prescribed for patients who do not respond to other medications. While effective, clozapine carries a risk of agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a lowered white blood cell count that increases the risk of infection. To mitigate this risk, patients on clozapine therapy must be enrolled in a monitoring program that includes regular blood tests to check their white cell count. This monitoring is crucial for patient safety and should be a top priority for healthcare providers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 96 - An 81-year-old man is transferred from a nursing home with a change in...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old man is transferred from a nursing home with a change in behaviour, insomnia and fever. Staff in the nursing home state that over the last five days, he has appeared confused and agitated and seems to be having visual hallucinations, as he has been talking and gesturing to people who are not present in the room. He has a past medical history of Lewy body dementia. On clinical examination, he is not orientated to time, place or person. He is mildly agitated. His blood pressure is 112/60 mmHg, pulse 96 bpm and temperature 38.2 °C. Urinalysis is positive for nitrites and leukocytes.
      Which of the following management plans should be considered as initial treatment for delirium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat the underlying cause, ensure effective communication and reorientation, provide reassurance for people diagnosed with delirium, provide a suitable care environment

      Explanation:

      Managing Delirium: Strategies for Treatment and Care Environment

      Delirium is a serious condition that requires prompt identification and management of underlying causes. Effective communication and reorientation, as well as reassurance for the patient, are crucial in managing delirium. Involving family, friends, and carers can also be helpful. Providing a suitable care environment, such as a well-lit and quiet room with minimal stimulation, is important. If verbal and non-verbal de-escalation techniques are ineffective, short-term use of antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol or olanzapine may be necessary, but caution should be exercised, especially for patients with conditions like Parkinson’s disease or dementia with Lewy bodies. Frequent reorientation and monitoring in a dimly lit room may also be necessary in some cases. Overall, a comprehensive approach that addresses both the underlying causes and the patient’s immediate needs is essential in managing delirium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 97 - A 50-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic seeking modification of her DMARDs for...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic seeking modification of her DMARDs for the treatment of her rheumatoid arthritis. She is informed that she will require frequent liver checks and eye exams due to the potential side-effects of these medications. What is the most probable combination of treatment she will receive for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate plus hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      Medication Combinations for Treating Rheumatoid Arthritis

      When treating rheumatoid arthritis, the first-line medication is a DMARD monotherapy with methotrexate. Short-term steroids may also be used in combination with DMARD monotherapy to induce remission. Hydroxychloroquine is another medication that can be used, but patients should be closely monitored for visual changes as retinopathy and corneal deposits are common side effects.

      Etanercept is not a first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis, and methotrexate should not be given in combination with a TNF-alpha inhibitor like etanercept. Methotrexate plus sulfasalazine is an appropriate medication combination for treating rheumatoid arthritis, but regular eye checks are not required as neither medication affects vision.

      If a patient has failed treatment with methotrexate, sulfasalazine plus hydroxychloroquine may be a regimen to consider trialling. However, it is important to note that new-onset rheumatoid arthritis should be treated with a DMARD monotherapy first line, with the addition of another DMARD like methotrexate as the first-line option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 98 - A 62-year-old practising solicitor attends the Neurology Clinic with his wife. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old practising solicitor attends the Neurology Clinic with his wife. She is deeply concerned regarding his worsening memory. Over the past three months, he has become increasingly forgetful, to the point where he has had to take sick leave from work. He has had two recent presentations to the Emergency Department following falls, though a computed tomography (CT) head scan did not demonstrate any abnormality. On examination, there is an ataxic gait and you notice fasciculations and involuntary jerking movements of the upper limbs. He has had no family history of neurological disease and was previously fit and well.
      What is the most likely underlying cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD)

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Neurodegenerative Diseases: A Case Study

      A patient presents with rapidly progressive dementia, imbalance leading to falls, and myoclonus. The most likely diagnosis is Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD), a devastating prion disease without cure. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferred for diagnosis, as CT head is ineffective.

      Vascular dementia, another common cause of cognitive impairment, typically has a slower and stepwise onset in patients with a significant vascular history. A CT head would likely identify existing small vessel disease in the brain of a patient with vascular dementia.

      Huntington’s disease, characterized by abnormal movements and cognitive impairment, is not the most likely diagnosis due to the rapid progression and lack of family history.

      Lewy body dementia, which features visual hallucinations and Parkinsonian symptoms, usually presents over a longer period of time.

      Motor neuron disease, which includes weakness and fasciculations, is unlikely due to the absence of weakness in this presentation. Frontotemporal dementia may rarely develop in motor neuron disease, but it is a slowly progressive phenomenon, unlike the rapid deterioration in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 99 - A 3-month-old infant is presented to the emergency department with abdominal distension and...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old infant is presented to the emergency department with abdominal distension and tenderness. The parents report observing a small amount of blood in the diaper and some bilious vomit. They have also noticed reduced movement and difficulty feeding over the past few days. The infant was born prematurely at 29 weeks after premature rupture of membranes. What investigation is most likely to provide a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal x-ray

      Explanation:

      The definitive test for diagnosing necrotising enterocolitis is an abdominal x-ray. If the x-ray shows pneumatosis intestinalis (gas in the gut wall), it confirms the presence of NEC. Treatment involves stopping oral feeds, providing barrier nursing, and administering antibiotics such as cefotaxime and vancomycin. In severe cases, a laparotomy may be necessary, but this is a poor prognostic indicator and is not performed for diagnostic purposes. While a stool culture is often performed in cases of NEC, it is not a definitive test. It is important not to confuse NEC with intussusception, which typically affects older children (5-12 months) and presents with a distended abdomen and the passage of red currant jelly stool. In such cases, an ultrasound scan is usually the initial investigation and will show a target sign. A digital rectal exam is not a diagnostic test and only confirms the presence of feces in the rectum.

      Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis

      Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.

      To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 100 - A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a motor vehicle...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a motor vehicle accident. The patient’s car was parked in the street when a small car hit her vehicle from behind. She was seated and restrained in the driver’s seat and was not ejected from the vehicle. The airbags did not deploy. The ambulance staff reported that the patient did lose consciousness at the scene but now is alert and orientated.
      Her primary and secondary surveys are normal. Her neurological examination is also normal and she has full cervical spine range of motion. The patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale of 15/15.
      Her observations and blood tests results are shown below.
      Temperature 36.9 °C
      Blood pressure 121/59 mmHg
      Heart rate 67 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute
      Sp(O2) 98% (room air)
      Her computed tomography (CT) scan of the head, cervical spine, chest, abdomen and pelvis is normal. She is still complaining of diffuse, muscular pain throughout her body which was not present before the accident. She is able to mobilise slowly around the ward. She states that prior to the accident she was able to mobilise independently without difficulty and without pain.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Soft tissue injuries

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with musculoskeletal pain after a motor vehicle accident

      Soft tissue injuries and the importance of early recognition

      After a high-impact motor vehicle accident, a patient may suffer from soft tissue injuries, which can be challenging to diagnose and manage with analgesia. However, it is crucial to recognise them early and encourage gentle mobilisation with optimal pain relief. In this case, the patient has normal radiological scans and examination findings, but her recent trauma suggests the possibility of soft tissue injuries.

      Unlikely causes of musculoskeletal pain

      A cervical spine injury is unlikely because the patient has a normal cervical range of motion and CT cervical spine. Fibromyalgia, a chronic condition that causes widespread musculoskeletal pain, is also unlikely due to the acute onset of the patient’s symptoms. Pneumothorax, a collapsed lung that can occur after trauma, typically presents with pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath, which the patient does not have.

      Possible cause of musculoskeletal pain

      A rib fracture is a common injury after high-impact accidents, and the patient’s pain on deep breathing or coughing is consistent with this diagnosis. However, further evaluation may be necessary to confirm or rule out this possibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 101 - A 32-year-old teacher comes to the clinic with a complaint of secondary amenorrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old teacher comes to the clinic with a complaint of secondary amenorrhoea lasting for six months. She reports experiencing white discharge from her breasts. Despite taking a home urine pregnancy test, the result was negative. What is the most useful blood test to aid in the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      Prolactinomas: Pituitary Tumours that Affect Hormone Secretion

      Prolactinomas are tumours that develop in the pituitary gland and secrete prolactin, a hormone that stimulates milk production in women. These tumours can be either microscopic or macroscopic, with the latter causing mass effects that can lead to headaches, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. In addition to galactorrhoea, prolactinomas can also cause menstrual disturbances, amenorrhoea, and infertility. Some prolactinomas may also co-secrete other pituitary hormones, such as growth hormone, which can further complicate the diagnosis and treatment of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 102 - Given that John, an 18-year-old rugby player, has suffered a complete tear in...

