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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old man has been brought to the emergency department at 16:00 after...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man has been brought to the emergency department at 16:00 after taking an overdose of paracetamol. He has disclosed that he attempted suicide due to feeling overwhelmed with his postgraduate studies and has been feeling particularly lonely since he moved to university. The patient has admitted to taking 25 paracetamol tablets throughout the day since waking up at 07:00, but cannot recall when he last took some of the tablets, except that it was before 14:00. What would be the most appropriate course of action now?

      Your Answer: Measure plasma paracetamol concentration before administering IV acetylcysteine

      Correct Answer: Immediately administer IV acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      Patients who have taken a staggered paracetamol overdose should be treated with acetylcysteine, regardless of their plasma paracetamol concentration. Therefore, the correct approach for this patient is to administer IV acetylcysteine immediately. This is based on the 2012 Commission on Human Medicines (CHM) review of paracetamol overdose management. Activated charcoal is not appropriate in this case, as it should only be given within 1 hour of ingestion. IV naloxone is also not suitable as there is no evidence of an opioid overdose.

      Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 85-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and smoking presents to...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and smoking presents to the Emergency Department with left-sided weakness and numbness. On examination, he has a drooping left face, decreased strength in his left arm and leg (4/5), and reduced sensation on the left side of his body. His pulse is regular at 70 bpm, and his blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg. The initial diagnosis is a possible ischemic stroke.
      What proportion of strokes are ischemic rather than hemorrhagic?

      Your Answer: 80-85%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Prevalence and Causes of Ischaemic and Haemorrhagic Strokes

      Ischaemic strokes are the most common type of stroke, accounting for 80-85% of all cases. They are characterized by a sudden onset of neurological deficits, such as hemiplegia, and are usually caused by thromboembolic disease secondary to atherosclerosis. Risk factors for ischaemic stroke include smoking, diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, heart disease, and previous medical history of myocardial infarction, stroke or embolism.

      Haemorrhagic strokes, on the other hand, account for only 10-20% of all strokes and usually result from the rupture of a blood vessel within the brain. While they are less common than ischaemic strokes, they can be more severe and have a higher mortality rate.

      It is important to understand the prevalence and causes of both types of strokes in order to prevent and treat them effectively. By addressing risk factors such as smoking and heart disease, we can reduce the incidence of ischaemic strokes. And by recognizing the symptoms of haemorrhagic strokes and seeking immediate medical attention, we can improve outcomes for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      38.4
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  • Question 3 - A 79-year-old woman presents with recent-onset confusion. She had been in her usual...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old woman presents with recent-onset confusion. She had been in her usual state of health until she was observed to be confused and agitated during dinner yesterday. This morning, she was alert and oriented, but later in the evening, she became completely confused, agitated, and hostile. She was subsequently transported to the Emergency Department by ambulance. Additional history reveals no prior instances of confusion, but she has experienced increased frequency of urination over the past few days.
      What is the probable reason for her confusion?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection (UTI)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Delirium in an Elderly Patient: UTI vs. Dementia vs. Pyelonephritis

      When an 89-year-old woman presents with waxing and waning consciousness, punctuated by ‘sun-downing’, it is important to consider the possible causes of delirium. In this case, the patient has normal cognitive function but is experiencing acute global cerebral dysfunction. One possible cause of delirium in the elderly is a urinary tract infection (UTI), which can present with symptoms such as frequency and confusion.

      However, it is important to rule out other potential causes of delirium, such as vascular dementia or Alzheimer’s dementia. In these conditions, cognitive decline is typically steady and progressive, whereas the patient in this case is experiencing waxing and waning consciousness. Additionally, neither of these conditions would account for the patient’s new urinary symptoms.

      Another possible cause of delirium is pyelonephritis, which can present with similar symptoms to a UTI but may also include pyrexia, renal angle tenderness, and casts on urinalysis. However, in this case, the patient does not exhibit these additional symptoms.

