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Question 1
Correct
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An 82-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with increasing shortness of breath on exertion and swelling of her ankles and lower legs. During examination, she appears alert and oriented, but has significant erythema of her malar area. Her cardiovascular system shows an irregular heart rate of 92-104 beats per minute with low volume, and a blood pressure of 145/90 mmHg lying and standing. Her jugular venous pressure is raised with a single waveform, and her apex beat is undisplaced and forceful in character. There is a soft mid-diastolic murmur heard during heart sounds 1 + 2. Bibasal crackles are present in her chest, and she has pitting peripheral edema to the mid-calf. Based on these findings, what is the most likely cause of her collapse?
Your Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Distinguishing Mitral Stenosis from Other Valvular Diseases: Exam Findings
Mitral stenosis is a condition that presents with symptoms of left and right ventricular failure, atrial fibrillation, and its complications. When examining a patient suspected of having mitral stenosis, there are several significant signs to look out for. These include a low-volume pulse, atrial fibrillation, normal pulse pressure and blood pressure, loss of ‘a’ waves and large v waves in the jugular venous pressure, an undisplaced, discrete/forceful apex beat, and a mid-diastolic murmur heard best with the bell at the apex. Additionally, patients with mitral stenosis often have signs of right ventricular dilation and secondary tricuspid regurgitation.
It is important to distinguish mitral stenosis from other valvular diseases, such as mixed mitral and aortic valve disease, aortic stenosis, aortic regurgitation, and mitral regurgitation. The examination findings for these conditions differ from those of mitral stenosis. For example, mixed mitral and aortic valve disease would not present with the same signs as mitral stenosis. Aortic stenosis presents with symptoms of left ventricular failure, angina, and an ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids. Aortic regurgitation causes an early diastolic murmur and a collapsing pulse on examination. Finally, mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur radiating to the axilla. By understanding the unique examination findings for each valvular disease, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Correct
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You are assisting in the anaesthesia of an 80-year-old man for a plastics procedure. He is having a large basal cell carcinoma removed from his nose. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, having had three stents placed 2 years ago. He is otherwise healthy and still able to walk to the shops. His preoperative electrocardiogram (ECG) showed sinus rhythm. During the procedure, his heart rate suddenly increases to 175 bpm with a narrow complex, and you cannot see P waves on the monitor. You are having difficulty obtaining a blood pressure reading but are able to palpate a radial pulse with a systolic pressure of 75 mmHg. The surgeons have been using lidocaine with adrenaline around the surgical site. What is the next best course of action?
Your Answer: 100% O2, synchronised cardioversion, 150-J biphasic shock
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Patient with Narrow-Complex Tachycardia and Low Blood Pressure
When a patient with a history of ischaemic heart disease presents with a narrow-complex tachycardia and low blood pressure, it is likely that they have gone into fast atrial fibrillation. In this case, the first step in resuscitation should be a synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion with a 150-J biphasic shock. Administering 100% oxygen, a 500 ml Hartmann bolus, and 0.5 mg metaraminol may help increase the patient’s blood pressure, but it does not address the underlying cause of their haemodynamic instability.
Amiodarone 300 mg stat is recommended for patients with narrow-complex tachycardia and haemodynamic instability. However, administering 10 mmol magnesium sulphate is not the first-line treatment for tachycardia unless the patient has torsades de pointes.
Lastly, administering Intralipid® as per guideline for local anaesthetic toxicity is unlikely to be the main source of the patient’s hypotension and does not address their narrow-complex tachycardia. Therefore, it is important to prioritize the synchronised cardioversion and amiodarone administration in this patient’s treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea on exertion and palpitations. She has an irregularly irregular and tachycardic pulse, and a systolic murmur is heard on auscultation. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation and right axis deviation, while an echocardiogram shows an atrial septal defect.
What is true about the development of the atrial septum?Your Answer: The septum secundum grows down to the right of the septum primum
Explanation:During embryonic development, the septum primum grows down from the roof of the primitive atrium and fuses with the endocardial cushions. It initially has a hole called the ostium primum, which closes as the septum grows downwards. However, a second hole called the ostium secundum develops in the septum primum before fusion can occur. The septum secundum then grows downwards and to the right of the septum primum and ostium secundum. The foramen ovale is a passage through the septum secundum that allows blood to shunt from the right to the left atrium in the fetus, bypassing the pulmonary circulation. This defect closes at birth due to a drop in pressure within the pulmonary circulation after the infant takes a breath. If there is overlap between the foramen ovale and ostium secundum or if the ostium primum fails to close, an atrial septal defect results. This defect does not cause cyanosis because oxygenated blood flows from left to right through the defect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man experiences a myocardial infarction (MI) that results in necrosis of the anterior papillary muscle of the right ventricle. This has led to valve prolapse. Which structure is most likely responsible for the prolapse?
