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  • Question 1 - Which principle was not mentioned by Yalom as a therapeutic aspect of group...

    Correct

    • Which principle was not mentioned by Yalom as a therapeutic aspect of group therapy?

      Your Answer: Autonomy

      Explanation:

      Group Psychotherapy: Yalom’s Therapeutic Principles

      Group psychotherapy involves a trained therapist and a group of individuals. Yalom, a prominent figure in group therapy, outlined the therapeutic principles of group psychotherapy. These principles include universality, altruism, instillation of hope, imparting information, corrective recapitulation of the primary family experience, development of socializing techniques, imitative behavior, cohesiveness, existential factors, catharsis, interpersonal learning, and self-understanding. Psychodrama, a specific form of group therapy, involves examining relationships and problems through drama.

      Bion and Basic Assumption Groups

      Bion, a psychoanalyst interested in group dynamics, believed that groups had a collective unconscious that operated similarly to an individual’s. He distinguished between two types of groups: working groups and basic assumption groups. Basic assumption groups act out primitive fantasies and prevent things from getting done. Bion described different types of basic assumption groups, including dependency, fight-flight, and pairing. Dependency involves the group turning to a leader to protect them from anxiety. Fight-flight involves the group acting as if there is an enemy who must be attacked of avoided. Pairing involves the group acting as if the answer lies in the pairing of two members.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 2 - According to Gottesman (1982), what is the risk of a parent developing schizophrenia...

    Correct

    • According to Gottesman (1982), what is the risk of a parent developing schizophrenia if they have an affected child?

      Your Answer: 6%

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors

      Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.

      While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.

      Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.

      Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.

      Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the estimated percentage of patients with schizophrenia who do not respond...

    Correct

    • What is the estimated percentage of patients with schizophrenia who do not respond to treatment?

      Your Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The combination of hypomania and depression is referred to as a subtype in...

    Correct

    • The combination of hypomania and depression is referred to as a subtype in Klerman's expanded classification of bipolar disorders as:

      Your Answer: Bipolar II

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Historical Subtypes

      Bipolar disorder is a complex mental illness that has been classified into several subtypes over the years. The most widely recognized subtypes are Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia. However, there have been other classification systems proposed by experts in the field.

      In 1981, Gerald Klerman proposed a classification system that included Bipolar I, Bipolar II, Bipolar III, Bipolar IV, Bipolar V, and Bipolar VI. This system was later expanded by Akiskal in 1999, who added more subtypes such as Bipolar I 1/2, Bipolar II 1/2, and Bipolar III 1/2.

      Bipolar I is characterized by full-blown mania, while Bipolar II is characterized by hypomania with depression. Cyclothymia is a milder form of bipolar disorder that involves cycling between hypomania and mild depression.

      Other subtypes include Bipolar III, which is associated with hypomania of mania precipitated by antidepressant drugs, and Bipolar IV, which is characterized by hyperthymic depression. Bipolar V is associated with depressed patients who have a family history of bipolar illness, while Bipolar VI is characterized by mania without depression (unipolar mania).

      Overall, the classification of bipolar disorder subtypes has evolved over time, and different experts have proposed different systems. However, the most widely recognized subtypes are still Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - Which plant species, commonly known as St John's Wort, is used for treating...

    Correct

    • Which plant species, commonly known as St John's Wort, is used for treating depression?

      Your Answer: Hypericum perforatum

      Explanation:

      Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety

      Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.

      Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      3.6
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  • Question 6 - What statement accurately describes the STAR*D trial? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement accurately describes the STAR*D trial?

      Your Answer: It excluded those with a history of psychosis

      Correct Answer: It was a pragmatic trial

      Explanation:

      STAR*D Study

      The STAR*D trial, conducted in the USA, aimed to evaluate the effectiveness of treatments for major depressive disorder in real-world patients. The study involved four levels of treatment, with patients starting at level 1 and progressing to the next level if they did not respond. The outcome measure used was remission, and the study entry criteria were broadly defined to ensure results could be generalized to a wide range of patients.

      A total of 4,041 patients were enrolled in the first level of treatment, making STAR*D the largest prospective clinical trial of depression ever conducted. In level 1, one-third of participants achieved remission, and a further 10-15% responded but not to the point of remission. If treatment with an initial SSRI fails, then one in four patients who choose to switch to another medication will enter remission, regardless of whether the second medication is an SSRI of a medication of a different class. If patients choose to add a medication instead, one in three will get better.

      Overall, the STAR*D study provides valuable insights into the effectiveness of different treatments for major depressive disorder and highlights the importance of considering alternative treatments if initial treatment fails.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - By implementing a double-blinded randomised controlled trial to evaluate the efficacy of a...

    Correct

    • By implementing a double-blinded randomised controlled trial to evaluate the efficacy of a new medication for Lewy Body Dementia, what type of bias can be prevented by ensuring that both the patient and doctor are blinded?

      Your Answer: Expectation bias

      Explanation:

      Types of Bias in Statistics

      Bias is a systematic error that can lead to incorrect conclusions. Confounding factors are variables that are associated with both the outcome and the exposure but have no causative role. Confounding can be addressed in the design and analysis stage of a study. The main method of controlling confounding in the analysis phase is stratification analysis. The main methods used in the design stage are matching, randomization, and restriction of participants.

      There are two main types of bias: selection bias and information bias. Selection bias occurs when the selected sample is not a representative sample of the reference population. Disease spectrum bias, self-selection bias, participation bias, incidence-prevalence bias, exclusion bias, publication of dissemination bias, citation bias, and Berkson’s bias are all subtypes of selection bias. Information bias occurs when gathered information about exposure, outcome, of both is not correct and there was an error in measurement. Detection bias, recall bias, lead time bias, interviewer/observer bias, verification and work-up bias, Hawthorne effect, and ecological fallacy are all subtypes of information bias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      66.2
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  • Question 8 - How can the prevalence of schizophrenia in the UK population be characterized by...

    Correct

    • How can the prevalence of schizophrenia in the UK population be characterized by the consistent finding of approximately 1%?

      Your Answer: Endemic

      Explanation:

      Epidemiology Key Terms

      – Epidemic (Outbreak): A rise in disease cases above the anticipated level in a specific population during a particular time frame.
      – Endemic: The regular of anticipated level of disease in a particular population.
      – Pandemic: Epidemics that affect a significant number of individuals across multiple countries, regions, of continents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      4.3
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  • Question 9 - What is a true statement about priapism? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about priapism?

      Your Answer: It is associated with chlorpromazine use

      Explanation:

      Priapism: A Painful and Persistent Erection

      Priapism is a condition characterized by a prolonged and painful erection, which can occur in males and even in the clitoris. Although rare, certain medications such as antipsychotics and antidepressants have been known to cause priapism. The primary mechanism behind this condition is alpha blockade, although other mechanisms such as serotonin-mediated pathways have also been suggested. Some of the drugs most commonly associated with priapism include Trazodone, Chlorpromazine, and Thioridazine. Treatment involves the use of alpha-adrenergic agonists, which can be administered orally of injected directly into the penis. Priapism is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as penile amputation, although such cases are extremely rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - Which case exemplifies the responsibility of the police in providing information to potential...

    Correct

    • Which case exemplifies the responsibility of the police in providing information to potential victims?

      Your Answer: Osman

      Explanation:

      Osman Warnings

      The Osman vs UK case involved a teacher who had an unhealthy fixation on one of his students, Osman. Tragically, this obsession led to the death of Osman’s father and Osman himself being injured. The police were heavily criticized for failing to issue a warning to the family, despite having information that could have alerted them to the danger posed by Osman’s teacher. This failure to act highlights the importance of Osman warnings, which are designed to protect individuals from harm by notifying them of potential threats. By issuing such warnings, law enforcement agencies can help prevent tragedies like the one that occurred in the Osman case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - What is the most frequently utilized method of suicide among individuals receiving mental...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently utilized method of suicide among individuals receiving mental health services?

      Your Answer: Hanging

      Explanation:

      Patients and the general population tend to prefer hanging as their method of choice.

      2021 National Confidential Inquiry into Suicide and Safety in Mental Health (NCISH) report reveals key findings on suicide rates in the UK from 2008-2018. The rates have remained stable over the years, with a slight increase following the 2008 recession and another rise since 2015/2016. Approximately 27% of all general population suicides were patients who had contact with mental health services within 12 months of suicide. The most common methods of suicide were hanging/strangulation (52%) and self-poisoning (22%), mainly through prescription opioids. In-patient suicides have continued to decrease, with most of them occurring on the ward itself from low lying ligature points. The first three months after discharge remain a high-risk period, with 13% of all patient suicides occurring within this time frame. Nearly half (48%) of patient suicides were from patients who lived alone. In England, suicide rates are higher in males (17.2 per 100,000) than females (5.4 per 100,000), with the highest age-specific suicide rate for males in the 45-49 years age group (27.1 deaths per 100,000 males) and for females in the same age group (9.2 deaths per 100,000). Hanging remains the most common method of suicide in the UK, accounting for 59.4% of all suicides among males and 45.0% of all suicides among females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - In psychodynamic theory, what are the two defences that are thought to be...

    Incorrect

    • In psychodynamic theory, what are the two defences that are thought to be the basis of phobias?

      Your Answer: Denial and rationalisation

      Correct Answer: Repression and displacement

      Explanation:

      Defense Mechanisms in Specific Conditions

      Certain psychiatric conditions are characterized by specific defense mechanisms. These mechanisms are used by individuals to protect themselves from anxiety and other negative emotions. The following conditions and the associated defenses tend to come up on membership exams.

      Phobias are characterized by intense and irrational fears of specific objects of situations. The defense mechanisms commonly used in phobias are repression and displacement. Repression involves pushing the anxiety-provoking thoughts of memories out of conscious awareness. Displacement involves redirecting the anxiety onto a less threatening object of situation.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by intrusive and repetitive thoughts (obsessions) and/of repetitive behaviors (compulsions). The defense mechanisms commonly used in OCD are isolation, undoing, and reaction formation. Isolation involves separating the anxiety-provoking thought from the associated emotion. Undoing involves performing a ritual of action to undo the anxiety-provoking thought. Reaction formation involves expressing the opposite emotion of the anxiety-provoking thought.

      Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by unstable moods, relationships, and self-image. The defense mechanisms commonly used in BPD are projection and splitting. Projection involves attributing one’s own unacceptable thoughts of feelings onto another person. Splitting involves seeing people of situations as either all good of all bad.

      Narcissistic personality disorder (NPD) is characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. The defense mechanisms commonly used in NPD are projection and splitting, similar to BPD.

      Agoraphobia is characterized by a fear of being in situations where escape may be difficult of embarrassing. The defense mechanism commonly used in agoraphobia is displacement, which involves redirecting the anxiety onto a less threatening object of situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 13 - What is a factor that increases the risk of agranulocytosis when using clozapine?...

    Correct

    • What is a factor that increases the risk of agranulocytosis when using clozapine?

      Your Answer: Being Asian

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the term used to refer to the act of deriving pleasure...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to refer to the act of deriving pleasure from touching and rubbing against someone who has not given their consent?

      Your Answer: Frotteurism

      Explanation:

      Paraphilias are intense and persistent sexual interests other than sexual interest in genital stimulation of preparatory fondling with phenotypically normal, physically mature, consenting human partners. They are divided into those relating to erotic activity and those relating to erotic target. In order to become a disorder, paraphilias must be associated with distress of impairment to the individual of with harm to others. The DSM-5 lists 8 recognised paraphilic disorder but acknowledges that there are many more. Treatment modalities for the paraphilias have limited scientific evidence to support their use. Psychological therapy (especially CBT) is often used (with extremely variable results). Pharmacological options include SSRI, Naltrexone, Antipsychotics, GnRH agonists, and Anti-androgens and progestational drugs (e.g. cyproterone acetate).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What term is commonly used in reference to the type of therapy offered...

    Correct

    • What term is commonly used in reference to the type of therapy offered to dysfunctional families known as strategic family therapy?

      Your Answer: Task setting

      Explanation:

      Family Therapy Models

      Family therapy emerged in the 1950s, shifting the focus from individual problems to the context of the environment. There are five main models of family therapy: structural, strategic, systemic, transgenerational, and solution-focused.

      Structural therapy, developed by Salvador Minuchin, assumes that the family’s structure is wrong and aims to establish clear boundaries and no coalitions. Dysfunctional families are marked by impaired boundaries, inappropriate alignments, and power imbalances.

      Strategic therapy, associated with Jay Haley and Cloe Madanes, claims that difficulties in families arise due to distorted hierarchies. Dysfunctional families communicate in problematic repetitive patterns that kept them dysfunctional. Key terms include task setting and goal setting.

      Systemic therapy, associated with Mara Selvini-Palazzoli, sees the family as a self-regulating system that controls itself according to rules formed over time. The focus is on exploring differences between family members’ behaviors, emotional responses, and beliefs at different points in time. Key terms include hypothesizing, neutrality, positive connotation, paradox and counterparadox, circular and interventive questioning, and the use of reflecting teams.

      Transgenerational family therapy aims to understand how families, across generations, develop patterns of behaving and responding to stress in ways that prevent health development and lead to problems. Seven interlocking concepts make up the theory.

      Solution-focused therapy emphasizes solutions over problems and collaborates with the family through in-depth questioning to focus on the solutions already being used by the clients. The therapist is non-interventionist, and the focus is on the present and the future. Blame, shame, and conflict are seen as issues that impede people from realizing these solutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      32.4
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  • Question 16 - What is a true statement about buprenorphine? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about buprenorphine?

      Your Answer: Buprenorphine reduces the effect of additional opioids

      Explanation:

      Higher doses of naloxone are required to displace buprenorphine due to its strong affinity for opioid receptors, which can also result in a blocking effect and precipitated withdrawal if a patient is still using heroin.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 17 - What is a true statement about the National Comorbidity Survey? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the National Comorbidity Survey?

      Your Answer: It was done on a UK based population

      Correct Answer: It was conducted using the Composite International Diagnostic Interview

      Explanation:

      Epidemiological surveys and prevalence estimates have been conducted to determine the prevalence of various mental health conditions. The Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) study was conducted in the mid-1980s using the Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) based on DSM-III criteria. The National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) used the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI) and was conducted in the 1990s and repeated in 2001. The Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey (APMS) used the Clinical Interview Schedule (CIS-R) and was conducted in England every 7 years since 1993. The WHO World Mental Health (WMH) Survey Initiative used the World Mental Health Composite International Diagnostic Interview (WMH-CIDI) and was conducted in close to 30 countries from 2001 onwards.

      The main findings of these studies show that major depression has a prevalence of 4-10% worldwide, with 6.7% in the past 12 months and 16.6% lifetime prevalence. Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) has a 3.1% 12-month prevalence and 5.7% lifetime prevalence. Panic disorder has a 2.7% 12-month prevalence and 4.7% lifetime prevalence. Specific phobia has an 8.7% 12-month prevalence and 12.5% lifetime prevalence. Social anxiety disorder has a 6.8% 12-month prevalence and 12.1% lifetime prevalence. Agoraphobia without panic disorder has a 0.8% 12-month prevalence and 1.4% lifetime prevalence. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has a 1.0% 12-month prevalence and 1.6% lifetime prevalence. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has a 1.3-3.6% 12-month prevalence and 6.8% lifetime prevalence. Schizophrenia has a 0.33% 12-month prevalence and 0.48% lifetime prevalence. Bipolar I disorder has a 1.5% 12-month prevalence and 2.1% lifetime prevalence. Bulimia nervosa has a 0.63% lifetime prevalence, anorexia nervosa has a 0.16% lifetime prevalence, and binge eating disorder has a 1.53% lifetime prevalence.

      These prevalence estimates provide important information for policymakers, healthcare providers, and researchers to better understand the burden of mental health conditions and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 7-year-old girl has been referred to your clinic due to concerns expressed...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl has been referred to your clinic due to concerns expressed by her parents and teachers that she has difficulty paying attention, is impulsive, and cannot sit still for more than a few minutes. She also has a diagnosis of Tourette's syndrome with both motor and vocal tics. The parents are worried that her tics may worsen with treatment for her hyperactivity.
      What would be your preferred treatment option?

      Your Answer: Atomoxetine

      Explanation:

      Atomoxetine is a suitable treatment option for individuals with Tourette’s and hyperkinetic disorder (ADHD) as it does not exacerbate tics, which is a common concern with other medications that affect the dopaminergic system. This is because atomoxetine is a highly selective noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (NARI).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - What is the correct approach to treating tardive dyskinesia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the correct approach to treating tardive dyskinesia?

      Your Answer: Reduction of the antipsychotic may worsen tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Tardive Dyskinesia: Symptoms, Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a condition that affects the face, limbs, and trunk of individuals who have been on neuroleptics for months to years. The movements fluctuate over time, increase with emotional arousal, decrease with relaxation, and disappear with sleep. The cause of TD remains theoretical, but the postsynaptic dopamine (D2) receptor supersensitivity hypothesis is the most persistent. Other hypotheses include the presynaptic dopaminergic/noradrenergic hyperactivity hypothesis, the cholinergic interneuron burnout hypothesis, the excitatory/oxidative stress hypothesis, and the synaptic plasticity hypothesis. Risk factors for TD include advancing age, female sex, ethnicity, longer illness duration, intellectual disability and brain damage, negative symptoms in schizophrenia, mood disorders, diabetes, smoking, alcohol and substance misuse, FGA vs SGA treatment, higher antipsychotic dose, anticholinergic co-treatment, and akathisia.

      Management options for TD include stopping any anticholinergic, reducing antipsychotic dose, changing to an antipsychotic with lower propensity for TD, and using tetrabenazine, vitamin E, of amantadine as add-on options. Clozapine is the antipsychotic most likely to be associated with resolution of symptoms. Vesicular monoamine transporter type 2 (VMAT2) inhibitors are agents that cause a depletion of neuroactive peptides such as dopamine in nerve terminals and are used to treat chorea due to neurodegenerative diseases of dyskinesias due to neuroleptic medications (tardive dyskinesia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      25.1
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following is not a symptom commonly linked to alcohol intoxication?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a symptom commonly linked to alcohol intoxication?

      Your Answer: Hyperreflexia

      Explanation:

      Alcohol intoxication typically results in a decrease in reflexes and an increase in reaction times.

      Alcohol Intoxication

      Symptoms of moderate alcohol intoxication can include a range of effects on the body and mind. These may include poor concentration, impaired reaction times, conjunctival injection, pinpoint pupils, poor coordination, memory difficulties, impaired judgement, and impaired sense of time and space. It is important to be aware of these symptoms and to avoid driving of operating heavy machinery while under the influence of alcohol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      7.6
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  • Question 21 - What type of regression is appropriate for analyzing data with dichotomous variables? ...

    Correct

    • What type of regression is appropriate for analyzing data with dichotomous variables?

      Your Answer: Logistic

      Explanation:

      Logistic regression is employed when dealing with dichotomous variables, which are variables that have only two possible values, such as live/dead of head/tail.

      Stats: Correlation and Regression

      Correlation and regression are related but not interchangeable terms. Correlation is used to test for association between variables, while regression is used to predict values of dependent variables from independent variables. Correlation can be linear, non-linear, of non-existent, and can be strong, moderate, of weak. The strength of a linear relationship is measured by the correlation coefficient, which can be positive of negative and ranges from very weak to very strong. However, the interpretation of a correlation coefficient depends on the context and purposes. Correlation can suggest association but cannot prove of disprove causation. Linear regression, on the other hand, can be used to predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed. Scatter graphs are used in correlation and regression analyses to visually determine if variables are associated and to detect outliers. When constructing a scatter graph, the dependent variable is typically placed on the vertical axis and the independent variable on the horizontal axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      4.8
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  • Question 22 - What is the truth about neonaticide in the UK? ...

    Correct

    • What is the truth about neonaticide in the UK?

      Your Answer: Neonaticide mothers tend to be be younger than mothers who kill older infants

      Explanation:

      Mothers who commit neonaticide, which is the killing of a newborn within 24 hours, are typically younger than those who kill their older infants. While both boys and girls are equally at risk of neonaticide, boys are more likely to be victims of infant homicide.

      Infant Homicide

      Homicide is a significant contributor to infant mortality, with infants under 1 year of age being more likely to be victims of homicide than older children of the general population. Neonaticide, the killing of a baby within 24 hours of delivery, is different from the homicide of infants older than a day. Neonaticide is usually committed by the mother, who is often young, single, and living with her parents. The pregnancy is often unintentional and concealed, and the motivation to kill is usually because the child was unwanted. In contrast, the homicide of infants older than a day is more likely to be committed by a parent, with boys at greater risk than girls. Risk factors for the homicide of infants older than a day include younger age, family history of violence, violence in current relationships of the perpetrator, evidence of past abuse of neglect of children, and personality disorder and/of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - What type of manslaughter is classified as involuntary? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of manslaughter is classified as involuntary?

      Your Answer: Loss of control

      Correct Answer: Medical manslaughter

      Explanation:

      Voluntary manslaughter involves the defendant intending to kill the victim, but with a justifiable reason such as self-defence. In contrast, involuntary manslaughter occurs when the defendant did not intend to kill the victim, but their actions resulted in the victim’s death, such as in cases of medical malpractice. Self-defence stands apart from these options as it can result in a complete acquittal for the defendant if it can be proven.

      Murder and Manslaughter: Understanding the Difference

      Homicide is the act of killing another person, but it’s important to distinguish between murder and manslaughter. Murder is committed when a person of sound mind and discretion unlawfully kills another human being who is born alive and breathing through their own lungs, with the intent to kill of cause grievous bodily harm. Manslaughter, on the other hand, can occur in three ways: killing with the intent for murder but where a partial defense applies, conduct that was grossly negligent given the risk of death, and conduct taking the form of an unlawful act involving a danger of some harm that resulted in death. Infanticide is a specific type of manslaughter that applies to women who cause the death of their child under 12 months old by a wilful act of omission, but at the time of the act of omission, the balance of their mind was disturbed by the effects of giving birth of lactation. It’s important to understand these distinctions to properly classify and prosecute these crimes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      378.3
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  • Question 24 - What are the differences between early onset and adult onset schizophrenia? ...

    Correct

    • What are the differences between early onset and adult onset schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Less responsive to treatment

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia in children is rare compared to adults, with a prevalence estimate of 0.05% for those under 15 years old. There are two classifications based on age of onset: early onset schizophrenia (EOS) when symptoms appear between 13-18 years old, and very early onset schizophrenia (VEOS) when symptoms appear at of before 13 years old. EOS and VEOS have atypical features compared to adult-onset schizophrenia, including insidious onset, more severe neurodevelopmental abnormalities, terrifying visual hallucinations, constant inappropriate of blunted effects, higher rates of familial psychopathology, minor response to treatment, and poorer outcomes. Preliminary data suggests that VEOS and EOS may be due to greater familial vulnerability from genetic, psychosocial, and environmental factors. Poor outcomes are most reliably linked to a positive history of premorbid difficulties, greater symptom severity (especially negative symptoms) at baseline, and longer duration of untreated psychosis. Age at psychosis onset and sex are not consistent predictors of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is a known contributing factor to the development of ADHD? ...