      Finally, pseudodementia is unlikely in this scenario as the patient does not exhibit any affective signs. Overall, it is important to consider all possible causes of delirium in an elderly patient and conduct a thorough evaluation to determine the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 4 - A 9-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with increasing redness and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with increasing redness and swelling around her left eye over the past 48 hours. During the examination, she reports pain and double vision when her eye movements are assessed. There is also tenderness and erythema over the left eyelid. Her temperature is 38°C. Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Warm compresses

      Correct Answer: Intravenous cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Orbital cellulitis can be distinguished from preseptal cellulitis by the presence of symptoms such as reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and pain when moving the eyes. If a person experiences painful eye movements and visual disturbances along with a red, swollen, and tender eye, it is a cause for concern and may indicate orbital cellulitis. In such cases, it is crucial to administer urgent empirical intravenous antibiotics that cover gram-positive and anaerobic organisms, such as Intravenous cefotaxime or clindamycin. On the other hand, preseptal cellulitis can be managed with oral co-amoxiclav and close monitoring. Unlike orbital cellulitis, preseptal cellulitis does not cause painful eye movements or visual disturbances and is less likely to cause fever.

      In rare cases, subperiosteal or orbital abscess may complicate orbital cellulitis, leading to symptoms such as proptosis, headache (facial, throbbing), and reduced visual acuity. In such cases, surgical drainage may be necessary, but intravenous empirical antibiotics would still be an essential part of the treatment. It is worth noting that these conditions are more likely to occur as a complication of sinusitis rather than orbital cellulitis.

      Bacterial keratitis, which is more common in contact lens users, can be treated with topical ciprofloxacin. This condition presents with symptoms such as eye pain, watering, and photophobia but does not cause eyelid swelling, diplopia, or fever.

      Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.

      Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.

      To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.

      Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      45.6
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  • Question 5 - A 43-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of a headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of a headache on the right side of his head, localized at the eye, and neck pain. He reports that the pain started suddenly over an hour. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and a 20-year pack history of smoking. He appears to be in significant pain, with sweat on his forehead.

      Observations reveal a heart rate of 102 bpm, blood pressure of 158/89 mmHg, and a Glasgow coma scale of 15/15. On examination, the right pupil is small, and the eyelid is drooping. The sclera is white, and there is no swelling of the eyelid. The left eye appears normal.

      What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      A localised headache, neck pain, and neurological signs such as Horner’s syndrome are indicative of carotid artery dissection. This is a crucial diagnosis to consider when dealing with such symptoms. The presence of a localised headache, neck pain, and Horner’s syndrome suggest carotid artery dissection. The patient’s right eye is showing signs of loss of sympathetic innervation, such as a small pupil and drooping eyelid. The presence of sweat on the forehead indicates that the lesion causing Horner’s syndrome is postganglionic. A carotid artery dissection is the most likely cause of these symptoms, given the patient’s risk factors of smoking and hypertension. Cluster headache, encephalitis, and subarachnoid haemorrhage are less likely diagnoses, as they do not fit with the patient’s symptoms and presentation.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      91.3
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  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old man comes to you with a chronic inguinal hernia. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to you with a chronic inguinal hernia. During the examination, you notice a small, direct inguinal hernia. He asks about the likelihood of strangulation if he chooses not to have surgery within the next year. What is the estimated risk of strangulation over the next 12 months?

      Your Answer: <5%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Indirect hernias are more likely to cause bowel obstruction, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. Elective repair of hernias is generally safe, but emergency repair carries a higher risk of mortality, especially in older patients.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.

      The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.

      Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which type of tumor is typically linked to a paraneoplastic syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which type of tumor is typically linked to a paraneoplastic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Paraneoplastic Syndromes

      Paraneoplastic syndromes are commonly linked to certain types of cancer, such as bronchial carcinoma, pancreatic carcinoma, breast carcinoma, and renal cell carcinoma. These syndromes are characterized by clinical effects that are associated with the presence of a neoplasm, but are not directly related to the infiltration of the primary tumor or its metastases. Paraneoplastic syndromes may or may not be caused by hormone secretion.