Your Answer: Posterior and septal cusps of the tricuspid valve
Correct Answer: Anterior and posterior cusps of the tricuspid valve
Explanation:Cusps and Papillary Muscles of the Tricuspid and Mitral Valves
The tricuspid and mitral valves are important structures in the heart that regulate blood flow between the atria and ventricles. These valves are composed of cusps and papillary muscles that work together to ensure proper function.
The tricuspid valve has three cusps: anterior, posterior, and septal. The papillary muscles of the right ventricle attach to these cusps, with the anterior papillary muscle connecting to both the anterior and posterior cusps.
The mitral valve, located between the left atrium and ventricle, has only two cusps: anterior and posterior.
The posterior and septal cusps of the tricuspid valve attach to the posterior papillary muscle of the right ventricle, while the anterior and septal cusps attach to the septal papillary muscle.
Understanding the anatomy and function of these cusps and papillary muscles is crucial in diagnosing and treating heart conditions such as mitral valve prolapse and tricuspid regurgitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia experienced severe central chest pain lasting one hour. His electrocardiogram (ECG) in the ambulance reveals anterolateral ST segment elevation. Although his symptoms stabilized with medical treatment in the ambulance, he suddenly passed away while en route to the hospital.
What is the probable reason for his deterioration and death?Your Answer: Mural thrombosis
Correct Answer: Ventricular arrhythmia
Explanation:Complications of Myocardial Infarction
Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious medical condition that can lead to various complications. Among these complications, ventricular arrhythmia is the most common cause of death. Malignant ventricular arrhythmias require immediate direct current (DC) electrical therapy to terminate the arrhythmias. Mural thrombosis, although it may cause systemic emboli, is not a common cause of death. Myocardial wall rupture and muscular rupture typically occur 4-7 days post-infarction, while papillary muscle rupture is also a possibility. Pulmonary edema, which can be life-threatening, is accompanied by symptoms of breathlessness and orthopnea. However, it can be treated effectively with oxygen, positive pressure therapy, and vasodilators.
Understanding the Complications of Myocardial Infarction
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of increasing exertional dyspnoea accompanied by bilateral peripheral oedema. He reports feeling extremely fatigued lately. During the physical examination, his lungs are clear, but he has ascites. On auscultation of his heart sounds, you detect a holosystolic murmur with a high pitch at the left sternal edge, extending to the right sternal edge. What is the probable reason for this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs and Symptoms
Tricuspid regurgitation is characterized by signs of right heart failure, such as dyspnea and peripheral edema, and a classical murmur. The backflow of blood to the right atrium leads to right heart dilation, weakness, and eventually failure, resulting in ascites and poor ejection fraction causing edema.
Mitral regurgitation has a similar murmur to tricuspid regurgitation but is heard best at the apex.
Aortic regurgitation is identified by an early diastolic decrescendo murmur at the left sternal edge.
Aortic stenosis does not typically result in ascites, and its murmur is ejection systolic.
Pulmonary stenosis is characterized by a mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur best heard over the pulmonary post and not a holosystolic murmur at the left sternal edge.
Understanding Heart Murmurs and Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with essential hypertension and prescribed medication to lower her blood pressure. However, she stopped taking the medication due to reported dizziness. Her blood pressure readings usually run at 150/100 mmHg. She denies any chest pain, shortness of breath, leg swelling, or visual problems. She has a history of occasional migraines but no other medical conditions. She has no known drug allergies. Her vital signs are within normal limits, other than high blood pressure. The S1 and S2 sounds are normal. There is no S3 or S4 sound, murmur, rub, or gallop. The peripheral pulses are normal and symmetric. The serum electrolytes (sodium, potassium, calcium, and chloride), creatinine, and urea nitrogen are within normal range. What is the most appropriate antihypertensive medication for this patient?
Your Answer: Amlodipine
Correct Answer: Indapamide
Explanation:The best medication for the patient in the scenario would be indapamide, a thiazide diuretic that blocks the Na+/Cl− cotransporter in the distal convoluted tubules, increasing calcium reabsorption and reducing the risk of osteoporotic fractures. Common side-effects include hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricaemia, gout, postural hypotension and hypochloraemic alkalosis.
Prazosin is used for benign prostatic hyperplasia.
Enalapril is not preferred for patients over 55 years old and can increase osteoporosis risk.
