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Question 1
Correct
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A 50-year-old man arrived at the Emergency Department with massive haematemesis. An emergency endoscopy revealed a bleeding gastric ulcer located on the lesser curvature of the stomach. Which vessel is most likely affected?
Your Answer: The left gastric artery
Explanation:Arteries that supply the stomach: A brief overview
The stomach is a vital organ that requires a constant supply of blood to function properly. There are several arteries that supply blood to different parts of the stomach. Here is a brief overview of these arteries:
1. Left gastric artery: This artery supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach along with the right gastric artery. Bleeding at the lesser curvature of the stomach is most likely to be caused by these two arteries. The left gastric artery is one of the three branches that arise from the coeliac trunk.
2. Right gastroepiploic artery: This artery, along with the left gastroepiploic artery, supplies the greater curvature of the stomach.
3. Left gastroepiploic artery: This artery, along with the right gastroepiploic artery, supplies the greater curvature of the stomach.
4. Gastroduodenal artery: This artery is a branch off the common hepatic artery that supplies the duodenum, head of the pancreas, and greater curvature of the stomach.
5. Short gastric arteries: These are four or five small arteries from the splenic artery that supply the fundus of the stomach.
Understanding the different arteries that supply the stomach is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions related to the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to Gastroenterology with haematemesis and is found to have oesophageal varices on endoscopy. He denies any history of alcohol consumption. On examination, he has a small liver with splenomegaly. His blood pressure is 130/90 mmHg and heart rate is 88 beats per minute. Laboratory investigations reveal low albumin levels, elevated bilirubin, ALT, AST, and ALP levels, and high ferritin levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis
Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis
Explanation:Liver Diseases and Their Differentiating Factors
Liver diseases can lead to cirrhosis and eventually portal hypertension and oesophageal varices. However, differentiating factors can help identify the specific condition.
Haemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive condition that results in abnormal iron metabolism and deposition of iron in body tissues. Elevated ferritin levels and bronze skin coloration are common indicators.
Primary biliary cholangitis can also lead to cirrhosis and portal hypertension, but the ALP would be raised, and the patient would more likely be a woman.
Wilson’s disease is a genetically inherited condition that results in abnormal copper metabolism and deposition of copper in the tissues. Kayser–Fleischer rings in the eyes, psychiatric symptoms, and cognitive impairment are common indicators.
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is associated with metabolic syndrome and high-fat diets. Ferritin levels would not be expected to be raised.
Chronic viral hepatitis caused by hepatitis B or C can result in cirrhosis and portal hypertension. A history of injection drug use is a common indicator, and ferritin levels would not be raised.
In conclusion, identifying differentiating factors can help diagnose specific liver diseases and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man patient who has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to his general practitioner with complaints of white lesions in his mouth.
On examination, the white lesions inside the patient’s mouth can easily be scraped off with minimal bleeding. The patient does not have cervical lymph node enlargement and is otherwise well.
Which of the following options is the most appropriate step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Amphotericin B
Correct Answer: Nystatin
Explanation:Management of Oral Candidiasis: Understanding the Treatment Options and Indications for Referral
Oral candidiasis is a common fungal infection that can affect individuals of all ages, particularly infants, older patients who wear dentures, diabetics, and immunosuppressed patients. The infection is caused by the yeast Candida albicans and typically presents as white lesions in the mouth that can be easily scraped off with a tongue blade.
The first-line treatment for localised disease involves topical treatment with nystatin suspension, which is swished and swallowed in the mouth three to four times a day. However, immunosuppressed patients may suffer from widespread C. albicans infections, such as oesophageal candidiasis and candidaemia, which require more aggressive treatment with intravenous antifungal medications like amphotericin B.
It is important to note that testing for Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is not required in patients with isolated oral thrush. However, immediate specialist referral would be necessary if oropharyngeal cancer was being considered in the differential diagnosis. The two-week wait referral is also indicated for unexplained oral ulceration lasting more than three weeks and persistent, unexplained cervical lymph node enlargement.