    Correct

    • What is a known contributing factor to the development of ADHD?

      Your Answer: Low birth weight

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for ADHD

      There are several risk factors associated with the development of ADHD. According to the NICE guidelines, these include maternal smoking, alcohol consumption, and heroin use during pregnancy, as well as low birth weight and fetal hypoxia. Additionally, severe early psychosocial adversity has also been identified as a potential risk factor for ADHD. This refers to experiences of significant stress of trauma during early childhood, such as abuse, neglect, of exposure to violence. These factors can have a lasting impact on a child’s development and may contribute to the development of ADHD symptoms. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate support and interventions to children and families who may be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A woman is worried about her 55 year old husband who has been...

    Correct

    • A woman is worried about her 55 year old husband who has been experiencing unusual movements and has become anxious and depressed. She remembers that his father had a similar issue and eventually developed dementia. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Huntington's disease

      Explanation:

      Psychiatric and Behavioural Symptoms of Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is a condition that affects individuals with a triad of symptoms, including motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. While the symptoms typically begin in the third and fourth decades of life, individuals with a high number of CAG repeats may experience symptoms before the age of 20, known as juvenile Huntington’s disease.

      The psychiatric symptoms of Huntington’s disease can include depression, apathy, dementia, psychosis, anxiety, mania, sexual dysfunction, and even suicide. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s quality of life and require appropriate treatment. Advances in psychiatric treatment have been made to address these symptoms and improve the overall well-being of individuals with Huntington’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the correct approach to treating insomnia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct approach to treating insomnia?

      Your Answer: Modified-release melatonin is licensed for the management of primary insomnia of short-term duration (<4 weeks)

      Correct Answer: Dependence is more likely to develop when the patient has a history of anxiety problems

      Explanation:

      Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, waking up too early, of feeling unrefreshed after sleep. The management of insomnia depends on whether it is short-term (lasting less than 3 months) of long-term (lasting more than 3 months). For short-term insomnia, sleep hygiene and a sleep diary are recommended first. If severe daytime impairment is present, a short course of a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic medication may be considered for up to 2 weeks. For long-term insomnia, cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I) is the first-line treatment.

      Pharmacological therapy should be avoided, but a short-term hypnotic medication may be appropriate for some individuals with severe symptoms of an acute exacerbation. Referral to a sleep clinic of neurology may be necessary if another sleep disorder is suspected of if long-term insomnia has not responded to primary care management. Good sleep hygiene practices include establishing fixed sleep and wake times, relaxing before bedtime, maintaining a comfortable sleeping environment, avoiding napping during the day, avoiding caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol before bedtime, avoiding exercise before bedtime, avoiding heavy meals late at night, and using the bedroom only for sleep and sexual activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      83.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which option below represents a variable that belongs to an interval scale? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option below represents a variable that belongs to an interval scale?

      Your Answer: The age at which a patient developed schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: The acidity of a group of patient's urine measured with a urine pH test

      Explanation:

      The categorization of patients on a hospital ward based on their diagnosis = nominal

      Scales of Measurement in Statistics

      In the 1940s, Stanley Smith Stevens introduced four scales of measurement to categorize data variables. Knowing the scale of measurement for a variable is crucial in selecting the appropriate statistical analysis. The four scales of measurement are ratio, interval, ordinal, and nominal.

      Ratio scales are similar to interval scales, but they have true zero points. Examples of ratio scales include weight, time, and length. Interval scales measure the difference between two values, and one unit on the scale represents the same magnitude on the trait of characteristic being measured across the whole range of the scale. The Fahrenheit scale for temperature is an example of an interval scale.

      Ordinal scales categorize observed values into set categories that can be ordered, but the intervals between each value are uncertain. Examples of ordinal scales include social class, education level, and income level. Nominal scales categorize observed values into set categories that have no particular order of hierarchy. Examples of nominal scales include genotype, blood type, and political party.

      Data can also be categorized as quantitative of qualitative. Quantitative variables take on numeric values and can be further classified into discrete and continuous types. Qualitative variables do not take on numerical values and are usually names. Some qualitative variables have an inherent order in their categories and are described as ordinal. Qualitative variables are also called categorical of nominal variables. When a qualitative variable has only two categories, it is called a binary variable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      196.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A study reports that 76 percent of the subjects receiving fluvoxamine versus 29...

    Correct

    • A study reports that 76 percent of the subjects receiving fluvoxamine versus 29 percent of the placebo group were treatment responders. Based on this data, what is the number needed to treat?

      Your Answer: 2.12

      Explanation:

      To determine the number needed to treat (NNT), we first calculated the absolute risk reduction (ARR) using the formula ARR = CER – EER, where CER is the control event rate and EER is the experimental event rate. In this case, the ARR was 0.47, which is the reciprocal of the NNT. Therefore, the NNT was calculated as 2.12. This means that for every two patients treated with the active medication, at least one patient will have a better outcome compared to those treated with a placebo.

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What scenario would be eligible for a sane automatism defense? ...

    Incorrect

    • What scenario would be eligible for a sane automatism defense?

      Your Answer: Somnambulism

      Correct Answer: Concussion

      Explanation:

      Concussion is categorized as a sane automatism since it is caused by an external factor.

      Criminal Responsibility and Age Limits

      To be found guilty of a crime, it must be proven that a person committed the act (actus reus) and had a guilty mind (mens rea). In England and Wales, children under the age of 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions and cannot be arrested or charged with a crime. Instead, they may face other punishments such as a Local Child Curfew of a Child Safety Order. Children between the ages of 10 and 17 can be arrested and taken to court, but are treated differently from adults and may be dealt with by youth courts, given different sentences, and sent to special secure centers for young people. Young people aged 18 are treated as adults by the law.

      Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity and Other Defenses

      A person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they did not understand the nature of quality of their actions of did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Automatism is a defense used when the act is believed to have occurred unconsciously, either from an external cause (sane automatism) of an internal cause (insane automatism). Diminished responsibility is a defense used only in the defense of murder and allows for a reduction of the normal life sentence to manslaughter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Which of the options below is not considered a legal requirement for testamentary...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below is not considered a legal requirement for testamentary capacity?

      Your Answer: Understands in practical terms how the property will be distributed

      Correct Answer: Understands that the will can be revised

      Explanation:

      Testamentary Capacity

      Testamentary capacity is a crucial aspect of common law that pertains to a person’s legal and mental ability to create a will. To meet the requirements for testamentary capacity, there are four key factors that a testator must be aware of at the time of making the will. These include knowing the extent and value of their property, identifying the natural beneficiaries, understanding the disposition they are making, and having a plan for how the property will be distributed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - According to Gottesman (1982), what is the risk of an identical twin developing...

    Correct

    • According to Gottesman (1982), what is the risk of an identical twin developing schizophrenia if the other twin develops the condition?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors

      Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.

      While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.

      Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.

      Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.

      Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which variable classification is not included in Stevens' typology? ...

    Correct

    • Which variable classification is not included in Stevens' typology?

      Your Answer: Ranked

      Explanation:

      Stevens suggested that scales can be categorized into one of four types based on measurements.

      Scales of Measurement in Statistics

      In the 1940s, Stanley Smith Stevens introduced four scales of measurement to categorize data variables. Knowing the scale of measurement for a variable is crucial in selecting the appropriate statistical analysis. The four scales of measurement are ratio, interval, ordinal, and nominal.

      Ratio scales are similar to interval scales, but they have true zero points. Examples of ratio scales include weight, time, and length. Interval scales measure the difference between two values, and one unit on the scale represents the same magnitude on the trait of characteristic being measured across the whole range of the scale. The Fahrenheit scale for temperature is an example of an interval scale.

      Ordinal scales categorize observed values into set categories that can be ordered, but the intervals between each value are uncertain. Examples of ordinal scales include social class, education level, and income level. Nominal scales categorize observed values into set categories that have no particular order of hierarchy. Examples of nominal scales include genotype, blood type, and political party.

      Data can also be categorized as quantitative of qualitative. Quantitative variables take on numeric values and can be further classified into discrete and continuous types. Qualitative variables do not take on numerical values and are usually names. Some qualitative variables have an inherent order in their categories and are described as ordinal. Qualitative variables are also called categorical of nominal variables. When a qualitative variable has only two categories, it is called a binary variable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - What is the typical age range of individuals who are diagnosed with Munchausen's...

    Correct

    • What is the typical age range of individuals who are diagnosed with Munchausen's syndrome by proxy?

      Your Answer: 4 years

      Explanation:

      Munchausen’s syndrome by proxy, also known as fabricated or induced illness, is a rare form of child abuse where a caregiver, usually the mother, falsifies illness in a child by fabricating of producing symptoms and presenting the child for medical care while denying knowledge of the cause. It is most commonly seen in children under the age of 4, with symptoms including apnoea, anorexia, feeding problems, and seizures. The disorder is now recognized as ‘Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another’ in the DSM-5, with criteria including falsification of physical of psychological signs of symptoms, presentation of the victim as ill, and evident deceptive behavior. The perpetrator, not the victim, receives this diagnosis. Presenting signs of symptoms can take the form of covert injury, fabrication of symptoms, of exaggeration of existing symptoms. Symptoms are often subjective and easy to fake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A middle-aged man with a 12 month history of progressive memory decline is...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged man with a 12 month history of progressive memory decline is brought to the clinic by his wife. She reports marked variability in his presentation with episodic confusion where he will drift off and become vacant. She also reports that he has appeared to respond to unseen stimuli. On examination you note rigidity in his upper limbs. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lewy Body dementia

      Explanation:

      The presence of Lewy Body dementia could account for the observed symptoms of the patient, including the cognitive decline, visual hallucinations, and Parkinson’s-like motor symptoms.

      Dementia: Types and Clinical Characteristics

      Dementia is a progressive impairment of cognitive functions occurring in clear consciousness. There are over 100 different causes of dementia, and a detailed knowledge is required for the more common types. The following are some of the subtypes of dementia, along with their early features, neuropathology, and proportion:

      – Alzheimer’s disease: Impaired memory, apathy, and depression; gradual onset; cortical amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles; 50-75% proportion.
      – Vascular dementia: Similar to AD, but memory less affected, and mood fluctuations more prominent; physical frailty; stepwise onset; cerebrovascular disease; single infarcts in critical regions, of more diffuse multi-infarct disease; 20-30% proportion.
      – Frontotemporal dementia: Personality changes, mood changes, disinhibition, language difficulties; no single pathology – damage limited to frontal and temporal lobes; 5-10% proportion.
      – Dementia with Lewy Bodies: Marked fluctuation in cognitive ability, visual hallucinations, Parkinsonism (tremor and rigidity); cortical Lewy bodies (alpha-synuclein); <5% proportion. Other types of dementia include Pick’s disease, Huntington’s disease, pseudodementia, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Each subtype has its own unique clinical characteristics and neuropathology. It is important to accurately diagnose the type of dementia in order to provide appropriate treatment and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      104.1
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - What is the most suitable medication for a pregnant woman experiencing symptoms of...

    Correct

    • What is the most suitable medication for a pregnant woman experiencing symptoms of a mixed affective state?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Due to the patient’s pregnancy, mood stabilisers cannot be used as a traditional treatment for their mixed affective state, which presents symptoms of both mania and depression. Instead, an antipsychotic is the preferred course of action.

      Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential

      Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.

      Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - What is a fact about self-harm among youth? ...

    Correct

    • What is a fact about self-harm among youth?

      Your Answer: It is more common in girls than boys

      Explanation:

      Self-harm is a common issue among young people, particularly girls, with rates appearing to have risen over the past decade. It is most likely to occur between the ages of 12 and 15 years and is associated with a range of psychiatric problems. Short-term management involves a psychosocial assessment and consideration of activated charcoal for drug overdose. Longer-term management may involve psychological interventions, but drug treatment should not be offered as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm. Risk assessment tools should not be used to predict future suicide of repetition of self-harm, but certain factors such as male gender, substance misuse, and parental mental disorder may be associated with a higher risk of completed suicide. It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is engaging in self-harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      19.7
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  • Question 38 - What is the most prevalent mental disorder observed in individuals with multiple sclerosis?...

    Correct

    • What is the most prevalent mental disorder observed in individuals with multiple sclerosis?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Psychiatric Consequences of Multiple Sclerosis

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. It is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions in the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. MS presents with diverse neurological signs, including optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.

      Depression is the most common psychiatric condition seen in MS, with a lifetime prevalence of 25-50%. The symptoms of depression in people with MS tend to be different from those without MS. The preferred diagnostic indicators for depression in MS include pervasive mood change, diurnal mood variation, suicidal ideation, functional change not related to physical disability, and pessimistic of negative patterns of thinking. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are considered first-line treatment for depression in patients with MS.

      Suicide is common in MS, with recognized risk factors including male gender, young age at onset of illness, current of previous history of depression, social isolation, and substance misuse. Mania is more common in people with MS, and mood stabilizers are recommended for treatment. Pathological laughing and crying, defined as uncontrollable laughing and/of crying without the associated affect, occurs in approximately 10% of cases of MS. Emotional lability, defined as an excessive emotional response to a minor stimulus, is also common in MS and can be treated with amitriptyline and SSRIs.

      The majority of cases of neuropsychiatric side effects from corticosteroids fit an affective profile of mania and/of depression. Psychotic symptoms, particularly hallucinations, are present in up to half of these cases. Glatiramer acetate has not been associated with neuropsychiatric side-effects. The data regarding the risk of mood symptoms related to interferon use is conflicting.

      In conclusion, MS has significant psychiatric consequences, including depression, suicide, mania, pathological laughing and crying, emotional lability, and neuropsychiatric side effects from treatment. Early recognition and treatment of these psychiatric symptoms are essential for improving the quality of life of individuals with MS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      129.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which of the following symptoms is uncommon in cases of alcohol withdrawal? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms is uncommon in cases of alcohol withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Transient hallucinations

      Correct Answer: Sedation

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which of the following pairs of instincts proposed by Freud are correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following pairs of instincts proposed by Freud are correct?

      Your Answer: Thanatos and eros

      Explanation:

      Aggression – Freud

      According to Freud, aggression is a result of the primary instinct called thanatos, also known as the death instinct. He believed that every individual possesses this drive, which aims to cause complete destruction and death. Additionally, Freud proposed the existence of an opposing instinct called eros, which is the life instinct. He also introduced the concept of catharsis, which is a process of releasing libidinal energy and inducing a sense of calmness. This process occurs when we witness an aggressive act of engage in a mildly aggressive act.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      5.7
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  • Question 41 - In which situations might lower doses of clozapine be necessary? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which situations might lower doses of clozapine be necessary?

      Your Answer: Smokers

      Correct Answer: Patients on fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      29.7
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  • Question 42 - What evidence indicates a diagnosis of schizotypal personality disorder? ...

    Correct

    • What evidence indicates a diagnosis of schizotypal personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Unusual perceptual experiences

      Explanation:

      Schizotypal Personality Disorder: Symptoms and Diagnostic Criteria

      Schizotypal personality disorder is a type of personality disorder that is characterized by a pervasive pattern of discomfort with close relationships, distorted thinking and perceptions, and eccentric behavior. This disorder typically begins in early adulthood and is present in a variety of contexts. To be diagnosed with schizotypal personality disorder, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following symptoms:

      1. Ideas of reference (excluding delusions of reference).
      2. Odd beliefs of magical thinking that influences behavior and is inconsistent with subcultural norms.
      3. Unusual perceptual experiences, including bodily illusions.
      4. Odd thinking and speech.
      5. Suspiciousness of paranoid ideation.
      6. Inappropriate or constricted affect.
      7. Behavior of appearance that is odd, eccentric, of peculiar.
      8. Lack of close friends of confidants other than first-degree relatives.
      9. Excessive social anxiety that does not diminish with familiarity and tends to be associated with paranoid fears rather than negative judgments about self.

      It is important to note that the ICD-11 does not have a specific category for schizotypal personality disorder, as it has abandoned the categorical approach in favor of a dimensional one.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      6926.3
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - What is the recommended antidepressant for starting treatment in a pregnant woman with...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended antidepressant for starting treatment in a pregnant woman with no prior history of depression, as per the Maudsley guidelines?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      117.8
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  • Question 44 - Which of the following is the most indicative of complex visual hallucinations occurring...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most indicative of complex visual hallucinations occurring in clear consciousness and associated with visual impairment?

      Your Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome

      Explanation:

      Alice in Wonderland syndrome, also known as Todd syndrome, is a neurological disorder that causes distortions in a person’s perception of their body image, space, and time. This can lead to experiences such as Lilliputian hallucinations, macropsia, and altered sense of velocity. On the other hand, Diogenes syndrome is a condition commonly observed in the elderly, characterized by extreme self-neglect, social withdrawal, apathy, lack of shame, and compulsive hoarding of garbage. It is often linked to progressive dementia.

      Charles Bonnet Syndrome: A Condition of Complex Visual Hallucinations

      Charles Bonnet Syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by persistent of recurrent complex visual hallucinations that occur in clear consciousness. This condition is observed in individuals who have suffered damage to the visual pathway, which can be caused by damage to any part of the pathway from the eye to the cortex. The hallucinations are thought to result from a release phenomenon secondary to the deafferentation of the cerebral cortex. CBS is equally distributed between sexes and does not show any familial predisposition. The most common ophthalmological conditions associated with this syndrome are age-related macular degeneration, followed by glaucoma and cataract.

      Risk factors for CBS include advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. Well-formed complex visual hallucinations are thought to occur in 10-30 percent of individuals with severe visual impairment. Only around a third of individuals find the hallucinations themselves an unpleasant or disturbing experience. The most effective treatment is reversal of the visual impairment. Antipsychotic drugs are commonly prescribed but are largely ineffective. CBS is a long-lasting condition, with 88% of individuals experiencing it for two years of more, and only 25% resolving at nine years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      5.8
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  • Question 45 - A 42-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department on a Saturday evening seeking...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department on a Saturday evening seeking to speak with the on-call psychiatrist regarding his dependence on opioids.
      He explains that he recently relocated to the area and has exhausted his supply of buprenorphine, which he requires to prevent relapse into heroin use.
      He plans to establish care with a primary care physician next week to obtain ongoing prescriptions.
      What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient's situation?

      Your Answer: Request a urine drug screen

      Explanation:

      To ensure safe and appropriate treatment, it is crucial to verify the patient’s history of heroin dependence and methadone treatment through a urine drug screen and obtaining collateral information. Neglecting this step may result in prescribing methadone, which can be misused by the patient and potentially lead to fatal overdose if combined with injectable heroin. Additionally, methadone has a potential street value and can be sold illegally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      6039
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - What symptom of characteristic would strongly indicate the presence of Niemann-Pick disease as...

    Correct

    • What symptom of characteristic would strongly indicate the presence of Niemann-Pick disease as an underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Treatment resistant psychosis with executive dysfunction

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with both treatment resistant psychosis and executive dysfunction, it may be worth considering Niemann-Pick disease. Additionally, if a patient experiences treatment resistant anxiety symptoms accompanied by tachycardia, a pheochromocytoma should be considered. In cases where a patient exhibits personality changes and attentional issues in adulthood, along with irritability, aggression, and jaundice, it may suggest a mixed presentation of Wilson’s disease.

      Niemann-Pick disease is a group of inherited diseases where lipids accumulate in the cells of the liver, spleen, and brain. Niemann-Pick Type C (NPC) is the most relevant type for psychiatric presentations, with about one-third of cases presenting in adolescence of adulthood. Symptoms include progressive ataxia/dystonia, cognitive decline, and atypical psychotic symptoms. There are four other types of Niemann-Pick disease, each with their own causes and symptoms. Type A and B have a lack of sphingomyelinase and present in early childhood of mid-childhood/adolescence, respectively. Type C has reduced sphingomyelinase activity and can present at any age, with symptoms including enlarged liver and spleen, learning difficulties, seizures, and slurred speech. Type D is a variant of Type C and has similar symptoms. Type E has reduced sphingomyelinase activity and presents in adulthood with similar symptoms to the other types.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      7347.3
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  • Question 47 - Which statement accurately describes child abuse? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes child abuse?

      Your Answer: Boys are more likely than girls to experience physical abuse

      Explanation:

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists in London published a report in April 2004 on the role of mental health services in addressing child abuse and neglect. The report identifies neglect as the most common form of child abuse, followed by physical abuse, emotional abuse, sexual abuse, and fabricated or induced illness. The report emphasizes the importance of mental health services in addressing and preventing child abuse and neglect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      5.8
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  • Question 48 - What is the most frequently observed symptom of post-traumatic stress disorder among individuals...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently observed symptom of post-traumatic stress disorder among individuals with learning disabilities?

      Your Answer: Aggression

      Explanation:

      Post Traumatic Stress Disorder in People with Learning Difficulties

      Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) can present differently in people with learning difficulties compared to those without. While nightmares, jumpiness, and sleep disturbance are common in the general population, aggression and behavioral disturbance are more common in those with learning disabilities. Other symptoms may include disruptive of defiant behavior, self-harm, agitation, distractibility, and depressed mood.

      The most common cause of PTSD in people with learning difficulties is abuse. Treatment for PTSD in this population is similar to that for those without learning difficulties, including trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy of eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) of venlafaxine as an alternative of combined. However, the therapy must be tailored to the individual’s ability to understand and communicate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
      36.3
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  • Question 49 - What is the term used to describe the rate at which new cases...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the rate at which new cases of a disease are appearing, calculated by dividing the number of new cases by the total time that disease-free individuals are observed during a study period?

      Your Answer: Incidence rate

      Explanation:

      Measures of Disease Frequency: Incidence and Prevalence

      Incidence and prevalence are two important measures of disease frequency. Incidence measures the speed at which new cases of a disease are emerging, while prevalence measures the burden of disease within a population. Cumulative incidence and incidence rate are two types of incidence measures, while point prevalence and period prevalence are two types of prevalence measures.

      Cumulative incidence is the average risk of getting a disease over a certain period of time, while incidence rate is a measure of the speed at which new cases are emerging. Prevalence is a proportion and is a measure of the burden of disease within a population. Point prevalence measures the number of cases in a defined population at a specific point in time, while period prevalence measures the number of identified cases during a specified period of time.

      It is important to note that prevalence is equal to incidence multiplied by the duration of the condition. In chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence. The incidence rate is stated in units of person-time, while cumulative incidence is always a proportion. When describing cumulative incidence, it is necessary to give the follow-up period over which the risk is estimated. In acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence may be similar, while for conditions such as the common cold, the incidence may be greater than the prevalence.

      Incidence is a useful measure to study disease etiology and risk factors, while prevalence is useful for health resource planning. Understanding these measures of disease frequency is important for public health professionals and researchers in order to effectively monitor and address the burden of disease within populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      10.6
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  • Question 50 - What is the maximum duration of psychotic symptoms required for a diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the maximum duration of psychotic symptoms required for a diagnosis of acute and transient psychotic disorder according to the ICD-11?

