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  • Question 1 - Which of the following would not increase the rate of diffusion of a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would not increase the rate of diffusion of a substance across a lipid membrane such as the cell wall?

      Your Answer: Area of the membrane

      Correct Answer: Thickness of the membrane

      Explanation:

      Diffusion and Fick’s Law

      Diffusion is a natural process that occurs when molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. This process is passive and random, meaning that it does not require any external energy input. Fick’s Law states that diffusion occurs more quickly across a large, permeable, and thin membrane. For example, in lung disease, the thickening of the alveolar epithelial barrier can lead to a poor carbon monoxide transfer coefficient because the thicker membrane slows down the diffusion process. the principles of diffusion and Fick’s Law can help us better understand how molecules move and interact in various biological and chemical processes. By optimizing the conditions for diffusion, we can improve the efficiency of many natural and artificial systems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      55.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old male complains of a painful and swollen right calf. The possibility...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male complains of a painful and swollen right calf. The possibility of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being considered. What tests should be conducted to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CT of the leg veins

      Correct Answer: Dopplers of the leg veins

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Methods for Deep Vein Thrombosis

      When it comes to diagnosing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), there are several methods available. The most common ones are Doppler studies and venography. Doppler studies use B mode ultrasonography to examine the venous system, while venography involves injecting a contrast dye into the veins and taking X-rays. CT scans are not typically used for DVT diagnosis because they require contrast and expose the patient to radiation. D-Dimer concentrations can help rule out DVT if they are negative, but they cannot diagnose it. MRI scans are useful for examining soft tissues and bones, but they are not the best option for visualizing the vasculature. Finally, oxygen saturation of the limbs is not a reliable diagnostic method because tissue perfusion can be the same even if there is arterial disease. Overall, Doppler studies and venography are the most effective methods for diagnosing DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the primary role of the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary role of the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell?

      Your Answer: To produce the enzymes that catabolise ATP production for the cell

      Correct Answer: To regulate gene transcription and translation

      Explanation:

      The Nucleus: Control Centre of the Cell

      The nucleus is the control centre of the cell, responsible for regulating gene transcription from DNA into mRNA and from mRNA into peptide/protein synthesis. Eukaryotic cells have a membrane-enclosed organised nucleus, while prokaryotic cells lack this structure. The nuclear structure consists of an outer and inner nuclear membrane that form the nuclear envelope, which has nuclear pores allowing the movement of water-soluble molecules. Inside the nucleus is the nucleoplasm containing the nuclear lamina, a dense fibrillar network that acts as a skeleton and regulates DNA replication and cell division. The nucleus also contains nucleoli, structures involved in the formation of ribosomes responsible for mRNA translation.

      Although the incorrect answer options above describe processes in which the nucleus is involved, none of them constitutes its main function within the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What are the primary constituents of the cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the primary constituents of the cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells?

      Your Answer: Cilia, flagella and lamellipodia

      Correct Answer: Microfilaments, intermediate filaments and microtubules

      Explanation:

      The Eukaryotic Cytoskeleton: A Structural Support System

      The eukaryotic cytoskeleton is a network of structures that provide structural support to the cell. It helps the cell maintain its shape, protects it from external pressure, and performs intracellular transport. The cytoskeleton is made up of three major structures: microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules. Microfilaments are thin double helices made up of actin and are involved in pressure resistance and cell motility. Intermediate filaments have a more complex structure and maintain cell shape while bearing tension. Microtubules are hollow cylinders made up of alpha and beta tubulin proteins and are involved in intracellular transport, cell movement, and form the mitotic spindle during cytokinesis.

      Cilia, flagella, and lamellipodia are structures that are not part of the cell’s cytoskeleton but are made up of components of it and perform unique functions such as cell movement and extracellular sensing. Kinesin and dynein are motor proteins that support microtubule function. Microfilaments and alpha/beta microtubules are incorrect because they leave out intermediate filaments. Tubulin and actin are proteins of microtubules and microfilaments, respectively, but myosin is a motility protein involved in muscle contraction. The eukaryotic cytoskeleton is an essential component of the cell that provides structural support and enables various cellular functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 10-year-old patient presents with recurrent skin cancer and is diagnosed with xeroderma...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old patient presents with recurrent skin cancer and is diagnosed with xeroderma pigmentosum. What is the defective biochemical mechanism in this disease?

