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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old woman with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to her...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to her general practitioner complaining of a chronic cough, weight loss and haemoptysis. She smokes ten cigarettes a day. You understand that she has begun anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) antibody treatment around 9 months earlier. On examination, her rheumatoid appears quiescent at present.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
      possible left upper lobe fibrosis
      Haemoglobin 109 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 11.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 295 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 61 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 55 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Active pulmonary tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis

      A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis on a chest X-ray. Several possible causes need to be considered, including active pulmonary tuberculosis, lymphoma, rheumatoid lung disease, bronchial carcinoma, and invasive aspergillosis. While anti-TNF antibody medication for rheumatoid arthritis may increase the risk of tuberculosis and aspergillosis, it is important to rule out other potential etiologies based on clinical examination, imaging studies, and laboratory tests. The presence of soft, fluffy, and ill-defined lesions on chest X-ray may suggest active tuberculosis, while the absence of upper lobe fibrosis may argue against lymphoma or radiotherapy-induced fibrosis. Pulmonary nodules and lung fibrosis at the lung bases are more typical of rheumatoid lung disease, but calcified nodes with upper lobe fibrosis are unusual. Bronchial carcinoma may be a concern given the patient’s age and smoking history, but typically lymph nodes are not calcified. Invasive aspergillosis is more likely in immunosuppressed patients and can be detected by a CT scan and a serum galactomannan test. A comprehensive differential diagnosis can guide further evaluation and management of this complex case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      278
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 44-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for breast cancer has collapsed and...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for breast cancer has collapsed and has been brought to the Emergency Department. Upon regaining consciousness, she reports experiencing chest pain, shortness of breath, and reduced exercise capacity for the past 3 days. During auscultation, a loud pulmonary second heart sound is detected. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals right axis deviation and tall R-waves with T-wave inversion in V1-V3. The chest X-ray appears normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple pulmonary emboli

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Collapse and Reduced Exercise Capacity

      A patient presents with collapse and reduced exercise capacity. Upon examination, there is evidence of right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary hypertension (loud P2). The following are potential diagnoses:

      1. Multiple Pulmonary Emboli: This is the most likely cause, especially given the patient’s underlying cancer that predisposes to deep vein thrombosis. A computed tomography pulmonary angiography is the investigation of choice.

      2. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM): While HCM could present with collapse and ECG changes, it is less common and not known to cause shortness of breath. The patient’s risk factors of malignancy, symptoms of shortness of breath, and signs of a loud pulmonary second heart sound make pulmonary embolism more likely than HCM.

      3. Idiopathic Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: This condition can present with reduced exercise capacity, chest pain, and syncope, loud P2, and features of right ventricular hypertrophy. However, it is less common, and the patient has an obvious predisposing factor to thrombosis, making pulmonary emboli a more likely diagnosis.

      4. Angina: Angina typically presents with exertional chest pain and breathlessness, which is not consistent with the patient’s history.

      5. Ventricular Tachycardia: While ventricular tachycardia can cause collapse, it does not explain any of the other findings.

      In summary, multiple pulmonary emboli are the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms, but other potential diagnoses should also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      125.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 54-year-old smoker comes to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old smoker comes to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and cough. He reports experiencing more difficulty breathing and a sharp pain in his third and fourth ribs. Upon examination, a chest x-ray reveals an enlargement on the right side of his hilum. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchogenic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Bronchogenic Carcinoma

      The patient’s heavy smoking history, recent onset of cough, and bony pain strongly suggest bronchogenic carcinoma. The appearance of the chest X-ray further supports this diagnosis. While COPD can also cause cough and dyspnea, it is typically accompanied by audible wheezing and the presence of a hilar mass is inconsistent with this diagnosis. Neither tuberculosis nor lung collapse are indicated by the patient’s history or radiographic findings. Hyperparathyroidism is not a consideration unless hypercalcemia is present. Overall, the evidence points towards a diagnosis of bronchogenic carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      109.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 52-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the Emergency Department with an acute exacerbation. He is experiencing severe shortness of breath and his oxygen saturation levels are at 74% on room air. The medical team initiates treatment with 15 litres of high-flow oxygen and later transitions him to controlled oxygen supplementation via a 28% venturi mask. What is the optimal target range for his oxygen saturation levels?