      Your Answer: 1 month

      Correct Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      – Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
      – Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
      – The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
      – Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
      – Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
      – Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
      – Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      2.5
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  • Question 51 - What is the most indicative symptom of atypical depression? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most indicative symptom of atypical depression?

      Your Answer: Increased sex drive

      Explanation:

      Atypical Depression: Symptoms and Treatment

      Atypical depression is a subtype of major depressive disorder that is characterized by low mood with mood reactivity and a reversal of the typical features seen in depression. This includes hypersomnia, hyperphagia, weight gain, and libidinal increases. People with atypical depression tend to respond best to MAOIs, while their response to tricyclics is poor, and SSRIs perform somewhere in the middle.

      The DSM-5 defines atypical depression as a subtype of major depressive disorder ‘with atypical features’, which includes mood reactivity, significant weight gain of increase in appetite, hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, and a long-standing pattern of interpersonal rejection sensitivity that results in significant social of occupational impairment. However, this subtype is not specifically recognized in ICD-11.

      If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of atypical depression, it is important to seek professional help. Treatment options may include therapy, medication, of a combination of both. MAOIs may be the most effective medication for atypical depression, but it is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      6.1
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  • Question 52 - What report aimed to address the disproportionate number of individuals with mental health...

    Incorrect

    • What report aimed to address the disproportionate number of individuals with mental health issues in English prisons?

      Your Answer: Rocky Bennett report

      Correct Answer: Bradley report

      Explanation:

      The Bradley Report and its Recommendations for Mental Health in the Criminal Justice System

      The Bradley Report was an independent review that aimed to improve the experience of individuals with mental health problems and learning disabilities in the criminal justice system. The report made 82 recommendations for change, including proposals to address the over-representation of people with mental health issues in prisons in England.

      One of the key recommendations was the establishment of a national network of Criminal Justice Mental Health teams. These teams would work to divert individuals towards support services from police stations, courts, and after their release from prison. Additionally, the report called for a maximum wait time of 14 days for individuals who require urgent mental health treatment and need to be transferred from prison to hospital. The NHS was also urged to take on the responsibility of providing health services in police stations.

      Overall, the Bradley Report highlighted the need for significant changes to be made in the criminal justice system to better support individuals with mental health problems and learning disabilities. Its recommendations have the potential to improve the lives of many vulnerable individuals and reduce the number of people with mental health issues in prisons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      16.7
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  • Question 53 - What does testamentary capacity refer to? ...

    Correct

    • What does testamentary capacity refer to?

      Your Answer: Ability to make a will

      Explanation:

      The term used to refer to the individual who creates a will is the testator, which is why the ability to create a will is known as testamentary capacity (derived from the Latin word testator).

      Testamentary Capacity

      Testamentary capacity is a crucial aspect of common law that pertains to a person’s legal and mental ability to create a will. To meet the requirements for testamentary capacity, there are four key factors that a testator must be aware of at the time of making the will. These include knowing the extent and value of their property, identifying the natural beneficiaries, understanding the disposition they are making, and having a plan for how the property will be distributed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      6.3
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  • Question 54 - Which of the following is not a gastrointestinal side-effect of opiate use? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a gastrointestinal side-effect of opiate use?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Opiate withdrawal is more likely to result in diarrhoea than opiate use.

      Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.

      Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

      Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.

      MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.

      Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.

      Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      6.7
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  • Question 55 - A 14-year-old girl is referred by her GP due to concerning behaviour. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is referred by her GP due to concerning behaviour. She has been involved in physical altercations with several of her classmates and is consistently disobedient towards her mother. In the past year, she has committed multiple offenses and has been convicted several times. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Group parent training programmes

      Correct Answer: Multimodal interventions with a family focus

      Explanation:

      Based on his behavior, it appears that he may have conduct disorder. As for the girl, parent training programs may not be suitable for her given her age. Instead, a more comprehensive approach is needed that addresses individual, family, school, criminal justice, and community factors. This approach, referred to as multimodal interventions with a family focus by NICE, would be more appropriate.

      Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders

      Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.

      ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).

      The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.

      The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.

      NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 56 - For which conditions is eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy commonly utilized? ...

    Correct

    • For which conditions is eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy commonly utilized?

      Your Answer: PTSD

      Explanation:

      EMDR: A Trauma-Focused Therapy for PTSD

      EMDR, of eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing, is a therapy developed by Francine Shapiro in the 1980s that focuses on processing traumatic memories. While the exact way it works is not fully understood, it involves reliving traumatic memories while experiencing bilateral alternating stimulation, often through a light source. EMDR is recommended by the NICE Guidelines as a treatment for PTSD, along with trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      4.6
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  • Question 57 - A 45-year-old man is referred to you by his primary care physician. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is referred to you by his primary care physician. He has a history of anxiety and is currently experiencing symptoms of low mood and difficulty sleeping. The physician is concerned about the possibility of depression.
      During your assessment, you note evidence of low mood, initial insomnia, and some feelings of hopelessness. The patient denies any suicidal thoughts.
      What treatment approach would you avoid as part of his management plan?

      Your Answer: Imipramine

      Correct Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a moderate depressive episode, which can be treated with cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) if it is easily accessible. During pregnancy, amitriptyline, imipramine, and fluoxetine are commonly used antidepressants. However, paroxetine should be avoided due to its short half-life, which can lead to neonatal irritability and withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 58 - A recent meta-analysis examining the effectiveness of medication in treating PTSD discovered which...

    Correct

    • A recent meta-analysis examining the effectiveness of medication in treating PTSD discovered which treatments to be supported by evidence?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      There is limited evidence suggesting that fluoxetine, paroxetine, and venlafaxine may be effective in treating PTSD, while SSRIs as a whole were found to be more effective than placebo. However, trials involving sertraline did not show any evidence of efficacy, and there is no evidence supporting the use of other drug treatments. Additionally, brofaromine is a type of reversible MAOi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - You are asked to see a 70-year-old male who is an inpatient detained...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 70-year-old male who is an inpatient detained under section 3 of the Mental Health Act on a geriatric unit. Nursing staff are concerned as he fell earlier, and has been refusing all medication. He has a diagnosis of dementia, and agitation. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. He has lost 2 kg in the past week, and on examination is unable to stand without assistance. You arrange several urgent investigations.
      Which of the following results would be most alarming?

      Your Answer: Glucose 3.0

      Correct Answer: Urea 20

      Explanation:

      1. Dehydration can lead to medical crisis and urgent medical assessment is necessary.
      2. Oral replacement is preferable, but parenteral fluids may be required if the patient is refusing to drink.
      3. A white cell count of >4 and neutrophils >1.5 is not normally a cause for concern.
      4. Chronic low potassium levels (down to 1.5) in purging are common, but acute changes are more dangerous.
      5. An albumin level of 36 is not normally a cause for concern.
      6. Glucose levels of 3.0 may be concerning, but immediate action is required if levels drop below 2.5.
      7. The Mental Health Act may be used to provide treatment for anorexia nervosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      15.9
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  • Question 60 - Can you identify which drug is classified as a controlled substance? ...

    Correct

    • Can you identify which drug is classified as a controlled substance?

      Your Answer: Co-codamol

      Explanation:

      Co-codamol falls under the category of schedule 5 drugs.

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      23.3
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  • Question 61 - A 10-year-old boy comes to the clinic with a complaint of bedwetting at...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to the clinic with a complaint of bedwetting at night. He has been wetting the bed almost every night despite his parents' efforts to have him use the bathroom before bedtime, limit his fluid intake, and use a reward system for dry nights. What should be the next course of action in treating this condition?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      In the case of a child with nocturnal enuresis who has already tried lifestyle measures and a reward chart without success, the next step in treatment would be to consider either prescribing desmopressin of trying an enuresis alarm. However, as the child is under 7 years old, the current first-line treatment would be to try an enuresis alarm before considering other options. Therefore, the best course of action in this scenario would be to try an enuresis alarm.

      Elimination Disorders

      Elimination disorders refer to conditions that affect a child’s ability to control their bladder of bowel movements. Enuresis, of lack of control over the bladder, typically occurs between the ages of 1-3, while control over the bowel usually occurs before that of the bladder for most toddlers. Toilet training can be influenced by various factors, including intellectual capacity, cultural determinants, and psychological interactions between the child and their parents.

      Enuresis is characterized by involuntary voiding of urine, by day and/of by night, which is abnormal in relation to the individual’s age and is not a result of any physical abnormality. It is not normally diagnosed before age 5 and may be primary (the child never having achieved continence) of secondary. Treatment options include reassurance, enuresis alarms, and medication.

      Encopresis refers to repeated stool evacuation in inappropriate places in children over the age of four. The behavior can be either involuntary of intentional and may be due to unsuccessful toilet training (primary encopresis) of occur after a period of normal bowel control (secondary encopresis). Treatment generally involves bowel clearance, prevention of impaction, and behavioral therapy.

      Before a diagnosis of encopresis is made, organic causes must be excluded. Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum, colon, and sometimes the small intestine. It leads to a colonic obstruction and is diagnosed in at least half of all cases in the first year of life. It is twice as common in boys than in girls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      54.5
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  • Question 62 - What is the recommended course of action for treating mania in a 15...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended course of action for treating mania in a 15 year old female?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 63 - What is the medical condition that is identified by the presence of global...

    Correct

    • What is the medical condition that is identified by the presence of global confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia as its triad of symptoms?

      Your Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 65 kg male patient is brought to the emergency department after taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 kg male patient is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of paracetamol. He estimates that he took 20 paracetamol tablets over a two hour period approximately 3 hours ago. Which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Take levels immediately and then start treatment with IV acetylcysteine if levels are over the treatment line

      Correct Answer: Administer IV acetylcysteine without delay

      Explanation:

      If someone ingests more than 75 mg/kg of paracetamol, serious toxicity can occur. This means that a 75 kg male would need to ingest approximately 5.5 g (equivalent to 11-12 tablets) for significant harm to occur. Immediate action is necessary in this case. If someone ingests more than 150 mg/kg, they require immediate treatment. In cases of staggered overdoses, IV acetylcysteine should be administered regardless of the plasma paracetamol level.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 65 - What is the standard deviation of the sample mean weight of 64 patients...

    Correct

    • What is the standard deviation of the sample mean weight of 64 patients diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia, given that the average weight is 81 kg and the standard deviation is 12 kg?

      Your Answer: 1.5

      Explanation:

      – The standard error of the mean is calculated using the formula: standard deviation / square root (number of patients).
      – In this case, the standard error of the mean is 12 / square root (64).
      – Simplifying this equation gives a standard error of the mean of 12 / 8.

      Measures of dispersion are used to indicate the variation of spread of a data set, often in conjunction with a measure of central tendency such as the mean of median. The range, which is the difference between the largest and smallest value, is the simplest measure of dispersion. The interquartile range, which is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, is another useful measure. Quartiles divide a data set into quarters, and the interquartile range can provide additional information about the spread of the data. However, to get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as the variance and standard deviation are needed. The variance gives an indication of how much the items in the data set vary from the mean, while the standard deviation reflects the distribution of individual scores around their mean. The standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data set and can be used to indicate how confident we are that data points lie within a particular range. The standard error of the mean is an inferential statistic used to estimate the population mean and is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations. Confidence intervals are often presented alongside sample results such as the mean value, indicating a range that is likely to contain the true value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      34.2
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  • Question 66 - A 62-year-old woman is referred to your clinic. Her daughter has noticed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman is referred to your clinic. Her daughter has noticed a slight change in her mother's behavior and increased forgetfulness over the past six months. This started after she had a transient ischemic attack and has since worsened. She has type 1 diabetes mellitus and is on insulin. You perform cognitive testing and refer the woman for an EEG.
      What is the most probable EEG result?

      Your Answer: Normal EEG

      Correct Answer: Asymmetrical pattern of waves

      Explanation:

      The individual is exhibiting symptoms consistent with vascular dementia, which is supported by minor changes in behavior, a medical history of transient ischaemic attacks and diabetes mellitus. An EEG scan reveals an uneven pattern caused by infarctions in the brain due to small vessel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      23.3
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  • Question 67 - What is the correct statement about therapeutic alliance? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement about therapeutic alliance?

      Your Answer: Therapist ratings of the client-therapist relationship are stronger predictors of treatment outcome than client ratings

      Correct Answer: The strength of the therapeutic bond is not highly correlated with the duration of the treatment

      Explanation:

      Therapeutic Alliance

      The therapeutic alliance is a collaborative partnership between the doctor and the patient that is crucial for successful treatment outcomes. Research has shown that the client’s perception of the relationship with their therapist is a stronger predictor of treatment success than the therapist’s perception. The strength of the therapeutic bond is not necessarily related to the length of service, as a strong relationship can be established in a short amount of time. Therapist self-awareness can also positively impact the development of a therapeutic alliance. It is important to maintain a positive working relationship when dealing with family members of the client. Additionally, the presence of hope can significantly impact how individuals cope with stress, difficulty, and problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 68 - What is a partial defence to murder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a partial defence to murder?

      Your Answer: Self-defence

      Correct Answer: Loss of control

      Explanation:

      Some partial defences to murder are available, such as diminished responsibility, loss of control, and killing in accordance with a suicide pact.

      Murder and Manslaughter: Understanding the Difference

      Homicide is the act of killing another person, but it’s important to distinguish between murder and manslaughter. Murder is committed when a person of sound mind and discretion unlawfully kills another human being who is born alive and breathing through their own lungs, with the intent to kill of cause grievous bodily harm. Manslaughter, on the other hand, can occur in three ways: killing with the intent for murder but where a partial defense applies, conduct that was grossly negligent given the risk of death, and conduct taking the form of an unlawful act involving a danger of some harm that resulted in death. Infanticide is a specific type of manslaughter that applies to women who cause the death of their child under 12 months old by a wilful act of omission, but at the time of the act of omission, the balance of their mind was disturbed by the effects of giving birth of lactation. It’s important to understand these distinctions to properly classify and prosecute these crimes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 69 - What database is most suitable for finding scholarly material that has not undergone...

    Correct

    • What database is most suitable for finding scholarly material that has not undergone official publication?

      Your Answer: SIGLE

      Explanation:

      SIGLE is a database that contains unpublished of ‘grey’ literature, while CINAHL is a database that focuses on healthcare and biomedical journal articles. The Cochrane Library is a collection of databases that includes the Cochrane Reviews, which are systematic reviews and meta-analyses of medical research. EMBASE is a pharmacological and biomedical database, and PsycINFO is a database of abstracts from psychological literature that is created by the American Psychological Association.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      8.1
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  • Question 70 - In which therapeutic model are reciprocal role procedures included? ...

    Correct

    • In which therapeutic model are reciprocal role procedures included?

      Your Answer: Cognitive analytic therapy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cognitive Analytic Therapy

      Cognitive Analytic Therapy (CAT) is a form of therapy that combines psychodynamic and cognitive approaches. It is a brief therapy that typically lasts between 16-24 sessions. Developed by Anthony Ryle, CAT aims to identify the useful parts of psychotherapy and make it more efficient. It also aims to create a therapy that can be easily researched.

      CAT focuses on identifying key issues early on and conceptualizing them as repeated unsuccessful strategies. These strategies are categorized into traps, dilemmas, and snags. Traps are flawed thinking patterns that result in a vicious cycle of negative assumptions and actions. Dilemmas occur when a person believes their choices are restricted to opposite actions, neither of which is satisfactory. Snags are thinking patterns that restrict actions due to a perception of potential harm of failure.

      CAT follows a procedural sequence model, where the problem is appraised, options are discussed, a plan is created and put into place, and consequences are evaluated. The therapist often summarizes the problem and plan in a letter to the client.

      CAT also identifies reciprocal role procedures (RRPs), which are patterns observed in the way we related to others. These patterns are visually presented using a sequential diagrammatic reformulation. For example, a client who rebelled against a stern, dominating father may be dismissive of therapy because they see the therapist as a demanding authority figure.

      Overall, CAT is a useful therapy that combines psychodynamic and cognitive approaches to identify and address maladaptive patterns. Its procedural sequence model and use of RRPs make it an efficient and effective therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      15
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  • Question 71 - If a man consumes alcohol daily and increases his intake on weekends, but...

    Correct

    • If a man consumes alcohol daily and increases his intake on weekends, but abstains on Monday due to a crucial work meeting, and then experiences a seizure during the meeting, what would you suspect?

      Your Answer: Alcohol withdrawal

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 72 - A teenager is referred after experiencing a traumatic event that has caused a...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager is referred after experiencing a traumatic event that has caused a decline in their mental well-being. What would be the most helpful in distinguishing between a diagnosis of post traumatic stress disorder and adjustment disorder?

      Your Answer: The symptoms have persisted for over three months

      Correct Answer: The patient reports flashbacks

      Explanation:

      If an individual experiences symptoms that meet the criteria for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder but the event of situation is not considered serious, they should be diagnosed with adjustment disorder instead. Additionally, it is common for individuals who have experienced a highly traumatic event to develop adjustment disorder rather than Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder. The diagnosis should be based on meeting the full diagnostic criteria for either disorder, rather than solely on the type of stressor experienced.

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 73 - A 56-year-old female is currently receiving care in a nursing home due to...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old female is currently receiving care in a nursing home due to a diagnosis of Wernicke's encephalopathy. She has a lengthy history of alcohol addiction.
      What vitamin deficiency is the cause of Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is linked to bleeding in the Mammillary bodies of the brain and is commonly seen in individuals with insufficient thiamine levels. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms including changes in mental state, unsteady walking, and difficulty moving the eyes. It is especially prevalent in individuals who abuse alcohol over extended periods as they rely heavily on alcohol for their energy needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 74 - Which statement accurately describes the evidence supporting the use of lithium? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the evidence supporting the use of lithium?

      Your Answer: Lithium has been shown to reduce the number but not the severity of relapses for people with bipolar disorder

      Correct Answer: Lithium has been shown to be an effective augmentation agent for people with unipolar depression

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Clinical Usage

      Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.

      Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.

      Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.

      Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.

      The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 75 - A 68-year-old woman is referred to your clinic.
    Her husband has noticed that she...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman is referred to your clinic.
      Her husband has noticed that she has become more forgetful over the last six months and has also noticed that there are episodes of confusion. There is a history of repeated falls but no serious head injury.
      She does not drink alcohol but has a tremor and is slow in her movements. Her elderly husband is perplexed as his wife states that she sees a bird in the living room, which he cannot see. She is also convinced that their daughter is stealing money from them.
      What treatment option do you recommend?

      Your Answer: Rivastigmine

      Explanation:

      The man is exhibiting typical symptoms of Lewy body dementia, such as cognitive decline, sporadic confusion, motor parkinsonian features, frequent falls, and early visual hallucinations. While memantine has demonstrated some efficacy, acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are the preferred initial treatment for Lewy body dementia. There is limited high-quality evidence for treating this condition. Although donepezil may also be a suitable first-line therapy, it is not authorized in the UK for treating dementia in Parkinson’s disease, whereas rivastigmine is.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 76 - For a 13 year old boy with moderate depression who will be receiving...

    Incorrect

    • For a 13 year old boy with moderate depression who will be receiving combined treatment of individual CBT and fluoxetine, what is the recommended starting dose of fluoxetine considering his normal weight for his age?

      Your Answer: 20 mg

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, the recommended initial dose for children with normal weight is 10 mg, which aligns with the guidance provided by the BNF and the summary of product characteristics from the manufacturers. The manufacturers suggest that the dosage can be increased to 20 mg per day after one to two weeks, but there is limited clinical trial data available for daily doses exceeding 20 mg.

      Depression in Young People: NICE Guidelines

      The NICE Guidelines for depression in young people are limited to those between the ages of 5-18. For mild depression without significant comorbid problems of active suicidal ideas of plans, watchful waiting is recommended, along with digital CBT, group CBT, group IPT, of group non-directive supportive therapy. For moderate to severe depression, family-based IPT, family therapy, psychodynamic psychotherapy, individual CBT, and fluoxetine may be used for 5-11 year olds, while individual CBT and fluoxetine may be used for 12-18 year olds. Antidepressant medication should not be used for initial treatment of mild depression, and should only be used in combination with concurrent psychological therapy for moderate to severe depression. Fluoxetine is the only antidepressant for which clinical trial evidence shows that the benefits outweigh the risks, and should be used as the first-line treatment. Paroxetine, venlafaxine, tricyclic antidepressants, and St John’s wort should not be used for the treatment of depression in children and young people. Second generation antipsychotics may be used for depression with psychotic symptoms, and ECT should only be considered for those with very severe depression and life-threatening symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 77 - What is the most accurate way to describe the way Klinefelter syndrome is...

    Correct

    • What is the most accurate way to describe the way Klinefelter syndrome is inherited?

      Your Answer: Sporadic

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome is not inherited in a predictable manner as it occurs randomly. Additionally, due to the infertility of almost all affected males, it is unlikely to observe any other type of inheritance pattern.

      Genetic Conditions and Their Features

      Genetic conditions are disorders caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These conditions can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including physical and intellectual development. Some of the most common genetic conditions and their features are:

      – Downs (trisomy 21): Short stature, almond-shaped eyes, low muscle tone, and intellectual disability.
      – Angelman syndrome (Happy puppet syndrome): Flapping hand movements, ataxia, severe learning disability, seizures, and sleep problems.
      – Prader-Willi: Hyperphagia, excessive weight gain, short stature, and mild learning disability.
      – Cri du chat: Characteristic cry, hypotonia, down-turned mouth, and microcephaly.
      – Velocardiofacial syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome): Cleft palate, cardiac problems, and learning disabilities.
      – Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Severe intellectual disability, kidney malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Lesch-Nyhan syndrome: Self-mutilation, dystonia, and writhing movements.
      – Smith-Magenis syndrome: Pronounced self-injurious behavior, self-hugging, and a hoarse voice.
      – Fragile X: Elongated face, large ears, hand flapping, and shyness.
      – Wolf Hirschhorn syndrome: Mild to severe intellectual disability, seizures, and physical abnormalities.
      – Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): Severe intellectual disability, congenital heart malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Rett syndrome: Regression and loss of skills, hand-wringing movements, and profound learning disability.
      – Tuberous sclerosis: Hamartomatous tumors, epilepsy, and behavioral issues.
      – Williams syndrome: Elfin-like features, social disinhibition, and advanced verbal skills.
      – Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome: Short stature, friendly disposition, and moderate learning disability.
      – Klinefelter syndrome: Extra X chromosome, low testosterone, and speech and language issues.
      – Jakob’s syndrome: Extra Y chromosome, tall stature, and lower mean intelligence.
      – Coffin-Lowry syndrome: Short stature, slanting eyes, and severe learning difficulty.
      – Turner syndrome: Short stature, webbed neck, and absent periods.
      – Niemann Pick disease (types A and B): Abdominal swelling, cherry red spot, and feeding difficulties.