      Your Answer: DNA polymerisation

      Correct Answer: DNA excision repair

      Explanation:

      Xeroderma Pigmentosum and DNA Repair

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) found in the skin cells can absorb ultraviolet (UV) light, which can cause the formation of pyrimidine dimers. These dimers are removed through a process called excision repair, where the damaged DNA is cut out and replaced with new DNA. However, if this process fails, it can lead to mutations in genes that suppress tumors or promote their growth, potentially leading to cancer.

      Xeroderma pigmentosum is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. This means that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent, to develop the disorder. Generally, disorders that affect metabolism or DNA replication on a cellular or genetic level are inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. On the other hand, genetic disorders that affect larger structural components are usually inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. While there are exceptions to these rules, they can serve as a helpful guide for exam preparation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      18.6
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  • Question 6 - What occurs during metaphase II of meiosis? ...

    Correct

    • What occurs during metaphase II of meiosis?

      Your Answer: The cell's chromosomes attach to the meiotic spindle to divide into chromatids

      Explanation:

      The Process of Meiosis

      Meiosis is a complex process that involves two major cycles. The first cycle, meiosis I, condenses the reproductive cell’s DNA into chromosomes that are then replicated, creating two pairs of each original chromosome. These pairs are then separated, and the cell divides with one chromosome in each daughter cell. The second cycle, meiosis II, splits the chromosomes into individual chromatids, which are then separated as in meiosis I. This separation is facilitated by a spindle, a set of parallel fibers that attach to the center of each chromosome and split into two, making the chromatids travel on the polar opposite sides of the cell. The cell then divides again, giving rise to four haploid daughter cells.

      During meiosis II, the chromosomes align on the spindle in metaphase II. Tetrads separate during anaphase I and line up during metaphase I. Sister chromatids separate on the meiotic spindle during anaphase II. Finally, chromosomes uncoil and lengthen at the end of meiosis, in telophase II. This process is essential for the production of gametes and the continuation of sexual reproduction in many organisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the end result of meiosis in a cell? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the end result of meiosis in a cell?

      Your Answer: 4 diploid cells

      Correct Answer: 4 haploid cells

      Explanation:

      Meiosis

      Meiosis is a crucial process that occurs in the genetic cells of eukaryotic organisms. Its primary purpose is to recombine genes, which results in genetic variation while also ensuring genetic preservation. Although meiosis shares some similarities with mitosis, it is restricted to genetic cells, also known as gametes, of eukaryotic organisms.

      During meiosis, a gamete duplicates each of its chromosomes and divides into two diploid cells. These cells then divide into four haploid cells by the end of the second stage of meiosis (telophase II and cytokinesis). These haploid cells are either sperm cells (male) or eggs (female) in mammals. When these haploid cells fuse together, they produce a diploid zygote that contains two copies of parental genes.

      In summary, meiosis is a crucial process that ensures genetic variation and preservation in eukaryotic organisms. It involves the duplication and division of genetic cells into haploid cells, which can then fuse together to produce a diploid zygote.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      4.9
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  • Question 8 - What factor causes a shift of the oxygen dissociation curve to the left?...

    Correct

    • What factor causes a shift of the oxygen dissociation curve to the left?

      Your Answer: Increased pH

      Explanation:

      The Oxygen Dissociation Curve and its Effects on Oxygen Saturation

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graph that compares the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (Hb) at different partial pressures of oxygen. When more oxygen is needed by the tissues, the curve shifts to the right. This means that at the same partial pressure of oxygen, less oxygen is bound to Hb, allowing it to be released to the tissues. This effect is caused by increased levels of CO2 and temperature, which assist in the transfer of oxygen to more metabolically active tissues. Additionally, increased levels of 2,3-DPG also aid in this process.

      On the other hand, a left shift in the curve reflects conditions where there is less need for oxygen in the tissues, such as in the lungs. This allows for increased binding of oxygen to Hb, allowing it to be taken up before transport to the tissues that require it. Overall, the oxygen dissociation curve plays a crucial role in regulating oxygen saturation in the body and ensuring that oxygen is delivered to the tissues that need it most.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What type of molecule does haemoglobin belong to? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of molecule does haemoglobin belong to?