In conclusion, understanding the appropriate treatment options and indications for referral is crucial in managing oral candidiasis effectively. Topical treatment with nystatin suspension is the first-line therapy for localised disease, while more aggressive treatment with intravenous antifungal medications is necessary for disseminated fungal infections. Referral to a specialist is necessary in cases where oropharyngeal cancer is suspected or when there is unexplained oral ulceration or persistent cervical lymph node enlargement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of losing 1 stone in weight over the past three months. Apart from this, he has no significant medical history. During the physical examination, his abdomen is soft, and no palpable masses are detected. A normal PR examination is also observed. The patient's blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 80 g/L (120-160) and an MCV of 70 fL (80-96). What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Ultrasound scan of abdomen and colonoscopy
Correct Answer: Upper GI endoscopy and colonoscopy
Explanation:Possible GI Malignancy in a Man with Weight Loss and Microcytic Anaemia
This man is experiencing weight loss and has an unexplained microcytic anaemia. The most probable cause of his blood loss is from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, as there is no other apparent explanation. This could be due to an occult GI malignancy, which is why the recommended initial investigations are upper and lower GI endoscopy. These tests will help to identify any potential sources of bleeding in the GI tract and determine if there is an underlying malignancy. It is important to diagnose and treat any potential malignancy as early as possible to improve the patient’s prognosis. Therefore, prompt investigation and management are crucial in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Correct
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A geriatric patient is admitted with right upper quadrant pain and jaundice. The following investigation results are obtained:
Investigation Result Normal range
Bilirubin 154 µmol/l 3–17 µmol/l
Conjugated bilirubin 110 mmol/l 3 mmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 10 IU/l 1–21 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase 200 IU/l 50–160 IU/l
Prothrombin time 55 s 25–41 s
Ultrasound report: ‘A dilated bile duct is noted, no other abnormality seen’
Urine: bilirubin +++
What is the most likely cause of the jaundice?Your Answer: Stone in common bile duct
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of obstructive liver function tests
Obstructive liver function tests, characterized by elevated conjugated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase, can be caused by various conditions. Here are some possible differential diagnoses:
– Stone in common bile duct: This can obstruct the flow of bile and cause jaundice, as well as dilate the bile duct. The absence of urobilinogen in urine and the correction of prothrombin time with vitamin K support the diagnosis.
– Haemolytic anaemia: This can lead to increased breakdown of red blood cells and elevated unconjugated bilirubin, but usually does not affect alkaline phosphatase.
– Hepatitis: This can cause inflammation of the liver and elevated transaminases, but usually does not affect conjugated bilirubin or alkaline phosphatase.
– Liver cirrhosis: This can result from chronic liver damage and fibrosis, but usually does not cause obstructive liver function tests unless there is associated biliary obstruction or cholestasis.
– Paracetamol overdose: This can cause liver damage and elevated transaminases, but usually does not affect conjugated bilirubin or alkaline phosphatase unless there is associated liver failure or cholestasis.Therefore, a careful clinical evaluation and additional tests may be needed to confirm the underlying cause of obstructive liver function tests and guide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man has arrived at the Emergency Department complaining of fever, jaundice and malaise over the last three days. His initial lab results indicate elevated liver enzymes and a decreased platelet count. He has not traveled recently. The possibility of autoimmune hepatitis is being evaluated. What antibodies are the most specific for this condition?
Your Answer: Hepatitis A Immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies
Correct Answer: Anti-smooth muscle antibodies
Explanation:Differentiating Autoimmune Liver Disease: Antibody Tests
When a patient presents with abnormal liver function tests and a young age, autoimmune liver disease is a possible diagnosis. To confirm this, the most specific antibody test is for anti-smooth muscle antibodies, which are positive in about 80% of patients with autoimmune liver disease.
On the other hand, anti-mitochondrial antibodies are the hallmark of primary biliary cholangitis, with over 95% of patients being subtype M2 positive. Hepatitis A IgM antibodies are elevated in patients with acute hepatitis A infection, but not in autoimmune liver disease.
While raised anti-nuclear antibodies (ANAs) are seen in many autoimmune conditions, they are not very specific for autoimmune hepatitis. Positive ANAs are also seen in other diseases like systemic sclerosis, rheumatoid arthritis, and Sjögren syndrome. Similarly, anti-Smith antibodies are seen in about 20% of patients with systemic lupus erythematosus but are not specific for autoimmune liver disease.