      It is important to note that these features may vary widely among individuals with the same genetic condition. Early diagnosis and intervention can help individuals with genetic conditions reach their full potential and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 78 - Which statement accurately describes the epidemiology of violence among individuals with a mental...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes the epidemiology of violence among individuals with a mental illness?

      Your Answer: People with mental disorders are more likely to be violent than community controls

      Explanation:

      The Relationship Between Mental Disorder and Violence: Epidemiological Findings

      Epidemiological studies have revealed that individuals with mental disorders are more likely to exhibit violent behavior compared to those without mental disorders. However, substance misuse is a significant contributing factor to violence in both groups. Other factors such as gender, age, past history of violence, and socio-economic status have a more significant impact on the risk of violence than the presence of a mental disorder. Comorbid personality disorders also increase the risk of violence independently. The increased risk of violence is partly due to active psychotic symptoms, and threat/control override symptoms such as persecutory delusions, delusions of control, and passivity phenomena are particularly important. It is essential to note that the vast majority of individuals with mental disorders are not violent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 79 - What does the term external validity in a study refer to? ...

    Correct

    • What does the term external validity in a study refer to?

      Your Answer: The degree to which the conclusions in a study would hold for other persons in other places and at other times

      Explanation:

      Validity in statistics refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study, while external validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. There are various threats to both internal and external validity, such as sampling, measurement instrument obtrusiveness, and reactive effects of setting. Additionally, there are several subtypes of validity, including face validity, content validity, criterion validity, and construct validity. Each subtype has its own specific focus and methods for testing validity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 80 - Which statement accurately reflects the NICE guidelines on self-harm? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately reflects the NICE guidelines on self-harm?

      Your Answer: All children who have self-harmed should be admitted overnight to a paediatric ward and assessed the following day

      Explanation:

      The NICE Guidelines from 2004 provide several recommendations regarding self-harm. It is advised that harm minimisation strategies should not be offered for those who have self-harmed by poisoning, as there are no safe limits for this type of self-harm. Children and young people who have self-harmed should be admitted overnight to a paediatric ward and fully assessed the following day before any further treatment of care is initiated. The admitting team should also obtain parental consent for mental health assessment of the child of young person. For individuals with borderline personality disorder who self-harm, dialectical behaviour therapy may be considered. It is important to note that most individuals who seek emergency department care following self-harm will meet criteria for one of more psychiatric diagnoses at the time of assessment, with depression being the most common diagnosis. However, within 12-16 months, two-thirds of those diagnosed with depression will no longer meet diagnostic criteria.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 81 - Which of the following signs of symptoms would indicate hypoactive delirium? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following signs of symptoms would indicate hypoactive delirium?

      Your Answer: Hallucinations

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The only symptom that indicates hypoactive delirium is facial inexpression, while the rest of the symptoms suggest hyperactive delirium.

      Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 82 - What is the most common method of suicide in England? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common method of suicide in England?

      Your Answer: Hanging

      Explanation:

      2021 National Confidential Inquiry into Suicide and Safety in Mental Health (NCISH) report reveals key findings on suicide rates in the UK from 2008-2018. The rates have remained stable over the years, with a slight increase following the 2008 recession and another rise since 2015/2016. Approximately 27% of all general population suicides were patients who had contact with mental health services within 12 months of suicide. The most common methods of suicide were hanging/strangulation (52%) and self-poisoning (22%), mainly through prescription opioids. In-patient suicides have continued to decrease, with most of them occurring on the ward itself from low lying ligature points. The first three months after discharge remain a high-risk period, with 13% of all patient suicides occurring within this time frame. Nearly half (48%) of patient suicides were from patients who lived alone. In England, suicide rates are higher in males (17.2 per 100,000) than females (5.4 per 100,000), with the highest age-specific suicide rate for males in the 45-49 years age group (27.1 deaths per 100,000 males) and for females in the same age group (9.2 deaths per 100,000). Hanging remains the most common method of suicide in the UK, accounting for 59.4% of all suicides among males and 45.0% of all suicides among females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 83 - What antidepressant is suggested for women who are taking tamoxifen? ...

    Correct

    • What antidepressant is suggested for women who are taking tamoxifen?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to steer clear of fluoxetine, paroxetine, and bupropion. The safety of reboxetine is unknown due to lack of research. Venlafaxine is considered a safe option.

      Tamoxifen and Antidepressant Interactions

      Tamoxifen is a medication used to treat breast cancer by reducing relapse rates and increasing overall survival. It works by antagonizing estrogen in the breast, with its anti-estrogen affinity depending on its primary metabolite, endoxifen. However, tamoxifen is metabolized to endoxifen through the liver enzyme CYP2D6, and any drug that inhibits this enzyme can reduce the conversion of tamoxifen to endoxifen.

      Women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention may also take antidepressants for psychiatric disorders of hot flushes. Some antidepressants have been found to inhibit the metabolism of tamoxifen to its more active metabolites by the CYP2D6 enzyme, thereby decreasing its anticancer effect. Strong CYP2D6 inhibitors include paroxetine, fluoxetine, bupropion, and duloxetine, while moderate inhibitors include sertraline, escitalopram, and doxepin, and venlafaxine is a weak inhibitor.

      Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider potential drug interactions when prescribing antidepressants to women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 84 - What symptoms of effects are typical in a patient who has ingested hallucinogenic...

    Correct

    • What symptoms of effects are typical in a patient who has ingested hallucinogenic substances?

      Your Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.

      Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

      Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.

      MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.

      Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.

      Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 85 - A 40 year old man with schizophrenia and essential hypertension (with a systolic...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old man with schizophrenia and essential hypertension (with a systolic blood pressure of 140 mmHg) is admitted to hospital with a relapse in psychotic symptoms. He is currently on aripiprazole and wishes to explore other options. He has previously been tried with haloperidol. Which (if any) of the following would be contraindicated in this scenario?:

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Although many individuals may choose clozapine as the answer, it is not the correct option. The current recommendation is that clozapine should only be considered after a patient has attempted two prior antipsychotics, with only one of them being an atypical antipsychotic.

      Antipsychotics and Hypertension

      Clozapine is the antipsychotic that is most commonly linked to hypertension. However, it is important to note that essential hypertension is not a contraindication for any antipsychotic medication. Therefore, no antipsychotics should be avoided in patients with essential hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 86 - What is the recommended duration of SSRI treatment for preventing relapse in adults...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended duration of SSRI treatment for preventing relapse in adults with body dysmorphic disorder, according to the NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer: 6 months

      Correct Answer: 12 months

      Explanation:

      Maudsley Guidelines

      First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)

      Second line:

      – SSRI + antipsychotic
      – Citalopram + clomipramine
      – Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
      – Lamotrigine + SSRI
      – Topiramate + SSRI

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 87 - What is the estimated range for the 95% confidence interval for the mean...

    Incorrect

    • What is the estimated range for the 95% confidence interval for the mean glucose levels in a population of people taking antipsychotics, given a sample mean of 7 mmol/L, a sample standard deviation of 6 mmol/L, and a sample size of 9 with a standard error of the mean of 2 mmol/L?

      Your Answer: 1-13 mmol/L

      Correct Answer: 3-11 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that confidence intervals are derived from standard errors, not standard deviation, despite the common misconception. It is crucial to avoid mixing up these two terms.

      Measures of dispersion are used to indicate the variation of spread of a data set, often in conjunction with a measure of central tendency such as the mean of median. The range, which is the difference between the largest and smallest value, is the simplest measure of dispersion. The interquartile range, which is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, is another useful measure. Quartiles divide a data set into quarters, and the interquartile range can provide additional information about the spread of the data. However, to get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as the variance and standard deviation are needed. The variance gives an indication of how much the items in the data set vary from the mean, while the standard deviation reflects the distribution of individual scores around their mean. The standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data set and can be used to indicate how confident we are that data points lie within a particular range. The standard error of the mean is an inferential statistic used to estimate the population mean and is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations. Confidence intervals are often presented alongside sample results such as the mean value, indicating a range that is likely to contain the true value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      17
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  • Question 88 - A young man who still experiences seizures during his sleep is interested in...

    Correct

    • A young man who still experiences seizures during his sleep is interested in reapplying for his driver's license. He has had seizures during the day in the past, but it has been a while since his last one. What guidance would you provide him with regarding reapplying for his license?

      Your Answer: She can reapply as long as she has not had a seizure during the day for 3 years

      Explanation:

      Driving is still an option for individuals experiencing nocturnal seizures. Those who have solely experienced nocturnal seizures can reapply for their license after a 12-month period. However, if they have experienced both nocturnal and diurnal seizures, they must wait for 3 years without a diurnal seizure before reapplying.

      Epilepsy and Driving Regulations in the UK

      If an individual has experienced epileptic seizures while awake and lost consciousness, they can apply for a car of motorbike licence if they haven’t had a seizure for at least a year. However, if the seizure was due to a change in medication, they can apply when the seizure occurred more than six months ago if they are back on their old medication.

      In the case of a one-off seizure while awake and lost consciousness, the individual can apply for a licence after six months if there have been no further seizures.

      If an individual has experienced seizures while asleep and awake, they may still qualify for a licence if the only seizures in the past three years have been while asleep.

      If an individual has only had seizures while asleep, they may qualify for a licence if it has been 12 months of more since their first seizure.

      Seizures that do not affect consciousness may still qualify for a licence if the seizures do not involve loss of consciousness and the last seizure occurred at least 12 months ago.

      It is important to note that the rules for bus, coach, and lorry licences differ. For these licences, an individual must be seizure-free for 10 years if they have had more than one previous seizure and have not been on antiepileptic medication. If they have only had one previous seizure and have not been on antiepileptic medication, they must be seizure-free for five years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 89 - Which statement accurately reflects the NICE guidelines on self-harm? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately reflects the NICE guidelines on self-harm?

      Your Answer: Flumazenil is not currently licensed for the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose in the UK

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines on Self-Harm advise against the use of emetics, such as ipecac, in the management of self-poisoning. Flumazenil, although not currently licensed for the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose in the UK, should be considered if poisoning with benzodiazepines is suspected. Intravenous acetylcysteine is recommended as the treatment of choice for paracetamol overdose. It is important to conduct a psychosocial assessment as soon as possible, unless the patient requires life-saving medical treatment of is unable to be assessed. Plasma paracetamol levels should be measured between 4 and 15 hours after ingestion for reliable risk assessment.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      17.4
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  • Question 90 - A 50-year-old man, who has a past of opioid addiction, is interested in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man, who has a past of opioid addiction, is interested in exploring pharmacological maintenance therapy in conjunction with psychosocial interventions. What would be your recommendation for the most suitable choice?

      Your Answer: Suboxone

      Correct Answer: Buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 91 - A consultant psychiatrist presents a case of a depressed patient with cancer who...

    Correct

    • A consultant psychiatrist presents a case of a depressed patient with cancer who they had reviewed on a hospital ward. She rated the patient's cancer as 'severe'. Her description of the patient's cancer conforms to which of the following data types?

      Your Answer: Ordinal

      Explanation:

      The use of a scale that categorizes data as mild, moderate, and severe is an example of ordinal data. The data can be arranged in a specific order, where severe cancer is considered worse than moderate, which is worse than mild. However, the difference between mild and moderate may not be the same as the difference between moderate and severe, indicating that this type of data does not follow an interval scale.

      Scales of Measurement in Statistics

      In the 1940s, Stanley Smith Stevens introduced four scales of measurement to categorize data variables. Knowing the scale of measurement for a variable is crucial in selecting the appropriate statistical analysis. The four scales of measurement are ratio, interval, ordinal, and nominal.

      Ratio scales are similar to interval scales, but they have true zero points. Examples of ratio scales include weight, time, and length. Interval scales measure the difference between two values, and one unit on the scale represents the same magnitude on the trait of characteristic being measured across the whole range of the scale. The Fahrenheit scale for temperature is an example of an interval scale.

      Ordinal scales categorize observed values into set categories that can be ordered, but the intervals between each value are uncertain. Examples of ordinal scales include social class, education level, and income level. Nominal scales categorize observed values into set categories that have no particular order of hierarchy. Examples of nominal scales include genotype, blood type, and political party.

      Data can also be categorized as quantitative of qualitative. Quantitative variables take on numeric values and can be further classified into discrete and continuous types. Qualitative variables do not take on numerical values and are usually names. Some qualitative variables have an inherent order in their categories and are described as ordinal. Qualitative variables are also called categorical of nominal variables. When a qualitative variable has only two categories, it is called a binary variable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      26.5
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  • Question 92 - Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with low socioeconomic...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with low socioeconomic class?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Social Class and Mental Disorder

      There is a consistent finding that shows an inverse relationship between social class and rates of mental illness. This means that individuals from lower social classes are more likely to experience mental health issues compared to those from higher social classes. However, this inverse relationship is not observed in the case of anorexia nervosa. This suggests that factors other than social class may play a more significant role in the development of this particular disorder. Overall, the relationship between social class and mental health is complex and requires further investigation to fully understand the underlying factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 93 - What is the best way to describe the sampling strategy used in the...

    Correct

    • What is the best way to describe the sampling strategy used in the medical student's study to estimate the average height of patients with schizophrenia in a psychiatric hospital?

      Your Answer: Simple random sampling

      Explanation:

      Sampling Methods in Statistics

      When collecting data from a population, it is often impractical and unnecessary to gather information from every single member. Instead, taking a sample is preferred. However, it is crucial that the sample accurately represents the population from which it is drawn. There are two main types of sampling methods: probability (random) sampling and non-probability (non-random) sampling.

      Non-probability sampling methods, also known as judgement samples, are based on human choice rather than random selection. These samples are convenient and cheaper than probability sampling methods. Examples of non-probability sampling methods include voluntary sampling, convenience sampling, snowball sampling, and quota sampling.

      Probability sampling methods give a more representative sample of the population than non-probability sampling. In each probability sampling technique, each population element has a known (non-zero) chance of being selected for the sample. Examples of probability sampling methods include simple random sampling, systematic sampling, cluster sampling, stratified sampling, and multistage sampling.

      Simple random sampling is a sample in which every member of the population has an equal chance of being chosen. Systematic sampling involves selecting every kth member of the population. Cluster sampling involves dividing a population into separate groups (called clusters) and selecting a random sample of clusters. Stratified sampling involves dividing a population into groups (strata) and taking a random sample from each strata. Multistage sampling is a more complex method that involves several stages and combines two of more sampling methods.

      Overall, probability sampling methods give a more representative sample of the population, but non-probability sampling methods are often more convenient and cheaper. It is important to choose the appropriate sampling method based on the research question and available resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 94 - After a hospitalization for mania, a female patient with a history of hepatitis...

    Correct

    • After a hospitalization for mania, a female patient with a history of hepatitis C presents with abnormal liver function. Which medication would be appropriate for long-term management of her mania?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Hepatic Impairment: Recommended Drugs

      Patients with hepatic impairment may experience reduced ability to metabolize drugs, toxicity, enhanced dose-related side effects, reduced ability to synthesize plasma proteins, and elevated levels of drugs subject to first-pass metabolism due to reduced hepatic blood flow. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Ed recommends the following drugs for patients with hepatic impairment:

      Antipsychotics: Paliperidone (if depot required), Amisulpride, Sulpiride

      Antidepressants: Sertraline, Citalopram, Paroxetine, Vortioxetine (avoid TCA and MAOI)

      Mood stabilizers: Lithium

      Sedatives: Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam, Zopiclone 3.75mg (with care)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 95 - What are the safe drinking limits per week recommended by the Royal College...

    Correct

    • What are the safe drinking limits per week recommended by the Royal College of Psychiatrists?

      Your Answer: Men 14/ Women 14

      Explanation:

      The current recommendation is for both men and women to limit their weekly alcohol consumption to no more than 14 Units.

      Alcohol Units and Safe Drinking Limits in the UK

      The issue of safe drinking limits is a controversial one, with different bodies having different recommendations. In the UK, recommendations are sometimes given in grams of pure alcohol, with one unit equaling 8g. The UK government first recommended in 1992 that for a single week, 21 units for men and 14 units for women was the safe drinking limit. However, in 1995 they produced a report called ‘sensible drinking’, which effectively raised the weekly limits to 28 units for men and 21 units for women. The British Medical Association (BMA) responded to this change, along with the Royal College of Psychiatrists, saying that the original limits should not be relaxed.

      In August 2016, the UK Chief Medical Officers Low Risk Drinking Guidelines revised the limits down so that the upper safe limit is now 14 units for both men and women. The Royal College of Psychiatrists welcomed this new guidance, stating that both men and women drinking less than 14 units of alcohol per week (around 7 pints of ordinary strength beer) will be at a low risk for illnesses like heart disease, liver disease, of cancer. However, for people who do drink, they should have three of more alcohol-free days to allow their bodies the opportunity to recover from the harmful effects of alcohol. The BMA also supports this new guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      4.2
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  • Question 96 - Which statement accurately describes arson? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes arson?

      Your Answer: Arson is responsible for 10% of all serious crimes in the UK

      Correct Answer: Approximately 40% of all serious fires are started deliberately

      Explanation:

      Arson Epidemiology

      Arson is a serious issue, as approximately 40% of all serious fires are started deliberately. In the UK, arson is responsible for 1% of all serious crimes, with the incidence for both homicide and rape being three times higher. The peak age for arson is 17 for men and 45 for women, and 80% of those convicted are men. Interestingly, there is an increased incidence of arson among those with learning disabilities and those who suffer from alcohol dependence syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 97 - A 65-year-old patient has long standing hyperprolactinaemia but does not experience symptoms. They...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient has long standing hyperprolactinaemia but does not experience symptoms. They are keen to continue on the prescribed antipsychotic which has proved very effective. Which of the following risks must you make them aware of?

      Your Answer: Breast cancer

      Explanation:

      This risk is purely hypothetical and can affect individuals of any gender.

      Management of Hyperprolactinaemia

      Hyperprolactinaemia is often associated with the use of antipsychotics and occasionally antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, and dopamine antagonists increase prolactin levels. Almost all antipsychotics cause changes in prolactin, but some do not increase levels beyond the normal range. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related. Hyperprolactinaemia is often asymptomatic but can cause galactorrhoea, menstrual difficulties, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, sexual dysfunction, and an increased risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer in psychiatric patients.

      Patients should have their prolactin measured before antipsychotic therapy and then monitored for symptoms at three months. Annual testing is recommended for asymptomatic patients. Antipsychotics that increase prolactin should be avoided in patients under 25, patients with osteoporosis, patients with a history of hormone-dependent cancer, and young women. Samples should be taken at least one hour after eating of waking, and care must be taken to avoid stress during the procedure.

      Treatment options include referral for tests to rule out prolactinoma if prolactin is very high, making a joint decision with the patient about continuing if prolactin is raised but not symptomatic, switching to an alternative antipsychotic less prone to hyperprolactinaemia if prolactin is raised and the patient is symptomatic, adding aripiprazole 5mg, of adding a dopamine agonist such as amantadine of bromocriptine. Mirtazapine is recommended for symptomatic hyperprolactinaemia associated with antidepressants as it does not raise prolactin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      11
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  • Question 98 - One possible method for determining the number needed to treat is: ...

    Correct

    • One possible method for determining the number needed to treat is:

      Your Answer: 1 / (Absolute risk reduction)

      Explanation:

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 99 - What is the most prevalent personality disorder among women incarcerated in England and...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most prevalent personality disorder among women incarcerated in England and Wales?

      Your Answer: Borderline

      Correct Answer: Antisocial

      Explanation:

      Prisoner Mental Health: Epidemiological Data from the UK

      The Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity Among Prisoners in England and Wales, conducted by the Department of Health in 1997, is the primary source of epidemiological data on prisoner mental health in the UK. Despite the lack of updates, this survey remains a valuable resource for understanding the mental health needs of prisoners.

      Although the prison population represents only 0.1% of the total UK population, prisoners are extensive consumers of mental health services. In 1997, the UK prison population consisted of 46,872 male sentenced prisoners (76%), 12,302 male remand prisoners, and 2,770 female prisoners (<5%). The 1997 study involved interviews with over 3000 prisoners. The key findings of the 1997 study revealed high rates of personality disorders among prisoners, with 78% of male remand, 64% of male sentenced, and 50% of female prisoners having any personality disorder. Antisocial personality disorder had the highest prevalence, followed by paranoid personality disorder. Borderline personality disorder was more common in females than paranoid personality disorder. The study also found high rates of functional psychosis, with prevalence rates of 7% for male sentenced, 10% for male remand, and 14% for females. Rates of suicidal ideation and attempts were higher in remand compared to sentenced prisoners, with women reporting higher rates of suicidal ideation and attempts than males. Overall, the 1997 survey highlights the significant mental health needs of prisoners in the UK and underscores the importance of providing adequate mental health services to this population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 100 - What is the increased likelihood of individuals with learning disabilities developing schizophrenia compared...

    Correct

    • What is the increased likelihood of individuals with learning disabilities developing schizophrenia compared to the general population?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      Learning Disability and comorbid Psychiatric Illness

      It is estimated that 30-50% of adults with learning disabilities also experience mental health problems, including problem behavior. Specific prevalence rates for various mental health disorders in this population have been identified through research. For example, psychotic disorders are present in 4% of adults with learning disabilities, while affective disorders are present in 6%. Autism is the most prevalent disorder, affecting 7.5% of this population.

      It is important to note that major depressive disorder can occur at all IQ levels in people with learning disabilities, but may be missed of misinterpreted as challenging behavior. Additionally, individuals with learning disabilities are more susceptible to the negative effects of life events and may develop adjustment disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder is also common in this population.

      Stimulant drugs may be less effective in children with learning disabilities and should be used with caution in individuals with Tourette’s of autism, as they may trigger tics. Overall, it is crucial to recognize and address comorbid psychiatric illness in individuals with learning disabilities to ensure appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
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  • Question 101 - One of the statements about postpartum mental health problems is incorrect. ...

    Incorrect

    • One of the statements about postpartum mental health problems is incorrect.

      Your Answer: Sertraline can be used whilst mothers are breastfeeding

      Correct Answer: Post-natal depression is seen in around 2-3% of women

      Explanation:

      Perinatal Depression, Baby Blues, and Postpartum Depression

      Perinatal depression, also known as postpartum depression, is a common mood disorder experienced by new mothers after childbirth. The term baby blues is used to describe the emotional lability that some mothers experience during the first week after childbirth, which usually resolves by day 10 without treatment. The prevalence of baby blues is around 40%. Postpartum depression, on the other hand, refers to depression that occurs after childbirth. While neither DSM-5 nor ICD-11 specifically mention postpartum depression, both diagnostic systems offer categories that encompass depression during pregnancy of in the weeks following delivery. The prevalence of postpartum depression is approximately 10-15%.

      Various factors have been shown to increase the risk of postnatal depression, including youth, marital and family conflict, lack of social support, anxiety and depression during pregnancy, substance misuse, previous pregnancy loss, ambivalence about the current pregnancy, and frequent antenatal admissions to a maternity hospital. However, obstetric factors such as length of labor, assisted delivery, of separation of the mother from the baby in the Special Care Baby Unit do not seem to influence the development of postnatal depression. Additionally, social class does not appear to be associated with postnatal depression.