      Your Answer: Tertiary protein structure

      Correct Answer: Quaternary protein structure

      Explanation:

      The Structure and Functions of Proteins

      Proteins are complex molecules that can vary in structure from single amino acids to large, folded molecules. Amino acids are joined together by peptide bonds to form dipeptides and polypeptides. More complex molecules can also have disulphide bonds and ionic bonds. The primary structure of a protein is a simple amino acid chain, while the secondary structure is a specific shape such as a helix or pleated sheet. The tertiary structure is a more globular shape, arranged by ionic, hydrogen, and disulphide bonds, and hydrophobic interactions. The quaternary structure is a complex protein containing several polypeptide chains held together by interactions.

      Proteins have multiple roles within the human body, including as hormones, food substrates, enzymes, receptor molecules, muscles, cell membrane constituents, carrier molecules in blood, and determinants of oncotic/osmotic pressures. However, proteins can be easily damaged by denaturation, which is the loss of the specific three-dimensional shape of a molecule. Denaturation can be caused by heat, salts, heavy metals, solvents, detergents, and extremes of pH.

      In summary, proteins are essential molecules with a diverse range of structures and functions within the human body. their structure and potential for denaturation is crucial for maintaining their proper function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      18.1
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  • Question 10 - What is the term for the process described below in laboratory testing?

    Enzymes...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term for the process described below in laboratory testing?

      Enzymes are immobilised on a solid surface, such as a bead or well, and allowed to come into contact with the sample. After washing, another enzyme is added with a label allowing quantitation of the analyte.

      Your Answer: Chromatography

      Correct Answer: Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

      Explanation:

      ELISA: A Common Immunoassay in Medical Diagnostic Testing

      An enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a type of immunoassay that is widely used in medical diagnostic testing. This method uses antibodies to identify and/or quantify the analyte being tested. The ELISA process involves several steps, including coating a plate with the antigen, adding the patient’s sample, washing the plate to remove any unbound material, adding an enzyme-linked antibody, washing the plate again, and adding a substrate to produce a measurable signal.

      Over time, many modifications have been made to the ELISA, making it a versatile tool in the laboratory for measuring various analytes. Some of the substances that can be measured using immunoassays include thyroid hormone, testosterone, oestrogen, troponin, and vitamin D. The ELISA has been around for a long time and is still widely used today due to its accuracy, sensitivity, and specificity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A couple in their late 20s comes to your clinic seeking advice regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A couple in their late 20s comes to your clinic seeking advice regarding the possibility of their children inheriting cystic fibrosis. The husband has a confirmed diagnosis of the condition, but the carrier status of the wife is unknown.

      What is the likelihood of any of their offspring being affected by cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 2.50%

      Explanation:

      Cystic Fibrosis Inheritance

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that affects the chloride ion channels, leading to the thickening of respiratory and other secretions. It is an autosomal recessive condition, which means that a person must inherit two copies of the defective gene, one from each parent, to develop the disease. The most common defective allele is carried by approximately 1 in 20 people.

      If a man with CF has children with a woman who does not carry the recessive gene, then none of their children will be affected by the disease. However, they will all be carriers of the CF gene. On the other hand, if the woman is a carrier of the CF gene, there is a 50% chance that each child will inherit one copy of the defective gene from each parent and be affected by the disease. The remaining 50% of the children will inherit one copy of the defective gene and one normal gene, making them carriers of the CF gene but not affected by the disease.

      In summary, the probability of any child being affected by CF is 2.5% if one parent has the defective gene and the other does not. It is important for individuals who are carriers of the CF gene to be aware of their status and seek genetic counseling before planning to have children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the main role of the Golgi apparatus in eukaryotic cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main role of the Golgi apparatus in eukaryotic cells?

      Your Answer: Synthesises proteins

      Correct Answer: Process of proteins

      Explanation:

      The Golgi Apparatus, Cell Division, and Homeostasis

      The Golgi apparatus is a structure found in eukaryotic cells that consists of flattened membrane stacks. Its primary function is to modify proteins that have been synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, preparing them for secretion or transport within the cell. However, the Golgi apparatus is not directly involved in cell division, which is controlled by the nucleus.