Propranolol is not a preferred initial treatment for hypertension, and amlodipine can cause ankle swelling and should be avoided in patients with myocardial infarction and symptomatic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with rheumatic fever has ongoing shortness of breath following her infection. You suspect she may have mitral stenosis.
What is the most suitable surface anatomical landmark to listen for this murmur?Your Answer: Fifth intercostal space, mid-axillary line
Correct Answer: At the apex beat
Explanation:Surface Locations for Cardiac Auscultation
Cardiac auscultation is a crucial part of a physical examination to assess the heart’s function. The surface locations for cardiac auscultation are essential to identify the specific valve sounds. Here are the surface locations for cardiac auscultation:
1. Apex Beat: The mitral valve is best heard over the palpated apex beat. If it cannot be felt, then it should be assumed to be in the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line.
2. Fifth Intercostal Space, Mid-Axillary Line: This location is too lateral to hear a mitral valve lesion in a non-dilated ventricle.
3. Second Intercostal Space, Left of the Sternum: The pulmonary valve is located in the second intercostal space, left of the sternum.
4. Fourth Intercostal Space, Left of the Sternum: The tricuspid valve is located in the fourth intercostal space, left of the sternum.
5. Xiphisternum: The xiphisternum is not used as a marker for cardiac auscultation, though it is used to guide echocardiography for certain standard views.
Knowing the surface locations for cardiac auscultation is crucial to identify the specific valve sounds and assess the heart’s function accurately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 58-year-old Caucasian man with type II diabetes is seen for annual review. His blood pressure is 174/99 mmHg, and his 24-hour urine collection reveals moderately increased albuminuria (microalbuminuria). Blood results show Na+ 140 mmol/l, K+ 4.0 mmol/l, urea 4.2 mmol/l and creatinine 75 μmol/l.
Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate to use first line to treat the hypertension?Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:First-line treatment for hypertension in diabetic patients: Ramipril
Ramipril is the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetic patients due to its ability to reduce proteinuria in diabetic nephropathy, in addition to its antihypertensive effect. Calcium channel blockers, such as amlodipine, may be preferred for pregnant women or patients with hypertension but no significant proteinuria. Bendroflumethiazide may be introduced if first-line therapy is ineffective, while atenolol can be used in difficult-to-treat hypertension where dual therapy is ineffective. Furosemide is usually avoided in type II diabetes due to its potential to interfere with blood glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Correct
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What do T waves represent on an ECG?
Your Answer: Ventricular repolarisation
Explanation:The Electrical Activity of the Heart and the ECG
The ECG (electrocardiogram) is a medical test that records the electrical activity of the heart. This activity is responsible for different parts of the ECG. The first part is the atrial depolarisation, which is represented by the P wave. This wave conducts down the bundle of His to the ventricles, causing the ventricular depolarisation. This is shown on the ECG as the QRS complex. Finally, the ventricular repolarisation is represented by the T wave.
It is important to note that atrial repolarisation is not visible on the ECG. This is because it is of lower amplitude compared to the QRS complex. the different parts of the ECG and their corresponding electrical activity can help medical professionals diagnose and treat various heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which congenital cardiac defect is correctly matched with its associated syndrome from the following options?
Your Answer: Kartagener syndrome and bicuspid aortic valve
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome and coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Common Cardiovascular Abnormalities Associated with Genetic Syndromes
Various genetic syndromes are associated with cardiovascular abnormalities. Turner syndrome is linked with coarctation of the aorta, aortic stenosis, bicuspid aortic valve, aortic dilation, and dissection. Marfan syndrome is associated with aortic root dilation, mitral valve prolapse, mitral regurgitation, and aortic dissection. Kartagener syndrome can lead to bicuspid aortic valve, dextrocardia, bronchiectasis, and infertility. However, congenital adrenal hyperplasia is not associated with congenital cardiac conditions. Finally, congenital rubella syndrome is linked with patent ductus arteriosus, atrial septal defect, and pulmonary stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which statement about congenital heart disease is accurate?
Your Answer: Transposition of the great vessels is the most common congenital cyanotic heart disease
Correct Answer: In Down's syndrome with an endocardial cushion defect, irreversible pulmonary hypertension occurs earlier than in children with normal chromosomes
Explanation:Common Congenital Heart Defects and their Characteristics
An endocardial cushion defect, also known as an AVSD, is the most prevalent cardiac malformation in individuals with Down Syndrome. This defect can lead to irreversible pulmonary hypertension, which is known as Eisenmenger’s syndrome. It is unclear why children with Down Syndrome tend to have more severe cardiac disease than unaffected children with the same abnormality.