      Your Answer: 88–92%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oxygen Saturation Targets for Patients with COPD

      Patients with COPD have specific oxygen saturation targets that differ from those without respiratory problems. The correct range for a COPD patient is 88-92%, as they rely on low oxygen concentrations to drive their respiratory effort. Giving them too much oxygen can potentially remove their drive to breathe and worsen their respiratory situation. In contrast, unwell individuals who are not at risk of type 2 respiratory failure have a target of 94-98%. A saturation target of 80% is too low and can cause hypoxia and damage to end organs. Saturations of 90-94% may indicate a need for oxygen therapy, but it may still be too high for a patient with COPD. It is vital to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) in hypoxia to check if the patient is a chronic CO2 retainer. Understanding these targets is crucial in managing patients with COPD and ensuring their respiratory effort is not compromised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 21-year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department by paramedics following...

    Correct

    • A 21-year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department by paramedics following an assault. On examination, there are two puncture wounds on the posterior chest wall. The ambulance crew believe the patient was attacked with a screwdriver. He is currently extremely short of breath, haemodynamically unstable, and his oxygen saturations are falling despite high-flow oxygen. There are reduced breath sounds in the right hemithorax.
      What is the most appropriate first step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Needle decompression of right hemithorax

      Explanation:

      Management of Tension Pneumothorax in Penetrating Chest Trauma

      Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention in patients with penetrating chest trauma. The following steps should be taken:

      1. Clinical Diagnosis: Falling oxygen saturations, cardiovascular compromise, and reduced breath sounds in the affected hemithorax are suggestive of tension pneumothorax. This is a clinical diagnosis.

      2. Needle Decompression: Immediate needle decompression with a large bore cannula placed into the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line is required. This is a temporizing measure to provide time for placement of a chest drain.

      3. Urgent Chest Radiograph: A chest radiograph may be readily available, but it should not delay decompression of the tension pneumothorax. It should be delayed until placement of the chest drain.

      4. Placement of Chest Drain: This is the definitive treatment of a tension pneumothorax, but immediate needle decompression should take place first.

      5. Contact On-Call Anaesthetist: Invasive ventilation by an anaesthetist will not improve the patient’s condition.

      6. Avoid Non-Invasive Ventilation: Non-invasive ventilation would worsen the tension pneumothorax and should be avoided.

      In summary, prompt recognition and management of tension pneumothorax are crucial in patients with penetrating chest trauma. Needle decompression followed by chest drain placement is the definitive treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      102.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are reviewing a patient who attends the clinic with a respiratory disorder.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient who attends the clinic with a respiratory disorder.
      Which of the following conditions would be suitable for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) for an elderly patient?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Conditions and Oxygen Therapy: Guidelines for Treatment

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), opiate toxicity, asthma, croup, and myasthenia gravis are respiratory conditions that may require oxygen therapy. The British Thoracic Society recommends assessing the need for home oxygen therapy in COPD patients with severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturation of 92% or below when breathing air. Opiate toxicity can cause respiratory compromise, which may require naloxone, but this needs to be considered carefully in palliative patients. Asthmatic patients who are acutely unwell and require oxygen should be admitted to hospital for assessment, treatment, and ventilation support. Croup, a childhood respiratory infection, may require hospital admission if oxygen therapy is needed. Myasthenia gravis may cause neuromuscular respiratory failure during a myasthenic crisis, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring intubation and ventilator support and not amenable to home oxygen therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      128
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with fever, dyspnoea and consolidation at...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with fever, dyspnoea and consolidation at the left lower base. She is commenced on antibiotics. A few days later, she deteriorates and a chest X-ray reveals a large pleural effusion, with consolidation on the left side.
      What is the most important investigation to perform next?

      Your Answer: Pleural aspiration

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Investigations for a Unilateral Pleural Effusion

      When a patient presents with a unilateral pleural effusion, the recommended first investigation is pleural aspiration. This procedure allows for the analysis of the fluid, including cytology, biochemical analysis, Gram staining, and culture and sensitivity. By classifying the effusion as a transudate or an exudate, further management can be guided.

      While a blood culture may be helpful if the patient has a fever, pleural aspiration is still the more appropriate next investigation. A CT scan may be useful at some point to outline the extent of the consolidation and effusion, but it would not change management at this stage.

      Bronchoscopy may be necessary if a tumour is suspected, but it is not required based on the information provided. Thoracoscopy may be used if pleural aspiration is inconclusive, but it is a more invasive procedure. Therefore, pleural aspiration should be performed first.