      Cell homeostasis, on the other hand, is primarily maintained by membrane-embedded channels or proteins such as the sodium-potassium pump. This mechanism ensures that the cell’s internal environment remains stable. The sodium-potassium pump is an active transport mechanism that involves the binding of three intracellular sodium ions to the protein. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) donates a phosphate group to the protein, which causes it to change shape and release the sodium ions out of the cell.

      The protein then accepts two extracellular potassium ions, and the donated phosphate group detaches, causing the protein to revert to its original shape. This allows the potassium ions to enter the cell, increasing the intracellular potassium concentration and decreasing the intracellular sodium concentration. This process is in contrast to the extracellular conditions.

      In summary, the Golgi apparatus modifies proteins for secretion or transport, while cell division is controlled by the nucleus. Cell homeostasis is maintained by membrane-embedded channels or proteins such as the sodium-potassium pump, which actively transports ions to stabilize the cell’s internal environment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the fundamental meaning of carbohydrate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the fundamental meaning of carbohydrate?

      Your Answer: A compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in any proportion.

      Correct Answer: A compound following the formula Cx(H2O)y

      Explanation:

      Carbohydrates: Building Blocks of Energy and Storage

      Carbohydrates are organic compounds made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, with a general formula of Cx(H2O)y. They can be classified as either aldehydes or ketones and contain multiple hydroxyl groups. Monosaccharides are the simplest form of carbohydrates, consisting of a single unit. They are categorized based on the number of carbon atoms they contain, with trioses having three, pentoses having five, and hexoses having six carbon atoms. These monosaccharides are essential for energy production and building larger carbohydrate structures.

      Disaccharides are formed when two monosaccharides are joined together through a condensation reaction, releasing a water molecule. The most common disaccharides are lactose, maltose, and sucrose. Polysaccharides, on the other hand, are long, branched polymers made up of multiple single units. They serve as convenient storage molecules for energy reserves, such as glycogen in humans and starch in plants.

      In summary, carbohydrates are vital building blocks for energy production and storage in living organisms. Monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides all play important roles in maintaining the body’s energy balance and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which statement regarding microtubules is accurate in relation to Chediak-Higashi syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement regarding microtubules is accurate in relation to Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

      Your Answer: They have a fixed length

      Correct Answer: They are arranged in a 9+2 formation in cilia

      Explanation:

      Microtubules and Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

      Microtubules are structures composed of alpha and beta tubulin dimers that are arranged in a helix and can be added or removed to vary the length. They are found in flagella, mitotic spindles, and cilia, where they have a 9+2 arrangement. Chemotherapy agents, such as taxanes, target microtubules in breast cancer treatment.

      Chediak-Higashi syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition that presents with albinism, bleeding and bruising due to platelet dysfunction, and susceptibility to infections due to abnormal neutrophils. The LYST gene is responsible for lysosomal trafficking proteins and is affected in this syndrome.

      In summary, microtubules are important structures in various cellular processes and are targeted in cancer treatment. Chediak-Higashi syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that affects lysosomal trafficking proteins and presents with various symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      12.1
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old female patient presents to the vascular clinic for evaluation of varicose...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female patient presents to the vascular clinic for evaluation of varicose veins. During the assessment, a test is conducted to determine the site of incompetence. The patient is instructed to lie down, and her legs are raised to empty the veins. A constricting band is then placed below the sapheno-femoral junction, and the patient is asked to stand up to observe for varicose vein filling. What is the name of this test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tourniquet test

      Explanation:

      Tests for Varicose Veins and Arterial Insufficiency

      The Trendelenburg and tourniquet tests are both used to evaluate the site of incompetence in varicose veins at the sapheno-femoral junction. During the Trendelenburg test, the examiner applies pressure with their fingers over the junction, while in the tourniquet test, a tourniquet is placed just below the junction. If the veins fill rapidly upon standing, it suggests that the sapheno-femoral junction is not the source of the incompetence.

      Buerger’s test is used to assess the arterial circulation of the lower limb. The lower the angle at which blanching occurs, the more likely there is arterial insufficiency. This test is important in diagnosing peripheral artery disease.

      The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is another test used to assess arterial insufficiency. Blood pressure cuffs are used to measure the systolic blood pressure in the ankle and arm. The ratio of the two pressures is calculated, and a lower ratio indicates a higher degree of claudication.