    Incorrect

    • Given that John, an 18-year-old rugby player, has suffered a complete tear in his anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) after being tackled sideways, what would be the most effective course of treatment for him? He experienced a popping sound and now has a swollen, unstable and painful knee that cannot bear weight. MRI results confirmed the injury.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Operative repair with anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction

      Explanation:

      Managing Anterior Cruciate Ligament Tears: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears are common injuries among athletes and active individuals. The best management option for a fit and active sportsman or sportswoman is an ACL reconstruction, which reduces the risk of further injury to the cartilage and meniscus and may prevent future osteoarthritis. Reconstruction can be performed using various grafts, such as bone-patella-bone autograft, quadruple hamstring autograft, quadriceps tendon autograft, or allograft. Physical therapy and avoidance of contact sports may be an option for patients with low physical demand, but not for those who wish to return to their previous level of activity. Rest, ice, compression, and elevation (RICE) can provide symptomatic relief but do not address the underlying issue. Knee bracing with an immobilizer, analgesia, and physiotherapy may be an option for incomplete tears of the medial and lateral collateral ligament. Ligament repair has a high failure rate and is rarely used. Overall, the choice of treatment depends on the severity of the injury, the patient’s goals and expectations, and the potential risks and benefits of each option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 103 - Which of the following symptoms may suggest mania instead of hypomania? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms may suggest mania instead of hypomania?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delusions of grandeur

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania

      Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they actually refer to two different conditions. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are some key differences that set them apart.

      Mania is a more severe form of hypomania that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to oneself or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.

      On the other hand, hypomania is a lesser version of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It does not impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. It also does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms.

      Both hypomania and mania share common symptoms such as elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior. However, the length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 104 - A 25-year-old woman who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) seeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) seeks guidance. She is presently on day 10 of her cycle and has missed her last two pills. Before this, she took her pill accurately every day. She had unprotected sexual intercourse 10 hours ago and is unsure if she should take emergency contraception to avoid pregnancy.

      What advice should she be given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No emergency contraception is required and to continue taking her pill as normal

      Explanation:

      If the patient has missed two pills between days 8-14 of her cycle but has taken the previous 7 days of COCP correctly, emergency contraception is not necessary according to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health. Since the patient is not in need of emergency contraception, offering her a hormonal-based emergency contraceptive would be inappropriate. However, if emergency contraception is required, options include EllaOne (ulipristal acetate) up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse or Levonelle (levonorgestrel) up to 96 hours after unprotected intercourse. Inserting a copper IUD to prevent pregnancy would also be inappropriate in this case. If the patient is having difficulty remembering to take her pill correctly and is interested in long-acting contraception, counseling her on options such as intrauterine devices, subnormal contraceptive implants, and the contraceptive injection would be appropriate. It should be noted that contraceptive injections are not used as a form of emergency contraception and advising a patient to take emergency contraception within 12 hours would be incorrect.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 105 - A 72-year-old man with atrial fibrillation and heart failure is initiated on digoxin....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with atrial fibrillation and heart failure is initiated on digoxin. What is the mode of action of digoxin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase pump

      Explanation:

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 106 - A 55-year-old man was admitted to hospital for a cellulitis that had not...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man was admitted to hospital for a cellulitis that had not improved with empirical antibiotic treatment. He is currently taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation and is allergic to penicillin. During the course of his stay he developed a severe diarrhoea, and was put into a side-room after a stool sample returned positive for Clostridium difficile.
      Which antibiotic most likely contributed to his developing C. difficile?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clindamycin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics and C. difficile Infection: Understanding the Risks and Treatments

      C. difficile infection is commonly associated with the use of antibiotics, particularly clindamycin and second and third-gen Cephalosporins. Other antibiotics such as fluoroquinolones, penicillins, and co-amoxiclav are also linked to this infection. Risk factors include age, underlying health conditions, current use of PPIs, and prolonged antibiotic use. When C. difficile infection is confirmed, metronidazole is the initial treatment of choice, although mild cases may not require treatment. Severe cases may require vancomycin or fidaxomicin. Amoxicillin is also associated with C. difficile infection, while clarithromycin should not be prescribed to patients on warfarin. Ceftaroline, a new fifth-generation cephalosporin, has not yet been established as a risk factor for C. difficile infection. Understanding the risks and treatments associated with antibiotics and C. difficile infection is crucial for effective management and prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 107 - A 25-year-old individual consumes approximately 750 ml of whiskey during a night out....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old individual consumes approximately 750 ml of whiskey during a night out. The following day, they experience increased thirst and notice an increase in urine output. What is the most plausible explanation for the development of polyuria in individuals who consume excessive amounts of alcohol?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ethanol inhibits ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      The secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is dependent on calcium, is inhibited by ethanol through the blocking of channels in the neurohypophyseal nerve terminal. Hangover-induced nausea is primarily caused by vagal stimulation of the vomiting center. Tremors that may occur after a particularly intense bout of alcohol consumption are a result of increased glutamate production by neurons, which compensates for the previous inhibition caused by ethanol.

      Management of Problem Drinking: Nutritional Support and Drug Therapy

      Problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and well-being. To manage this condition, nutritional support and drug therapy are often recommended. According to SIGN guidelines, alcoholic patients should receive oral thiamine if their diet is deficient. This is because alcohol can deplete the body’s thiamine levels, which can lead to neurological complications such as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.

      In addition to nutritional support, drug therapy can also be used to manage problem drinking. Benzodiazepines are commonly used for acute withdrawal symptoms, while disulfiram is used to promote abstinence. Disulfiram works by inhibiting acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, which causes a severe reaction when alcohol is consumed. Patients should be aware that even small amounts of alcohol found in perfumes, foods, and mouthwashes can produce severe symptoms. However, disulfiram is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease and psychosis.

      Another drug used to manage problem drinking is acamprosate. This medication reduces cravings and has been shown to improve abstinence in placebo-controlled trials. Acamprosate is a weak antagonist of NMDA receptors, which are involved in the brain’s reward system. By blocking these receptors, acamprosate can help reduce the pleasurable effects of alcohol and decrease the likelihood of relapse.

      In summary, managing problem drinking requires a multifaceted approach that includes nutritional support and drug therapy. By addressing both the physical and psychological aspects of alcohol dependence, individuals can achieve and maintain sobriety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 108 - You are seeking participants for a study of a novel anti-diabetic medication. The...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeking participants for a study of a novel anti-diabetic medication. The trial excludes patients with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) below 60 ml/min and requires individuals with a diabetes duration of no more than three years.

      What is accurate regarding this clinical investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All patients have to be given, understand and sign their informed consent

      Explanation:

      Informed Consent in Clinical Trials

      Clinical trials are conducted to test the safety and efficacy of new investigational agents. Before a patient can participate in a clinical trial, they must be given informed consent. This process involves detailing the potential benefits, risks, and adverse events associated with the investigational therapy. The patient must sign the informed consent form before beginning the therapy.

      All clinical trials must adhere to the declaration of Helsinki, which outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects. Patients can only receive reasonable expenses for participating in a clinical trial, and not a premium. Clinical trial waivers are not acceptable, and entry into a study is based on both potential efficacy and safety.

      In summary, informed consent is a crucial aspect of clinical trials. It ensures that patients are fully aware of the potential risks and benefits of the investigational therapy before they begin treatment. Adherence to ethical principles and guidelines is also essential to ensure the safety and well-being of study participants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 109 - A patient has returned to the ward, following a neurosurgical procedure to remove...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has returned to the ward, following a neurosurgical procedure to remove a large benign cyst. Over the next few hours, she becomes less alert and the neurosurgeon is recalled. The patient is unable to deviate her right eye medially. At rest, her eye appears to point downwards and laterally and the right pupil appears to be dilated.
      Which nerve has been affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oculomotor

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerves Involved in Eye Movement and Vision

      The movement of the eye is controlled by seven extraocular muscles, each with a specific function. The levator palpebrae superioris elevates the upper eyelid, while the superior rectus elevates the eyeball and the inferior rectus depresses it. The medial rectus adducts the eyeball, while the lateral rectus abducts it. The superior oblique depresses, abducts, and medially rotates the eyeball, and the inferior oblique elevates, abducts, and laterally rotates it. These muscles are innervated by the oculomotor nerve, except for the superior oblique and lateral rectus, which are supplied by the trochlear and abducens nerve, respectively.

      The trochlear nerve is responsible for the motor function of the superior oblique muscle, while the optic nerve is associated with vision. The abducens nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle, and damage to this nerve results in the inability to laterally gaze. The ciliary nerve contains sensory and sympathetic fibers that innervate the dilator pupillae muscle, triggering its contraction and causing pupillary dilation. However, it is not involved in the movement of the eye.

      Injury to the oculomotor nerve can lead to a down and out eyeball, externally rotated and depressed, due to the unopposed actions of the lateral rectus and superior oblique. Diseases like diabetes or stroke affect the somatic fibers preferentially and do not affect the pupil, while direct compression or injury of the nerve affects parasympathetic fibers and leads to pupil dilation. A trochlear nerve palsy causes the eye to be adducted, elevated, and externally rotated, while optic nerve injury results in partial or complete visual loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 110 - You are working in a GP surgery and your next patient is John,...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in a GP surgery and your next patient is John, a 35-year-old man with a diagnosis of generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). He is currently prescribed sertraline 200mg daily.

      During the review of his symptoms today, John reports that he does not feel like the sertraline is helping, and he remains anxious almost all of the time. He experiences frequent episodes where he feels his heart pounding in his chest and his head is spinning. Additionally, he notes that he often struggles to get to sleep and can lie awake for hours at night.

