-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) after her friends told her that her skin and eyes have become yellow. She says that she has noticed this too, but over the past month it has become worse. Her clothes have become loose lately. Her past medical history includes type II diabetes mellitus, hypertension, dyslipidaemia and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
She has a 30-pack-year smoking history and consumes approximately 30 units of alcohol per week. In the past, the patient has had repeated admissions to the hospital for episodes of pancreatitis and she mentions that the surgeon explained to her that her pancreas has become scarred from these repeated episodes and is likely to cause her ongoing abdominal pain.
Which of the following is a risk factor for this patient’s most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Correct Answer: Chronic pancreatitis
Explanation:Risk Factors for Pancreatic Cancer
Pancreatic cancer is a serious condition that can be caused by various risk factors. One of the most common risk factors is chronic pancreatitis, which is often caused by excessive alcohol intake. Other risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, and obesity.
In the case of a patient with weight loss and painless jaundice, pancreatic cancer is the most likely diagnosis. This is supported by the patient’s history of repeated acute pancreatitis due to alcohol abuse, which can lead to chronic pancreatitis and increase the risk of developing pancreatic cancer.
COPD, on the other hand, is caused by smoking but is not a direct risk factor for pancreatic cancer. Obesity is also a risk factor for pancreatic cancer, as it increases the risk of developing diabetes mellitus, which in turn increases the risk of pancreatic cancer. Hypertension, however, is not a recognised risk factor for pancreatic cancer.
It is important to identify and address these risk factors in order to prevent the development of pancreatic cancer. Quitting smoking, reducing alcohol intake, maintaining a healthy weight, and managing diabetes mellitus and hypertension can all help to reduce the risk of developing this serious condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old-man visits his General Practitioner with concerns of constipation and rectal bleeding. He reports a recent loss of appetite and occasional abdominal pain over the past few months. The patient's blood test results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 98 g/l 130 – 180 g/l
Mean corpuscular value (MCV) 93 fl 80 –100 fl
What is the most suitable test to conduct for the diagnosis of this patient?Your Answer: Abdominal X-ray
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:The patient in this scenario presents with symptoms that suggest a blockage in their bowel and potential signs of cancer, such as a loss of appetite and anemia. Therefore, the most important initial investigation is a colonoscopy. A colonic transit study is not appropriate as it is used for slow colonic transit and this patient has symptoms of obstruction. An abdominal X-ray can be used to investigate faecal impaction and rectal masses, but a colonoscopy should be used first-line for detailed information about colonic masses. While a CT abdomen may be needed, a colonoscopy should be performed as the initial investigation for intestinal luminal obstruction and potential malignancy. Checking thyroid function may be useful if there is suspicion of a secondary cause of constipation, but in this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest colonic obstruction and cancer, making a thyroid function test an inappropriate initial investigation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man presents with upper abdominal pain and is diagnosed with Helicobacter pylori infection. He is treated with appropriate eradication therapy and advised to follow up with his general practitioner for testing of eradication.
What would be the most suitable method for testing eradication in this patient?Your Answer: Helicobacter immunoassay on a stool sample
Correct Answer: The 13C urea breath test
Explanation:Methods for Detecting and Confirming Eradication of H. pylori Infection
There are several methods available for detecting and confirming eradication of H. pylori infection. Serologic testing for antibodies to H. pylori in the blood or saliva is a cheap and simple initial detection method with high sensitivity and specificity. However, it is not useful for follow-up as patients may continue to have antibodies for several months after eradication therapy. Stool sample analysis may also be used for initial detection, but the 13C urea breath test is currently the only recommended method for confirming eradication following treatment. Histological examination of tissue biopsy samples is an invasive procedure and not recommended for eradication testing. The CLO test, which is carried out on biopsied tissue at endoscopy, can provide immediate results but is also an invasive procedure and not appropriate for confirming eradication. Overall, the 13C urea breath test is the most reliable method for confirming eradication of H. pylori infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 40-year-old male with a history of Ulcerative colitis (UC) presents with fatigue, abdominal pain, and generalized itching. During the examination, he is found to be jaundiced, and his blood tests reveal a significantly elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. An MRCP indicates the presence of multiple strictures in the biliary tree.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Explanation:Differentiating between liver conditions: Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis, Wilson’s Disease, Cholangitis, Cholecystitis, and Primary Biliary Cholangitis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition characterized by inflammation, fibrosis, and strictures of the bile ducts. MRCP can show multiple strictures in the biliary tree and a characteristic beaded appearance. PSC is often associated with ulcerative colitis.
Wilson’s disease is a rare inherited disorder that causes an accumulation of copper in various organs, particularly the liver and brain. Symptoms usually appear in teenage years and can include neuropsychiatric conditions or coagulopathy and hepatic encephalopathy. This does not fit with the case history given.