      In summary, pleural aspiration is the recommended first investigation for a unilateral pleural effusion, as it provides valuable information for further management. Other investigations may be necessary depending on the specific case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      121.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old woman with known asthma presents to the Emergency Department with severe...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman with known asthma presents to the Emergency Department with severe breathlessness and wheeze.
      Which of the following is the most concerning finding on examination and initial investigations?

      Your Answer: PaCO2 5.5 kPa

      Explanation:

      Assessing the Severity of an Acute Asthma Exacerbation

      When assessing the severity of an acute asthma exacerbation, several factors must be considered. A PaCO2 level of 5.5 kPa in an acutely exacerbating asthmatic is a worrying sign and is a marker of a life-threatening exacerbation. A respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute or higher is a sign of acute severe asthma, while poor respiratory effort is a sign of life-threatening asthma. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can also be used to help assess the severity of an acute exacerbation of asthma. A PEFR of 33-35% best or predicted is a sign of acute severe asthma, while a PEFR < 33% best or predicted is a sign of life-threatening asthma. A heart rate of 140 bpm or higher is a feature of acute severe asthma, while arrhythmia and/or hypotension are signs of life-threatening asthma. Inability to complete sentences in one breath is a sign of acute severe asthma, while an altered conscious level is a sign of life-threatening asthma. By considering these factors, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of an acute asthma exacerbation and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      110.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old woman has had bowel surgery two days ago. She is currently...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman has had bowel surgery two days ago. She is currently on postoperative day one, and you are called to see her as she has developed sudden-onset shortness of breath. She denies any coughing but complains of chest discomfort. The surgical scar appears clean. Upon examination, the patient is afebrile; vital signs are stable other than rapid and irregular heartbeat and upon auscultation, the chest sounds are clear. The patient does not have any other significant past medical history, aside from her breast cancer for which she had a mastectomy five years ago. She has no family history of any heart disease.
      What is the patient’s most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Sudden Onset Shortness of Breath postoperatively

      When a patient experiences sudden onset shortness of breath postoperatively, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. One possible diagnosis is pulmonary embolism, which is supported by the patient’s chest discomfort. Anaphylaxis is another potential diagnosis, but there is no mention of an allergen exposure or other signs of a severe allergic reaction. Pneumonia is unlikely given the absence of fever and clear chest sounds. Lung fibrosis is also an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents gradually and is associated with restrictive respiratory diseases. Finally, cellulitis is not a probable diagnosis as there are no signs of infection and the surgical wound is clean. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s sudden onset shortness of breath.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      88.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 85-year-old man with chronic COPD presents for a review of his home...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man with chronic COPD presents for a review of his home oxygen therapy. The following results are from his arterial blood gas (ABG):
      pH 7.37 (normal range 7.35–7.45)
      pa(O2) 7.6 (normal range 10–14 kPa)
      pa(CO2) 8 (normal range 4.0–6.0 kPa)
      HCO3 37 (normal range 22–26 mmol)
      base excess +6 (normal range −2 to +2 mmol).
      Which of the following best describe this man’s blood gas result?

      Your Answer: Compensation for respiratory acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding ABGs: A Five-Step Approach and Mnemonic

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis is a crucial tool in assessing a patient’s respiratory and metabolic status. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a five-step approach to interpreting ABGs:

      1. Assess the patient.
      2. Assess their oxygenation (pa(O2) should be >10 kPa).
      3. Determine if the patient is acidotic (pH < 7.35) or alkalotic (pH > 7.45).
      4. Assess respiratory status by determining if their pa(CO2) is high or low.
      5. Assess metabolic status by determining if their bicarbonate (HCO3) is high or low.

      To aid in understanding ABGs, the mnemonic ROME can be used:

      – Respiratory = Opposite: A low pH and high pa(CO2) indicate respiratory acidosis, while a high pH and low pa(CO2) indicate respiratory alkalosis.
      – Metabolic = Equivalent: A high pH and high HCO3 indicate metabolic alkalosis, while a low pH and low HCO3 indicate metabolic acidosis.

      Compensation for respiratory acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease is characterized by a normal pH, high pa(CO2), and high HCO3, indicating renal compensation. In contrast, compensation for respiratory alkalosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease would show a low pa(CO2) and a high pH.

      Partial compensation for respiratory acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease is characterized by a high pa(CO2) and a high HCO3, with a normal pH indicating full compensation and a mildly altered pH indicating partial compensation. Compensation for metabolic acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease is not applicable, as this condition would present with low HCO3 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      74
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (8/10) 80%
Passmed