      One example of a paraneoplastic syndrome is Cushing’s syndrome, which can occur in association with small cell bronchial carcinoma due to the secretion of ectopic ACTH. Another example is hypercalcemia, which can occur in the absence of bony metastases and may be caused by the secretion of a PTH-related peptide. Other paraneoplastic syndromes include myopathy and cerebellar ataxia.

      In summary, paraneoplastic syndromes are a group of clinical effects that are associated with the presence of a neoplasm but are not directly related to the tumor itself. These syndromes can be caused by hormone secretion or other factors and can occur in a variety of cancer types.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      20.5
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  • Question 8 - Which nerve is affected when you experience tingling and numbness in the palmar...

    Correct

    • Which nerve is affected when you experience tingling and numbness in the palmar surface of the ring and little finger after being struck on the elbow from behind over the medial side?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The Ulnar Nerve and its Branches

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originate from the spinal cord and supply the upper limb. The medial cord of the brachial plexus carries fibers from C8 and T1 and has five branches, including the ulnar nerve and the medial root of the median nerve. The ulnar nerve is the larger of the two terminal branches and passes distally, anterior to the triceps, on the medial side of the brachial artery. It supplies articular branches to the elbow joint and innervates one and one-half flexor muscles in the forearm. The ulnar nerve continues into the hand, supplying most small muscles in the hand and skin of the hand medial to a line bisecting the fourth digit.

      The ulnar nerve has no branches in the arm, but it has three side branches, including the medial pectoral nerve, medial cutaneous nerve of the arm, and the medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm. The ulnar nerve passes posterior to the medial epicondyle and medial to the olecranon to enter the forearm. It is superficial, easily palpable, and vulnerable to injury at this point, which is why it is commonly referred to as the funny bone. Striking the medial side of the elbow can cause symptoms such as tingling, numbness, and pain, as the nerve runs close to the medial epicondyle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65 year old man with a BMI of 29 was diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old man with a BMI of 29 was diagnosed with borderline hypertension during a routine check-up with his doctor. He is hesitant to take any medications. What dietary recommendations should be given to help lower his blood pressure?

      Your Answer: Consume a diet rich in fruits and vegetables

      Explanation:

      Tips for a Hypertension-Friendly Diet

      Maintaining a healthy diet is crucial for managing hypertension. Here are some tips to help you make the right food choices:

      1. Load up on fruits and vegetables: Consuming a diet rich in fruits and vegetables can reduce blood pressure by 2-8 mmHg in hypertensive patients. It can also aid in weight loss, which further lowers the risk of hypertension.

      2. Limit cholesterol intake: A reduction in cholesterol is essential for patients with ischaemic heart disease, and eating foods that are low in fat and cholesterol can reduce blood pressure.

      3. Moderate alcohol consumption: Men should have no more than two alcoholic drinks daily to lower their risk of hypertension.

      4. Eat oily fish twice a week: Eating more fish can help lower blood pressure, but having oily fish twice weekly is advised for patients with ischaemic heart disease, not hypertension alone.

      5. Watch your sodium intake: Restricting dietary sodium is recommended and can lower blood pressure. A low sodium diet contains less than 2 g of sodium daily. Aim for a maximum of 7 g of dietary sodium daily.

      By following these tips, you can maintain a hypertension-friendly diet and reduce your risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      18.5
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  • Question 10 - You are conducting an annual health review for a 60-year-old man who has...