Cholangitis is an ascending infection of the biliary tree, but the absence of signs of infection and the presence of strictures make this diagnosis unlikely.
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder, often caused by gallstones. If the gallstones become lodged in the common bile duct, obstructive signs may be seen, but the finding of strictures on MRCP is more suggestive of PSC.
Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is an autoimmune disorder that causes destruction of the small interlobular bile ducts, leading to intrahepatic cholestasis, fibrosis, and ultimately cirrhosis of the liver. However, the patient’s history of ulcerative colitis makes PSC a more likely diagnosis. Additionally, strictures in the biliary tree would not be seen on MRCP in PBC.
In summary, the presence of strictures on MRCP and a history of ulcerative colitis suggest a diagnosis of primary sclerosing cholangitis, while other liver conditions such as Wilson’s disease, cholangitis, cholecystitis, and primary biliary cholangitis can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and diagnostic tests.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 28-year-old man presents with generalised pruritus, right upper quadrant pain and jaundice for the past month. He has a history of recurrent bloody bowel movements and painful defecation and is now being treated with sulfasalazine. His previous colonoscopy has shown superficial mucosal ulceration and inflammation, with many pseudopolyps involving the distal rectum up to the middle third of the transverse colon. On abdominal examination, the liver is slightly enlarged and tender. Total bilirubin level is 102.6 μmol/l and indirect bilirubin level 47.9 μmol/l. Alkaline phosphatase and γ-glutamyltransferase concentrations are moderately increased. Alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels are mildly elevated.
Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be positive in this patient?Your Answer: Perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA)
Explanation:Serologic Markers of Autoimmune Diseases
There are several serologic markers used to diagnose autoimmune diseases. These markers include perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA), anti-dsDNA antibody, antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA), and anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody (ASCA).
p-ANCA is elevated in patients with ulcerative colitis and/or primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). Anti-dsDNA antibody is found in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). ANA is a sensitive, but not specific, marker for a variety of autoimmune diseases such as SLE, mixed connective tissue disorder (MCTD), and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). ASMA, ANA, and anti-liver–kidney microsomal antibody-1 (LKM-1) are serologic markers of autoimmune hepatitis. Increased levels of ASCA are often associated with Crohn’s disease.
These serologic markers are useful in diagnosing autoimmune diseases, but they are not always specific to a particular disease. Therefore, they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical evaluation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Olivia is a 15-year-old girl presenting with abdominal pains. The abdominal pain was around her lower abdomen and is crampy in nature and occasionally radiates to her back. Her pain normally comes on approximately before the onset of her period. She also feels increasingly fatigued during this period. No abdominal pains were noted outside of this menstrual period. Olivia has no significant medical history. She denies any recent changes in her diet or bowel habits. She has not experienced any recent weight loss or rectal bleeding. She denies any family history of inflammatory bowel disease or colon cancer. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the likely 1st line treatment?
Your Answer: Tranexamic acid
Correct Answer: Mefenamic acid
Explanation:Primary dysmenorrhoea is likely the cause of the patient’s abdominal pain, as it occurs around the time of her menstrual cycle and there are no other accompanying symptoms. Since the patient is not sexually active and has no risk factors, a pelvic ultrasound may not be necessary to diagnose primary dysmenorrhoea. The first line of treatment for this condition is NSAIDs, such as mefenamic acid, ibuprofen, or naproxen, which work by reducing the amount of prostaglandins in the body and thereby reducing the severity of pain.
Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.
Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
An FY1 doctor on the surgical assessment unit reviews the result of a blood test of one of the admitted elderly patients. It appears that the elderly patient has had an acute rise in his plasma urea levels.
In which of the following conditions would you expect a raised plasma urea level in an elderly patient?Your Answer: Colon cancer
Correct Answer: Gastric ulcer
Explanation:Causes of Hyperuricaemia: Understanding the Relationship between Gastrointestinal Bleeding and Urea Production
Hyperuricaemia, or elevated levels of uric acid in the blood, can be caused by various medical conditions. One of the factors that contribute to this condition is gastrointestinal bleeding, particularly in the upper part of the digestive system. When there is bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract, such as in cases of gastric ulcer, the blood that is excreted undergoes digestion as it passes through the small intestine. This results in an increased production of urea, a by-product of blood digestion, which is then absorbed into the bloodstream. However, reduced renal perfusion in patients with upper gastrointestinal bleeding can further exacerbate the levels of urea in the blood, as excretion becomes less effective.
It is important to note that not all types of gastrointestinal bleeding are associated with hyperuricaemia. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding, such as in cases of diverticular disease, does not cause a rise in urea levels. This is because blood released in the lumen of the large bowel does not undergo the same amount of digestion as it does in the small intestine. Instead, the large bowel primarily functions to reabsorb water and sodium.