      Finally, Perthe’s test is used to assess the patency of the deep femoral vein before varicose vein surgery. This test involves compressing the vein and observing the filling of the superficial veins. If the superficial veins fill quickly, it suggests that the deep femoral vein is patent and can be used for surgery.

      In summary, these tests are important in diagnosing and evaluating varicose veins and arterial insufficiency. They help healthcare professionals determine the best course of treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 16 - What is the most common method of assessing nutritional status in adults? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common method of assessing nutritional status in adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Body mass index

      Explanation:

      The Body Mass Index as a Measure of Nutritional Status

      The measurement and assessment of nutritional status can be challenging, and there is no single test that can provide a complete picture. However, the body mass index (BMI) is a commonly used measurement in clinical practice. The BMI is calculated by dividing a person’s weight in kilograms by their height in meters squared. This measure is used to assess adiposity and nutritional status, and it is simple and quick to calculate and interpret.

      Although the BMI is a convenient measure, it has limitations for assessing obesity in individual patients. It is best used to track trends in an individual patient’s BMI over time. In some cases, the BMI may overestimate fat mass in patients who are very tall or have a high proportion of lean tissue due to an active lifestyle. Additionally, the BMI may not be accurate for athletes and children.

      Other measurements, such as skin fold thickness and weight, can also be useful, but the BMI is generally considered the better option. The ponderal index is used specifically for children. It is important to note that albumin is not a reliable marker of nutritional status, as it can also be affected by inflammation.

      Overall, the BMI is a widely used measure of nutritional status and is recommended by the World Health Organization. However, it is important to consider its limitations and use it in conjunction with other measurements to obtain a more complete picture of a patient’s nutritional status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 17 - What are the potential clinical consequences of a lack of vitamin E? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the potential clinical consequences of a lack of vitamin E?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ataxia

      Explanation:

      Vitamin E Deficiency

      Vitamin E deficiency is a rare condition that is more likely to occur in individuals with problems affecting the absorption of dietary fats. This includes those with a history of bowel surgery, pancreatic insufficiency, and cystic fibrosis. Premature infants are also at a higher risk of developing this deficiency as vitamin E does not easily cross the placenta. However, supplementation with vitamin E can reverse the damage in some cases.

      The effects of vitamin E deficiency can be severe and can cause spinocerebellar degeneration, which includes limb ataxia, loss of joint position sense, loss of sensation of vibration, and loss of deep tendon reflexes. Additionally, it can cause degeneration of retinal pigments, leading to blindness. In premature infants, it can cause haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytosis, and oedema.

      Overall, vitamin E deficiency is crucial in preventing and treating its effects. It is important to identify individuals who are at a higher risk of developing this deficiency and provide them with appropriate supplementation to prevent any long-term damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 18 - What are the clinical consequences of a lack of vitamin A? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the clinical consequences of a lack of vitamin A?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dry conjunctiva

      Explanation:

      The Devastating Effects of Vitamin A Deficiency

      Vitamin A deficiency is a serious health concern that can lead to a range of devastating effects. One of the most common consequences is blindness, particularly in children. Poor night vision is often an early sign of this deficiency, which can progress to complete blindness if left untreated.

      In addition to blindness, vitamin A deficiency can also cause dry conjunctiva, a condition known as conjunctival xerosis. This occurs when the normally moist and fine conjunctiva becomes thickened and dysfunctional, leading to the formation of white plaques known as Bitot’s spots. Corneal ulceration can also occur as a result of this condition.

      The respiratory and gastrointestinal epithelia can also be affected by vitamin A deficiency, leading to reduced resistance to infection. This deficiency is a major public health issue in some parts of the world and is the single most common preventable cause of blindness. It is crucial to address this issue through education and access to vitamin A-rich foods and supplements.

      Overall, the devastating effects of vitamin A deficiency highlight the importance of proper nutrition and access to essential vitamins and minerals. By addressing this issue, we can help prevent blindness and improve overall health outcomes for individuals and communities around the world.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 19 - Of which cellular structure is the fibrillar centre a component? ...