    Correct

    • You are conducting an annual health review for a 60-year-old man who has hypertension, a history of myocardial infarction 18 months ago, and depression. He is currently taking amlodipine, ramipril, sertraline, atorvastatin, and aspirin. The patient reports feeling generally well, but he is experiencing erectile dysfunction since starting his medications after his heart attack. Which medication is most likely responsible for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction is a side-effect that is considered uncommon for amlodipine and ramipril, according to the BNF. However, SSRIs are a frequent cause of sexual dysfunction, making them the most probable medication to result in ED.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual activity. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with gradual onset of symptoms, lack of tumescence, and normal libido favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms, decreased libido, and major life events favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk, as well as free testosterone levels in the morning. If free testosterone is low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors.

      For young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, referral to urology is appropriate. Additionally, people with ED who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop. Overall, ED is a common condition that can be effectively managed with appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 58-year-old man, with a history of acromegaly, presents with a swollen, red,...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man, with a history of acromegaly, presents with a swollen, red, hot, and painful right knee that developed over the past three days. He denies having a fever and was previously healthy. He receives monthly octreotide for his acromegaly and does not take any diuretics. An X-ray reveals chondrocalcinosis. What results would you anticipate from the joint fluid microscopy?

      Your Answer: Weakly positive birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Acromegaly patients are at an increased risk of developing pseudogout, which is characterized by chondrocalcinosis. The crystals involved in pseudogout are rhomboid-shaped and weakly positively birefringent. It is important to note that negatively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals do not cause crystal arthropathy, while negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals are associated with gout crystal arthropathy. Additionally, weakly positive birefringent needle-shaped crystals are not known to cause crystal arthropathy.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      32.3
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old woman with long-standing varicose veins presents to the hospital with a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman with long-standing varicose veins presents to the hospital with a burning pain over one of the veins, accompanied by tenderness and redness in the surrounding skin. On examination, a worm-like mass is felt, and the tissue appears erythematosus and hard. There is no evidence of deep vein thrombosis, and observations are normal. An ankle-brachial pressure index of 1.0 is recorded, and a Doppler reveals a lack of compressibility and an intraluminal thrombus in the superficial vein. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Compression stockings

      Explanation:

      Compression stockings are the recommended treatment for superficial thrombophlebitis. This is because they are effective in managing symptoms and aiding in the resolution of the condition. The patient’s history of varicose veins, along with examination and investigation results, strongly support the diagnosis of superficial thrombophlebitis. The ankle-brachial pressure index was checked to ensure that the arterial supply is sufficient, as compression stockings may compromise this. In addition to compression stockings, a low-molecular-weight heparin or fondaparinux may also be used. Intravenous antibiotics are not necessary in this case, as there is no evidence of severe infection. Rivaroxaban and warfarin are not typically used in the management of superficial thrombophlebitis, as there is no evidence of deep vein thrombosis. While some vascular surgeons may prescribe topical heparinoid, there is little evidence supporting its use in treating this condition, and it is not part of the main guidelines for management.

      Superficial thrombophlebitis is inflammation associated with thrombosis of a superficial vein, usually the long saphenous vein of the leg. Around 20% of cases have an underlying deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and 3-4% may progress to a DVT if untreated. Treatment options include NSAIDs, topical heparinoids, compression stockings, and low-molecular weight heparin. Patients with clinical signs of superficial thrombophlebitis affecting the proximal long saphenous vein should have an ultrasound scan to exclude concurrent DVT. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis at, or extending towards, the saphenofemoral junction can be considered for therapeutic anticoagulation for 6-12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old woman is ready to be discharged from the labour ward following...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman is ready to be discharged from the labour ward following an uncomplicated delivery. The medical team discusses contraception options with her before she leaves. The patient had previously been taking microgynon (ethinylestradiol 30 microgram/levonorgestrel 50 micrograms) and wishes to resume this medication.

      The patient has no significant medical history, is not taking any other medications, and has no allergies. She is a non-smoker with a BMI of 19 kg/m² and does not plan to breastfeed her baby.

      What is the appropriate time frame for the patient to safely restart her medication?