      As you observe John, he appears visibly distressed. He seems unable to sit still in his chair and is trembling slightly.

      What would be the next step in John's management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Change the prescription to duloxetine

      Explanation:

      If sertraline is not effective or not well-tolerated in the treatment of generalised anxiety disorder (GAD), an alternative SSRI or SNRI should be prescribed. In this case, duloxetine is the recommended option as it is an SNRI. Mirtazapine, although it has been shown to have an effect on anxiety symptoms, is not part of the NICE guidance for GAD treatment. Pregabalin may be considered if the patient cannot tolerate SSRI or SNRI treatment, but this is not yet necessary for Susan. Increasing the dose of sertraline is not an option as she is already on the maximum dose. Benzodiazepines should not be offered for the treatment of GAD except as a short-term measure during a crisis, according to NICE guidelines.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 111 - A 40-year-old woman was admitted to the psychiatric ward with paranoid delusions, auditory...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman was admitted to the psychiatric ward with paranoid delusions, auditory hallucinations and violent behaviour. There was no past medical history. She was diagnosed with schizophrenia and given intramuscular haloperidol regularly. Four days later, she became febrile and confused. The haloperidol was stopped, but 2 days later, she developed marked rigidity, sweating and drowsiness. She had a variable blood pressure and pulse rate. Creatine phosphokinase was markedly raised.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome: A Potentially Life-Threatening Reaction to Neuroleptic Medication

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare but serious reaction to neuroleptic medication. It is characterized by hyperpyrexia (high fever), autonomic dysfunction, rigidity, altered consciousness, and elevated creatine phosphokinase levels. Treatment involves stopping the neuroleptic medication and cooling the patient. Medications such as bromocriptine, dantrolene, and benzodiazepines may also be used.

      It is important to note that other conditions, such as cerebral abscess, meningitis, and phaeochromocytoma, do not typically present with the same symptoms as NMS. Serotonin syndrome, while similar, usually presents with different symptoms such as disseminated intravascular coagulation, renal failure, tachycardia, hypertension, and tachypnea.

      If you or someone you know is taking neuroleptic medication and experiences symptoms of NMS, seek medical attention immediately. Early recognition and treatment can be life-saving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 112 - A 32-year-old obese man presents to Accident and Emergency with a 2-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old obese man presents to Accident and Emergency with a 2-day history of nausea, frank haematuria and sharp, persistent left-sided flank pain, radiating from the loin to the groin. On examination, he has left renal angle tenderness.
      Urine dip shows:
      frank haematuria
      blood 2+
      protein 2+.
      He has a history of hypertension, appendicitis 10 years ago and gout. You order a non-contrast computerised tomography (CT) for the kidney–ureter–bladder (KUB), which shows a 2.2 cm calculus in the proximal left (LT) ureter.
      Which of the following is the definitive treatment for this patient’s stone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Percutaneous ureterolithotomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Large Kidney Stones

      Large kidney stones, typically those over 2 cm in diameter, require surgical intervention as they are unlikely to pass spontaneously. Here are some treatment options for such stones:

      1. Percutaneous Ureterolithotomy/Nephrolithotomy: This procedure involves using a nephroscope to remove or break down the stone into smaller pieces before removal. It is highly effective for stones between 21 and 30 mm in diameter and is indicated for staghorn calculi, cystine stones, or when ESWL is not suitable.

      2. Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy (ESWL): This option uses ultrasound shock waves to break up stones into smaller fragments, which can be passed spontaneously in the urine. It is appropriate for stones up to 2 cm in diameter that fail to pass spontaneously.

      3. Medical Expulsive Therapy: In some cases, calcium channel blockers or a blockers may be used to help pass the stone. A corticosteroid may also be added. However, this option is not suitable for stones causing severe symptoms.

      It is important to note that admission and treatment with diclofenac, antiemetic, and rehydration therapy is only the initial management for an acute presentation and that sending the patient home with paracetamol and advice to drink water is only appropriate for small stones. Open surgery is rarely used and is reserved for complicated cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 113 - What is the most frequent side effect of fenofibrate therapy in the management...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent side effect of fenofibrate therapy in the management of dyslipidemia in patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Fibrates

      Fibrates are a type of medication used to lower cholesterol levels in the blood. However, like any medication, they come with potential side effects. The most common side effect of fibrates is myalgia, or muscle pain. Patients may also experience mild gastrointestinal symptoms, such as abdominal pain. Hypoglycaemia, or low blood sugar, is a small potential side effect. Fibrates may also reduce fibrinogen and slightly alter clotting, but this is not a major concern.

      However, the most serious potential side effect of fibrates is rhabdomyolysis, which is the breakdown of muscle tissue that can lead to kidney damage. This risk is especially high in patients with renal impairment or those who are also taking statins. Therefore, the combination of fibrates and statins should be avoided unless absolutely necessary. Patients taking fibrates should maintain good hydration and discontinue the medication if they become particularly unwell. They should also seek medical attention if they experience muscle pains or changes in urine color, as these may be signs of rhabdomyolysis. Overall, while fibrates can be an effective medication for lowering cholesterol, patients should be aware of the potential side effects and take precautions to minimize their risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 114 - A 75-year-old male is recovering on the ward after being admitted with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male is recovering on the ward after being admitted with a community acquired pneumonia. He has completed a course of antibiotics and his latest chest radiograph is clear. He is currently waiting for social services input before discharge. During the morning ward round, the patient reports new symptoms of muscle pain, weakness, and fatigue. He feels nauseous and has vomited once this morning. He has a medical history of osteoarthritis, gout, type 2 diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, atrial fibrillation, and an appendectomy as a child. He is currently taking regular paracetamol, allopurinol, metformin, simvastatin, bisoprolol, and warfarin.

      Upon examination, his respiratory rate is 25/min, blood pressure is 131/85 mmHg, heart rate is 95 bpm, and temperature is 36.4ºC. Recent blood tests show:
      - Na+ 140 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.8 mmol/l
      - Urea 12 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 190 µmol/l
      - eGFR 26 ml/min
      - Creatine kinase 174 iu/l (normal range 25-195 iu/l)
      - CRP 12 mg/l

      A recent arterial blood gas (ABG) shows:
      - pH 7.29
      - pO2 12.1 kPa
      - pCO2 4.4 kPa
      - Bicarbonate 18 mmol/l

      What is the most likely cause of these symptoms and investigation results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Metformin can lead to lactic acidosis, although it is a rare occurrence. Patients with impaired renal function are at a higher risk of developing this side-effect. NICE recommends that patients with an eGFR<45 ml/min should have their dose reviewed, and those with an eGFR<30 ml/min should stop taking metformin altogether. In this case, the patient has an eGFR<30 ml/min and is experiencing symptoms of metabolic acidosis, which is consistent with lactic acidosis. The ABG results also support this diagnosis.
      While statins can cause rhabdomyolysis, which can result in muscle pain, the patient’s normal creatinine kinase levels make this unlikely. Additionally, rhabdomyolysis does not explain the abnormal ABG results.
      The other options are not consistent with the patient’s presentation or blood results.
      Source: NICE NG 28

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.

      While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.

      There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.

      When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 115 - A 4-year-old child presents with a 4-month history of recurrent episodes of cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child presents with a 4-month history of recurrent episodes of cough and wheeze. The cough is worse at night. Chest examination is normal between episodes of wheeze, but there is prolonged expiratory wheeze during an episode.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of bronchodilators

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Childhood Asthma: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals

      Asthma is a condition characterized by reversible airways obstruction, and its diagnosis is primarily based on the patient’s history and response to bronchodilators. Objective measurements such as spirometry and peak flow measurements may not be reliable in children under five years old due to poor technique. Therefore, a trial of bronchodilators and a thorough history are sufficient to make a diagnosis in this age group.

      A full blood count is unlikely to be useful in diagnosing asthma, as it is usually normal. Similarly, a chest X-ray is not necessary for routine diagnosis, although it may be helpful in identifying other pathologies. Antibiotics should only be prescribed if there is evidence of a bacterial infection, as the vast majority of asthma exacerbations are non-infective.

      While some cases of asthma may be allergic in nature, antihistamines are not routinely used in the management of childhood asthma. Skin-prick testing and specific immunoglobulin E (IgE) to aeroallergens are not part of routine care.

      The starting step for asthma treatment is based on the patient’s symptoms around the time of presentation. As required bronchodilators may be effective in mild cases, but a stepwise approach should be followed for more severe cases. Regular follow-up and monitoring of symptoms are essential for effective management of childhood asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 116 - A 72-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner complaining of ‘bulging blue veins’...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner complaining of ‘bulging blue veins’ on her legs. While examining the patient’s legs, you note the presence of tortuous, dilated veins, accompanied by brown patches of pigmentation and dry, scaly plaques of skin. A diagnosis of varicose veins is made.
      Which vein is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Venous System and Varicose Veins

      Varicose veins are a common condition that affects the superficial venous system. The long saphenous vein, which ascends the medial side of the leg and passes anteriorly to the medial malleolus of the ankle, is the most common cause of varicose veins. However, insufficiencies in the deep venous system, such as the femoral vein and popliteal vein, can also contribute to chronic venous insufficiency.