    Incorrect

    • Of which cellular structure is the fibrillar centre a component?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The nucleolus

      Explanation:

      The Fibrillar Centre in the Nucleolus

      The fibrillar centre is a crucial component of the nucleolus, which is found in most metazoan nucleoli, particularly in higher eukaryotes. Along with the dense fibrillar components and the granular component, it forms the three major components of the nucleolus. During the end of mitosis, the fibrillar centre serves as a storage point for nucleolar ribosomal chromatin and associated ribonucleoprotein transcripts. As the nucleolus becomes active, the ribosomal chromatin and ribonucleoprotein transcripts begin to form the dense fibrillar components, which are more peripherally located and surround the fibrillar centres. The transcription zone for multiple copies of the pre-rRNA genes is the border between these two structures. It is important to note that the fibrillar centre is not a component of any of the cell structures mentioned in the incorrect answer options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 20 - A man in his forties comes in with chest pain resembling a heart...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his forties comes in with chest pain resembling a heart attack and is diagnosed with a myocardial infarction. During his hospitalization, it is discovered that he has familial hypercholesterolemia but his triglyceride levels are normal. What is the underlying biochemical abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Defective LDL receptors

      Explanation:

      Lipid Metabolism and Transport in the Body

      The breakdown of triglycerides in the small intestine is facilitated by pancreatic lipase. These triglycerides are then transported to the liver and other parts of the body through chylomicrons.

      Very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) is responsible for carrying triglycerides from the liver to peripheral tissues. When there is an overproduction of VLDL in the liver, it can lead to high levels of triglycerides in the body.

      Pure hypercholesterolaemia is a condition that arises due to a defect in the process of cholesterol uptake into cells. This process relies on apolipoprotein B-100 binding to LDL receptors and facilitating endocytosis. When this process is disrupted, it can lead to high levels of cholesterol in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of abdominal swelling, nausea, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of abdominal swelling, nausea, and mild jaundice. He has a history of regular alcohol consumption, drinking two 330ml bottles of lager per day (3% ABV) and a 75cl bottle of 12% ABV wine per week.

      What is the approximate number of units of alcohol this man consumes per week? Round to the nearest unit.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 23 units

      Explanation:

      Calculating Units of Alcohol

      To calculate the number of units of alcohol in a drink, you need to multiply the percentage of alcohol (ABV) by the volume in millilitres and then divide by 1000. However, there are potential pitfalls to watch out for when answering questions about units of alcohol. For example, if the consumption is presented as a daily amount, you need to multiply by 7 to get the weekly amount. Additionally, if the volume is presented in centilitres, you need to convert it to millilitres before performing the calculation.

      For instance, let’s say you want to calculate the units of alcohol in a bottle of lager. If the ABV is 3% and the volume is 330ml, the calculation would be 3% x 330ml divided by 1000, which equals 0.99 units rounded up to 1 unit. If the person drinks two bottles a day, that’s 2 units per day or 14 units per week. Similarly, if the person drinks one bottle of wine per week, and the ABV is 12% and the volume is 750ml, the calculation would be 12% x 750ml divided by 1000, which equals 9 units per bottle.

      It’s important to be aware of potential pitfalls when calculating units of alcohol, such as checking the units of volume and adjusting for duration. By this simple calculation, you can be prepared for any question that may come up in an exam setting. The UK recommendations for alcohol consumption are no more than 14 units per week for both sexes. While calculating units of alcohol may seem daunting, with practice and preparation, you can confidently tackle any question that comes your way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 22 - What is the conversion of pyruvate before it enters the Krebs cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the conversion of pyruvate before it enters the Krebs cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetyl-CoA

      Explanation:

      The Krebs cycle occurs in the mitochondrion and involves the conversion of acetyl-CoA to oxaloacetate. This cycle produces six NADH, two FADH, and two ATP for each molecule of glucose. Pyruvate is converted to acetyl-CoA before entering the Krebs cycle, and water and carbon dioxide are end products. Acetic acid itself has no role in the cycle, but its acetyl group is used to form acetyl-CoA. Some anaerobic bacteria can convert sugars to acetic acid directly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 23 - What is the primary factor that increases the risk of thiamine (vitamin B1)...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary factor that increases the risk of thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      Thiamine: Its Roles, Sources, Deficiency States, and Manifestations

      Thiamine is a vital nutrient that plays several roles in the body. It acts as a cofactor to enzymes involved in energy production, metabolism of branched chain amino acids, and regulation of nerve and muscle action potentials. It is found in many foods, including wheat, oats, and yeast-containing products. However, deficiency states can occur in chronic alcohol dependence, renal dialysis, and cultures that mainly consume white rice. The deficiency can manifest as ‘dry’ beriberi, which causes peripheral neuropathy, muscle weakness, fatigue, and reduced concentration, or ‘wet’ beriberi, which also involves heart failure and edema. In severe cases, Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome can develop, which is an emergency requiring urgent IV replacement of thiamine. If left untreated, it can lead to irreversible amnesia, confabulation, and dementia. Therefore, all patients with alcohol-related admissions should be considered for Pabrinex, a B vitamin infusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 24 - A couple in their early 30s come to your clinic seeking advice. The...