      Puerperal psychosis, along with severe depression, is thought to be mainly caused by biological factors, while psychosocial factors are most important in the milder postnatal depressive illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 102 - What is a true statement about Wernicke's encephalopathy? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer: It has an associated mortality of 10-20% if untreated

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 103 - In accordance with the laws of England and Wales, when does an individual...

    Correct

    • In accordance with the laws of England and Wales, when does an individual become accountable for their actions?

      Your Answer: 10

      Explanation:

      As of December 2021, the age of criminal responsibility in Scotland is 12, while in England and Wales it remains at 10.

      Criminal Responsibility and Age Limits

      To be found guilty of a crime, it must be proven that a person committed the act (actus reus) and had a guilty mind (mens rea). In England and Wales, children under the age of 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions and cannot be arrested or charged with a crime. Instead, they may face other punishments such as a Local Child Curfew of a Child Safety Order. Children between the ages of 10 and 17 can be arrested and taken to court, but are treated differently from adults and may be dealt with by youth courts, given different sentences, and sent to special secure centers for young people. Young people aged 18 are treated as adults by the law.

      Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity and Other Defenses

      A person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they did not understand the nature of quality of their actions of did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Automatism is a defense used when the act is believed to have occurred unconsciously, either from an external cause (sane automatism) of an internal cause (insane automatism). Diminished responsibility is a defense used only in the defense of murder and allows for a reduction of the normal life sentence to manslaughter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 104 - What is the correct approach to managing generalised anxiety disorder? ...

    Correct

    • What is the correct approach to managing generalised anxiety disorder?

      Your Answer: Suicidal thinking should be monitored weekly for the first month for all people under 30 prescribed SNRIs

      Explanation:

      For individuals under 30 with GAD who are prescribed SSRIs of SNRIs, it is recommended to monitor their suicidal thoughts on a weekly basis during the first month. Non-facilitated self-help typically includes limited therapist interaction, such as brief phone calls lasting no more than 5 minutes.

      Anxiety (NICE guidelines)

      The NICE Guidelines on Generalised anxiety disorder and panic disorder were issued in 2011. For the management of generalised anxiety disorder, NICE suggests a stepped approach. For mild GAD, education and active monitoring are recommended. If there is no response to step 1, low-intensity psychological interventions such as CBT-based self-help of psychoeducational groups are suggested. For those with marked functional impairment of those who have not responded to step 2, individual high-intensity psychological intervention of drug treatment is recommended. Specialist treatment is suggested for those with very marked functional impairment, no response to step 3, self-neglect, risks of self-harm or suicide, of significant comorbidity. Benzodiazepines should not be used beyond 2-4 weeks, and SSRIs are first line. For panic disorder, psychological therapy (CBT), medication, and self-help have all been shown to be effective. Benzodiazepines, sedating antihistamines, of antipsychotics should not be used. SSRIs are first line, and if they fail, imipramine of clomipramine can be used. Self-help (CBT based) should be encouraged. If the patient improves with an antidepressant, it should be continued for at least 6 months after the optimal dose is reached, after which the dose can be tapered. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, an alternative medication of another form of therapy should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 105 - What is the most frequently observed psychiatric disorder in children with PANDAS? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently observed psychiatric disorder in children with PANDAS?

      Your Answer: Obsessive compulsive disorder

      Explanation:

      PANDAS: Paediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections

      PANDAS is a condition characterized by sudden onset of worsening of obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) and tic disorders in children between the ages of 3 and puberty. It is associated with group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, which can be confirmed through a positive throat culture of history of scarlet fever. In addition to psychiatric symptoms, PANDAS is also associated with neurological abnormalities such as physical hyperactivity and jerky movements that are not under the child’s control. The presence of these diagnostic features can help identify PANDAS in affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 106 - What is the preferred sedative for patients who have significant liver damage? ...

    Correct

    • What is the preferred sedative for patients who have significant liver damage?

      Your Answer: Oxazepam

      Explanation:

      Sedatives and Liver Disease

      Sedatives are commonly used for their calming effects, but many of them are metabolized in the liver. Therefore, caution must be taken when administering sedatives to patients with liver disease. The Maudsley Guidelines recommend using low doses of the following sedatives in patients with hepatic impairment: lorazepam, oxazepam, temazepam, and zopiclone. It is important to note that zopiclone should also be used with caution and at low doses in this population. Proper management of sedative use in patients with liver disease can help prevent further damage to the liver and improve overall patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 107 - What is the significance of the cut off of 5 on the MDQ...

    Correct

    • What is the significance of the cut off of 5 on the MDQ in diagnosing depression?

      Your Answer: The optimal threshold

      Explanation:

      The threshold score that results in the lowest misclassification rate, achieved by minimizing both false positive and false negative rates, is known as the optimal threshold. Based on the findings of the previous study, the ideal cut off for identifying caseness on the MDQ is five, making it the optimal threshold.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      6.2
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  • Question 108 - You are part of a team creating a community program for adolescents with...

    Incorrect

    • You are part of a team creating a community program for adolescents with Conduct Disorder, aimed at reducing their likelihood of re-offending. The program will offer both individual and group-based psychological interventions.
      Which psychological treatment would be most suitable to provide?

      Your Answer: Accredited group programmes

      Correct Answer: Mentalisation based therapy

      Explanation:

      Mentalisation based therapy (MBT) has shown effectiveness in treating patients with Personality Disorders by helping them understand their own and others’ actions based on intentional mental states such as desires, feelings, and beliefs. While psychoanalytically oriented, it is fully manualised and may be a helpful underlying theory for the service. However, individual psychoanalytic therapy may not be the first line of treatment due to its long delivery time and patient tolerance issues. Individual behavioural therapy and accredited group programmes are easier to run but may not address the complexities of this client group. Other evidence-based psychological treatments for personality disorders include CBT, DBT, schema therapy, CAT, transference-focused psychotherapy, and therapeutic communities (non-forensic).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      749.5
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - What is the proportion of values that fall within a range of 3...

    Correct

    • What is the proportion of values that fall within a range of 3 standard deviations from the mean in a normal distribution?

      Your Answer: 99.70%

      Explanation:

      Standard Deviation and Standard Error of the Mean

      Standard deviation (SD) and standard error of the mean (SEM) are two important statistical measures used to describe data. SD is a measure of how much the data varies, while SEM is a measure of how precisely we know the true mean of the population. The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a symmetrical bell-shaped curve that describes the spread of many biological and clinical measurements.

      68.3% of the data lies within 1 SD of the mean, 95.4% of the data lies within 2 SD of the mean, and 99.7% of the data lies within 3 SD of the mean. The SD is calculated by taking the square root of the variance and is expressed in the same units as the data set. A low SD indicates that data points tend to be very close to the mean.

      On the other hand, SEM is an inferential statistic that quantifies the precision of the mean. It is expressed in the same units as the data and is calculated by dividing the SD of the sample mean by the square root of the sample size. The SEM gets smaller as the sample size increases, and it takes into account both the value of the SD and the sample size.

      Both SD and SEM are important measures in statistical analysis, and they are used to calculate confidence intervals and test hypotheses. While SD quantifies scatter, SEM quantifies precision, and both are essential in understanding and interpreting data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      5.1
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  • Question 110 - What management approach should be taken for a 35-year-old woman with a personality...

    Correct

    • What management approach should be taken for a 35-year-old woman with a personality disorder who has a history of recurrent self-harm?

      Your Answer: DBT

      Explanation:

      Dialectical Behavioural Therapy (DBT) is a form of psychotherapy that is tailored for patients with borderline personality disorder. It combines behavioural therapy with aspects of Zen Buddhism and dialectical thinking to help patients develop important interpersonal and emotional regulation skills. DBT has five functions, including enhancing behavioural capabilities, improving motivation to change, assuring new capabilities generalise to the natural environment, structuring the environment so that appropriate behaviours are reinforced, and enhancing motivation of the therapist.

      DBT uses a hierarchy of treatment targets to help the therapist determine the order in which problems should be addressed. The treatment targets in order of priority are life-threatening behaviours, therapy-interfering behaviours, quality of life behaviours, and skills acquisition. DBT skills include mindfulness, distress tolerance, interpersonal effectiveness, and emotion regulation. Overall, DBT is an effective form of therapy for patients with multiple problems, and it helps them develop the skills they need to achieve their goals and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - As a staff member in a local prison, the governor has expressed concern...

    Correct

    • As a staff member in a local prison, the governor has expressed concern about the high rates of suicide among prisoners. He has asked for your recommendation on which group of prisoners should be the primary focus in order to achieve the greatest reduction in risk. What would be your response?

      Your Answer: Newly remanded prisoners

      Explanation:

      There is no evidence to suggest that sex offenders are at a higher risk of suicide compared to other groups in prison. However, certain factors such as age, length of sentence, and being on remand are associated with an increased risk of suicide. Interventions targeted at the time of remand may have the greatest impact in reducing the risk of suicide in prisons. Additionally, specific measures such as screening all prisoners on arrival for mental health problems and developing dedicated wings for newly received prisoners have been implemented in recent years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - Which statement accurately reflects safe alcohol consumption limits? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately reflects safe alcohol consumption limits?

      Your Answer: The Department of Health currently recommends weekly safe drinking limits of 14 U for men and 14 U for women

      Explanation:

      The safe drinking limit recommended by the BMA for both men and women is 21 U per week.

      Alcohol Units and Safe Drinking Limits in the UK

      The issue of safe drinking limits is a controversial one, with different bodies having different recommendations. In the UK, recommendations are sometimes given in grams of pure alcohol, with one unit equaling 8g. The UK government first recommended in 1992 that for a single week, 21 units for men and 14 units for women was the safe drinking limit. However, in 1995 they produced a report called ‘sensible drinking’, which effectively raised the weekly limits to 28 units for men and 21 units for women. The British Medical Association (BMA) responded to this change, along with the Royal College of Psychiatrists, saying that the original limits should not be relaxed.

      In August 2016, the UK Chief Medical Officers Low Risk Drinking Guidelines revised the limits down so that the upper safe limit is now 14 units for both men and women. The Royal College of Psychiatrists welcomed this new guidance, stating that both men and women drinking less than 14 units of alcohol per week (around 7 pints of ordinary strength beer) will be at a low risk for illnesses like heart disease, liver disease, of cancer. However, for people who do drink, they should have three of more alcohol-free days to allow their bodies the opportunity to recover from the harmful effects of alcohol. The BMA also supports this new guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      9.6
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  • Question 113 - What is the relationship between criminal behavior and individuals with learning disabilities (LD)?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the relationship between criminal behavior and individuals with learning disabilities (LD)?

      Your Answer: Fire-setting is the commonest offence in people with learning disabilities.

      Correct Answer: The majority of those convicted belong to the mild and moderate LD population.

      Explanation:

      Individuals with mild to moderate LD make up the majority of those who are convicted, likely due to the smaller population of individuals with severe LD and potential underreporting within this group.

      Learning Disability and Criminality

      Learning disability (LD) is a condition that affects a person’s ability to learn and process information. In some cases, individuals with LD may also be at a higher risk of engaging in criminal behavior. When it comes to criminality and LD, there are several key points to keep in mind.

      Firstly, individuals with LD are more likely to engage in property offenses than other types of crimes. This may be due to a lack of understanding of social norms and boundaries, as well as difficulties with impulse control.

      Secondly, individuals with LD are overrepresented in sexual offenses and arson. This may be due to a lack of understanding of appropriate sexual behavior and the potential consequences of setting fires.

      Finally, it is important to note that individuals with mild LD are more likely than those with severe LD to be involved in violent crimes that involve planning. This may be due to a combination of factors, including a lack of social support and a greater ability to plan and carry out complex actions.

      Overall, it is important to recognize the potential link between LD and criminality and to provide appropriate support and interventions to help individuals with LD avoid engaging in criminal behavior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      330.8
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  • Question 114 - A teenage male patient taking risperidone reports sexual dysfunction and is diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A teenage male patient taking risperidone reports sexual dysfunction and is diagnosed with elevated prolactin levels. What would be the most appropriate replacement medication?

      Your Answer: Quetiapine

      Explanation:

      Management of Hyperprolactinaemia

      Hyperprolactinaemia is often associated with the use of antipsychotics and occasionally antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, and dopamine antagonists increase prolactin levels. Almost all antipsychotics cause changes in prolactin, but some do not increase levels beyond the normal range. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related. Hyperprolactinaemia is often asymptomatic but can cause galactorrhoea, menstrual difficulties, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, sexual dysfunction, and an increased risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer in psychiatric patients.

      Patients should have their prolactin measured before antipsychotic therapy and then monitored for symptoms at three months. Annual testing is recommended for asymptomatic patients. Antipsychotics that increase prolactin should be avoided in patients under 25, patients with osteoporosis, patients with a history of hormone-dependent cancer, and young women. Samples should be taken at least one hour after eating of waking, and care must be taken to avoid stress during the procedure.

      Treatment options include referral for tests to rule out prolactinoma if prolactin is very high, making a joint decision with the patient about continuing if prolactin is raised but not symptomatic, switching to an alternative antipsychotic less prone to hyperprolactinaemia if prolactin is raised and the patient is symptomatic, adding aripiprazole 5mg, of adding a dopamine agonist such as amantadine of bromocriptine. Mirtazapine is recommended for symptomatic hyperprolactinaemia associated with antidepressants as it does not raise prolactin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 115 - You are asked to assess a teenage girl with borderline personality disorder who...

    Correct

    • You are asked to assess a teenage girl with borderline personality disorder who is admitted to one of the general adolescent wards. She discloses to you that she ingested 200 paracetamol tablets an hour ago. However, the nurse in charge expresses skepticism about the patient's account, stating that she frequently fabricates stories. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Wait a further 3 hours and take paracetamol levels

      Explanation:

      In cases of paracetamol overdose, it is recommended to measure the levels of the drug in the patient’s system 4 hours after the incident, if possible. Treatment should be based on the results of this test. However, in this particular case, since the patient has sought medical attention early, there is sufficient time to obtain the test results before initiating treatment. Blind treatment is only considered when the levels cannot be measured within 8 hours, of when the patient has ingested more than 150 mg/kg of paracetamol, of when the overdose was taken in a staggered manner of the timing is uncertain, as the test results may not be reliable in such cases.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      29.5
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  • Question 116 - A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a two-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a two-week history of feeling 'on top of the world'. His girlfriend reports him being unusually irritable for the same period of time. He has only been having two hours of sleep each night for the past three nights but despite this says he feels full of energy. On examination he is extremely talkative, and his mood is liable. His girlfriend is concerned as for the past 24 hours he has been buying expensive items which they can't afford and do not need. He is admitted to a psychiatric ward for observation and continues to exhibit these signs for a further two days before he attempts to take his own life. His only psychiatric history is that of a moderate depressive illness six months ago which lasted two months.
      Which of the following do you most suspect?

      Your Answer: Bipolar I disorder

      Explanation:

      The individual exhibits symptoms of heightened mood and increased physical activity, indicating a possible episode of mania or hypomania. This presentation persists for a minimum of two weeks and necessitates hospitalization, meeting the criteria for a manic episode and thus a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder.

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      27.4
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  • Question 117 - Within what timeframe after delivery do infant homicides fall under the category of...

    Incorrect

    • Within what timeframe after delivery do infant homicides fall under the category of neonaticide?

      Your Answer: 24 days

      Correct Answer: 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Infant Homicide

      Homicide is a significant contributor to infant mortality, with infants under 1 year of age being more likely to be victims of homicide than older children of the general population. Neonaticide, the killing of a baby within 24 hours of delivery, is different from the homicide of infants older than a day. Neonaticide is usually committed by the mother, who is often young, single, and living with her parents. The pregnancy is often unintentional and concealed, and the motivation to kill is usually because the child was unwanted. In contrast, the homicide of infants older than a day is more likely to be committed by a parent, with boys at greater risk than girls. Risk factors for the homicide of infants older than a day include younger age, family history of violence, violence in current relationships of the perpetrator, evidence of past abuse of neglect of children, and personality disorder and/of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      9.7
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  • Question 118 - What hierarchical language does NLM utilize to enhance search strategies and index articles?...

    Correct

    • What hierarchical language does NLM utilize to enhance search strategies and index articles?

      Your Answer: MeSH

      Explanation:

      NLM’s hierarchical vocabulary, known as MeSH (Medical Subject Heading), is utilized for the purpose of indexing articles in PubMed.

      Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.

      When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.

      There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      53.1
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  • Question 119 - A 75 year old woman admitted to hospital with a broken hip develops...

    Correct

    • A 75 year old woman admitted to hospital with a broken hip develops depression whilst on the ward. She is on a beta blocker for atrial fibrillation and ibuprofen for osteoarthritis. What would be the most suitable antidepressant for her?

      Your Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Choosing an antidepressant for older individuals can be challenging as there is no perfect option. TCAs, particularly older ones, are not recommended due to the risk of cardiac conduction abnormalities and anticholinergic effects. While SSRIs are generally better tolerated, they do carry an increased risk of bleeding, which is a concern in this case. Additionally, older individuals are more prone to developing hyponatremia, postural hypotension, and falls with SSRIs. NICE recommends considering mirtazapine as it has less serotonin reuptake inhibition, making it a potentially suitable option. Ultimately, the decision must balance the risks of bleeding from SSRIs with the risks of arrhythmia from TCAs.

      SSRI and Bleeding Risk: Management Strategies

      SSRIs have been linked to an increased risk of bleeding, particularly in vulnerable populations such as the elderly, those with a history of bleeding, and those taking medications that predispose them to bleeding. The risk of bleeding is further elevated in patients with comorbidities such as liver of renal disease, smoking, and alcohol of drug misuse.

      To manage this risk, the Maudsley recommends avoiding SSRIs in patients receiving NSAIDs, aspirin, of oral anticoagulants, of those with a history of cerebral of GI bleeds. If SSRI use cannot be avoided, close monitoring and prescription of gastroprotective proton pump inhibitors are recommended. The degree of serotonin reuptake inhibition varies among antidepressants, with some having weaker of no inhibition, which may be associated with a lower risk of bleeding.

      NICE recommends caution when using SSRIs in patients taking aspirin and suggests considering alternative antidepressants such as trazodone, mianserin, of reboxetine. In patients taking warfarin of heparin, SSRIs are not recommended, but mirtazapine may be considered with caution.

      Overall, healthcare providers should carefully weigh the risks and benefits of SSRI use in patients at risk of bleeding and consider alternative antidepressants of gastroprotective measures when appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 120 - If a couple has a child with autism, what advice would you give...

    Incorrect

    • If a couple has a child with autism, what advice would you give them regarding the likelihood of having another child with the same condition?

      Your Answer: There is a 2 fold increase in risk to a future sibling

      Correct Answer: There is a 8 fold increase in risk to a future sibling

      Explanation:

      According to a study conducted in 2019 across various countries, the likelihood of developing ASD is significantly higher if a sibling has already been diagnosed with the disorder, with an 8-fold increase in risk.

      Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a lifelong disorder characterized by deficits in communication and social understanding, as well as restrictive and repetitive behaviors. The distinction between autism and Asperger’s has been abandoned, and they are now grouped together under the ASD category. Intellectual ability is difficult to assess in people with ASD, with an estimated 33% having an intellectual disability. ASD was first described in Europe and the United States using different terms, with Leo Kanner and Hans Asperger being the pioneers. Diagnosis is based on persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction, as well as restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. The worldwide population prevalence is about 1%, with comorbidity being common. Heritability is estimated at around 90%, and both genetic and environmental factors seem to cause ASD. Currently, there are no validated pharmacological treatments that alleviate core ASD symptoms, but second-generation antipsychotics are the first-line pharmacological treatment for children and adolescents with ASD and associated irritability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      6.5
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  • Question 121 - What is a correct statement about the pathology of Wernicke's encephalopathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a correct statement about the pathology of Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer: There is marked cerebral atrophy

      Correct Answer: There is demyelination of periventricular grey matter

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 122 - A 14 year old boy has been experiencing symptoms of schizophrenia for the...

    Correct

    • A 14 year old boy has been experiencing symptoms of schizophrenia for the past year. What course of action would you suggest?

      Your Answer: Risperidone with family intervention with individual CBT

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends a combination of oral antipsychotic medication and psychological interventions, specifically family intervention with individual cognitive-behavioral therapy, for children and young people experiencing their first episode of psychosis.

      Schizophrenia in children and young people is treated similarly to adults, according to the NICE Guidelines. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest avoiding first generation antipsychotics and using olanzapine, aripiprazole, and risperidone, which have been proven effective in randomized controlled trials. In cases where treatment resistance is present, clozapine should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      52.7
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - What scales are suitable for assessing drug-induced Parkinsonism? ...

    Correct

    • What scales are suitable for assessing drug-induced Parkinsonism?

      Your Answer: Simpson-Angus scale

      Explanation:

      The Simpson-Angus scale was created to evaluate parkinsonism caused by medication, utilizing consistent assessments for stiffness, shaking, and excessive saliva production. The scale solely relies on observable symptoms.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 124 - What is a known factor that can lead to inaccurate positive results for...

    Correct

    • What is a known factor that can lead to inaccurate positive results for amphetamine on drug screening tests?

      Your Answer: Pseudoephedrine

      Explanation:

      Pseudoephedrine belongs to the phenethylamine and amphetamine chemical classes and acts as a sympathomimetic drug. Its primary purpose is to alleviate nasal and sinus congestion.

      Drug Screening

      Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.

      People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.

      Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 125 - What intervention has been demonstrated to enhance clarity and hasten recuperation after ECT-induced...

    Correct

    • What intervention has been demonstrated to enhance clarity and hasten recuperation after ECT-induced confusion?

      Your Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      A randomized control trial conducted by Prakash demonstrated that the memory enhancing drug, donepezil hydrochloride, can decrease the time required for recovery after undergoing ECT. This finding suggests that donepezil may have therapeutic and prophylactic benefits for patients undergoing ECT. The study was published in the Journal of ECT in 2006.

      ECT and Seizure Duration: Effect of Psychotropics

      On the whole, most drugs do not interfere with ECT. However, it is important to note the effect of psychotropics on seizure duration. The table below summarizes the effect of important psychotropics and their advice:

      Psychotropic class: Benzodiazepine
      Effect on seizure duration: Reduced
      Advice: Avoid where possible

      Psychotropic class: SSRIs
      Effect on seizure duration: Minimal effect

      Psychotropic class: Venlafaxine
      Effect on seizure duration: Minimal effect

      Psychotropic class: TCAs
      Effect on seizure duration: Possibly increased
      Advice: TCAs are associated with arrhythmia following ECT in the elderly and those with cardiac disease, so they should be avoided in ECT in these groups.

      Psychotropic class: MAOIs
      Effect on seizure duration: Minimal effect

      Psychotropic class: Lithium
      Effect on seizure duration: Possibly increased
      Advice: Generally used in ECT without significant problems.