ASDs, or atrial septal defects, may close on their own, and the likelihood of spontaneous closure is related to the size of the defect. If the defect is between 5-8 mm, there is an 80% chance of closure, but if it is larger than 8 mm, the chance of closure is minimal.
Tetralogy of Fallot, a cyanotic congenital heart disease, typically presents after three months of age. The murmur of VSD, or ventricular septal defect, becomes more pronounced after one month of life. Overall, the characteristics of these common congenital heart defects is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 58-year-old man collapsed while playing with his grandchildren. Although he quickly regained consciousness and became fully alert, his family called an ambulance. The emergency medical team found no abnormalities on the electrocardiogram. Physical examination was unremarkable. However, the patient was admitted to the Coronary Care Unit of the local hospital. During the evening, the patient was noted to have a fast rhythm with a wide complex on his monitor, followed by hypotension and loss of consciousness.
After electrical cardioversion with 200 watt-seconds of direct current, which one of the following may possible therapy include?Your Answer: Intravenous propranolol
Correct Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:The patient in the scenario is experiencing a fast rhythm with wide complexes, which is likely ventricular tachycardia (VT). As the patient is unstable, electrical cardioversion was attempted first, as recommended by the Resuscitation Council Guideline. If cardioversion fails and the patient remains unstable, intravenous amiodarone can be used as a loading dose of 300 mg over 10-20 minutes, followed by an infusion of 900 mg/24 hours. Amiodarone is a class III anti-arrhythmic agent that prolongs the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential by blocking potassium efflux. Side-effects associated with amiodarone include deranged thyroid and liver function tests, nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, interstitial lung disease, jaundice, and sleep disorders.
Epinephrine is used in the treatment of acute anaphylaxis and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. It acts on adrenergic receptors, causing bronchodilation and vasoconstriction. Side-effects associated with epinephrine include palpitations, arrhythmias, headache, tremor, and hypertension.
Intravenous propranolol is a non-selective β-adrenergic receptor blocker that has limited use in treating arrhythmias and thyrotoxic crisis. It is contraindicated in patients with severe hypotension, asthma, COPD, bradycardia, sick sinus rhythm, atrioventricular block, and cardiogenic shock. Side-effects associated with propranolol include insomnia, nightmares, nausea, diarrhea, bronchospasm, exacerbation of Raynaud’s, bradycardia, hypotension, and heart block.
Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside extracted from the plant genus Digitalis, can be used in the treatment of supraventricular arrhythmias and heart failure. However, it is of no use in this scenario as the patient is experiencing a broad complex tachycardia. Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic window, and even small changes in dosing can lead to toxicity. Side-effects associated with digoxin include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, bradycardia, dizziness, yellow vision, and eosinophilia.
Diltiazem, a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is normally used for hypertension and prophylaxis and treatment of ang
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents with chest pain, 5/10 in intensity, which is aggravated by breathing deeply and improved by leaning forward. The chest pain is not radiating. He has a mild fever but denies nausea, vomiting, cough or haemoptysis. He has self-medicated for a common cold and sore throat 5 days previously. On the electrocardiogram (ECG), there is diffuse, mild ST segment elevation (on leads II, aVF and V2–V6) and PR depression.
Which of the following findings is most likely to be observed on physical examination?Your Answer: Triphasic systolic and diastolic rub
Explanation:Common Heart Murmurs and Their Characteristics
Pericarditis: Triphasic Systolic and Diastolic Rub
Pericarditis is characterized by pleuritic chest pain that improves by leaning forward. A pericardial friction rub, with a scratchy, rubbing quality, is the classic cardiac auscultatory finding of pericarditis. It is often a high-pitched, triphasic systolic and diastolic murmur due to friction between the pericardial and visceral pericardium during ventricular contraction, ventricular filling, and atrial contraction.Mitral Regurgitation: High-Pitched Apical Pan-Systolic Murmur Radiating to the Axilla
A high-pitched apical pan-systolic murmur radiating to the axilla is heard in mitral regurgitation.Coarctation of the Aorta: Continuous Systolic and Diastolic Murmur Obscuring S2 Sound and Radiating to the Back
A continuous systolic and diastolic murmur obscuring S2 sound and radiating to the back is heard in coarctation of the aorta.Mitral Stenosis: Apical Opening Snap and Diastolic Rumble
An apical diastolic rumble and opening snap are heard in mitral stenosis.Aortic Regurgitation: Soft-Blowing Early Diastolic Decrescendo Murmur, Loudest at the Third Left Intercostal Space
A soft-blowing early diastolic decrescendo murmur, loudest at the second or third left intercostal space, is heard in aortic regurgitation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Correct
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A final-year medical student is taking a history from a 63-year-old patient as a part of their general practice attachment. The patient informs her that she has a longstanding heart condition, the name of which she cannot remember. The student decides to review an old electrocardiogram (ECG) in her notes, and from it she is able to see that the patient has atrial fibrillation (AF).