    Incorrect

    • A couple in their early 30s come to your clinic seeking advice. The husband has a history of haemophilia B and they are worried about the possibility of passing it on to their children. Can you determine which of their offspring will be affected by the disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All daughters will be carriers; no sons will be affected

      Explanation:

      The inheritance of Haemophilia A and B is crucial in identifying individuals who are at risk of developing the condition. Haemophilia A and B are genetic disorders that are inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, while haemophilia B is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor IX.

      On the other hand, haemophilia C, which is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor XI, is primarily inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. In X-linked recessive conditions like haemophilia B, males are more likely to be affected than females. This is because males only need one abnormal copy of the gene, which is carried on the X chromosome, to be affected.

      Females, on the other hand, can be carriers of the condition if they carry one normal and one abnormal copy of the gene. While carriers can have clotting abnormalities, these are usually milder than those seen in affected individuals. Men cannot pass the condition to their sons, but they will pass on the abnormal X chromosome to all their daughters, who will be carriers.

      Female carriers can pass on the condition to around half their sons, and half their daughters will be carriers. Females can only be affected if they are the offspring of an affected male and a carrier female. In summary, the inheritance of haemophilia A and B is crucial in identifying individuals who are at risk of developing the condition. It also helps in providing appropriate genetic counseling and management for affected individuals and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 25 - What is a good dietary source of vitamin A? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a good dietary source of vitamin A?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamin A in Our Body

      Vitamin A is an essential nutrient that can be found in various sources such as liver, fish liver oils, dark green leafy vegetables, carrots, and mangoes. It can also be added to certain foods like cereals and margarines. This nutrient plays a crucial role in our body as it is required for vision, growth and development of tissues, regulation of gene transcription, and synthesis of hydrophobic glycoproteins and parts of the protein kinase enzyme pathways.

      One of the primary functions of vitamin A is to support our vision. It is a component of rhodopsin, a pigment that is necessary for the rod cells of the retina. Without vitamin A, our eyesight can be compromised, leading to various eye problems. Additionally, vitamin A is also essential for the growth and development of many types of tissues in our body. It helps in maintaining healthy skin, teeth, and bones.

      Moreover, vitamin A is involved in regulating gene transcription, which is the process of converting DNA into RNA. This nutrient also plays a role in the synthesis of hydrophobic glycoproteins and parts of the protein kinase enzyme pathways. These processes are essential for the proper functioning of our body.

      In conclusion, vitamin A is a vital nutrient that our body needs to function correctly. It is essential for our vision, growth and development of tissues, regulation of gene transcription, and synthesis of hydrophobic glycoproteins and parts of the protein kinase enzyme pathways. Therefore, it is crucial to include vitamin A-rich foods in our diet or take supplements if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 26 - What is the final product of glycolysis besides ATP? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the final product of glycolysis besides ATP?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyruvate

      Explanation:

      Glycolysis: The Energy-Producing Reaction

      Glycolysis is a crucial energy-producing reaction that converts glucose into pyruvate while releasing energy to create ATP and NADH+. It is one of the three major carbohydrate reactions, along with the citric acid cycle and the electron transport chain. The reaction involves ten enzymatic steps that provide entry points to glycolysis, allowing for a variety of starting points. The most common starting point is glucose or glycogen, which produces glucose-6-phosphate.

      Glycolysis occurs in two phases: the preparatory (or investment) phase and the pay-off phase. In the preparatory phase, ATP is consumed to start the reaction, while in the pay-off phase, ATP is produced. Glycolysis can be either aerobic or anaerobic, but it does not require nor consume oxygen.