      Psychotropic class: Antipsychotics
      Effect on seizure duration: Some potential increase in clozapine and phenothiazines, other antipsychotics considered ok
      Advice: Limited data.

      Psychotropic class: Anticonvulsants
      Effect on seizure duration: Reduced
      Advice: If used as a mood stabilizer, continue but be prepared to use higher energy stimulus.

      (Source: Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition, p.187)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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  • Question 126 - You audit the antipsychotic use on a pediatric intensive care ward of 5...

    Incorrect

    • You audit the antipsychotic use on a pediatric intensive care ward of 5 patients. Which of the following would you identify as high dose prescribing (exceeding 100% max of the BNF)?:

      Your Answer: Risperidone at 16 mg daily

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole at 40 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics (Maximum Doses)

      It is important to be aware of the maximum doses for commonly used antipsychotics. The following are the maximum doses for various antipsychotics:

      – Clozapine (oral): 900 mg/day
      – Haloperidol (oral): 20 mg/day
      – Olanzapine (oral): 20 mg/day
      – Quetiapine (oral): 750mg/day (for schizophrenia) and 800 mg/day (for bipolar disorder)
      – Risperidone (oral): 16 mg/day
      – Amisulpride (oral): 1200 mg/day
      – Aripiprazole (oral): 30 mg/day
      – Flupentixol (depot): 400 mg/week
      – Zuclopenthixol (depot): 600 mg/week
      – Haloperidol (depot): 300 mg every 4 weeks

      It is important to keep these maximum doses in mind when prescribing antipsychotics to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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      Seconds
  • Question 127 - A worldwide epidemic of influenza is known as a: ...

    Correct

    • A worldwide epidemic of influenza is known as a:

      Your Answer: Pandemic

      Explanation:

      Epidemiology Key Terms

      – Epidemic (Outbreak): A rise in disease cases above the anticipated level in a specific population during a particular time frame.
      – Endemic: The regular of anticipated level of disease in a particular population.
      – Pandemic: Epidemics that affect a significant number of individuals across multiple countries, regions, of continents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      2.8
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  • Question 128 - Which drug is classified as a schedule 2 controlled substance? ...

    Correct

    • Which drug is classified as a schedule 2 controlled substance?

      Your Answer: Methylphenidate

      Explanation:

      Schedule 2 drugs are medications that necessitate a prescription for controlled substances and must be recorded in a drug register for medical purposes.

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      2.9
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  • Question 129 - What diagnosis is indicated when a man accused of a violent crime claims...

    Incorrect

    • What diagnosis is indicated when a man accused of a violent crime claims to only remember having one alcoholic drink on the day in question, yet witnesses observed him walking normally and displaying violent behavior at the time of the crime?

      Your Answer: Alcohol intoxication

      Correct Answer: Pathological intoxication

      Explanation:

      The crucial details in this scenario are the restriction of one drink and the apparent absence of motor impairment in the individual. These factors help to differentiate pathological intoxication from other potential causes such as alcohol intoxication of alcohol-induced amnesia. Blackouts, which involve the inability to remember events that occurred while drinking, can be either complete of partial and are caused by alcohol interference with memory formation.

      Pathological Intoxication: A Rare Legal Defence

      Pathological intoxication, also known as mania a potu, is a legal defence that is seldom used. It refers to a sudden onset of aggressive and violent behaviour that is not typical of the individual when sober. This behaviour occurs shortly after consuming small amounts of alcohol that would not typically cause intoxication in most people. The individual may experience complete of partial amnesia following the episode. Unlike regular alcohol intoxication, there is no motor incoordination, slurred speech, of diplopia present in pathological intoxication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 130 - A middle aged male is brought to the hospital by the police after...

    Incorrect

    • A middle aged male is brought to the hospital by the police after being found wandering in the city centre. He appears confused and disoriented, and has a strong smell of alcohol. Upon examination, you observe red cheeks and multiple spider angiomas. The patient attempts to leave the department and exhibits significant gait disturbance. Although his neurological examination is challenging due to his level of agitation, you do not detect ophthalmoplegia. What medication would you prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pabrinex + vitamin B1

      Correct Answer: Pabrinex

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 131 - Which drug interacts with a G-coupled receptor to exert its effects? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug interacts with a G-coupled receptor to exert its effects?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Correct Answer: Heroin

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of heroin involves attaching to opiate receptors, which are G-coupled. This attachment results in the suppression of cellular activity through stimulation.

      Mechanisms of action for illicit drugs can be classified based on their effects on ionotropic receptors of ion channels, G coupled receptors, of monoamine transporters. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft, but through different mechanisms. Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter, while amphetamine binds to the transporter and increases dopamine efflux through various mechanisms, including inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 and monoamine oxidase, and stimulation of the intracellular receptor TAAR1. These mechanisms result in increased dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft and reuptake inhibition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      9.4
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  • Question 132 - What is the most frequent genetic factor that leads to learning disabilities? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent genetic factor that leads to learning disabilities?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Aetiology of Intellectual Disability

      Intellectual disability (ID), previously known as learning disability, affects between 1% and 3% of the global population. The severity of ID varies, with mild cases being the most common, affecting around 85% of those with the condition. Moderate, severe, and profound cases affect 10%, 4%, and 2% of the population, respectively. The cause of ID can be attributed to environmental and/of genetic factors, although up to 60% of cases have no identifiable cause. Genetic factors are responsible for 25-50% of cases, with the likelihood increasing with the severity of the condition. Down Syndrome is the most common genetic cause of ID, while Fragile X syndrome is the most common X-linked cause and the second most common genetic cause of learning difficulty. Foetal alcohol syndrome is the most common acquired form of ID.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
      2.8
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  • Question 133 - Which of the following is another term for the average of squared deviations...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is another term for the average of squared deviations from the mean?

      Your Answer: Standard error

      Correct Answer: Variance

      Explanation:

      The variance can be expressed as the mean of the squared differences between each value and the mean.

      Measures of dispersion are used to indicate the variation of spread of a data set, often in conjunction with a measure of central tendency such as the mean of median. The range, which is the difference between the largest and smallest value, is the simplest measure of dispersion. The interquartile range, which is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, is another useful measure. Quartiles divide a data set into quarters, and the interquartile range can provide additional information about the spread of the data. However, to get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as the variance and standard deviation are needed. The variance gives an indication of how much the items in the data set vary from the mean, while the standard deviation reflects the distribution of individual scores around their mean. The standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data set and can be used to indicate how confident we are that data points lie within a particular range. The standard error of the mean is an inferential statistic used to estimate the population mean and is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations. Confidence intervals are often presented alongside sample results such as the mean value, indicating a range that is likely to contain the true value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 134 - What did Freud mean by the term eros and what drive does it...

    Correct

    • What did Freud mean by the term eros and what drive does it refer to?

      Your Answer: Life

      Explanation:

      The death instinct is known as Thanatos, while the life instinct is represented by Eros.

      Freud’s Concepts of Thanatos and Eros

      Freud’s theories introduced two fundamental concepts: thanatos and eros. Thanatos, also known as the death instinct, refers to the innate drive that each person possesses to cause destruction and death. On the other hand, eros, also known as the life instinct, refers to the opposite drive towards life. These concepts are essential to understanding Freud’s theories on human behavior and the unconscious mind. By acknowledging the presence of both thanatos and eros, Freud believed that individuals could better understand their motivations and desires. The concepts of thanatos and eros continue to be studied and debated in the field of psychology today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      4.1
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  • Question 135 - What substance hinders the transformation of aldehyde into acetic acid? ...

    Correct

    • What substance hinders the transformation of aldehyde into acetic acid?

      Your Answer: Disulfiram

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      5.2
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  • Question 136 - A 50-year old woman with a history of low self-esteem, but no family...

    Correct

    • A 50-year old woman with a history of low self-esteem, but no family of personal history of major mental disorder, gradually began to experience obsessive thinking centered around the thought that she was harmful to her husband before he passed away 5 years ago. She also had the thought that she should kill herself to avoid further troubles. She was not actually unhappy in her marriage and was, in fact, helpful to her husband. These obsessive thoughts occurred to her automatically, without apparent relation to her actual circumstances.

      Two months later, her symptoms worsened, and she was brought to the outpatient clinic by her daughter, suffering from depressed mood, guilt, suicidal ideation, insomnia, loss of appetite, loss of interest, psychomotor retardation, anxiety and paranoid symptoms. Furthermore, the ideas about her previous conduct towards her husband had progressed to the point of being delusional. Her BMI was within normal range and although her appetite was reduced, her fluid intake was normal.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline in combination with olanzapine

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with psychotic depression and the recommended treatment is a combination of TCA and antipsychotic medication. While ECT has been shown to be effective, it is not necessary at this time as the patient’s condition is not life-threatening. There is some evidence, although limited, to suggest that ketamine and mifepristone may also be beneficial in treating this condition.

      Psychotic Depression

      Psychotic depression is a type of depression that is characterized by the presence of delusions and/of hallucinations in addition to depressive symptoms. This condition is often accompanied by severe anhedonia, loss of interest, and psychomotor retardation. People with psychotic depression are tormented by hallucinations and delusions with typical themes of worthlessness, guilt, disease, of impending disaster. This condition affects approximately 14.7-18.5% of depressed patients and is estimated to affect around 0.4% of community adult samples, with a higher prevalence in the elderly community at around 1.4-3.0%. People with psychotic depression are at a higher risk of attempting and completing suicide than those with non-psychotic depression.

      Diagnosis

      Psychotic depression is currently classified as a subtype of depression in both the ICD-11 and the DSM-5. The main difference between the two is that in the ICD-11, the depressive episode must be moderate of severe to qualify for a diagnosis of depressive episode with psychotic symptoms, whereas in the DSM-5, the diagnosis can be applied to any severity of depressive illness.

      Treatment

      The recommended treatment for psychotic depression is tricyclics as first-line treatment, with antipsychotic augmentation. Second-line treatment includes SSRI/SNRI. Augmentation of antidepressant with olanzapine or quetiapine is recommended. The optimum dose and duration of antipsychotic augmentation are unknown. If one treatment is to be stopped during the maintenance phase, then this should be the antipsychotic. ECT should be considered where a rapid response is required of where other treatments have failed. According to NICE (ng222), combination treatment with antidepressant medication and antipsychotic medication (such as olanzapine or quetiapine) should be considered for people with depression with psychotic symptoms. If a person with depression with psychotic symptoms does not wish to take antipsychotic medication in addition to an antidepressant, then treat with an antidepressant alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 137 - In the UK, what is the schedule classification for non-benzodiazepine hypnotics such as...

    Incorrect

    • In the UK, what is the schedule classification for non-benzodiazepine hypnotics such as zopiclone?

      Your Answer: 5

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      5.1
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  • Question 138 - Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing Alzheimer's...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Aluminium exposure

      Explanation:

      In the 1960s and 1970s, there was a suspicion that aluminum could be a cause of Alzheimer’s disease. This led to concerns about exposure to aluminum in everyday items such as cooking pots, foil, beverage cans, antacids, and antiperspirants. However, subsequent studies have not found any evidence to support this theory. Today, most scientists are focused on other areas of research, and very few experts believe that everyday sources of aluminum are a risk factor for Alzheimer’s disease.

      Alzheimer’s Association: Risk Factors

      The Alzheimer’s Association has identified several risk factors for the development of Alzheimer’s disease. These include age, family history, head trauma (especially if associated with loss of consciousness), hypertension, heart disease, diabetes, CVA, high cholesterol, lower educational level, and female gender. Increasing age is a significant risk factor, as is having a family history of the disease. Head trauma, particularly if it results in loss of consciousness, can also increase the risk of developing Alzheimer’s. Other medical conditions such as hypertension, heart disease, and diabetes have also been linked to an increased risk of Alzheimer’s. Additionally, individuals with lower levels of education and females may be at higher risk. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce them where possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      30.4
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  • Question 139 - What is a characteristic of data that is positively skewed? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a characteristic of data that is positively skewed?

      Your Answer: Mode > median > mean

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Skewed Data: Understanding the Relationship between Mean, Median, and Mode

      When analyzing a data set, it is important to consider the shape of the distribution. In a normally distributed data set, the curve is symmetrical and bell-shaped, with the median, mode, and mean all equal. However, in skewed data sets, the distribution is asymmetrical, with the bulk of the data concentrated on one side of the figure.

      In a negatively skewed distribution, the left tail is longer, and the bulk of the data is concentrated to the right of the figure. In contrast, a positively skewed distribution has a longer right tail, with the bulk of the data concentrated to the left of the figure. In both cases, the median is positioned between the mode and the mean, as it represents the halfway point of the distribution.

      However, the mean is affected by extreme values of outliers, causing it to move away from the median in the direction of the tail. In positively skewed data, the mean is greater than the median, which is greater than the mode. In negatively skewed data, the mode is greater than the median, which is greater than the mean.

      Understanding the relationship between mean, median, and mode in skewed data sets is crucial for accurate data analysis and interpretation. By recognizing the shape of the distribution, researchers can make informed decisions about which measures of central tendency to use and how to interpret their results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      7.2
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  • Question 140 - Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing paraphrenia?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing paraphrenia?

      Your Answer: Having a hearing impairment

      Correct Answer: Being male

      Explanation:

      Paraphrenia: A Late-Onset Schizophrenic Type Presentation

      Paraphrenia is a type of schizophrenia that typically presents later in life and is not caused by an underlying organic illness. It is more commonly seen in women and is often associated with hearing and visual impairments. Patients with paraphrenia are less likely to be married and have children, and they often experience social isolation. Imaging studies have shown changes consistent with cerebrovascular accidents in these patients. Overall, understanding the risk factors associated with paraphrenia can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 141 - Which of the following has not been proven to be effective in preventing...

    Correct

    • Which of the following has not been proven to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression?

      Your Answer: Mianserin

      Explanation:

      Depression is a common occurrence after a stroke, affecting 30-40% of patients. The location of the stroke lesion can play a crucial role in the development of major depression. Treatment for post-stroke depression must take into account the cause of the stroke, medical comorbidities, and potential interactions with other medications. The Maudsley guidelines recommend SSRIs as the first-line treatment, with paroxetine being the preferred choice. Nortriptyline is also an option, as it does not increase the risk of bleeding. If the patient is on anticoagulants, citalopram and escitalopram may be preferred. Antidepressant prophylaxis has been shown to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression, with nortriptyline, fluoxetine, escitalopram, duloxetine, sertraline, and mirtazapine being effective options. Mianserin, however, appears to be ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 142 - What risk factor for autism spectrum disorder has consistently appeared in research studies?...

    Correct

    • What risk factor for autism spectrum disorder has consistently appeared in research studies?

      Your Answer: Low birth weight

      Explanation:

      According to current evidence, there is no connection between autism spectrum disorder (ASD) risk and various environmental factors such as vaccination, maternal smoking, thimerosal exposure, and assisted reproductive technologies (Modabbernia, 2017).

      Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a lifelong disorder characterized by deficits in communication and social understanding, as well as restrictive and repetitive behaviors. The distinction between autism and Asperger’s has been abandoned, and they are now grouped together under the ASD category. Intellectual ability is difficult to assess in people with ASD, with an estimated 33% having an intellectual disability. ASD was first described in Europe and the United States using different terms, with Leo Kanner and Hans Asperger being the pioneers. Diagnosis is based on persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction, as well as restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. The worldwide population prevalence is about 1%, with comorbidity being common. Heritability is estimated at around 90%, and both genetic and environmental factors seem to cause ASD. Currently, there are no validated pharmacological treatments that alleviate core ASD symptoms, but second-generation antipsychotics are the first-line pharmacological treatment for children and adolescents with ASD and associated irritability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 143 - What is the purpose of descriptive statistics? ...

    Correct

    • What is the purpose of descriptive statistics?

      Your Answer: To present characteristics features of a data set

      Explanation:

      Types of Statistics: Descriptive and Inferential

      Statistics can be divided into two categories: descriptive and inferential. Descriptive statistics are used to describe and summarize data without making any generalizations beyond the data at hand. On the other hand, inferential statistics are used to make inferences about a population based on sample data.

      Descriptive statistics are useful for identifying patterns and trends in data. Common measures used to describe a data set include measures of central tendency (such as the mean, median, and mode) and measures of variability of dispersion (such as the standard deviation of variance).

      Inferential statistics, on the other hand, are used to make predictions of draw conclusions about a population based on sample data. These statistics are also used to determine the probability that observed differences between groups are reliable and not due to chance.

      Overall, both descriptive and inferential statistics play important roles in analyzing and interpreting data. Descriptive statistics help us understand the characteristics of a data set, while inferential statistics allow us to make predictions and draw conclusions about larger populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      87.9
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - What medication is approved for treating attention deficit hyperactivity disorder in adults (individuals...

    Incorrect

    • What medication is approved for treating attention deficit hyperactivity disorder in adults (individuals aged 18 and above) in the UK?

      Your Answer: Modafinil

      Correct Answer: Atomoxetine

      Explanation:

      There are several licensed options for treating ADHD in adults, including lisdexamfetamine, atomoxetine, dexamphetamine, and methylphenidate.

      ADHD Diagnosis and Management in Adults

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for ADHD, with the DSM-5 recognising three subtypes of the condition: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for ADHD in adults includes medication and non-pharmacological interventions. NICE recommends offering medication to adults with ADHD if their symptoms are still causing significant impairment after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine are first-line medications, with atomoxetine offered for those who cannot tolerate the former two. Additional medication options may be considered with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’ for ADHD. Prior to initiating medication, referral to cardiology is recommended if there is a suggestion of cardiac pathology. If a person with ADHD develops mania of psychosis, ADHD treatment should be stopped until the episode has resolved. If a person taking stimulants develops tics, medication options may be adjusted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 145 - Which of the options below could indicate the presence of narcissistic personality disorder?...

    Correct

    • Which of the options below could indicate the presence of narcissistic personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Need for constant attention and admiration

      Explanation:

      Individuals with both narcissistic personality disorder and obsessive-compulsive personality disorder may exhibit a commitment to perfectionism and a belief that others cannot perform as well. However, those with narcissistic personality disorder are more likely to believe that they have already achieved perfection, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder may be self-critical. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by a needy interactive style and an unstable self-image. In contrast, individuals with antisocial and narcissistic personality disorders share traits such as being tough-minded, glib, superficial, exploitative, and unempathic. However, it is important to note that narcissistic personality disorder does not necessarily involve impulsivity, aggression, and deceit.

      Personality Disorder (Narcissistic)

      Narcissistic personality disorder is a mental illness characterized by individuals having an exaggerated sense of their own importance, an intense need for excessive attention and admiration, troubled relationships, and a lack of empathy towards others. The DSM-5 diagnostic manual outlines the criteria for this disorder, which includes a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. To be diagnosed with this disorder, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following traits: a grandiose sense of self-importance, preoccupation with fantasies of unlimited success, belief in being special and unique, excessive admiration requirements, a sense of entitlement, interpersonal exploitation, lack of empathy, envy towards others, and arrogant of haughty behaviors. While the previous version of the ICD included narcissistic personality disorder, the ICD-11 does not have a specific reference to this condition, but it can be coded under the category of general personality disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      20.4
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  • Question 146 - What is the name of the tool that utilizes data collected from the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the tool that utilizes data collected from the evaluation of an individual suspected of having autism to aid in the diagnosis of the condition?

      Your Answer: ASD-D

      Correct Answer: ADOS

      Explanation:

      The CSBQ is a questionnaire completed by caregivers to identify symptoms of pervasive developmental disorder, while the PDDBI is a rating scale completed by parents of caregivers for the same purpose.

      Autism is a complex disorder that can be difficult to diagnose in adults. To aid in the diagnosis and assessment of adults with suspected autistic spectrum disorder, NICE recommends the use of various assessment tools. These tools include the ADI-R, a semi-structured interview of caregivers of individuals with autism, the ADOS-G, a semi-structured assessment that involves the use of observational schedules, and the AAA, a three-part diagnostic instrument consisting of two screening instruments and a clinician-conducted diagnostic questionnaire. Other recommended tools include the ASDI, a brief structured interview for the assessment of Asperger syndrome, and the RAADS-R, an 80-item self-rating diagnostic scale for adults with average of above average intelligence. To streamline the assessment process, it is recommended to use a formal assessment tool such as the DISCO, ADOS-G, of ADI-R.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
      9.3
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  • Question 147 - What is a true statement about transient global amnesia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about transient global amnesia?

      Your Answer: Repetitive questioning is a common feature

      Explanation:

      Transient Global Amnesia: Definition, Diagnostic Criteria, and Possible Causes

      Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a clinical syndrome characterized by sudden and severe amnesia, often accompanied by repetitive questioning, that lasts for several hours. The term was first coined in 1964 by Fisher and Adams. To diagnose TGA, the following criteria have been established: (1) the attack must be witnessed, (2) there must be clear anterograde amnesia, (3) clouding of consciousness and loss of personal identity must be absent, (4) there should be no accompanying focal neurological symptoms, (5) epileptic features must be absent, (6) attacks must resolve within 24 hours, and (7) patients with recent head injury of known active epilepsy are excluded.

      Epidemiological studies have shown that thromboembolic cerebrovascular disease does not play a role in the causation of TGA. However, the incidence of migraine in patients with TGA is higher than in the general population. A small minority of cases with unusually brief and recurrent attacks eventually manifest temporal lobe epilepsy. EEG recording is typically normal after an attack, even when performed during the attack.

      Possible causes of TGA include venous congestion with Valsalva-like activities before symptom onset, arterial thromboembolic ischemia, and vasoconstriction due to hyperventilation. Precipitants of TGA often include exertion, cold, pain, emotional stress, and sexual intercourse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      60.6
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - Which of the following experiences is most similar to the effects of using...

    Correct

    • Which of the following experiences is most similar to the effects of using magic mushrooms?

      Your Answer: LSD

      Explanation:

      Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.

      Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

      Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.

      MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.

      Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.

      Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 149 - Which statement accurately describes the CATIE study? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes the CATIE study?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine was found to be more effective than the other atypical antipsychotics used in phase I

      Explanation:

      Olanzapine was found to have the highest duration of treatment before discontinuation due to inadequate efficacy, the longest period of successful treatment, and the lowest number of hospitalizations caused by worsening of schizophrenia among the patients.

      CATIE Study: Comparing Antipsychotic Medications for Schizophrenia Treatment

      The Clinical Antipsychotic Trials of Intervention Effectiveness (CATIE) Study, funded by the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH), was a nationwide clinical trial that aimed to compare the effectiveness of older and newer antipsychotic medications used to treat schizophrenia. It is the largest, longest, and most comprehensive independent trial ever conducted to examine existing therapies for schizophrenia. The study consisted of two phases.

      Phase I of CATIE compared four newer antipsychotic medications to one another and an older medication. Participants were followed for 18 months to evaluate longer-term patient outcomes. The study involved over 1400 participants and was conducted at various treatment sites, representative of real-life settings where patients receive care. The results from CATIE are applicable to a wide range of people with schizophrenia in the United States.

