00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 37 year old female is admitted after she vomited blood. An upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 37 year old female is admitted after she vomited blood. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is performed and a large ulcer in the first part of the duodenum is noted. Attempts are made to endoscopically clip and inject the ulcer which is bleeding profusely but they are unsuccessful. What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Therapeutic angiogram

      Correct Answer: Laparotomy and underrunning of the ulcer

      Explanation:

      Ulcer bleeding stops spontaneously in about 80% of patients. Only a small percentage require specific measures to stop bleeding. surgery remains the most definitive method of controlling ulcer haemorrhage, and is indicated when endoscopic haemostasis fails to control the bleeding, or when rebleeding occurs. The morbidity and mortality of emergency surgery for ulcer bleeding is high. In principle, the operation performed should be the minimum compatible with permanent haemostasis. The choice of operations is determined by the site and size of the ulcer as well as the experience and preference of the surgeon. Most bleeding duodenal ulcers may be managed by underrunning the bleeding vessel together with vagotomy and pyloroplasty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      62.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - QT interval in the electrocardiogram of a healthy individual is normally: ...

    Correct

    • QT interval in the electrocardiogram of a healthy individual is normally:

      Your Answer: 0.40 s

      Explanation:

      QT interval extends from beginning of the QRS complex till the end of he T-wave and normally lasts for 0.40 s. It is important in the diagnosis of long-QT and short-QT syndrome. The QT interval varies on the basis of heart rate and may need to be corrected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      90.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30 year old clerk who has had recurrent episodes of periductal mastitis...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old clerk who has had recurrent episodes of periductal mastitis presents to the hospital with persistent green nipple discharge. Clinical examination reveals green nipple discharge, but no discrete lump. Her medical history shows that she has received multiple courses of antibiotics. Imaging with mammography and ultrasound is reassuring (U2, M2). Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Undertake a microdochectomy

      Correct Answer: Undertake a Hadfields procedure

      Explanation:

      Duct ectasia is the cause of nipple discharge, with different percentages recorded in different articles (>10%, >30% and >50%). Duct ectasia differs from cystic disease since it is an inflammatory process, usually affecting the ducts below the nipple. It develops gradually, either through the ductal system or the breast lobes. The acute inflammation may be caused by epithelial rupture and diffusion of the contents into the fibrous duct-wall and the underlying structures. These contents consist of neutral fat and lipid crystals that are typical of duct ectasia. The chronic granulation-type reaction may develop foreign body-like giant cells and a multiform inflammatory cell population. Since the whole process in duct ectasia is long in duration, plasma cells are sometimes dominant in the inflammatory infiltrations. Other findings in duct ectasia include the following:
      -Serous or green-white nipple discharge in 20% of cases;
      -Nipple inversion that leads to fibrosis and development of ring or tubular calcification (this finding is typical in the mammogram and especially when the disease is in its advanced stages);
      -Apocrine metaplasia with or without epithelial hyperplasia. The epithelial layer consists of widened atrophic cells.
      The condition may be managed symptomatically and/or with antibiotics, but in persistent or recurrent cases it is managed with surgical excision of the ducts below the nipple. A focused excision is preferred to a complete subareolar excision since the later technique is associated with higher rates of seroma formation, nipple numbness and nipple inversion. The Hadfield’s procedure (major duct excision) is an option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      74.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40 year old patient with an history of obesity has been diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old patient with an history of obesity has been diagnosed with meralgia parasthetica. The condition was discovered to be caused by the pinching of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. Injuries at what spinal levels usually affect this nerve?

      Your Answer: L2, L3

      Explanation:

      The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh arises from the dorsal division of the lumbar plexus of the second and the third lumbar nerves (L2 – L3). Spinal injuries at this level are likely to affect the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve innervates the skin on the lateral aspect of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      49.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and transmits the accessory meningeal artery?

      Your Answer: Foramen spinosum

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - After total thyroidectomy, which of the following investigations is recommended in the immediate...

    Correct

    • After total thyroidectomy, which of the following investigations is recommended in the immediate post-operative period?

      Your Answer: Serum calcium

      Explanation:

      Total thyroidectomy might sometimes result in inadvertent excision or damage of parathyroid glands, leading to hypoparathyroidism. Monitoring serum calcium levels in the post-operative period to detect hypocalcaemia is essential to diagnose and prevent this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old electrician is brought to the A&E department after a high-voltage full-thickness...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old electrician is brought to the A&E department after a high-voltage full-thickness burn to his left leg. His urinalysis shows haematuria 1+ and his blood reports show mild hyperkalaemia and serum CK level of 3000 U/L. What is the most likely explanation?