Which of the following ECG findings is typically found in AF?Your Answer: Absent P waves
Explanation:Common ECG Findings and Their Significance
Electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate the electrical activity of the heart. It records the heart’s rhythm and detects any abnormalities. Here are some common ECG findings and their significance:
1. Absent P waves: Atrial fibrillation causes an irregular pulse and palpitations. ECG findings include absent P waves and irregular QRS complexes.
2. Long PR interval: A long PR interval indicates heart block. First-degree heart block is a fixed prolonged PR interval.
3. T wave inversion: T wave inversion can occur in fast atrial fibrillation, indicating cardiac ischaemia.
4. Bifid P wave (p mitrale): Bifid P waves are caused by left atrial hypertrophy.
5. ST segment elevation: ST segment elevation typically occurs in myocardial infarction. However, it may also occur in pericarditis and subarachnoid haemorrhage.
Understanding these ECG findings can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with atrial fibrillation visited the Cardiology Clinic for electrophysiological ablation. What is the least frequent pathological alteration observed in atrial fibrillation?
Your Answer: Fourth heart sound
Explanation:Effects of Atrial Fibrillation on the Heart
Atrial fibrillation is a condition characterized by irregular and rapid heartbeats. This condition can have several effects on the heart, including the following:
Fourth Heart Sound: In conditions such as hypertensive heart disease, active atrial contraction can cause active filling of a stiff left ventricle, leading to the fourth heart sound. However, this sound cannot be heard in atrial fibrillation.
Apical-Radial Pulse Deficit: Ineffective left ventricular filling can lead to cardiac ejections that cannot be detected by radial pulse palpation, resulting in the apical-radial pulse deficit.
Left Atrial Thrombus: Stasis of blood in the left atrial appendage due to ineffective contraction in atrial fibrillation is the main cause of systemic embolisation.
Reduction of Cardiac Output by 20%: Ineffective atrial contraction reduces left ventricular filling volumes, leading to a reduction in stroke volume and cardiac output by up to 20%.
Symptomatic Palpitations: Palpitations are the most common symptom reported by patients in atrial fibrillation.
Overall, atrial fibrillation can have significant effects on the heart and may require medical intervention to manage symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male smoker presents with a 6-hour history of gradual-onset central chest pain. The chest pain is worse on inspiration and relieved by leaning forward. He reports recently suffering a fever which he attributed to a viral illness. He has no significant past medical history; however, both his parents suffered from ischaemic heart disease in their early 60s. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals PR depression and concave ST-segment elevation in most leads. He is haemodynamically stable.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Morphine, oxygen, nitrates, aspirin and clopidogrel
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Pericarditis: Understanding the Clinical Scenario
Acute pericarditis can be caused by a variety of factors, including infection, inflammation, and metabolic issues. The condition is typically characterized by gradual-onset chest pain that worsens with inspiration and lying flat, but improves with leaning forward. ECG findings often show concave ST-segment elevation and PR depression in certain leads, along with reciprocal changes in others.
Understanding Treatment Options for Acute Pericarditis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old patient is evaluated in the Pre-Assessment Clinic before undergoing elective surgery for varicose veins. The patient is in good health, with the only significant medical history being well-controlled hypertension with lisinopril. During the examination, the clinician hears an early opening snap in diastole when listening to the patient's heart. What is the most probable cause of this finding?
Your Answer: Mitral valve prolapse
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Common Heart Murmurs and Their Characteristics
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here are some common heart murmurs and their characteristics:
Mitral Stenosis: This condition causes a mid-diastolic murmur that is best heard with the bell of the stethoscope over the apex while the patient is lying in the left lateral position. Severe mitral stenosis can also cause a quiet first heart sound and an early opening snap.
Pulmonary Stenosis: Pulmonary stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur.
Ventricular Septal Defect: This condition causes a pan-systolic murmur.
Mitral Valve Prolapse: Mitral valve prolapse may cause a mid-systolic click, followed by a late systolic murmur.
Right Bundle Branch Block: This condition is a cause of wide splitting of the second heart sound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents with syncope, which was preceded by palpitations. He has no past medical history and is generally fit and well. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a positive delta wave in V1.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White (WPW) syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating ECG Features of Various Heart Conditions
Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a congenital heart condition characterized by an accessory conduction pathway connecting the atria and ventricles. Type A WPW syndrome, identified by a delta wave in V1, can cause supraventricular tachycardia due to the absence of rate-lowering properties in the accessory pathway. Type B WPW syndrome, on the other hand, causes a negative R wave in V1. Radiofrequency ablation is the definitive treatment for WPW syndrome.