      Your Answer: She can restart after 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: She can restart after 3 weeks

      Explanation:

      The patient should not restart the COCP within the first 21 days after giving birth due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. However, since the patient is not breastfeeding and has no additional risk factors for thromboembolic disease, she can safely restart the pill at 3 weeks postpartum. Restarting at any other time before the 21-day mark is not recommended.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      48.9
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  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old man experiences a sudden emergence of auditory hallucinations describing his actions....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man experiences a sudden emergence of auditory hallucinations describing his actions. He also firmly believes that he has been chosen by a divine entity as a prophet, which contradicts his religious convictions. During the mental state examination, the patient exhibits tangentiality and clanging. After a fortnight, the patient's symptoms disappear entirely. The patient had a history of depression during his late adolescence, but no prior comparable incidents. What disorder did this patient have?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Brief psychotic disorder

      Explanation:

      The patient experienced psychosis, including hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorganisation. The correct diagnosis is brief psychotic disorder, which refers to a short-lived episode of psychosis followed by a return to normal functioning. Bipolar affective disorder is an incorrect diagnosis as there are no signs of manic episodes. Drug abuse is also an unlikely cause as there is no evidence of drug use in the patient’s history. Schizoaffective disorder is also an incorrect diagnosis as it involves both psychotic and mood symptoms occurring together, which is not the case for this patient.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      75.8
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  • Question 15 - A 40-year-old woman has been visiting her doctor frequently over the past year...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman has been visiting her doctor frequently over the past year due to recurring episodes of abdominal cramps and diarrhoea. She is concerned about the possibility of bowel cancer, as her father passed away from it at the age of 86. She has no other relevant family history. She also mentions that she needs a refill for her salbutamol inhaler, which she takes for her recently diagnosed asthma. Additionally, she has noticed an increase in hot flashes and wonders if she is experiencing early menopause. She has lost some weight, which she attributes to her healthy diet. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypochondriasis

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumour (NET)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Gastrointestinal Neuroendocrine Tumour (NET)

      A patient presenting with symptoms of diarrhoea, wheezing, and flushing may have a gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumour (NET), also known as carcinoid syndrome. It is important to consider NET in the differential diagnosis, even in relatively young patients, as the average delay in diagnosis is 2-3 years.

      Appropriate investigations include routine blood tests, gut hormone measurement, 24-hour urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) measurement, cross-sectional imaging, and gastrointestinal endoscopy. Management options include somatostatin analogues, peptide receptor radiotargeted therapy (PRRT), and molecularly targeted treatments such as sunitinib or everolimus.

      Health/illness-related anxiety, or hypochondriasis, should be a diagnosis of exclusion, and physical causes should be addressed first. Irritable bowel syndrome may cause similar symptoms, but without hot flashes or asthma. Colorectal or gastric adenocarcinoma may also be considered, but the symptoms are more consistent with a NET.

      Most gastrointestinal NETs are low grade, and even in metastatic disease, the median overall survival is around 10 years. Early diagnosis and appropriate management can improve outcomes for patients with NET.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A 38-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of intermittent pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of intermittent pain in her right upper quadrant for the past 3 hours. She reports that the pain worsens after eating and spreads to her right shoulder blade. There are no signs of jaundice or fever.
      What blood test results would be anticipated for a diagnosis of biliary colic?

      Your Answer: Raised ALP and γGT, normal AST and ALT, normal CRP

      Correct Answer: Normal ALP and γGT, normal AST and ALT, normal CRP

      Explanation:

      Biliary colic is characterized by intermittent pain caused by a gallstone passing through the biliary tree. Unlike other gallstone-related conditions, such as cholecystitis, biliary colic does not cause fever or abnormal liver function tests/inflammatory markers. The absence of jaundice suggests that the stone is not obstructing the common bile duct, resulting in normal liver enzymes. Therefore, the correct answer is normal ALP and γGT, normal AST and ALT, and normal CRP. Referred pain may also be present at the tip of the scapula.