      The medications were comparably effective, but high rates of discontinuation were observed due to intolerable side-effects of failure to adequately control symptoms. Olanzapine was slightly better than the other drugs but was associated with significant weight gain as a side-effect. Surprisingly, the older, less expensive medication (perphenazine) used in the study generally performed as well as the four newer medications. Movement side effects primarily associated with the older medications were not seen more frequently with perphenazine than with the newer drugs.

      Phase II of CATIE sought to provide guidance on which antipsychotic to try next if the first failed due to ineffectiveness of intolerability. Participants who discontinued their first antipsychotic medication because of inadequate management of symptoms were encouraged to enter the efficacy (clozapine) pathway, while those who discontinued their first treatment because of intolerable side effects were encouraged to enter the tolerability (ziprasidone) pathway. Clozapine was remarkably effective and was substantially better than all the other atypical medications.

      The CATIE study also looked at the risk of metabolic syndrome (MS) using the US National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel criteria. The prevalence of MS at baseline in the CATIE group was 40.9%, with female patients being three times as likely to have MS compared to matched controls and male patients being twice as likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 150 - How does the prevalence of a condition impact a particular aspect? ...

    Correct

    • How does the prevalence of a condition impact a particular aspect?

      Your Answer: Positive predictive value

      Explanation:

      The characteristics of precision, sensitivity, accuracy, and specificity are not influenced by the prevalence of the condition and remain stable. However, the positive predictive value is affected by the prevalence of the condition, particularly in cases where the prevalence is low. This is because a decrease in the prevalence of the condition leads to a decrease in the number of true positives, which in turn reduces the numerator of the PPV equation, resulting in a lower PPV. The formula for PPV is TP/(TP+FP).

      Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      4.5
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  • Question 151 - What is the first-line recommendation by NICE for the long-term management of adult...

    Correct

    • What is the first-line recommendation by NICE for the long-term management of adult bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      5.3
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  • Question 152 - What combination of substances is included in Suboxone? ...

    Correct

    • What combination of substances is included in Suboxone?

      Your Answer: Naloxone and buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Suboxone vs. Subutex: What’s the Difference?

      Suboxone and Subutex are both medications used to treat opioid addiction. However, there are some key differences between the two.

      Suboxone is a combination of buprenorphine and naloxone. The naloxone is added to prevent people from injecting the medication, as this was a common problem with pure buprenorphine tablets. If someone tries to inject Suboxone, the naloxone will cause intense withdrawal symptoms. However, if the tablet is swallowed as directed, the naloxone is not absorbed by the gut and does not cause any problems.

      Subutex, on the other hand, contains only buprenorphine and does not include naloxone. This means that it may be more likely to be abused by injection, as there is no deterrent to prevent people from doing so.

      Overall, both Suboxone and Subutex can be effective treatments for opioid addiction, but Suboxone may be a safer choice due to the addition of naloxone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      6.5
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  • Question 153 - In which conditions does NICE recommend the use of ECT? ...

    Correct

    • In which conditions does NICE recommend the use of ECT?

      Your Answer: Prolonged manic episodes

      Explanation:

      ECT (Treatment) – Summary of Effectiveness and Recommendations

      ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy) is a treatment that induces a therapeutic seizure through the application of electrical current under general anesthesia and muscle relaxation. It is prescribed as a course and is usually administered twice weekly for 6 to 12 treatments. ECT is the most effective short-term treatment for major depression, with remission rates of around 60-80% when used as first-line treatment in a severe depressive episode. However, without maintenance treatment, the relapse rate is extremely high (over 80%) in the 6 months after successful ECT.

      Cognitive effects are the main limitation to the wider use of ECT, particularly acute confusion shortly after the treatment, retrograde amnesia, and some losses in autobiographical memory longer term. The current state of evidence does not allow the general use of ECT in the management of schizophrenia. Bilateral ECT is more effective than unilateral ECT but may cause more cognitive impairment. With unilateral ECT, a higher stimulus dose is associated with greater efficacy but also increased cognitive impairment compared with a lower stimulus dose.

      NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) recommends that ECT is used only to achieve rapid and short-term improvement of severe symptoms after an adequate trial of other treatment options has proven ineffective and/of when the condition is considered to be potentially life-threatening. ECT is recommended for individuals with severe depression (that is life-threatening and when a rapid response is required, of when other treatments have failed), moderate depression (consider it if their depression has not responded to multiple drug treatments and psychological treatment), catatonia, and a prolonged of severe manic episode.

      The RCPsych (Royal College of Psychiatrists) position on ECT recommends it as a first-line treatment for individuals with high suicidal risk, severe psychomotor retardation and associated problems of compromised eating and drinking and/of physical deterioration, treatment-resistant depression that has responded to ECT in a previous episode of illness, pregnant individuals with severe depression, of severe mixed affective states, mania of catatonia and whose physical health of that of the fetus is at serious risk, and those who prefer this form of treatment. ECT is recommended as a second-line treatment for individuals with treatment-resistant depression, severe side-effects from medication, and persistent of life-threatening symptoms in severe of prolonged mania. ECT is indicated in some circumstances for individuals with bipolar depression, postnatal psychosis, treatment-resistant schizophrenia, treatment-resistant catatonia, and frequent relapses and recurrences of depression (maintenance).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      13.4
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  • Question 154 - What evidence indicates the presence of dependent personality disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What evidence indicates the presence of dependent personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Rigidity and stubbornness

      Correct Answer: Difficulty in expressing disagreement with others due to fears of losing support

      Explanation:

      It appears that the individual in question may be exhibiting symptoms of obsessive compulsive personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. Individuals with this disorder may have difficulty delegating tasks, may be excessively devoted to work, and may have rigid beliefs and values. They may also be overly conscientious and inflexible, and may struggle with decision-making.

      Dependent Personality Disorder is a type of personality disorder where individuals excessively rely on others for support and fear abandonment. This disorder falls under Cluster C personality disorders. The DSM-5 criteria for this disorder includes exhibiting five of more of the following behaviors: difficulty making decisions without input from others, requiring others to take on responsibilities, fear of disagreement, difficulty starting projects without support, excessive need for nurturance and support, feeling vulnerable and helpless when alone, seeking new relationships when one ends, and having an unrealistic fear of being left alone and unable to care for oneself. The ICD-11 removed the specific diagnosis of Dependent Personality Disorder, but individuals can still be diagnosed with a general personality disorder if they exhibit dependent features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 155 - Which substance is most similar to Mephedrone among the given options? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which substance is most similar to Mephedrone among the given options?

      Your Answer: LSD

      Correct Answer: Ecstasy

      Explanation:

      New Psychoactive Substances, previously known as ‘legal highs’, are synthetic compounds designed to mimic the effects of traditional illicit drugs. They became popular due to their ability to avoid legislative control, but the introduction of the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 changed this. There is no standard for clinical classification, but some common legal highs include Mephedrone, Piperazines, GBL, Synthetic cannabinoids, and Benzofuran compounds. These substances have effects similar to ecstasy, amphetamines, and cannabis, and are classified as either Class B of Class C drugs in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      72.1
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - Which of the following would be the most appropriate first-line treatment for a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following would be the most appropriate first-line treatment for a 12 year old boy with mild depression that has failed to respond to group based CBT despite 3 months of therapy?

      Your Answer: Individual CBT

      Explanation:

      Depression in Young People: NICE Guidelines

      The NICE Guidelines for depression in young people are limited to those between the ages of 5-18. For mild depression without significant comorbid problems of active suicidal ideas of plans, watchful waiting is recommended, along with digital CBT, group CBT, group IPT, of group non-directive supportive therapy. For moderate to severe depression, family-based IPT, family therapy, psychodynamic psychotherapy, individual CBT, and fluoxetine may be used for 5-11 year olds, while individual CBT and fluoxetine may be used for 12-18 year olds. Antidepressant medication should not be used for initial treatment of mild depression, and should only be used in combination with concurrent psychological therapy for moderate to severe depression. Fluoxetine is the only antidepressant for which clinical trial evidence shows that the benefits outweigh the risks, and should be used as the first-line treatment. Paroxetine, venlafaxine, tricyclic antidepressants, and St John’s wort should not be used for the treatment of depression in children and young people. Second generation antipsychotics may be used for depression with psychotic symptoms, and ECT should only be considered for those with very severe depression and life-threatening symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      25.9
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  • Question 157 - What drug is classified as a class B substance in the UK? ...

    Incorrect

    • What drug is classified as a class B substance in the UK?

      Your Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Correct Answer: Mephedrone

      Explanation:

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      5.7
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  • Question 158 - What is the recommended duration of bed rest per day for a patient...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended duration of bed rest per day for a patient with anorexia nervosa and a BMI below 13?

      Your Answer: 24 hours

      Explanation:

      According to the MARSIPAN guidelines, individuals with anorexia and a BMI below 13 should be placed on 24-hour bed rest and given careful consideration for prophylaxis against deep vein thrombosis. This recommendation is outlined in the October 2010 College Report CR 162, which was jointly produced by the Royal College of Psychiatrists and the Royal College of Physicians in London.

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 159 - What is the recommended initial treatment for acute mania in individuals with rapid...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended initial treatment for acute mania in individuals with rapid cycling bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 160 - In chronic opiate use, which effect is most likely to continue over time?...

    Correct

    • In chronic opiate use, which effect is most likely to continue over time?

      Your Answer: Miosis

      Explanation:

      Tolerance in Opiate Abuse

      Tolerance is a common phenomenon that occurs in opiate abuse. It develops regarding the analgesic, euphoric, sedative, respiratory depressant, and nauseating effects of opioids. However, it does not develop to their effects on miosis and bowel motility, which can cause constipation. This means that individuals who abuse opioids may require higher doses to achieve the desired effects, leading to an increased risk of overdose and other adverse effects. Understanding the mechanisms involved in tolerance can help in developing effective interventions to prevent and treat opiate abuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 161 - How can disinhibited social engagement disorder be distinguished from reactive attachment disorder based...

    Correct

    • How can disinhibited social engagement disorder be distinguished from reactive attachment disorder based on their respective features?

      Your Answer: Cuddliness with strangers

      Explanation:

      Both reactive attachment disorder and disinhibited social engagement disorder are associated with poor school performance, making it an unreliable factor for distinguishing between the two conditions. However, children with reactive attachment disorder typically exhibit more inhibited behavior similar to those with autism spectrum disorder, while children with disinhibited social engagement disorder tend to display more disinhibited behavior similar to those with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.

      Disorders resulting from inadequate caregiving during childhood are recognised by both the DSM-5 and the ICD-11, with two distinct forms of disorder identified: Reactive attachment disorder and Disinhibited social engagement disorder. Reactive attachment disorder is characterised by social withdrawal and aberrant attachment behaviour, while Disinhibited social engagement disorder is characterised by socially disinhibited behaviour. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a history of grossly insufficient care, and symptoms must be evident before the age of 5. Treatment options include video feedback programs for preschool aged children and parental training with group play sessions for primary school aged children. Pharmacological interventions are not recommended in the absence of coexisting mental health problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - What is the most frequently observed defence mechanism in individuals with borderline personality...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently observed defence mechanism in individuals with borderline personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Projection

      Explanation:

      Defense Mechanisms in Specific Conditions

      Certain psychiatric conditions are characterized by specific defense mechanisms. These mechanisms are used by individuals to protect themselves from anxiety and other negative emotions. The following conditions and the associated defenses tend to come up on membership exams.

      Phobias are characterized by intense and irrational fears of specific objects of situations. The defense mechanisms commonly used in phobias are repression and displacement. Repression involves pushing the anxiety-provoking thoughts of memories out of conscious awareness. Displacement involves redirecting the anxiety onto a less threatening object of situation.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by intrusive and repetitive thoughts (obsessions) and/of repetitive behaviors (compulsions). The defense mechanisms commonly used in OCD are isolation, undoing, and reaction formation. Isolation involves separating the anxiety-provoking thought from the associated emotion. Undoing involves performing a ritual of action to undo the anxiety-provoking thought. Reaction formation involves expressing the opposite emotion of the anxiety-provoking thought.

      Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by unstable moods, relationships, and self-image. The defense mechanisms commonly used in BPD are projection and splitting. Projection involves attributing one’s own unacceptable thoughts of feelings onto another person. Splitting involves seeing people of situations as either all good of all bad.

      Narcissistic personality disorder (NPD) is characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. The defense mechanisms commonly used in NPD are projection and splitting, similar to BPD.

      Agoraphobia is characterized by a fear of being in situations where escape may be difficult of embarrassing. The defense mechanism commonly used in agoraphobia is displacement, which involves redirecting the anxiety onto a less threatening object of situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      7.9
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  • Question 163 - What is a true statement about stalking behaviors? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about stalking behaviors?

      Your Answer: The majority of victims are physically assaulted at some point by those who stalk them

      Correct Answer: Persistent stalking is high among professionals pursued by ex-patients

      Explanation:

      Stalking is a serious issue that can cause significant distress to victims. While most victims are not physically assaulted, the psychological and social damage can be severe. It is concerning that nearly half of stalkers re-offend, with personality disordered individuals and substance abusers being the most likely to do so. It is also alarming that professionals, such as psychiatrists, are at higher risk of being stalked by patients of their relatives. It is important for society to take stalking seriously and provide support and protection for victims.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      17.6
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  • Question 164 - Under what circumstances should Opioid detoxification not be offered as a standard practice,...

    Correct

    • Under what circumstances should Opioid detoxification not be offered as a standard practice, as per the NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer: When a patient is serving a short prison sentence

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to offer opioid detoxification to individuals with urgent medical conditions. However, for those in police custody of serving a short prison sentence, of those presenting in an acute of emergency setting, consideration should be given to treating opioid withdrawal symptoms with medication and referring them to further drug services as needed. If an individual seeking opioid detoxification also misuses alcohol, healthcare professionals should address their alcohol misuse, as it may worsen during opioid withdrawal of be substituted for previous opioid misuse. For those who are alcohol dependent, alcohol detoxification should be offered before starting opioid detoxification in a community of prison setting, but can be done concurrently with opioid detoxification in an inpatient setting of with stabilisation in a community setting.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      64.5
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  • Question 165 - As per Rapoport, what is the principle of permissiveness in therapeutic communities? ...

    Incorrect

    • As per Rapoport, what is the principle of permissiveness in therapeutic communities?

      Your Answer: Ability to find a place among others

      Correct Answer: To follow rules and respect boundaries

      Explanation:

      Rapoport’s four principles of therapeutic communities include permissiveness, democratisation, communalism, and reality confrontation. Permissiveness allows members to express themselves freely while respecting the community’s rules and boundaries. This principle encourages members to investigate and discuss their behavior to gain insight. However, permissiveness should not negatively affect other members of exclude them. Communalism involves communication, task-sharing, and interdependence, promoting belonging and primary bond development. Reality confrontation helps members find their place among others. Democratisation involves participation in decision-making and voting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - What statistical test would be appropriate to compare the mean blood pressure measurements...

    Correct

    • What statistical test would be appropriate to compare the mean blood pressure measurements of a group of individuals before and after exercise?

      Your Answer: Paired t-test

      Explanation:

      Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 167 - If a case-control study investigates 60 potential risk factors for bipolar affective disorder...

    Correct

    • If a case-control study investigates 60 potential risk factors for bipolar affective disorder with a significance level of 0.05, how many risk factors would be expected to show a significant association with the disorder due to random chance?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      If we consider the above example as 60 separate experiments, we would anticipate that 3 variables would show a connection purely by chance. This is because a p-value of 0.05 indicates that there is a 5% chance of obtaining the observed result by chance, of 1 in every 20 times. Therefore, if we multiply 1 in 20 by 60, we get 3, which is the expected number of variables that would show an association by chance alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 168 - What is the term used to describe the percentage of a population's disease...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the percentage of a population's disease that would be eradicated if their disease rate was lowered to that of the unexposed group?

      Your Answer: Attributable proportion

      Explanation:

      Disease Rates and Their Interpretation

      Disease rates are a measure of the occurrence of a disease in a population. They are used to establish causation, monitor interventions, and measure the impact of exposure on disease rates. The attributable risk is the difference in the rate of disease between the exposed and unexposed groups. It tells us what proportion of deaths in the exposed group were due to the exposure. The relative risk is the risk of an event relative to exposure. It is calculated by dividing the rate of disease in the exposed group by the rate of disease in the unexposed group. A relative risk of 1 means there is no difference between the two groups. A relative risk of <1 means that the event is less likely to occur in the exposed group, while a relative risk of >1 means that the event is more likely to occur in the exposed group. The population attributable risk is the reduction in incidence that would be observed if the population were entirely unexposed. It can be calculated by multiplying the attributable risk by the prevalence of exposure in the population. The attributable proportion is the proportion of the disease that would be eliminated in a population if its disease rate were reduced to that of the unexposed group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      26.3
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  • Question 169 - What type of dementia is categorized as subcortical? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of dementia is categorized as subcortical?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer's disease

      Correct Answer: AIDS dementia complex

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Cortical and Subcortical Dementia: A Contested Area

      Attempts have been made to differentiate between cortical and subcortical dementia based on clinical presentation, but this remains a contested area. Some argue that the distinction is not possible. Cortical dementia is characterized by impaired memory, visuospatial ability, executive function, and language. Examples of cortical dementias include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. On the other hand, subcortical dementia is characterized by general slowing of mental processes, personality changes, mood disorders, and abnormal movements. Examples of subcortical dementias include Binswanger’s disease, dementia associated with Huntington’s disease, AIDS, Parkinson’s disease, Wilson’s disease, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Despite ongoing debate, questions on this topic may appear in exams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      7.3
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  • Question 170 - Bion identified several basic assumption groups, but one of them is not included...

    Correct

    • Bion identified several basic assumption groups, but one of them is not included in the list.

      Your Answer: Dynamic shift

      Explanation:

      Bion, a psychoanalyst, was fascinated by group dynamics and believed that groups had a collective unconscious that functioned similarly to that of an individual. He argued that this unconsciousness protected the group from the pain of reality. Bion identified two types of groups: the ‘working group’ that functioned well and achieved its goals, and the ‘basic assumption group’ that acted out primitive fantasies and prevented progress. Bion then described different types of basic assumption groups, including ‘dependency,’ where the group turns to a leader to alleviate anxiety, ‘fight-flight,’ where the group perceives an enemy and either attacks of avoids them, and ‘pairing,’ where the group believes that the solution lies in the pairing of two members. These dynamics can be observed in various settings, such as when strangers come together for the first time of when doctors in different specialties criticize one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      5.9
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  • Question 171 - What is the appropriate course of action for an adult with ADHD who...

    Correct

    • What is the appropriate course of action for an adult with ADHD who experiences tics as a side effect of taking methylphenidate?

      Your Answer: Atomoxetine

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines (ng87 1.8.14), atomoxetine is the recommended medication in this situation, rather than clonidine or guanfacine.

      ADHD Diagnosis and Management in Adults

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for ADHD, with the DSM-5 recognising three subtypes of the condition: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for ADHD in adults includes medication and non-pharmacological interventions. NICE recommends offering medication to adults with ADHD if their symptoms are still causing significant impairment after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine are first-line medications, with atomoxetine offered for those who cannot tolerate the former two. Additional medication options may be considered with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’ for ADHD. Prior to initiating medication, referral to cardiology is recommended if there is a suggestion of cardiac pathology. If a person with ADHD develops mania of psychosis, ADHD treatment should be stopped until the episode has resolved. If a person taking stimulants develops tics, medication options may be adjusted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      5.1
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  • Question 172 - A patient who has been successfully titrated on clozapine begins to show signs...

    Correct

    • A patient who has been successfully titrated on clozapine begins to show signs of relapse despite no changes to his dose. He insists that his smoking status has not changed and he has not commenced any new medications. Levels are taken to investigate the possibility of compliance issues.
      The following result is obtained:
      Clozapine (plasma) = 560 µg/L
      Norclozapine = 420 µg/L
      Ratio = 1.3
      Time of sample since last dose 11.5 hours
      Clozapine dose = 600 mg / d
      Smoker = No
      Which of the following is most likely?:

      Your Answer: The ratio appears normal and does not suggest non-compliance

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 173 - Which study design is considered to generate the most robust and reliable evidence?...

    Incorrect

    • Which study design is considered to generate the most robust and reliable evidence?

      Your Answer: Case-control study

      Correct Answer: Cohort study

      Explanation:

      Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine

      To evaluate the quality of evidence on a subject of question, levels of grades are used. The traditional hierarchy approach places systematic reviews of randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system, which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each.

      The grading approach to be aware of is the GRADE system, which classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, of very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical of important. The evidence is then gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence, with the type of evidence being a significant factor. Evidence can be promoted of downgraded based on certain criteria, such as limitations to study quality, inconsistency, uncertainty about directness, imprecise of sparse data, and reporting bias. The GRADE system allows for the promotion of observational studies to high-quality evidence under the right circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      342.5
      Seconds
  • Question 174 - How can grounded theory be applied as an analytic technique? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can grounded theory be applied as an analytic technique?

      Your Answer: Reflexivity

      Correct Answer: Constant comparison

      Explanation:

      Qualitative research is a method of inquiry that seeks to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. There are different approaches to qualitative research, such as ethnography, phenomenology, and grounded theory, each with its own purpose, role of the researcher, stages of research, and method of data analysis. The most common methods used in healthcare research are interviews and focus groups. Sampling techniques include convenience sampling, purposive sampling, quota sampling, snowball sampling, and case study sampling. Sample size can be determined by data saturation, which occurs when new categories, themes, of explanations stop emerging from the data. Validity can be assessed through triangulation, respondent validation, bracketing, and reflexivity. Analytical approaches include content analysis and constant comparison.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 175 - Which statement accurately describes the epidemiology of intellectual disability? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the epidemiology of intellectual disability?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome is seen in approximately 1 in every 500 births

      Correct Answer: Approximately 2% of the general population is estimated to have an intellectual disability

      Explanation:

      Intellectual disability is estimated to affect around 1-3% of the overall population, with Down syndrome being the most prevalent cause. Fragile X is believed to occur in about 1 out of every 3600 males and 1 out of every 4000-6000 females.

      Classification of Intellectual Disability

      Intellectual disability affects approximately 2% of the general population, with an estimated 828,000 adults aged 18 of older affected in England alone. Those with an IQ below 70 are considered to have an intellectual disability, with the average IQ being 100. The severity of intellectual disability is categorized based on IQ scores, with mild intellectual disability being the most common (85% of cases) and profound intellectual disability being the least common (1-2% of cases). People with intellectual disability may require varying levels of support in their daily lives, depending on their individual needs. It is important to use the preferred term ‘people with intellectual disability’ when referring to individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 176 - What is a true statement about lamotrigine? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about lamotrigine?

      Your Answer: Valproate increases lamotrigine concentrations more than 2-fold

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) are commonly used for the treatment of epilepsy, but many of them also have mood stabilizing properties and are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of bipolar disorder. However, some AEDs carry product warnings for serious side effects such as hepatic failure, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, and skin reactions. Additionally, some AEDs have been associated with an increased risk of suicidal behavior and ideation.