      It is important to note that not all superficial veins are affected by varicose veins. The cephalic vein, for example, is an upper limb vein and is not likely to be affected. The short saphenous vein, which ascends the posterior side of the leg and passes posteriorly to the lateral malleolus of the ankle, can also cause varicose veins but is not the most common distribution.

      Understanding the different veins in the venous system and their potential for insufficiency can help in the diagnosis and treatment of varicose veins and other venous conditions. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 117 - A 55-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Emergency Department following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Emergency Department following a high-speed road traffic incident. He was ejected from the vehicle and sustained a severe head injury. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is E1 V1 M2. Other injuries include an unstable pelvic fracture (secured with a binder) and bruising to his anterior chest wall. His heart rate is 100 bpm with a blood pressure of 70/40 mmHg. Additional history from a family member includes:
      Allergy – penicillin
      Past medical history – hypertension, high cholesterol
      Drug history – bisoprolol.
      Which one of the following would be the fluid of choice for supporting his blood pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Packed red blood cells (through a fluid warmer)

      Explanation:

      In cases of severe high-impact trauma, the patient may experience hypotension and tachycardia due to blood loss. The most common causes of mortality following trauma are neurological injury and blood loss. In such cases, the DCR approach is used, which involves permissive hypotension and blood product-based resuscitation. Crystalloids should be avoided as they can increase haemodilution and impair coagulation and tissue perfusion. Instead, packed red blood cells should be used along with fresh frozen plasma to avoid dilutional coagulopathy. Tranexamic acid may also be used to aid haemostasis. Fluids should be warmed prior to infusion to prevent hypothermia, which is associated with worse patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 118 - A young laborer presents to the Emergency department with complaints of pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A young laborer presents to the Emergency department with complaints of pain in their middle finger. Upon examination, the finger appears swollen and is held in a partially flexed position. Passive extension elicits pain and there is tenderness over the flexor sheath. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suppurative flexor tenosynovitis

      Explanation:

      The Four Cardinal Signs of Suppurative Flexor Tenosynovitis

      Suppurative flexor tenosynovitis is a serious infection that affects the tendons and synovial sheaths of the fingers. Kanavel, a renowned physician, identified four cardinal signs of this condition. The first sign is a flexed posture, which is caused by pain and swelling in the affected area. The second sign is fusiform swelling, which refers to a sausage-like swelling of the finger. The third sign is pain on passive extension, which means that the finger hurts when it is straightened. The fourth sign is flexor sheath tenderness, which is tenderness along the tendon sheath.

      Deep potential space infections, such as mid palmar and thenar space infections, are made worse by flexion. This is because flexion causes the infected area to become more compressed, which can lead to further swelling and pain. It is important to recognize these cardinal signs of suppurative flexor tenosynovitis and seek medical attention immediately if they are present. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications, such as loss of function or even amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 119 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of feeling like...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of feeling like there is a lump in her throat. She reports an itching sensation, but no pain. The symptoms are intermittent and not related to swallowing solids or liquids, and there is no persistent hoarseness. She also reports feeling anxious and tired. There is no significant family history. She was a heavy smoker between the ages of 22-32 but has since quit smoking and drinking. Her blood profile and thyroid function tests show the following results:
      - Haemoglobin: 98 g/l (normal range: 115-165 g/l)
      - Mean corpuscular value: 75 fl (normal range: 80-100 fl)
      - Thyroid stimulating hormone: 2.2 mU/L (normal range: 0.45-4.1 mU/L)

      What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naso-endoscopy

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing globus sensation, but before being discharged, it is important to rule out any serious conditions. Given the patient’s history of smoking and anemia, a naso-endoscopy should be performed as an initial investigation. If the results are clear, the patient can be reassured and discharged. A CT neck is not necessary at this time unless the endoscopy results are inconclusive. A barium swallow would only be appropriate if a tumor was suspected, making it a second-line investigation. An ultrasound of the neck would only be necessary if a specific mass or thyroid issue was suspected, which is not the case here. Globus sensation can typically be diagnosed through a clinical examination and a ridged endoscopy. Overall, the initial investigation should focus on ruling out any serious conditions before considering further tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 120 - A 19-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with a swollen face...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with a swollen face and lips, accompanied by wheeze after being stung by a bee. He is experiencing breathing difficulties and has a blood pressure reading of 83/45 mmHg from a manual reading. What is the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give 1 : 1000 intramuscular (im) adrenaline and repeat after 5 min if no improvement

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The following are the appropriate steps to take when dealing with anaphylaxis:

      Administer 1 : 1000 intramuscular (IM) adrenaline and repeat after 5 minutes if there is no improvement. Adrenaline should not be given intravenously unless the person administering it is skilled and experienced in its use. Routine use of IV adrenaline is not recommended.

      Administer IV fluids if anaphylactic shock occurs to maintain the circulatory volume. Salbutamol nebulizers may help manage associated wheezing.

      Do not give IV hydrocortisone as it takes several hours to work and anaphylaxis is rapidly life-threatening.

      Do not observe the person as anaphylaxis may progress quickly.

      Do not give 1 : 10 000 IV adrenaline as this concentration is only given during a cardiac arrest.

      In summary, the immediate administration of 1 : 1000 IM adrenaline is the most critical step in treating anaphylaxis. IV adrenaline and hydrocortisone should only be given by skilled and experienced individuals. IV fluids and salbutamol nebulizers may also be used to manage symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 121 - A 60-year-old patient who has not undergone a hysterectomy visits her GP clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient who has not undergone a hysterectomy visits her GP clinic for a follow-up on her hormone replacement therapy (HRT). She is currently using an estradiol patch that she changes once a week and taking norethisterone orally on a daily basis.

      What is the primary advice that the patient should be mindful of when taking progestogens?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      The addition of progesterone to hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, as well as venous thromboembolism and cardiovascular disease. HRT may be recommended for menopausal patients experiencing vasomotor symptoms such as hot flashes, night sweats, and palpitations. However, if a patient only presents with urogenital symptoms, topical oestrogens such as oestradiol creams or pessaries may be more appropriate. These act locally to alleviate vaginal dryness, reduce UTI recurrence, and ease dyspareunia. For patients with vasomotor symptoms, HRT preparations with systemic effects (such as oral medications, topical patches, and implants) may be considered. If the patient has not undergone a hysterectomy, their HRT regime must include both oestrogen and progesterone to prevent hypertrophy of the uterus and a 5-10x increased risk of endometrial carcinoma associated with unopposed oestrogen therapy.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.

      Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.

      HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 122 - A 61-year-old man presents to his GP with chronic right upper quadrant pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man presents to his GP with chronic right upper quadrant pain and an outpatient ultrasound scan reveals multiple calculi in a thin-walled gallbladder. Additionally, an incidental finding of a 4.6cm diameter abdominal aortic aneurysm is noted. What is the most suitable approach for managing his abdominal aortic aneurysm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surveillance ultrasound scan in 3 months

      Explanation:

      If an aneurysm is asymptomatic and measures less than 5.5 cm in diameter, the recommended course of action is observation. The risk of spontaneous rupture is low, and surgery poses greater risks than monitoring the aneurysm. Ultrasound scans are typically used to monitor unruptured aneurysms, with the frequency of scans determined by the size of the aneurysm. For aneurysms measuring between 4.4 cm and 5.5 cm, scans are conducted every three months. While CT angiograms are used for post-operative surveillance, the high radiation exposure makes them unsuitable for monitoring unruptured aneurysms, which may require frequent scans.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.

      For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 123 - A 32-year-old female complains of fatigue and frequent headaches. During the swinging light...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female complains of fatigue and frequent headaches. During the swinging light test, an abnormality is noticed in her eyes. Both pupils appear to dilate as the light is moved from the left to the right eye. However, the pupillary response to accommodation is normal bilaterally. Fundoscopy also reveals normal findings bilaterally. The patient has a medical history of type one diabetes and hypertension. What is the probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Marcus-Gunn Pupil (relative afferent pupillary defect) on the right

      Explanation:

      The swinging light test can diagnose Marcus Gunn pupil (also known as relative afferent pupillary defect). If there is damage to the afferent pathway (retina or optic nerve) of one eye, the affected eye’s pupil will abnormally dilate when a light is shone into it because the healthy eye’s consensual pupillary relaxation response will dominate. This condition can be found in patients with multiple sclerosis, so it should be ruled out in this patient based on the history. However, the history and examination findings do not suggest raised intracranial pressure, which typically presents with symptoms such as a headache, vomiting, bilateral blurred vision, and seizures, and often shows bilateral papilloedema on fundoscopy. Although the patient is diabetic, diabetic eye disease typically does not affect pupillary light responses, and some abnormality on fundoscopy would be expected. The information provided does not match Holmes-Aide’s pupil, which is a dilated pupil that poorly reacts to direct light but slowly reacts to accommodation. The history also does not suggest Argyll Robertson pupil, which is characterised by a constricted pupil that does not respond to light but responds to accommodation and is often associated with neurosyphilis.

      Understanding Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect

      A relative afferent pupillary defect, also known as the Marcus-Gunn pupil, is a condition that can be identified through the swinging light test. This condition is caused by a lesion that is located anterior to the optic chiasm, which can be found in the optic nerve or retina.