Maladie de Roger is a type of ventricular septal defect that does not significantly affect blood flow. Atrioventricular septal defect, another congenital heart disease, can cause ECG features related to blood shunting.
Brugada syndrome, which has three distinct types, does not typically present with a positive delta wave in V1 on ECG. Tetralogy of Fallot, a congenital heart defect, presents earlier with symptoms such as cyanosis and exertional dyspnea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 27-year-old Asian woman complains of palpitations, shortness of breath on moderate exertion and a painful and tender knee. During auscultation, a mid-diastolic murmur with a loud S1 is heard. Echocardiography reveals valvular heart disease with a normal left ventricular ejection fraction.
What is the most probable valvular disease?Your Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs: Causes and Characteristics
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here are some common causes and characteristics of heart murmurs:
Mitral Stenosis: This condition is most commonly caused by rheumatic fever in childhood and is rare in developed countries. Patients with mitral stenosis will have a loud S1 with an associated opening snap. However, if the mitral valve is calcified or there is severe stenosis, the opening snap may be absent and S1 soft.
Mitral Regurgitation and Ventricular Septal Defect: These conditions cause a pan-systolic murmur, which is not the correct option for differentiating heart murmurs.
Aortic Regurgitation: This condition leads to an early diastolic murmur.
Aortic Stenosis: Aortic stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur.
Ventricular Septal Defect: As discussed, a ventricular septal defect will cause a pan-systolic murmur.
By understanding the causes and characteristics of different heart murmurs, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat underlying heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 27-year-old intravenous drug user presents with a systolic murmur that is most audible at the fifth costal cartilage on the left sternal edge. What is the most probable anatomical site of the disease causing the murmur?
Your Answer: Tricuspid valve
Explanation:Auscultation of Heart Murmurs and Associated Cardiac Structures
When listening to heart sounds, the location of the murmur can provide clues about the underlying cardiac structure involved. A pansystolic murmur heard at the left sternal margin at the fifth costal cartilage suggests tricuspid regurgitation, likely caused by infective endocarditis in an intravenous drug user. A ventricular septal defect can be auscultated as a pansystolic murmur, while an atrial septal defect is associated with an ejection systolic murmur and split second heart sound over the pulmonary area. Abnormalities of the mitral valve are heard in the fifth intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line, and the aortic valve can be auscultated at the second intercostal space in the right sternal edge. Understanding the relationship between heart murmurs and associated cardiac structures can aid in diagnosis and management of cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Correct
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An ECG shows small T-waves, ST depression, and prominent U-waves in a patient who is likely to be experiencing what condition?
Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Electrocardiogram Changes and Symptoms Associated with Electrolyte Imbalances
Electrolyte imbalances can cause various changes in the electrocardiogram (ECG) and present with specific symptoms. Here are some of the common electrolyte imbalances and their associated ECG changes and symptoms:
Hypokalaemia:
– ECG changes: small T-waves, ST depression, prolonged QT interval, prominent U-waves
– Symptoms: generalised weakness, lack of energy, muscle pain, constipation
– Treatment: potassium replacement with iv infusion of potassium chloride (rate of infusion should not exceed 10 mmol of potassium an hour)Hyponatraemia:
– ECG changes: ST elevation
– Symptoms: headaches, nausea, vomiting, lethargy
– Treatment: depends on the underlying causeHypocalcaemia:
– ECG changes: prolongation of the QT interval
– Symptoms: paraesthesia, muscle cramps, tetany
– Treatment: calcium replacementHyperkalaemia:
– ECG changes: tall tented T-waves, widened QRS, absent P-waves, sine wave appearance
– Symptoms: weakness, fatigue
– Treatment: depends on the severity of hyperkalaemiaHypercalcaemia:
– ECG changes: shortening of the QT interval
– Symptoms: moans (nausea, constipation), stones (kidney stones, flank pain), groans (confusion, depression), bones (bone pain)
– Treatment: depends on the underlying causeIt is important to recognise and treat electrolyte imbalances promptly to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain. He has a medical history of angina, hypertension, high cholesterol, and is a current smoker. Upon arrival, a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is conducted, revealing ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:ECG Changes and Localisation of Infarct in Coronary Artery Disease
Patients with chest pain and multiple risk factors for cardiac disease require prompt evaluation to determine the underlying cause. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes can help localise the infarct to a particular territory, which can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
Inferior infarcts are often due to lesions in the right coronary artery, as evidenced by ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. However, in 20% of cases, this can also be caused by an occlusion of a dominant left circumflex artery.