      Behavioral side-effects associated with AEDs include depression, aberrant behaviors, and the development of worsening of irritability, impulsivity, anger, hostility, and aggression. Aggression can occur before, after, of in between seizures. Some AEDs are considered to carry a higher risk of aggression, including levetiracetam, perampanel, and topiramate. However, data on the specific risk of aggression for other AEDs is lacking of mixed. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of AEDs when prescribing them for patients with epilepsy of bipolar disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 177 - What is the purpose of using the DAI and MARS scales for assessment?...

    Correct

    • What is the purpose of using the DAI and MARS scales for assessment?

      Your Answer: Compliance with medication

      Explanation:

      Non-Compliance

      Studies have shown that adherence rates in patients with psychosis who are treated with antipsychotics can range from 25% to 75%. Shockingly, approximately 90% of those who are non-compliant admit to doing so intentionally (Maudsley 12th edition). After being discharged from the hospital, the expected non-compliance rate in individuals with schizophrenia is as follows (Maudsley 12th Edition): 25% at ten days, 50% at one year, and 75% at two years. The Drug Attitude Inventory (DAI) is a useful tool for assessing a patient’s attitude towards medication and predicting compliance. Other scales that can be used include the Rating of Medication Influences Scale (ROMI), the Beliefs about Medication Questionnaire, and the Medication Adherence Rating Scale (MARS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 178 - How is the phenomenon of regression towards the mean most influential on which...

    Incorrect

    • How is the phenomenon of regression towards the mean most influential on which type of validity?

      Your Answer: External validity

      Correct Answer: Internal validity

      Explanation:

      Validity in statistics refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study, while external validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. There are various threats to both internal and external validity, such as sampling, measurement instrument obtrusiveness, and reactive effects of setting. Additionally, there are several subtypes of validity, including face validity, content validity, criterion validity, and construct validity. Each subtype has its own specific focus and methods for testing validity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 179 - What is the highest approved dosage of olanzapine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the highest approved dosage of olanzapine?

      Your Answer: 40 mg/day

      Correct Answer: 20 mg/day

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics (Maximum Doses)

      It is important to be aware of the maximum doses for commonly used antipsychotics. The following are the maximum doses for various antipsychotics:

      – Clozapine (oral): 900 mg/day
      – Haloperidol (oral): 20 mg/day
      – Olanzapine (oral): 20 mg/day
      – Quetiapine (oral): 750mg/day (for schizophrenia) and 800 mg/day (for bipolar disorder)
      – Risperidone (oral): 16 mg/day
      – Amisulpride (oral): 1200 mg/day
      – Aripiprazole (oral): 30 mg/day
      – Flupentixol (depot): 400 mg/week
      – Zuclopenthixol (depot): 600 mg/week
      – Haloperidol (depot): 300 mg every 4 weeks

      It is important to keep these maximum doses in mind when prescribing antipsychotics to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 180 - A middle-aged accountant arrives at the office every day 20 minutes early and...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged accountant arrives at the office every day 20 minutes early and meticulously plans out his tasks for the day. He prefers to have everything organized well in advance and dislikes any unexpected changes to his routine. While his colleagues appreciate his efficiency, they sometimes find him rigid in his ways. Which personality trait is he displaying characteristics of?

      Your Answer: Anankastic

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorder (Obsessive Compulsive)

      Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control, which can hinder flexibility and efficiency. This pattern typically emerges in early adulthood and can be present in various contexts. The estimated prevalence ranges from 2.1% to 7.9%, with males being diagnosed twice as often as females.

      The DSM-5 diagnosis requires the presence of four of more of the following criteria: preoccupation with details, rules, lists, order, organization, of agenda to the point that the key part of the activity is lost; perfectionism that hampers completing tasks; extreme dedication to work and efficiency to the elimination of spare time activities; meticulous, scrupulous, and rigid about etiquettes of morality, ethics, of values; inability to dispose of worn-out of insignificant things even when they have no sentimental meaning; unwillingness to delegate tasks of work with others except if they surrender to exactly their way of doing things; miserly spending style towards self and others; and rigidity and stubbornness.

      The ICD-11 abolished all categories of personality disorder except for a general description of personality disorder, which can be further specified as “mild,” “moderate,” of “severe.” The anankastic trait domain is characterized by a narrow focus on one’s rigid standard of perfection and of right and wrong, and on controlling one’s own and others’ behavior and controlling situations to ensure conformity to these standards. Common manifestations of anankastic include perfectionism and emotional and behavioral constraint.

      Differential diagnosis includes OCD, hoarding disorder, narcissistic personality disorder, antisocial personality disorder, and schizoid personality disorder. OCD is distinguished by the presence of true obsessions and compulsions, while hoarding disorder should be considered when hoarding is extreme. Narcissistic personality disorder individuals are more likely to believe that they have achieved perfection, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are usually self-critical. Antisocial personality disorder individuals lack generosity but will indulge themselves, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder adopt a miserly spending style toward both self and others. Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a fundamental lack of capacity for intimacy, while in obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, this stems from discomfort with emotions and excessive devotion to work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      13.9
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  • Question 181 - Which condition has the most extensive evidence base for the use of phototherapy?...

    Correct

    • Which condition has the most extensive evidence base for the use of phototherapy?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Phototherapy, also known as light therapy, has been extensively studied for its use in treating seasonal affective disorder (SAD) of winter depression. The treatment involves sitting next to a bright light for 1-2 hours. A 2005 meta-analysis of randomized, controlled trials found that bright light treatment is effective, with results equivalent to most antidepressant pharmacotherapy trials. However, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises that the evidence for the efficacy of light therapy is uncertain for those with winter depression. Light therapy has also been found to be effective in treating non-seasonal depression and ADHD. The type and strength of light that works best and the timing of the therapy remain unclear. It is important for the light to enter the eye, so it cannot be delivered while a person is asleep. (Golden, 2005).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 182 - Who is the neo-Freudian known for creating a therapy that is especially effective...

    Correct

    • Who is the neo-Freudian known for creating a therapy that is especially effective in treating borderline personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Otto Kernberg

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      109.5
      Seconds
  • Question 183 - Which data type does age in years belong to? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which data type does age in years belong to?

      Your Answer: Interval

      Correct Answer: Ratio

      Explanation:

      Age is a type of measurement that follows a ratio scale, which means that the values can be compared as multiples of each other. For instance, if someone is 20 years old, they are twice as old as someone who is 10 years old.

      Scales of Measurement in Statistics

      In the 1940s, Stanley Smith Stevens introduced four scales of measurement to categorize data variables. Knowing the scale of measurement for a variable is crucial in selecting the appropriate statistical analysis. The four scales of measurement are ratio, interval, ordinal, and nominal.

      Ratio scales are similar to interval scales, but they have true zero points. Examples of ratio scales include weight, time, and length. Interval scales measure the difference between two values, and one unit on the scale represents the same magnitude on the trait of characteristic being measured across the whole range of the scale. The Fahrenheit scale for temperature is an example of an interval scale.

      Ordinal scales categorize observed values into set categories that can be ordered, but the intervals between each value are uncertain. Examples of ordinal scales include social class, education level, and income level. Nominal scales categorize observed values into set categories that have no particular order of hierarchy. Examples of nominal scales include genotype, blood type, and political party.

      Data can also be categorized as quantitative of qualitative. Quantitative variables take on numeric values and can be further classified into discrete and continuous types. Qualitative variables do not take on numerical values and are usually names. Some qualitative variables have an inherent order in their categories and are described as ordinal. Qualitative variables are also called categorical of nominal variables. When a qualitative variable has only two categories, it is called a binary variable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 184 - How would you define the term archetype in the context of psychodynamic theory?...

    Correct

    • How would you define the term archetype in the context of psychodynamic theory?

      Your Answer: A symbolic image in the collective unconscious

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      2437.1
      Seconds
  • Question 185 - What is an unlikely finding in the blood test results of a patient...

    Correct

    • What is an unlikely finding in the blood test results of a patient with anorexia?

      Your Answer: Low cortisol

      Explanation:

      Anorexia is marked by prolonged hypercortisolism, with increased levels of free cortisol in both the plasma and CSF. Dexamethasone typically fails to suppress cortisol in individuals with anorexia.

      Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications

      Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 186 - What BMI range would be considered 'significantly low' for an adult with anorexia...

    Incorrect

    • What BMI range would be considered 'significantly low' for an adult with anorexia nervosa, as per the ICD-11 classification?

      Your Answer: 10

      Correct Answer: 15

      Explanation:

      According to ICD-11, a BMI between 18.5 and 14.0 is considered significantly low for adults, while a BMI under 14.0 is classified as dangerously low. Therefore, it is important to remember that a BMI of 14 is the threshold for dangerously low BMI in adults.

      Eating disorders are a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical and psychological consequences. The ICD-11 lists several types of eating disorders, including Anorexia Nervosa, Bulimia Nervosa, Binge Eating Disorder, Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder, Pica, and Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder.

      Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by significantly low body weight, a persistent pattern of restrictive eating of other behaviors aimed at maintaining low body weight, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Bulimia Nervosa involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Binge Eating Disorder is characterized by frequent episodes of binge eating without compensatory behaviors, marked distress of impairment in functioning, and is more common in overweight and obese individuals. Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder involves avoidance of restriction of food intake that results in significant weight loss of impairment in functioning, but is not motivated by preoccupation with body weight of shape. Pica involves the regular consumption of non-nutritive substances, while Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder involves intentional and repeated regurgitation of previously swallowed food.

      It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is struggling with an eating disorder. Treatment may involve a combination of therapy, medication, and nutritional counseling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 187 - What is an example of a neurovegetative symptom? ...

    Correct

    • What is an example of a neurovegetative symptom?

      Your Answer: Insomnia

      Explanation:

      Symptoms related to inadequate performance of the autonomic nervous system, such as difficulties with sleep, exhaustion, and reduced energy levels, are referred to as neurovegetative symptoms.

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 188 - Please provide an example of a question that is not included in the...

    Correct

    • Please provide an example of a question that is not included in the SCOFF questionnaire.

      Your Answer: Do you regularly feel that you are overweight?

      Explanation:

      The SCOFF Questionnaire for Screening Eating Disorders

      The SCOFF questionnaire is a tool used to screen for eating disorders. It consists of five questions that aim to identify symptoms of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questions include whether the individual makes themselves sick because they feel uncomfortably full, worries about losing control over how much they eat, has recently lost more than one stone in a three-month period, believes themselves to be fat when others say they are too thin, and whether food dominates their life.

      A score of two or more positive responses indicates a likely case of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questionnaire has a sensitivity of 84.6% and specificity of 98.6% when two or more questions are answered positively. This means that if a patient responds positively to two of more questions, there is a high likelihood that they have an eating disorder. The negative predictive value of the questionnaire is 99.3%, which means that if a patient responds negatively to the questions, there is a high probability that they do not have an eating disorder.

      Overall, the SCOFF questionnaire is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to quickly screen for eating disorders and identify individuals who may require further assessment and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      52.9
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  • Question 189 - You have been tasked with examining the potential advantage of establishing a program...

    Incorrect

    • You have been tasked with examining the potential advantage of establishing a program to assist elderly patients with panic disorder in the nearby region. What is the primary consideration in determining the amount of resources needed?

      Your Answer: Incidence

      Correct Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      Measures of Disease Frequency: Incidence and Prevalence

      Incidence and prevalence are two important measures of disease frequency. Incidence measures the speed at which new cases of a disease are emerging, while prevalence measures the burden of disease within a population. Cumulative incidence and incidence rate are two types of incidence measures, while point prevalence and period prevalence are two types of prevalence measures.

      Cumulative incidence is the average risk of getting a disease over a certain period of time, while incidence rate is a measure of the speed at which new cases are emerging. Prevalence is a proportion and is a measure of the burden of disease within a population. Point prevalence measures the number of cases in a defined population at a specific point in time, while period prevalence measures the number of identified cases during a specified period of time.

      It is important to note that prevalence is equal to incidence multiplied by the duration of the condition. In chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence. The incidence rate is stated in units of person-time, while cumulative incidence is always a proportion. When describing cumulative incidence, it is necessary to give the follow-up period over which the risk is estimated. In acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence may be similar, while for conditions such as the common cold, the incidence may be greater than the prevalence.

      Incidence is a useful measure to study disease etiology and risk factors, while prevalence is useful for health resource planning. Understanding these measures of disease frequency is important for public health professionals and researchers in order to effectively monitor and address the burden of disease within populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - How can atypical depression be diagnosed? ...

    Correct

    • How can atypical depression be diagnosed?

      Your Answer: Leaden paralysis

      Explanation:

      Atypical Depression: Symptoms and Treatment

      Atypical depression is a subtype of major depressive disorder that is characterized by low mood with mood reactivity and a reversal of the typical features seen in depression. This includes hypersomnia, hyperphagia, weight gain, and libidinal increases. People with atypical depression tend to respond best to MAOIs, while their response to tricyclics is poor, and SSRIs perform somewhere in the middle.

      The DSM-5 defines atypical depression as a subtype of major depressive disorder ‘with atypical features’, which includes mood reactivity, significant weight gain of increase in appetite, hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, and a long-standing pattern of interpersonal rejection sensitivity that results in significant social of occupational impairment. However, this subtype is not specifically recognized in ICD-11.

      If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of atypical depression, it is important to seek professional help. Treatment options may include therapy, medication, of a combination of both. MAOIs may be the most effective medication for atypical depression, but it is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 191 - Which of the following is not a known adverse effect of bulimia nervosa?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a known adverse effect of bulimia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer disease

      Explanation:

      Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications

      Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 192 - What is the estimated global prevalence of ADHD in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the estimated global prevalence of ADHD in children?

      Your Answer: 4%

      Correct Answer: 7%

      Explanation:

      ADHD is a prevalent disorder worldwide, with a prevalence of 7% in those under 18 and 3.5% in those over 18. It is more common in males, with a male to female ratio of 2:1 in children and 1.6:1 in adults. While some improvement in symptoms is seen over time, the majority of those diagnosed in childhood continue to struggle with residual symptoms and impairments through at least young adulthood, with an estimated persistence rate of 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 193 - The percentage of victims of the most severe sexual offenses in the previous...

    Incorrect

    • The percentage of victims of the most severe sexual offenses in the previous year who were acquainted with the perpetrator, as per data from England and Wales, is what?

      Your Answer: 0.50%

      Correct Answer: 90%

      Explanation:

      Sexual Offending in England and Wales: Key Findings

      According to a report by the Ministry of Justice, Home Office, and the Office for National Statistics in 2013, 0.5% of females reported being victims of the most serious sexual offences, such as rape of sexual assault by penetration, in the previous year. Young males between the ages of 20 and 39 were found to be the most common offenders, accounting for 47% of cases. The majority of victims (56%) reported that the offender was their partner.

      In 2011/12, the police recorded 53,665 sexual offences, which made up approximately 1% of all recorded crimes. Sexual assault was the most commonly reported offence, accounting for 41% of cases, followed by rape at 30%. Other offences included exposure, voyeurism, and sexual activity with minors. In contrast, less than 0.1% of males (around 12,000) reported being victims of the same types of offences in the previous year.

      The report also found that around 90% of victims of the most serious sexual offences knew the perpetrator, compared to less than half for other sexual offences. These findings provide insight into the prevalence and characteristics of sexual offending in England and Wales.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 194 - What is a true statement about measures of effect? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about measures of effect?

      Your Answer: Odds ratio cannot be used in a cohort study

      Correct Answer: Relative risk can be used to measure effect in randomised control trials

      Explanation:

      The use of relative risk is applicable in cohort, cross-sectional, and randomized control trials, but not in case-control studies. In situations where there are no events in the control group, neither the risk ratio nor the odds ratio can be computed. It is important to note that the odds ratio tends to overestimate effects and is always more extreme than the relative risk, moving away from the null value of 1.

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 195 - How can disinhibited social engagement disorder be distinguished from reactive attachment disorder based...

    Correct

    • How can disinhibited social engagement disorder be distinguished from reactive attachment disorder based on their respective features?

      Your Answer: Invading social boundaries

      Explanation:

      Both reactive attachment disorder and disinhibited social engagement disorder share a common history of inadequate caregivers, which makes it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, children with reactive attachment disorder tend to exhibit more inhibited behavior similar to those with autism spectrum disorder, while children with disinhibited social engagement disorder tend to display more disinhibited behavior similar to those with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.

      Disorders resulting from inadequate caregiving during childhood are recognised by both the DSM-5 and the ICD-11, with two distinct forms of disorder identified: Reactive attachment disorder and Disinhibited social engagement disorder. Reactive attachment disorder is characterised by social withdrawal and aberrant attachment behaviour, while Disinhibited social engagement disorder is characterised by socially disinhibited behaviour. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a history of grossly insufficient care, and symptoms must be evident before the age of 5. Treatment options include video feedback programs for preschool aged children and parental training with group play sessions for primary school aged children. Pharmacological interventions are not recommended in the absence of coexisting mental health problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      60
      Seconds
  • Question 196 - Which feature is not indicative of frontotemporal dementia? ...

    Correct

    • Which feature is not indicative of frontotemporal dementia?

      Your Answer: Profound early memory loss

      Explanation:

      Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

      Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that involve the atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by progressive dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. FTLD is the third most common form of dementia across all age groups and a leading type of early-onset dementia.

      The disease has common features such as onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD: behavioral-variant (bvFTD), language variant – primary progressive aphasia (PPA), and the language variant is further subdivided into semantic variant PPA (aka semantic dementia) and non-fluent agrammatic variant PPA (nfvPPA).

      As the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge, as an initially focal degeneration becomes more diffuse and spreads to affect large regions in the frontal and temporal lobes. The key differences between the subtypes are summarized in the table provided. The bvFTD subtype is characterized by poor personal and social decorum, disinhibition, poor judgment and problem-solving, apathy, compulsive/perseverative behavior, hyperorality of dietary changes, and loss of empathy. The nfvPPA subtype is characterized by slow/slurred speech, decreased word output and phrase length, word-finding difficulties, apraxia of speech, and spared single-word comprehension. The svPPA subtype is characterized by intact speech fluency, word-finding difficulties (anomia), impaired single-word comprehension, repetitive speech, and reduced word comprehension.

      In conclusion, FTLD is a progressive, heterogeneous, neurodegenerative disorder that affects the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD, and as the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      284.9
      Seconds
  • Question 197 - Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing tardive...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing tardive dyskinesia?

      Your Answer: African American race

      Correct Answer: Male gender

      Explanation:

      Tardive Dyskinesia: Symptoms, Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a condition that affects the face, limbs, and trunk of individuals who have been on neuroleptics for months to years. The movements fluctuate over time, increase with emotional arousal, decrease with relaxation, and disappear with sleep. The cause of TD remains theoretical, but the postsynaptic dopamine (D2) receptor supersensitivity hypothesis is the most persistent. Other hypotheses include the presynaptic dopaminergic/noradrenergic hyperactivity hypothesis, the cholinergic interneuron burnout hypothesis, the excitatory/oxidative stress hypothesis, and the synaptic plasticity hypothesis. Risk factors for TD include advancing age, female sex, ethnicity, longer illness duration, intellectual disability and brain damage, negative symptoms in schizophrenia, mood disorders, diabetes, smoking, alcohol and substance misuse, FGA vs SGA treatment, higher antipsychotic dose, anticholinergic co-treatment, and akathisia.

      Management options for TD include stopping any anticholinergic, reducing antipsychotic dose, changing to an antipsychotic with lower propensity for TD, and using tetrabenazine, vitamin E, of amantadine as add-on options. Clozapine is the antipsychotic most likely to be associated with resolution of symptoms. Vesicular monoamine transporter type 2 (VMAT2) inhibitors are agents that cause a depletion of neuroactive peptides such as dopamine in nerve terminals and are used to treat chorea due to neurodegenerative diseases of dyskinesias due to neuroleptic medications (tardive dyskinesia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      134.9
      Seconds
  • Question 198 - What is the recommended psychological treatment for an adult with mild body dysmorphic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended psychological treatment for an adult with mild body dysmorphic disorder?

      Your Answer: Psychodynamic psychotherapy

      Correct Answer: Exposure and response prevention

      Explanation:

      Systematic desensitization is a therapeutic technique used to treat phobias by gradually exposing the individual to the feared object of situation in a controlled and safe environment, while teaching them relaxation techniques to manage their anxiety.

      Exposure and response prevention is a cognitive-behavioral therapy used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and body dysmorphic disorder (BDD). It involves exposing the individual to their obsessive thoughts of compulsive behaviors, while preventing them from engaging in their usual response. This helps to break the cycle of anxiety and compulsions, and teaches the individual to tolerate their distress without resorting to their usual rituals.

      Maudsley Guidelines

      First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)

      Second line:

      – SSRI + antipsychotic
      – Citalopram + clomipramine
      – Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
      – Lamotrigine + SSRI
      – Topiramate + SSRI

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      97.7
      Seconds
  • Question 199 - What was the term used by Freud to refer to the death instinct?...

    Correct

    • What was the term used by Freud to refer to the death instinct?

      Your Answer: Thanatos

      Explanation:

      Aggression – Freud

      According to Freud, aggression is a result of the primary instinct called thanatos, also known as the death instinct. He believed that every individual possesses this drive, which aims to cause complete destruction and death. Additionally, Freud proposed the existence of an opposing instinct called eros, which is the life instinct. He also introduced the concept of catharsis, which is a process of releasing libidinal energy and inducing a sense of calmness. This process occurs when we witness an aggressive act of engage in a mildly aggressive act.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 200 - What is the appropriate denominator to use when computing the sample variance? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate denominator to use when computing the sample variance?

      Your Answer: n

      Correct Answer: n-1

      Explanation:

      Measures of dispersion are used to indicate the variation of spread of a data set, often in conjunction with a measure of central tendency such as the mean of median. The range, which is the difference between the largest and smallest value, is the simplest measure of dispersion. The interquartile range, which is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, is another useful measure. Quartiles divide a data set into quarters, and the interquartile range can provide additional information about the spread of the data. However, to get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as the variance and standard deviation are needed. The variance gives an indication of how much the items in the data set vary from the mean, while the standard deviation reflects the distribution of individual scores around their mean. The standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data set and can be used to indicate how confident we are that data points lie within a particular range. The standard error of the mean is an inferential statistic used to estimate the population mean and is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations. Confidence intervals are often presented alongside sample results such as the mean value, indicating a range that is likely to contain the true value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      6.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychotherapy (12/16) 75%
General Adult Psychiatry (46/67) 69%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (21/32) 66%
Forensic Psychiatry (6/17) 35%
Substance Misuse/Addictions (19/26) 73%
Child And Adolescent Psychiatry (15/19) 79%
Old Age Psychiatry (10/15) 67%
Learning Disability (3/5) 60%
Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services (3/3) 100%
Passmed