      When conducting the swinging light test, the affected eye will appear to dilate when light is shone on it, while the normal eye will not. This is due to the fact that the afferent pathway of the pupillary light reflex is disrupted. The pathway starts from the retina, then goes through the optic nerve, lateral geniculate body, and midbrain. The efferent pathway, on the other hand, starts from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain and goes through the oculomotor nerve.

      There are various causes of relative afferent pupillary defect, such as retina detachment and optic neuritis, which is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis. Understanding this condition is important in diagnosing and treating patients who may be experiencing vision problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 124 - A 12-year-old boy is brought into the emergency department by the paramedics, accompanied...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is brought into the emergency department by the paramedics, accompanied by three friends of the same age who called for help. According to the boy's friends, he admitted to taking 30 paracetamol tablets the previous night and coughing up blood while they were playing in a nearby park. As the attending healthcare provider, you attempt to assess the child, but he refuses to speak with you. Despite appearing alert and talkative with his friends, he insists that his parents not be contacted, that it was all a joke, and that he does not require medical attention.

      What is the appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speak with the child to assess her capacity and to advise her of the serious nature of a paracetamol overdose and the witnessed blood, and the importance of contacting her parents to attend

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Minors: Competency and Best Interests

      When treating minors, it is important to consider their competency and best interests. In the case of an 11-year-old child refusing treatment, it would be unusual for them to be considered Gillick competent. Even if they were, their refusal could be overridden by someone with parental responsibility. It is crucial for practitioners to act in the best interests of their patients and provide sufficient information to the child, explaining the importance of contacting their parents.

      If the child is deemed incompetent, treatment must be provided in their best interests under the common law doctrine of necessity. This is consistent with ethical guidance from the GMC, which allows for treatment without consent in emergency situations where it is necessary to save the patient’s life or prevent serious deterioration of their condition. However, if the child is competent and refusing vital treatment, urgent efforts should be made to obtain authority from someone with parental responsibility or through the courts.

      In cases where there is a concern for the child’s safety or risk of abuse, it may be appropriate to contact social services. Practitioners should review local child protection guidance and be familiar with the Department for Education’s guidance on what to do if a child is being abused. Overall, the treatment of minors requires careful consideration of their competency and best interests, as well as adherence to legal and ethical guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
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  • Question 125 - A 32-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease undergoes emergency surgery involving resection of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease undergoes emergency surgery involving resection of a portion of his bowel. At the clinico-pathological conference, the histological findings of the operative sample are discussed.
      Which of the following features is most indicative of Crohn’s disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transmural inflammation

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Between Crohn’s Disease and Ulcerative Colitis: Histopathological Features

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a term used to describe two conditions: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. While both conditions share some similarities, they have distinct differences that can be identified through histopathological examination of surgical specimens.

      Transmural inflammation, which affects all layers of the intestinal wall, is a hallmark feature of Crohn’s disease. This type of inflammation is not typically seen in ulcerative colitis. Additionally, Crohn’s disease often presents as skip lesions, meaning that affected areas are separated by healthy tissue. In contrast, ulcerative colitis typically presents as continuous disease limited to the large bowel.

      Crypt abscesses, which are collections of inflammatory cells within the crypts of the intestinal lining, are more commonly seen in ulcerative colitis. Mucosal inflammation, which affects only the surface layer of the intestinal lining, is more typical of ulcerative colitis as well.

      Other histopathological features that can help distinguish between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis include the presence of rose thorn ulcers (deep ulcers with a characteristic appearance) in Crohn’s disease and lymphoid aggregates in Crohn’s disease but not in ulcerative colitis.

      In summary, while Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis share some similarities, histopathological examination of surgical specimens can help differentiate between the two conditions based on the presence or absence of certain features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 126 - During her prenatal appointment, a mother informs her obstetrician that she was previously...

    Incorrect

    • During her prenatal appointment, a mother informs her obstetrician that she was previously diagnosed with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). What is the procedure that poses the highest risk of bleeding in the newborn?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolonged ventouse delivery

      Explanation:

      During pregnancies, immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) can become a complication if maternal antiplatelet antibodies pass through the placenta. In such cases, ventouse delivery can cause bleeding in the neonate due to the high vacuum pressure. This can worsen conditions like cephalohaematoma or subgaleal haemorrhage, especially if the neonate has thrombocytopenia. While forceps and fetal blood sampling can be used with caution, they are not as risky.

      Understanding the Difference between Gestational Thrombocytopenia and Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP)

      Gestational thrombocytopenia and immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) are two conditions that affect platelet count during pregnancy. Gestational thrombocytopenia is a common condition that results from a combination of factors such as dilution, decreased production, and increased destruction of platelets. On the other hand, ITP is an autoimmune condition that is usually associated with acute purpuric episodes in children, but a chronic relapsing course may be seen more frequently in women.

      Differentiating between the two conditions can be challenging and often relies on a careful history. Gestational thrombocytopenia may be considered more likely if the platelet count continues to fall as pregnancy progresses, but this is not a reliable sign. If the patient becomes dangerously thrombocytopenic, she will usually be treated with steroids, and a diagnosis of ITP assumed. Pregnant women found to have low platelets during a booking visit or those with a previous diagnosis of ITP may need to be tested for serum antiplatelet antibodies for confirmation.

      It is important to note that gestational thrombocytopenia does not affect the neonate, but ITP can do if maternal antibodies cross the placenta. Depending on the degree of thrombocytopenia in the newborn, platelet transfusions may be indicated. Serial platelet counts can also be performed to see whether there is an inherited thrombocytopenia. Understanding the difference between these two conditions is crucial in ensuring proper diagnosis and management during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 127 - A 52-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for recent onset of acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for recent onset of acute back pain. For the last three months, she has been having a burning sensation and tingling of the hands and feet. Her past medical history includes hypertension, diabetes, coronary artery disease and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). She is on medication for her hypertension and diabetes which are well controlled. X-ray of thoracic vertebrae demonstrates punched-out lytic lesions.
      Her laboratory investigation report shows the following abnormalities:
      Investigations Results Normal values
      Calcium 3.2 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
      Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Haemoglobin 98 g/dl 115–155 g/l
      What is the most appropriate next investigation in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine analysis

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Peripheral Neuropathy in a Patient with Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic clonal expansion of plasma cells that produce monoclonal immunoglobulins. It can cause extensive skeletal damage by osteopenia and inducing osteolytic bone lesions. Peripheral neuropathy symptoms (both sensory and motor involvement can be seen) are present in this patient at the same time of the onset of bone pain. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify the cause of peripheral neuropathy in a patient with multiple myeloma:

      24-hour urine electrophoresis test: This test could confirm the diagnosis of multiple myeloma through the identification of Bence-Jones protein, a characteristic finding in multiple myeloma.

      Autoimmune antibodies: Autoimmune conditions like Sjögren syndrome, lupus and rheumatoid arthritis can give rise to symptoms of peripheral neuropathy. However, the patient’s history and clinical findings do not correlate with these conditions.

      Glycosylated haemoglobin: Peripheral neuropathy is a complication of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. However, given that it is well controlled in this patient, it is highly unlikely to be a cause of her symptoms.

      Serum vitamin B12 estimation: Vitamin B12 deficiency causes peripheral neuropathy. However, it does not cause osteolytic lesions in the vertebrae, as in this patient’s case.

      Thyroid function tests: Hypothyroidism, which is long-standing and often untreated, can lead to complications of peripheral neuropathy. However, hypercalcaemia found in this patient would go against this diagnosis and performing thyroid function tests would not be a correct option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 128 - What hand abnormalities are typical in children with achondroplasia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What hand abnormalities are typical in children with achondroplasia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trident hand

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia

      Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that results in disproportionate short stature. This condition is characterized by an enlarged head and short arms and legs when compared to the trunk length. Individuals with achondroplasia typically reach an adult height of about 4 feet, which is significantly shorter than the average height for adults. In addition to short stature, people with achondroplasia may have other physical features, such as short hands with stubby fingers and a trident hand, which is a separation between the middle and ring fingers.

      In summary, achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that affects bone growth and development, resulting in disproportionate short stature and other physical features. While there is no cure for achondroplasia, early intervention and management can help individuals with this condition lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 129 - A 70-year-old man presents with a painful swelling on his left calf that...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with a painful swelling on his left calf that appeared a few days ago. He denies any history of trauma and is otherwise healthy with well-controlled hypertension. On examination, there is a tender, inflamed mass under the skin with mild erythema but no signs of cellulitis or DVT. The patient is afebrile and all vital signs are normal. The suspected diagnosis is uncomplicated superficial thrombophlebitis. What is the most appropriate management plan, in addition to analgesia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer compression stockings (once arterial insufficiency has been excluded)

      Explanation:

      Compression stockings are a recommended treatment for superficial thrombophlebitis, which occurs when a clot forms in a superficial vein, typically the saphenous vein and its tributaries. In addition to pain relief, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) suggests using compression stockings after ruling out arterial insufficiency with an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) measurement. NICE also recommends considering referral for venous duplex scanning, as some patients may benefit from low molecular weight heparin treatment if they are at high risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or if the thrombophlebitis is near the saphenofemoral junction. Warfarin is not the first-line treatment. Clopidogrel is commonly used to treat peripheral arterial disease. Antibiotics may be necessary if there are signs of secondary infection, such as fever or malaise. Simple superficial thrombophlebitis typically does not require referral to a vascular surgeon.