In conclusion, antibody tests play a crucial role in differentiating autoimmune liver disease from other liver conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old male with a history of alcoholism was admitted to the hospital with jaundice and altered consciousness. He had been previously admitted for ascites and jaundice. Upon investigation, his bilirubin levels were found to be 44 µmol/L (5.1-22), serum albumin levels were 28 g/L (40-50), and his prothrombin time was 21 seconds (13 seconds). The patient had a fluid thrill in his abdomen and exhibited asterixis. Although he was awake, he was unable to distinguish between day and night. What is the patient's Child-Pugh score (CTP)?
Your Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 12
Explanation:The Child-Turcotte-Pugh score (CTP) is used to assess disease severity in cirrhosis of liver. It consists of five clinical measures, each scored from 1 to 3 according to severity. The minimum score is 5 and maximum score is 15. Once a score has been calculated, the patient is graded A, B, or C for severity. The CTP score is primarily used to decide the need for liver transplantation. However, some criticisms of this scoring system highlight the fact that each of the five categories is given equal weighting, which is not always appropriate. Additionally, in two specific diseases, primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) and primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC), the bilirubin cut-off levels in the table are markedly different.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old yoga instructor presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of feeling constantly fatigued. During the consultation, she also mentions experiencing widespread, non-specific itching. Upon examination, the GP observes generalised excoriation, but no other significant findings. Blood tests reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase level, leading to a suspicion of primary biliary cholangitis. What is the most specific symptom of primary biliary cholangitis?
Your Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:Autoantibodies and their association with autoimmune conditions
Autoimmune conditions are characterized by the body’s immune system attacking its own tissues and organs. Autoantibodies, or antibodies that target the body’s own cells, are often present in these conditions and can be used as diagnostic markers. Here are some examples of autoantibodies and their association with specific autoimmune conditions:
1. Anti-mitochondrial antibodies (type M2) are highly specific for primary biliary cholangitis, an autoimmune condition affecting the liver.
2. Anti-smooth muscle antibodies are associated with type 1 autoimmune hepatitis, a condition in which the immune system attacks the liver.
3. Anti-liver kidney microsomal antibodies are classically associated with type 2 autoimmune hepatitis, another condition affecting the liver.
4. Anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a systemic autoimmune condition that can affect multiple organs.
5. p-ANCA antibodies occur in several autoimmune conditions, including microscopic polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old, malnourished patient needs to have a nasogastric tube (NGT) inserted for enteral feeding. What is the most important measure to take before beginning the feeding plan?
Your Answer: Observe for the presence of respiratory distress, as its absence is a reliable indicator of correct placement
Correct Answer: Chest radiograph
Explanation:Confirming Nasogastric Tube Placement: The Role of Chest Radiograph
Confirming the placement of a nasogastric tube (NGT) is crucial to prevent potential harm to the patient. While pH testing was previously used, chest radiograph has become the preferred method due to its increasing availability and negligible radiation exposure. The NGT has two main indications: enteral feeding/medication administration and stomach decompression. A chest radiograph should confirm that the NGT is passed down the midline, past the carina, past the level of the diaphragm, deviates to the left, and the tip is seen in the stomach. Respiratory distress absence is a reliable indicator of correct placement, while aspirating or auscultating the tube is unreliable. Abdominal radiographs are not recommended due to their inability to visualize the entire length of the NGT and the unnecessary radiation risk to the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Correct
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What statement is true about infants who have gastroenteritis?
Your Answer: Should be admitted to hospital if they are unable to tolerate fluid orally
Explanation:Management of Gastroenteritis in Children
Gastroenteritis is a common illness in children that is usually caused by a viral infection. Antibiotics are not necessary in most cases as they are only effective against bacterial infections. Changing formula feeds is also not recommended as it may cause further digestive problems. However, if the child is unable to tolerate oral fluids, intravenous fluid therapy may be necessary to prevent dehydration.
Lactose intolerance is a common occurrence in children with gastroenteritis, but it is not inevitable. It is important to monitor the child’s symptoms and adjust their diet accordingly. Barium meals are not useful in the investigation of gastroenteritis as they are more commonly used to diagnose structural abnormalities in the digestive system.
In summary, the management of gastroenteritis in children involves providing supportive care such as oral rehydration therapy and monitoring for signs of dehydration. Antibiotics are not necessary unless there is a bacterial infection present. It is important to be aware of the possibility of lactose intolerance and adjust the child’s diet accordingly. Barium meals are not useful in the investigation of gastroenteritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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