      Your Answer: Rhabdomyolysis

      Explanation:

      High-voltage electrical burns are associated with rhabdomyolysis. Acute tubular necrosis may also occur.

      Electrical burns occur following exposure to electrical current. Full-thickness burns are third-degree burns. With these types of burns, the epidermal and dermal layers of skin are destroyed, and the damage may even penetrate the layer of fat beneath the skin.

      Following the burn, there is a local response with progressive tissue loss and release of inflammatory cytokines. Systemically, there are cardiovascular effects resulting from fluid loss and sequestration of fluid into the third space. There is a marked catabolic response as well. Immunosuppression is common with large burns, and bacterial translocation from the gut lumen is a recognised event. Sepsis is a common cause of death following major burns.

      After the initial management and depth assessment of the burn, the patient is transferred to burn centre if:
      1. Needs burn shock resuscitation
      2. Face/hands/genitals affected
      3. Deep partial-thickness or full-thickness burns
      4. Significant electrical/chemical burns

      Management options include:
      1. The initial aim is to stop the burning process and resuscitate the patient. Adults with burns greater than 15% of total body surface area require burn fluid resuscitation. Fluids administration is calculated using the Parkland formula. Half of the fluid is administered in the first eight hours. A urinary catheter should be inserted and analgesics should be started.

      2. Conservative management is appropriate for superficial burns and mixed superficial burns that will heal in two weeks. More complex burns may require excision and skin grafting. Excision and primary closure is not generally practised as there is a high risk of infection.

      3. Circumferential full-thickness burns affecting a limb or severe torso burns impeding respiration may require escharotomy to divide the burnt tissue.

      4. There is no evidence to support the use of antimicrobial prophylaxis or topical antibiotics in burn patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      53.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 66 year old male, was involved in a MVA. He sustained third...

    Correct

    • A 66 year old male, was involved in a MVA. He sustained third degree burns to his abdomen and open bleeding wound to his left leg. The patient complains of dizziness. He is a known hypertensive but during examination was found to be hypotensive. His heart rate is 120/min, with regular rhythm. What is the possible cause of his hypotension?

      Your Answer: Hypovolaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypovolemia can be recognized by tachycardia, diminished blood pressure, and the absence of perfusion as assessed by skin signs (skin turning pale) and/or capillary refill time. The patient may feel dizzy, faint, nauseated, or very thirsty. Common causes of hypovolemia are loss of blood, loss of plasma which occurs in severe burns and lesions discharging fluid, loss of body sodium and consequent intravascular water which may occur in cases of diarrhoea and vomiting. In this case the cause of patients hypotension is due to hypovolemia from both loss of plasma and blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      108.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A chest x ray is ordered for a 39 year old man who...

    Correct

    • A chest x ray is ordered for a 39 year old man who presents with a history of a cough and weight loss for over a month. It shows a rounded opacity in the pleural cavity near the cardiac notch. The opacity is most likely to be in the:

      Your Answer: Costomediastinal recess

      Explanation:

      The costomediastinal recess is the point where the costal pleura becomes the mediastinal pleura, located right next to the cardiac notch.
      The cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib to the root of the lung.
      Hilum: located on the medial surface of the lung where neurovascular structures enter and leave the lung.
      Pulmonary ligament: pleural fold found below the root of the lung, is a point of continuity between the visceral and mediastinal pleura.
      Costodiaphragmatic recess: the lowest extent of the pleural cavity.
      Superior mediastinum: part of the mediastinum that contains the great vessels leaving and entering the heart.
      The cardiac notch is in the inferior mediastinum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      185.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27-yeaar-old woman is diagnosed with candidiasis and prescribed fluconazole. What is the...

    Correct

    • A 27-yeaar-old woman is diagnosed with candidiasis and prescribed fluconazole. What is the mechanism of action of fluconazole?

      Your Answer: Inhibits cytochrome P450

      Explanation:

      Fluconazole is a triazole antifungal drug used in the treatment and prevention of superficial and systemic fungal infections. Like other imidazole- and triazole-class antifungals, fluconazole inhibits the fungal cytochrome P450 enzyme, 14-demethylase. It is used to treat candidiasis, blastomycosis, coccidioidomycosis, cryptococcosis, histoplasmosis, dermatophytosis, and pityriasis versicolor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      32.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Generic Surgical Topics (0/2) 0%
Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery (0/1) 0%
Basic Sciences (6/7) 86%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Breast And Endocrine Surgery (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (2/3) 67%
Pathology (3/3) 100%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (1/1) 100%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (1/1) 100%
Passmed