      Although other molecules are involved in glycolysis at some stage, none of them form its end product. Lactic acid is associated with anaerobic glycolysis. glycolysis is essential for how the body produces energy from carbohydrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 27 - What is the statement of Henry's law? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the statement of Henry's law?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The concentration of a gas when dissolved in liquid is proportional to its partial pressure

      Explanation:

      Gas Laws

      Gas laws are a set of scientific principles that describe the behavior of gases under different conditions. One of these laws is Avogadro’s law, which states that equal volumes of gases at a standardized temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules. Another law is Boyle’s law, which explains that gases expand when the temperature is increased. Charles’ law, on the other hand, states that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume at a standardized temperature. Lastly, Graham’s law explains that the rate of diffusion of a gas is in inverse proportion to its weight. The specific gas laws that you need to know may vary depending on your syllabus, but you should be able to recognize and apply them if given the formulae. It is unlikely that you will be expected to know the correct formula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 28 - What are the typical clinical manifestations of a deficiency in vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)?...

    Incorrect

    • What are the typical clinical manifestations of a deficiency in vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensory neuropathy

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Pyridoxine in the Body

      Pyridoxine is a group of B-vitamins that are crucial in various bodily functions. They act as essential cofactors in many reactions, particularly in the metabolism of amino acids and neurotransmitters. Pyridoxine also plays a role in regulating gene transcription and controlling steroid hormones.

      The body can produce pyridoxine through bacterial flora in the gut, and it is also present in many dietary sources. However, overheating certain foods can destroy pyridoxine, and some medications can alter its metabolism. Pyridoxine is also used therapeutically to prevent neuropathy in the treatment of tuberculosis.

      Deficiency in pyridoxine can lead to sensory neuropathy, skin changes, and damage to mucous membranes. On the other hand, deficiency in vitamin C can cause gingivitis and increased bleeding, while vitamin K deficiency can also lead to bleeding. Sleep disturbance is rarely attributed to vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency.

      In summary, pyridoxine is a vital nutrient that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions. Its deficiency can lead to various health problems, highlighting the importance of maintaining adequate levels of this vitamin in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 29 - What are the clinical effects that can occur due to acute or chronic...

    Incorrect

    • What are the clinical effects that can occur due to acute or chronic over-administration of multivitamins leading to Vitamin A toxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nausea, vomiting and headaches

      Explanation:

      The Importance and Risks of Vitamin A

      Vitamin A is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions such as growth and development, vision, enzyme signalling pathways, and the maintenance of epithelial membranes. However, excessive intake of vitamin A can lead to toxicity, which can cause several adverse effects. These include raised intracranial pressure resulting in headaches, nausea, vomiting, and visual loss, increased bone resorption leading to osteoporosis and hypercalcaemia, liver damage, hair loss, and skin changes. Moreover, there is a possible increased risk of malignancy, particularly among smokers. Pregnant women are also advised to avoid foods rich in vitamin A, such as liver and fish oils, due to the teratogenicity of vitamin A-derived drugs. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain a balanced intake of vitamin A to avoid the risks associated with its toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 30 - The diabetes prevention program has been running for the last 5 years. At...

    Incorrect

    • The diabetes prevention program has been running for the last 5 years. At baseline, a well conducted study with a sample size of 500 showed that the prevalence of diabetes among adults aged 40 and above was 15%.
      Five years later another survey (of 400 responders) showed that the prevalence of diabetes was 10%.
      In the above example, which definition of prevalence is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevalence is the number of new and old smokers in a year

      Explanation:

      Prevalence and Incidence in Smoking

      Prevalence and incidence are two important concepts in the smoking habits of a population. Prevalence refers to the number of people who smoke at a particular time point, such as at the beginning or end of a study period. This is calculated by dividing the number of smokers by the total population.

      On the other hand, incidence refers to the number of new cases of smoking at a particular time point. For example, this could be at the beginning of a study period for the whole year or at the 10th year. This is calculated by dividing the number of new smokers by the number of smoke-free individuals who are potentially at risk of taking up smoking.

      prevalence and incidence is important in evaluating the effectiveness of smoking cessation programs and policies. By tracking changes in prevalence and incidence over time, researchers and policymakers can determine whether their efforts are making a difference in reducing smoking rates. Additionally, these concepts can help identify populations that are at higher risk of taking up smoking, allowing for targeted interventions to prevent smoking initiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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Basic Sciences (2/14) 14%
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