Lateral infarcts involve branches of the left anterior descending (LAD) and left circumflex arteries, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads I, aVL, and V5-6. It is unusual for a lateral STEMI to occur in isolation, and it usually occurs as part of a larger territory infarction.
Anterior infarcts are caused by blockage of the LAD artery, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads V1-V6.
Blockage of the right marginal artery does not have a specific pattern of ECG changes associated with it, and it is not one of the major coronary vessels.
In summary, understanding the ECG changes associated with different coronary arteries can aid in localising the infarct and guiding appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 70-year-old male presents with abdominal pain.
He has a past medical history of stroke and myocardial infarction. During examination, there was noticeable distension of the abdomen and the stools were maroon in color. The lactate level was found to be 5 mmol/L, which is above the normal range of <2.2 mmol/L.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Acute mesenteric ischaemia
Explanation:Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia
Acute mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when there is a disruption in blood flow to the small intestine or right colon. This can be caused by arterial or venous disease, with arterial disease further classified as non-occlusive or occlusive. The classic triad of symptoms associated with acute mesenteric ischaemia includes gastrointestinal emptying, abdominal pain, and underlying cardiac disease.
The hallmark symptom of mesenteric ischaemia is severe abdominal pain, which may be accompanied by other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal distention, ileus, peritonitis, blood in the stool, and shock. Advanced ischaemia is characterized by the presence of these symptoms.
There are several risk factors associated with acute mesenteric ischaemia, including congestive heart failure, cardiac arrhythmias (especially atrial fibrillation), recent myocardial infarction, atherosclerosis, hypercoagulable states, and hypovolaemia. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and to seek medical attention promptly if any symptoms of acute mesenteric ischaemia are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman came to the Heart Failure Clinic complaining of shortness of breath. During the examination, a loud pansystolic murmur was heard throughout her chest. The murmur was more audible during inspiration than expiration, and it was difficult to determine where it was loudest. Additionally, she had distended neck veins and an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation (TR)
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs: A Guide
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here is a guide to differentiating some common heart murmurs:
Tricuspid Regurgitation (TR)
TR presents with a loud pan-systolic murmur audible throughout the chest, often loudest in the tricuspid area. The most common cause is heart failure, with regurgitation being functional due to myocardial dilation. Patients may have raised JVPs, distended neck veins, and signs of right-sided heart failure.Aortic Sclerosis
Aortic sclerosis is a loud murmur early in systole, with normal S1 and S2. It does not affect pulse pressure, and there is no radiation to the right carotid artery. Right-sided murmurs are louder on inspiration.Aortic Stenosis
Aortic stenosis is a mid-systolic ejection murmur, heard best over the aortic area or right second intercostal space, with radiation into the right carotid artery. It may reduce pulse pressure to <40 mmHg, and S2 may be diminished. Pulmonary Stenosis
Pulmonary stenosis gives a crescendo-decrescendo ejection systolic murmur, loudest over the pulmonary area. It is not pan-systolic, and S2 splitting is widened due to prolonged pulmonic ejection.Mitral Regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation is a pan-systolic murmur heard best over the mitral area, radiating to the axilla. It is not increased on inspiration.Remember to listen carefully to S1 and S2, check for radiation, and consider associated symptoms to differentiate heart murmurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. On examination, bibasilar wet pulmonary crackles are noted with mild bilateral lower limb pitting oedema. His jugular vein is slightly distended. An S4 sound is audible on cardiac auscultation. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows evidence of left ventricular (LV) hypertrophy. Chest radiography shows bilateral interstitial oedema without cardiomegaly.
Which one of the following findings is most likely to be found in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impaired LV relaxation – increased LV end-diastolic pressure – normal LV end-systolic volume
Explanation:Understanding the Different Types of Left Ventricular Dysfunction in Heart Failure
Left ventricular (LV) dysfunction can result in heart failure, which is a clinical diagnosis that can be caused by systolic or diastolic dysfunction, or both. Diastolic dysfunction is characterized by impaired LV relaxation, resulting in increased LV end-diastolic pressure but normal LV end-systolic volume. This type of dysfunction can be caused by factors such as LV hypertrophy from poorly controlled hypertension. On the other hand, impaired LV contraction results in systolic dysfunction, which is characterized by LV dilation, increased LV end-systolic and end-diastolic volumes, and increased LV end-diastolic pressure. It is important to differentiate between these types of LV dysfunction in order to properly diagnose and manage heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has been hospitalized with crushing chest pain. An ECG trace shows ischaemia of the inferior part of the heart. What is the term that best describes the artery or arterial branch that provides blood supply to the inferior aspect of the heart?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior interventricular branch
Explanation:Coronary Artery Branches and Circulation Dominance
The coronary artery is responsible for supplying blood to the heart muscles. It branches out into several smaller arteries, each with a specific area of the heart to supply. Here are some of the main branches of the coronary artery:
1. Posterior Interventricular Branch: This branch supplies the inferior aspect of the heart, with ischaemic changes presenting in leads II, III and aVF. In 90% of the population, it arises as a branch of the right coronary artery, while in 10%, it arises as a branch of the left coronary artery.