Other medical conditions, such as intracranial haemorrhage and ulcerative colitis, are not directly linked to hyperuricaemia. However, significant bleeding in any part of the body can indirectly cause this condition by leading to kidney hypoperfusion and pre-renal acute kidney failure.
In summary, understanding the relationship between gastrointestinal bleeding and urea production can help in identifying the causes of hyperuricaemia. While upper gastrointestinal bleeding can lead to elevated levels of urea in the blood, lower gastrointestinal bleeding and other medical conditions may not have the same effect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with excruciating chest pain. He has had severe vomiting and retching over the last 24 hours after he ate some off-food at a restaurant. The last four episodes of vomiting have been bloody and he states that he has vomited too many times to count. The patient has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension.
His observations are shown below:
Temperature 38.9 °C
Blood pressure 95/59 mmHg
Heart rate 115 beats per minute
Respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute
Sp(O2) 95% (room air)
Physical examination of the chest reveals subcutaneous emphysema over the chest wall. His electrocardiogram (ECG) is significant for sinus tachycardia without ischaemic changes and his blood tests results are shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
White cell count 21.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
C-reactive protein 105.5 mgl 0–10 mg/l
Haemoglobin 103 g/l 135–175 g/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Aortic dissection
Correct Answer: Boerhaave syndrome
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of Boerhaave syndrome, which is a serious condition where the oesophagus ruptures, often leading to severe complications and even death if not treated promptly. The patient’s history of severe retching after food poisoning is a likely cause of the rupture, which has caused gastric contents to spill into the mediastinum and cause rapid mediastinitis. Other causes of Boerhaave syndrome include iatrogenic factors, convulsions, and chest trauma. Treatment involves urgent surgical intervention, intravenous fluids, broad-spectrum antibiotics, and avoiding oral intake.
Acute coronary syndrome, aortic dissection, Mallory-Weiss tear, and pulmonary embolism are all unlikely diagnoses based on the patient’s symptoms and examination findings. ACS typically presents with chest pain and ischaemic changes on ECG, while aortic dissection presents with tearing chest pain, fever and leukocytosis are not typical features. Mallory-Weiss tear is associated with repeated vomiting and retching, but not haemodynamic instability, fever, or leukocytosis. Pulmonary embolism may cause tachycardia, but not subcutaneous emphysema or fever.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 70-year-old man presents with a history of intermittent constipation and diarrhoea and progressive weight loss over the past 3 months. During examination, he appears cachectic and has nodular hepatomegaly. He does not exhibit jaundice and his liver function tests are normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Liver metastases
Explanation:Liver Metastases: Causes and Differential Diagnosis
Liver metastases are a common cause of nodular hepatomegaly, with the most frequent primary sites being the bowel and breast. While palpable metastases may not affect liver function, obstruction to the biliary tract or involvement of over half of the liver can lead to impaired function and the presence of ascites. Autopsy studies have shown that 30-70% of cancer patients have liver metastases, with the frequency depending on the primary site. Most liver metastases are multiple and affect both lobes.
When considering a differential diagnosis, cirrhosis can be ruled out as it is the end-stage of chronic liver disease and would typically present with elevated serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Hepatoma is less common than metastases and lymphoma may present with evidence of involvement in other sites, such as lymphadenopathy. Myelofibrosis, which is associated with bone marrow fibrosis and abnormal stem cell appearance in the liver and spleen, may be asymptomatic in its early stages or present with leuko-erythroblastic anemia, malaise, weight loss, and night sweats. However, it is much less common than liver metastases.
In summary, liver metastases should be considered as a potential cause of nodular hepatomegaly, particularly in patients with a history of cancer. A thorough differential diagnosis should be conducted to rule out other potential causes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 45-year-old accountant presents with right upper quadrant pain and abnormal liver function tests. An ultrasound scan reveals a dilated common bile duct. The patient undergoes an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) procedure. During the procedure, the consultant asks you to identify the location of the Ampulla of Vater, which is cannulated. Can you tell me where the Ampulla of Vater enters the bowel?
Your Answer: Descending (second part) duodenum
Explanation:The Parts of the Duodenum: A Brief Overview
The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine and is divided into four parts. Each part has its own unique characteristics and functions.
Superior (first part) duodenum: This is the first part of the duodenum that connects the stomach to the small intestine.
Descending (second part) duodenum: The ampulla of Vater, where the common bile duct and pancreatic duct enter the duodenum, is located in this part. It is cannulated during ERCP to access the biliary tree.
Inferior (third part) duodenum: The ampulla of Vater does not join this part, but rather the second part.
Ascending (fourth part) duodenum: This is the last part of the duodenum that joins the jejunum, the second part of the small intestine.
Understanding the different parts of the duodenum is important for diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)