      Superficial thrombophlebitis is inflammation associated with thrombosis of a superficial vein, usually the long saphenous vein of the leg. Around 20% of cases have an underlying deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and 3-4% may progress to a DVT if untreated. Treatment options include NSAIDs, topical heparinoids, compression stockings, and low-molecular weight heparin. Patients with clinical signs of superficial thrombophlebitis affecting the proximal long saphenous vein should have an ultrasound scan to exclude concurrent DVT. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis at, or extending towards, the sapheno-femoral junction can be considered for therapeutic anticoagulation for 6-12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 130 - These results were obtained on a 30-year-old male who has presented with tiredness:
    Free...

    Incorrect

    • These results were obtained on a 30-year-old male who has presented with tiredness:
      Free T4 9.3 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)
      TSH 49.31 mU/L (0.35-5.50)
      What signs might be expected in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slow relaxation of biceps reflex

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Symptoms of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is diagnosed through blood tests that show low levels of T4 and elevated levels of TSH. Physical examination may reveal slow relaxation of tendon jerks, bradycardia, and goitre. A bruit over a goitre is associated with Graves’ thyrotoxicosis, while palmar erythema and fine tremor occur in thyrotoxicosis. In addition to these common symptoms, hypothyroidism may also present with rarer features such as cerebellar features, compression neuropathies, hypothermia, and macrocytic anaemia. It is important to diagnose and treat hypothyroidism promptly to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 131 - A 78-year-old man is currently receiving end-of-life care due to advanced lung cancer....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man is currently receiving end-of-life care due to advanced lung cancer. He has been experiencing intermittent episodes of vomiting, reflux and early satiety believed to be caused by autonomic dysfunction resulting in gastric stasis. He also has a history of Parkinson’s disease.
      What would be the most suitable pharmacological treatment to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Domperidone

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Medications for Nausea and Vomiting in Patients with Parkinson’s Disease

      Patients with Parkinson’s disease may experience nausea and vomiting due to gastric stasis or other underlying conditions. When selecting a medication to treat these symptoms, it is important to consider the patient’s history of Parkinson’s disease and the potential for extrapyramidal side-effects.

      Domperidone is a good option for treating nausea caused by gastric stasis because it does not cross the blood-brain barrier, reducing the risk of extrapyramidal effects. Cyclizine is typically used for movement-related or intracranial disease-related nausea and vomiting. Dexamethasone may be considered if other medications are ineffective, but it is primarily used for intracranial disease-related nausea and vomiting. Haloperidol is not recommended for patients with Parkinson’s disease due to its potential to increase extrapyramidal symptoms. Metoclopramide is a first-line prokinetic for motility disorder-related nausea and vomiting, but its use should be carefully monitored in patients with Parkinson’s disease due to the risk of extrapyramidal effects.

      Overall, the choice of medication for nausea and vomiting in patients with Parkinson’s disease should be made on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the patient’s individual medical history and potential risks and benefits of each medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
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  • Question 132 - A 35-year-old primigravida woman at 30 weeks gestation arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primigravida woman at 30 weeks gestation arrives at the Emergency Department with premature rupture of membranes. She has had an uncomplicated pregnancy and is in good health. What is the optimal approach to managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit her for at least 48 hours and prescribe antibiotics and steroids

      Explanation:

      At 32 weeks gestation, this woman may be experiencing labor with ruptured membranes. It is important to admit her and administer steroids to promote the baby’s lung development. Antibiotics, such as erythromycin, should also be given to prevent sepsis and post-natal infection. Hospital guidelines should always be consulted, especially if Group B streptococcus is present, in which case penicillin and clindamycin may be used. If labor does not progress, the woman may be able to manage at home with temperature checks every 4-8 hours and returning to the hospital if a fever occurs. Delivery at 34 weeks may be considered if the risk of infection outweighs the risk of prematurity now that the baby’s lungs have matured.

      Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.

      The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 133 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset, severe chest pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset, severe chest pain, radiating to the intrascapular area, which he describes as a tearing-type pain.
      The patient is usually well, with the only other medical history of note being a diagnosis of Ehlers–Danlos syndrome. He is a non-smoker and rarely drinks.
      On examination, the patient appears to be in a significant amount of pain. He is apyrexial, with oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. Of note, the patient has a blood pressure of 175/100 mmHg in the right arm and 150/80 mmHg in the left. An early diastolic murmur is also heard in the aortic area.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Aortic Dissection

      Aortic dissection is a medical emergency that occurs when there is a tear in the aortic intima, creating a false lumen between the intima and media. This condition is more likely to occur in men, older individuals, and those with hypertension or connective tissue disorders such as Marfan and Ehlers-Danlos syndromes.

      The classic presentation of aortic dissection includes abrupt chest pain that is often described as a shearing or tearing-type pain that may radiate to the back. Other symptoms may include differences in blood pressure between the right and left arm, aortic regurgitation, and signs of malperfusion.

      While a chest X-ray may show widening of the mediastinal shadow, imaging such as computed tomography (CT) or transoesophageal echocardiography is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment involves stabilizing the patient’s heart rate and blood pressure to prevent further damage, followed by surgical repair.

      Although myocardial infarction is a differential diagnosis, the classical history of presentation, age, and connective tissue disorder diagnosis make aortic dissection more likely in this scenario. Other differentials, such as ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm, acute pancreatitis, and pulmonary embolism, can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and examination findings.

      In conclusion, aortic dissection should be considered in any patient presenting with sudden-onset chest pain, especially those with risk factors for the condition. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
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  • Question 134 - An 88-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) via ambulance with...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) via ambulance with central crushing chest pain. An electrocardiogram (ECG) in the ambulance shows 3 mm ST elevation in the anterior leads consistent with a STEMI. His wife says he has a history of ischaemic heart disease and congestive cardiac failure. He has a cardiac arrest in the ED secondary to ventricular fibrillation. Despite resuscitation using advanced cardiac life support, he dies. His wife asks what will happen to his body.
      What is the most appropriate next step in management for this deceased patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to the coroner

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Filling out a Death Certificate

      When filling out a death certificate, it is important to follow certain guidelines to ensure accuracy and completeness. If the death was sudden and unexpected, it should be referred to the coroner. In part 1 of the certificate, the specific disease, illness, or complication that led to death should be stated, not a mode of dying. Terms such as cardiac arrest, old age, and coma are not suitable for part 1. In part 2, any conditions that may have contributed to the death should be listed, but terms such as heart failure, liver failure, and kidney failure are not acceptable. By following these guidelines, death certificates can provide valuable information for medical research and public health purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 135 - A 10-week-old girl is brought to the emergency department with concerns about her...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-week-old girl is brought to the emergency department with concerns about her breathing. Three days ago, the girl started with a runny nose and mild fever. She seemed to be getting better for a day, but now she is coughing frequently, struggling to breathe, and refusing to eat.
      During the examination, there is evidence of nasal flaring. On chest auscultation, there are bilateral crackles and an expiratory wheeze. Her temperature is 38.1ºC (normal: 36.1-38.0ºC), oxygen saturations are 97% on air (normal: >96%), the heart rate is 128 beats per minute (normal: 115-160), and she has a respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute (normal: 25-45).
      What is the most appropriate treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supportive measures only

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis in children can be managed with supportive therapy and does not require antibiotics. The patient in this case presents with typical symptoms of bronchiolitis, including a preceding coryzal phase, cough, increased work of breathing, and crackles and wheeze on auscultation. Although the patient has a mild temperature and tachypnoea, sepsis is not suspected as the normal parameters for children of this age are different. According to NICE guidelines, treatment for bronchiolitis should focus on supportive therapy, such as humidified oxygen or fluids if necessary. Salbutamol, amoxicillin, oral dexamethasone, and erythromycin are not recommended for bronchiolitis.

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 136 - A 26-year-old woman known to be 10 weeks pregnant is admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman known to be 10 weeks pregnant is admitted to the Surgical Assessment Unit with acute lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Examination reveals a large uterus and a dilated internal os. An inevitable miscarriage is diagnosed and the patient is taken to theatre for surgical evacuation. This is the patient’s third miscarriage in 3 years.
      What is the percentage chance that she will have a successful pregnancy on her fourth attempt?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Miscarriage: Types and Recurrence Rates

      Miscarriage is a common experience for many women, but it can still be a difficult and emotional event. It is defined as any pregnancy loss that occurs before 24 weeks of gestation. There are several types of miscarriage, including threatened, inevitable, incomplete, complete, missed, anembryonic, septic, and recurrent. Recurrent miscarriage, which is defined as three or more consecutive losses, is a particular concern for many women. The risk of recurrence is important to consider when offering parental counseling, as it can impact the chances of a successful pregnancy. For women without specific cause for recurrence, the percentage chance of a live birth in a subsequent pregnancy decreases with each miscarriage: 85% after one, 75% after two, and 60% after three. It’s important to remember that while miscarriage can be distressing, the chances of a successful pregnancy increase with each attempt.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 137 - A 53-year-old man is brought to the ED by ambulance after his daughter...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old man is brought to the ED by ambulance after his daughter found him acting strangely in the basement. During transport, he experienced a seizure lasting for 2 minutes. According to the daughter, she found an empty bottle of insecticide near him, and he had been feeling down for the past few months after his divorce.