2. Circumflex Branch: This branch supplies the anterolateral area of the heart.
3. Left Coronary Artery: This artery gives off two branches – the left anterior descending artery supplying the anteroseptal and anteroapical parts of the heart, and the circumflex artery supplying the anterolateral heart. In 10% of the population, the left coronary artery gives off a left anterior interventricular branch that supplies the inferior part of the heart.
4. Marginal Branch: This branch is a branch of the right coronary artery supplying the right ventricle.
5. Right Coronary Artery: This artery branches out into the marginal artery and, in 90% of the population, the posterior interventricular branch. These individuals are said to have a right dominant circulation.
Understanding the different branches of the coronary artery and the circulation dominance can help in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of hypertension visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. He mentions experiencing a painful, burning sensation in his legs when he walks long distances and feeling cold in his lower extremities. He has no history of dyslipidaemia. During the examination, his temperature is recorded as 37.1 °C, and his blood pressure in the left arm is 174/96 mmHg, with a heart rate of 78 bpm, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. Bilateral 1+ dorsalis pedis pulses are noted, and his lower extremities feel cool to the touch. Cardiac auscultation does not reveal any murmurs, rubs, or gallops. His abdominal examination is unremarkable, and no bruits are heard on auscultation. His renal function tests show a creatinine level of 71 μmol/l (50–120 μmol/l), which is his baseline. What is the most likely defect present in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest coarctation of the aorta, a condition where the aortic lumen narrows just after the branches of the aortic arch. This causes hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities, leading to lower extremity claudication. Chest X-rays may show notching of the ribs. Treatment involves surgical resection of the narrowed lumen. Bilateral lower extremity deep vein thrombosis, patent ductus arteriosus, renal artery stenosis, and atrial septal defects are other conditions that can cause different symptoms and require different treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A patient comes to your general practice with deteriorating shortness of breath and ankle swelling. You have been treating them for a few years for their congestive cardiac failure, which has been gradually worsening. Currently, the patient is at ease when resting, but standing up and walking a few steps cause their symptoms to appear. According to the New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification, what stage of heart failure are they in?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: III
Explanation:Understanding NYHA Classification for Heart Failure Patients
The NYHA classification system is used to assess the severity of heart failure symptoms in patients. Class I indicates no limitation of physical activity, while class IV indicates severe limitations and symptoms even at rest. This patient falls under class III, with marked limitation of physical activity but no symptoms at rest. It is important for healthcare professionals to understand and use this classification system to properly manage and treat heart failure patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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In a 25-year-old woman undergoing a routine physical examination for a new job, a mid-systolic ejection murmur is discovered in the left upper sternal border. The cardiac examination reveals a significant right ventricular cardiac impulse and wide and fixed splitting of the second heart sound. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a right axis deviation, and a chest X-ray shows enlargement of the right ventricle and atrium. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect
Explanation:Cardiac Abnormalities and their Clinical Findings
Atrial Septal Defect:
Atrial septal defect is characterized by a prominent right ventricular cardiac impulse, a systolic ejection murmur heard best in the pulmonic area and along the left sternal border, and fixed splitting of the second heart sound. These findings are due to an abnormal left-to-right shunt through the defect, which creates a volume overload on the right side. Small atrial septal defects are usually asymptomatic.Pulmonary Valve Stenosis:
Pulmonary valve stenosis causes an increased right ventricular pressure which results in right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary artery dilation. A crescendo–decrescendo murmur may be heard if there is a severe stenosis. Right atrial enlargement would not be present.Mitral Regurgitation:
Mitral regurgitation would also present with a systolic murmur; however, left atrial enlargement would be seen before right ventricular enlargement.Mitral Stenosis:
Mitral stenosis would present with an ‘opening snap’ and a diastolic murmur.Aortic Stenosis:
Aortic stenosis is also associated with a systolic ejection murmur. However, the murmur is usually loudest at the right sternal border and radiates upwards to the jugular notch. Aortic stenosis is associated with left ventricular hypertrophy.Clinical Findings of Common Cardiac Abnormalities
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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