      Biliary colic is a condition that occurs when gallstones pass through the biliary tree. The risk factors for this condition are commonly referred to as the ‘4 F’s’, which include being overweight, female, fertile, and over the age of forty. Other risk factors include diabetes, Crohn’s disease, rapid weight loss, and certain medications. Biliary colic occurs due to an increase in cholesterol, a decrease in bile salts, and biliary stasis. The pain associated with this condition is caused by the gallbladder contracting against a stone lodged in the cystic duct. Symptoms include right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound. Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the recommended treatment for biliary colic. However, around 15% of patients may have gallstones in the common bile duct at the time of surgery, which can result in obstructive jaundice. Other possible complications of gallstone-related disease include acute cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis, acute pancreatitis, gallstone ileus, and gallbladder cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      64.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old woman from Chad complains of continuous dribbling incontinence following the birth...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman from Chad complains of continuous dribbling incontinence following the birth of her second child. She reports no other issues related to her pregnancies and is generally healthy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vesicovaginal fistula

      Explanation:

      If a patient has continuous dribbling incontinence after prolonged labor and comes from an area with limited obstetric services, it is important to consider the possibility of vesicovaginal fistulae.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.1
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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old individual who wears contact lenses presents to the emergency department complaining...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old individual who wears contact lenses presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in their left eye. They describe a sensation of having something gritty stuck in their eye. The eye appears red all over and they have difficulty looking at bright lights. Upon examination with a slit-lamp, there is a hypopyon and focal white infiltrates on the cornea. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the likely cause of bacterial keratitis in contact lens wearers. Symptoms include a foreign body sensation, conjunctival injection, and hypopyon on slit-lamp examination. Staphylococci and streptococci are also common causes, but pseudomonas is particularly prevalent in this population. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Acanthamoeba, and herpes simplex are less likely causes.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      24.7
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  • Question 19 - A 60-year-old male comes to the GP with recurring mild upper abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male comes to the GP with recurring mild upper abdominal pain after eating. He also reports having greasy stools with a foul odor. He has not noticed any changes in his appetite or weight, and he has not experienced nausea, vomiting, or jaundice. The patient has a history of chronic alcohol abuse, consuming 70 units per week for the past 8 years. What is the most suitable diagnostic examination?

      Your Answer: Faecal elastase

      Correct Answer: CT abdomen

      Explanation:

      Chronic pancreatitis is best diagnosed using a CT scan of the pancreas to detect the presence of pancreatic calcification.

      Chronic pancreatitis is often caused by alcohol abuse, but can also be caused by other factors such as smoking, cystic fibrosis, and ductal obstruction. The exact cause is not fully understood, but it is thought to involve inflammation and autodigestion of the pancreas. Symptoms include abdominal pain, jaundice, steatorrhea, anorexia, and nausea. In severe cases, diabetes mellitus may develop.

      To diagnose chronic pancreatitis, a CT scan is the preferred test as it is highly sensitive and can detect pancreatic calcifications. Other tests such as abdominal x-rays and ultrasounds may be used, but are not as reliable. A full blood count may also be performed to rule out any infections.

      Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities like pancreas divisum and annular pancreas.

      Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays can show pancreatic calcification in 30% of cases, while CT scans are more sensitive at detecting calcification with a sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 85%. Functional tests like faecal elastase may be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.

      Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants, although the evidence base for the latter is limited. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and management of chronic pancreatitis to effectively manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the most frequent micro-organism responsible for haematogenous osteomyelitis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent micro-organism responsible for haematogenous osteomyelitis?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Radiographic Abnormalities in Haematogenous Osteomyelitis