      What would be the best initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fomepizole

      Explanation:

      In the case of a person who has ingested antifreeze (ethylene glycol) with suicidal intent, the primary treatment is fomepizole. If fomepizole is not effective, ethanol is used as a secondary treatment, and dialysis is used in severe cases. Flumazenil is used to treat benzodiazepine overdoses, while N-acetylcysteine is used for paracetamol overdose. Naloxone is used to treat opioid overdose, and hyperbaric oxygen is used for carbon monoxide poisoning.

      Understanding Ethylene Glycol Toxicity and Its Management

      Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol commonly used as a coolant or antifreeze. Its toxicity is characterized by three stages of symptoms. The first stage is similar to alcohol intoxication, with confusion, slurred speech, and dizziness. The second stage involves metabolic acidosis with high anion gap and high osmolar gap, as well as tachycardia and hypertension. The third stage is acute kidney injury.

      In the past, ethanol was the primary treatment for ethylene glycol toxicity. It works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase, which limits the formation of toxic metabolites responsible for the haemodynamic and metabolic features of poisoning. However, in recent times, fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, has become the first-line treatment preference over ethanol. Haemodialysis also has a role in refractory cases.

      Overall, understanding the stages of ethylene glycol toxicity and the changing management options is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide effective treatment and prevent further harm to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 138 - Over the last 150 years, the life expectancy of people in all countries...

    Incorrect

    • Over the last 150 years, the life expectancy of people in all countries throughout the world has continued to increase. What is the estimated maximum lifespan for a human being?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 131-140 years

      Explanation:

      The Limits of Human Lifespan

      Life Expectancy and Maximum Lifespan

      Life expectancy has been increasing steadily in both developing and developed countries. In fact, it is estimated that 50% of baby girls born in the UK at the turn of the millennium will live to be over 100 years old. This is a remarkable achievement, but it is important to note that it is not the same as the maximum human lifespan.

      The Ceiling of Human Lifespan

      Despite the advances in medicine and technology, the maximum human lifespan has remained unchanged for over 500 years. It is believed that this is due to a combination of genetic programming and environmental factors. Scientists estimate that the maximum human lifespan is around 140 years old. While there have been a few individuals who have lived beyond this age, they are extremely rare.

      The Possibility of Immortality

      If the ceiling of human lifespan could be broken, it would have significant implications for the concept of immortality. While it may not be possible to achieve true immortality, an increase in lifespan to hundreds of years would be a significant step forward. However, it is important to remember that we are still far from achieving this goal.

      Conclusion

      Life expectancy is increasing, but the maximum human lifespan remains unchanged. While it is possible that we may one day break through the ceiling of human lifespan, we are not there yet. In the meantime, we should focus on improving the quality of life for those who are living longer and finding ways to prevent age-related diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 139 - A 72-year-old hospitalised man with a urinary tract infection and an indwelling bladder...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old hospitalised man with a urinary tract infection and an indwelling bladder catheter (due to a bladder outlet obstruction) has developed episodic fever, chills and a fall in systemic blood pressure since yesterday. The episodes occur irregularly and last almost an hour, during which time he becomes delirious.
      Which of the following factors plays a key role in the pathogenesis of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lipopolysaccharide

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Role of Lipopolysaccharide in Septic Shock

      Septic shock is a serious medical condition that can occur as a result of a systemic inflammatory response to an infection. In this state, the body’s immune system is activated, leading to the release of cytokines such as tumour necrosis factor and interleukins. However, the main inciting agent responsible for this activation is Gram-negative bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

      LPS plays a key role in the induction of the monocyte-macrophage system, leading to the release of cytokines and subsequent shock. Nitric oxide, also released by LPS-activated macrophages, contributes to the hypotension associated with sepsis. Additionally, tissue hypoxia can lead to increased production of lactic acid, although lactic acidosis is not the main player in shock.

      Understanding the role of LPS in septic shock is crucial for effective treatment and management of this condition. By targeting the underlying cause of the immune system activation, healthcare professionals can work to prevent the development of septic shock and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 140 - A 4-year-old child was admitted with a high fever, cervical lymph node enlargement,...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child was admitted with a high fever, cervical lymph node enlargement, conjunctival congestion, redness of lips and palms, and desquamation of fingertips. Upon examination, erythema of the oral cavity was observed. Blood tests showed a hemoglobin level of 110 g/l and a platelet count of 450,000. The symptoms resolved after two weeks, but during the third week, the child unexpectedly passed away. An autopsy revealed vasculitis of the coronary arteries and aneurysm formation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kawasaki’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Kawasaki’s Disease and Differential Diagnosis

      Kawasaki disease, also known as mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome, is a multisystem disease that primarily affects children under the age of 5. It is characterized by fever, cervical adenitis, and changes in the skin and mucous membranes. While generally benign and self-limited, it can lead to coronary artery aneurysms in 25% of cases and has a case-fatality rate of 0.5-2.8%. Treatment with high-dose intravenous globulin and aspirin has been shown to be effective in reducing the prevalence of coronary artery abnormalities.

      When considering a differential diagnosis, it is important to distinguish Kawasaki disease from other conditions with similar symptoms. Scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, diphtheria, and Marfan syndrome can all present with fever and cardiovascular involvement, but each has distinct clinical features and underlying pathophysiologic mechanisms. Careful evaluation and diagnosis are essential for appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 141 - A 68-year-old man was recently admitted to hospital with small bowel obstruction. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man was recently admitted to hospital with small bowel obstruction. A nasogastric (NG) tube was inserted, and he has been prescribed intravenous (IV) fluids. Three days later, he reports feeling short of breath, and on examination, he has widespread fine crackles and pitting sacral oedema. His notes show that he has been receiving 2 litres of fluid a day and that he weighs 50 kg. You treat him, and once his symptoms have resolved, you're-calculate his daily maintenance fluid requirements.
      Which of the following options is the most suitable amount of daily fluid to give to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1000–1500 ml

      Explanation:

      Calculating Fluid Requirements for a Patient with Fluid Overload

      When determining a patient’s fluid requirements, it is important to consider their weight and any underlying medical conditions. For this particular patient, who weighs 48 kg, her maintenance fluid requirement is between 1200-1440 ml per day, calculated using 25-30 ml/kg/day.

      However, this patient has developed fluid overload and pulmonary edema, likely due to receiving 2 liters of fluid per day. While this may have been necessary initially due to fluid loss from bowel obstruction, it is now important to step down to normal maintenance levels.

      Giving the patient 1500-2000 ml of fluid per day would still be too much, as evidenced by examination findings of pitting sacral edema and widespread fine crackles. The maximum amount of fluid needed for maintenance therapy is 1440 ml per day.

      It is crucial to monitor fluid intake and adjust as necessary to prevent further complications from fluid overload. Giving too much fluid, such as 2500-3500 ml per day, can be harmful for a patient with fluid overload and should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
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  • Question 142 - A 25-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus attends clinic for pre-pregnancy counselling...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus attends clinic for pre-pregnancy counselling with regard to her glycaemic control.
      Which one of the following is the best test that will help you to advise the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HbA1c

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diabetes Tests During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, it is important for diabetic mothers to have good glycaemic control to prevent complications such as increased miscarriage rate, birth defects, and perinatal mortality. One way to measure glycaemic control is through the HbA1c test, which measures the average blood glucose concentration over the lifespan of a haemoglobin molecule. A level below 6% is considered good. Folic acid supplementation is also important to prevent neural tube defects in the baby.

      The 2-hour glucose tolerance test (GTT) is used to screen for diabetes in pregnant women. However, there is no such thing as a 30-minute GTT. Random blood sugar tests only provide a snapshot measurement and do not take into account overall control or other factors that could be affecting sugar levels at that moment. Sugar series tests are not useful for pre-pregnancy counselling as they do not provide information about overall control. Diabetic mothers should be cared for by a joint obstetric-endocrine team of clinicians throughout their pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 143 - A 15-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after a football injury resulting...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after a football injury resulting in a fracture. Despite reduction, the patient is experiencing severe pain, especially during passive stretching. The affected arm is visibly swollen, and the patient reports tingling sensations in their hand and forearm. What type of fracture is commonly associated with these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supracondylar fracture

      Explanation:

      Compartment syndrome is often linked to fractures in the supracondylar region of the arm and the tibial shaft in the lower leg. Symptoms include excessive pain, especially during passive stretching, as well as swelling and paraesthesia in the affected limb. Late signs may include numbness and paralysis.

      Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20 mmHg being abnormal and over 40 mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may develop myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 144 - A 21-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of abdominal pain that started...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of abdominal pain that started yesterday. She had her last period 2 weeks ago, and her menstrual cycle is usually regular. She has had multiple sexual partners in the past 6 months and has been experiencing deep dyspareunia lately. She has noticed an increase in vaginal discharge over the past few days, and the pain is not relieved by paracetamol. During the examination, her temperature is 37.8 °C, and she is otherwise stable within the normal range. Her abdomen is soft but tender, and a cervical exam reveals cervical excitation +++ with right adnexal tenderness and thick yellow/green discharge from the cervical os. Swabs are taken, and there is no bleeding. A urine β-HCG test is negative. What would be your next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give intramuscular (im) ceftriaxone stat and a 14-day course of doxycycline and metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common condition caused by the ascending infection of Chlamydia or gonorrhoeae from the vagina. The symptoms include bilateral lower abdominal pain, deep dyspareunia, and abnormal bleeding or discharge. The recent British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) guideline recommends empirical antibiotic treatment for sexually active women under 25 who have these symptoms. The treatment includes stat im ceftriaxone and a 2-week course of doxycycline and metronidazole. Intravenous therapy is indicated in severe cases.

      Pelvic ultrasound scan is not necessary for the diagnosis of PID. Blood tests to check inflammatory markers and serum β-HCG are not required if the clinic history and examination suggest PID. Analgesia and observation are not sufficient for the treatment of PID. Oral antibiotics alone are not recommended for the treatment of PID.

      In conclusion, PID requires prompt and appropriate treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics. The recommended treatment options should be followed based on the severity of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 145 - A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) continues to be breathless...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) continues to be breathless at rest despite maximal inhaler therapy, pulmonary rehabilitation and home oxygen therapy. He has been reviewed for lung volume reduction surgery but was deemed unsuitable. He is referred for consideration of lung transplantation.
      His FEV1 is 30% predicted, he has not smoked for 12 years, and his past medical history includes bowel cancer, for which he underwent partial colectomy and adjunctive chemotherapy six years previously without evidence of recurrence on surveillance, and pulmonary tuberculosis age 37, which was fully sensitive and treated with six months of anti-tuberculous therapy. The patient’s body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m2.
      What feature in this patient’s history would make him ineligible for listing for lung transplantation at this time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FEV1 30% predicted

      Explanation:

      Contraindications for Lung Transplantation in a Patient with COPD

      Lung transplantation is a potential treatment option for patients with end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, certain factors may make a patient ineligible for the procedure.

      One important factor is the patient’s forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) percentage predicted. The International Society for Heart and Lung Transplantation recommends a minimum FEV1 of less than 25% predicted for lung transplantation. In addition, patients must have a Body mass index, airflow Obstruction, Dyspnea and Exercise capacity (BODE) index of 5 to 6, a PaCO2 > 6.6 kPa and/or a PaO2 < 8 kPa. A previous history of pulmonary tuberculosis is also a contraindication to lung transplantation, as active infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis can complicate the procedure. The patient’s body mass index (BMI) is another important consideration. A BMI greater than 35 kg/m2 is an absolute contraindication to transplant, while a BMI between 30 and 35 kg/m2 is a relative contraindication. Age is also a factor, with patients over 65 years old being considered a relative contraindication to lung transplantation. However, there is no absolute age limit for the procedure. Finally, a previous history of malignancy may also impact a patient’s eligibility for lung transplantation. If the malignancy has a low risk of recurrence, such as basal cell carcinoma, patients may be considered for transplant after two years. For most other cancers, a five-year period without recurrence is required. In this case, the patient’s previous malignancy occurred six years ago and would not be an absolute contraindication to transplantation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 146 - A 45-year-old man is admitted to Emergency Department (ED) with haematemesis of bright...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is admitted to Emergency Department (ED) with haematemesis of bright red blood. He is an alcoholic. He has cool extremities, guarding over the epigastric region, he is ascitic, and has eight spider naevi on his neck and chest. An ABCD management is begun along with fluid resuscitation.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what medication is it most important to start?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Terlipressin

      Explanation:

      In cases of suspected variceal bleeding, the priority medication to administer is terlipressin. This drug causes constriction of the mesenteric arterial circulation, leading to a decrease in portal venous inflow and subsequent reduction in portal pressure, which can help to control bleeding. Band ligation should be performed after administering terlipressin, and if bleeding persists, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be necessary. Antibiotics may also be given prophylactically, but they do not directly affect bleeding. Clopidogrel should be avoided as it can worsen bleeding, while omeprazole may be used according to hospital guidelines. Tranexamic acid is not indicated for oesophageal variceal bleeds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 147 - A 70-year-old man, with a history of atrial fibrillation, hypertension and type 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man, with a history of atrial fibrillation, hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden painless loss of vision in his left eye that lasted for a few minutes. He describes the loss of vision as a curtain coming into his vision, and he could not see anything out of it for a few minutes before his vision returned to normal.
      Upon examination, his acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, there is a small embolus in one of the vessels in the left eye. The rest of the fundus is normal in both eyes.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amaurosis fugax

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Vision Loss: Amaurosis Fugax, Anterior Ischaemic Optic Neuropathy, CRAO, CRVO, and Retinal Detachment

      When a patient presents with vision loss, it is important to differentiate between various causes. In the case of a transient and painless loss of vision, a typical diagnosis is amaurosis fugax. This is often seen in patients with atrial fibrillation and other vascular risk factors, and a small embolus may be present on fundoscopy. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause and treating it as an eye transischaemic attack (TIA).

      Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy, on the other hand, is caused by giant-cell arthritis and presents with a sudden, painless loss of vision. However, there is no evidence of this in the patient’s history.

      Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) is another potential cause of vision loss, but it does not present as a transient loss of vision. Instead, it causes long-lasting damage and may be identified by a cherry-red spot at the macula. The small embolus seen on fundoscopy is not causing a CRAO.

      Similarly, central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) presents with multiple flame haemorrhages, which are not present in this case.

      While the patient did mention a curtain-like loss of vision, this does not necessarily indicate retinal detachment. Retinal detachment typically presents with flashes and floaters, and vision is worse if the detachment is a macula-off detachment.

      In summary, careful consideration of the patient’s history and fundoscopic findings can help differentiate between various causes of vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 148 - A 38-year-old woman, who lived alone, scheduled a follow-up appointment with her GP....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman, who lived alone, scheduled a follow-up appointment with her GP. She had been self-isolating at home for several months due to the COVID-19 pandemic and continued to feel anxious about going out even after the lockdown was lifted.

      Prior to the pandemic, she had experienced a traumatic event and was struggling with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). She had also recently lost her job and was facing financial difficulties.

      During a telephone consultation with her GP 4 weeks ago, she was diagnosed with moderate depression and referred for computerised cognitive behavioural therapy. She was also advised to increase her physical activity levels.

      However, her mental health had since deteriorated, and she was experiencing difficulty sleeping, early morning awakening, and occasional thoughts of self-harm. She expressed reluctance to engage in one-to-one psychological treatments.

      The GP discussed the next steps in managing her depression and PTSD.

      What treatment options should be considered for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence citalopram

      Explanation:

      For patients with ‘less severe’ depression, SSRIs are the recommended first-line antidepressant. However, in the case of a patient with moderate depression who is not responding well to low-level therapy and has refused psychological treatments, an antidepressant should be offered. While mirtazapine and venlafaxine are valid options, they are not considered first-line. NICE recommends considering the higher likelihood of patients stopping treatment with venlafaxine due to side effects and its higher cost compared to SSRIs, which are equally effective. Mirtazapine and venlafaxine are typically reserved as second-line agents when the response to an SSRI has been poor. NICE advises offering an SSRI first-line as they have fewer side effects than other antidepressants and are just as effective. In this patient’s case, referral to a crisis team is unlikely as he has not expressed any true suicidal plans or intent.

      In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 149 - A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with excruciating pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with excruciating pain in his right loin that has been occurring in waves for the past 2 hours. The physician decides to prescribe analgesia to alleviate his discomfort. What would be the most suitable medication to administer at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac 75 mg IM

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines still advise the utilization of IM diclofenac as the primary treatment for acute renal colic due to its superior analgesic properties. While other analgesic options are also effective, they are not recommended as the first line of treatment for this condition.

      The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 150 - A 4-year-old girl presents with a 5-day history of fever, increasing irritability, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl presents with a 5-day history of fever, increasing irritability, and a rash. Her mother is concerned as she has been giving her paracetamol and ibuprofen but there has been no improvement. During examination, the child's temperature is 39.1°C, respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min, and heart rate is 140 beats/min. Further examination reveals bilateral conjunctivitis without exudate, cervical lymphadenopathy, erythema of the oral mucosa, and a non-vesicular rash that is spreading from her hands and feet. What is the immediate treatment that should be administered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High dose aspirin and a single dose of intravenous immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for the child with Kawasaki disease, who meets at least five of the six diagnostic criteria, is a high dose of aspirin and a single dose of intravenous immunoglobulin. The initial dose of aspirin should be 7.5-12.5 mg/kg, given four times a day for two weeks or until the child is afebrile. After that, the dose should be reduced to 2-5 mg/kg once daily for 6-8 weeks. Intravenous immunoglobulin should be administered at a dose of 2 g/kg daily for one dose, and it should be given within 10 days of the onset of symptoms. These recommendations are based on the BNF for Children.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

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      • Paediatrics
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