      Haematogenous osteomyelitis is a condition where infection spreads to the bone through the bloodstream. When the infection reaches the periosteal membrane, it can create a cloaca that extends into nearby soft tissues. This can lead to cortical sequestration. In children, the metaphysis may become infected and spread to the epiphysis, resulting in involucrum formation. Staphylococcus is a common cause of single or multiple Brodie’s abscesses, which appear as areas of radiolucency with adjacent sclerosis on X-rays. The lucent region in the metaphysis may connect with the growth plate through a tortuous channel, known as the channel or tract sign. In the diaphysis, the abscess cavity can be located in central or subcortical areas or in the cortex itself and may contain a central sequestrum. In the epiphysis, a circular, well-defined osteolytic lesion is seen. A cortical abscess can resemble the appearance of an osteoid osteoma or a stress fracture. These radiographic abnormalities can aid in the diagnosis of haematogenous osteomyelitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      12.1
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  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old man is admitted to Emergency Department (ED) with haematemesis of bright...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is admitted to Emergency Department (ED) with haematemesis of bright red blood. He is an alcoholic. He has cool extremities, guarding over the epigastric region, he is ascitic, and has eight spider naevi on his neck and chest. An ABCD management is begun along with fluid resuscitation.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what medication is it most important to start?

      Your Answer: Tranexamic acid

      Correct Answer: Terlipressin

      Explanation:

      In cases of suspected variceal bleeding, the priority medication to administer is terlipressin. This drug causes constriction of the mesenteric arterial circulation, leading to a decrease in portal venous inflow and subsequent reduction in portal pressure, which can help to control bleeding. Band ligation should be performed after administering terlipressin, and if bleeding persists, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be necessary. Antibiotics may also be given prophylactically, but they do not directly affect bleeding. Clopidogrel should be avoided as it can worsen bleeding, while omeprazole may be used according to hospital guidelines. Tranexamic acid is not indicated for oesophageal variceal bleeds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - A 7-year-old girl presents with oedema and proteinuria of 4.2 g/24 hours. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl presents with oedema and proteinuria of 4.2 g/24 hours. She is diagnosed with minimal change disease and started on steroid therapy. What could be the possible reason for her proteinuria?

      Your Answer: Tubular proteinuria

      Correct Answer: Glomerular proteinuria

      Explanation:

      Glomerular Proteinuria and Minimal Change Disease

      Glomerular proteinuria is a condition characterized by the presence of protein in the urine due to damage to the glomeruli, the tiny filters in the kidneys responsible for removing waste from the blood. This condition can be caused by primary glomerular disease, glomerulonephritis, anti-GBM disease, immune complex deposition, and inherited conditions such as Alport’s syndrome. Additionally, secondary glomerular disease can result from systemic diseases like diabetes.

      One type of glomerulonephritis that is particularly common in children is minimal change disease. This condition has a good prognosis and can often be treated effectively with steroids. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat glomerular proteinuria to prevent further damage to the kidneys and maintain overall kidney function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      21.9
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  • Question 23 - At an outpatient clinic, you see a 30-year-old patient referred by a gastroenterologist...

    Correct

    • At an outpatient clinic, you see a 30-year-old patient referred by a gastroenterologist for a colectomy. The referral letter mentions that the patient has been screened for a genetic abnormality and that a mutation was found in a gene on chromosome 5q21.
      What is the most likely underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

      Explanation:

      Inherited Conditions Predisposing to Colorectal Carcinoma

      There are several inherited conditions that increase an individual’s risk of developing colorectal carcinoma. These conditions can be divided into two groups: polyposis syndromes and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer.

      The polyposis syndromes can be further divided into adenomatous polyposis and hamartomatous polyposis. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common and important of the polyposis syndromes. It is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a mutation in the APC gene and is associated with the development of over 100 polyps in the large bowel by the mid-teens. Patients with FAP typically undergo prophylactic colectomy before the age of 30.

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is one of the hamartomatous polyposis conditions and is characterized by the presence of pigmented lesions on the lips. Patients with this syndrome are predisposed to cancers of the small and large bowel, testis, stomach, pancreas, and breast.

      Familial juvenile polyposis is another hamartomatous polyposis condition that occurs in children and teenagers.

      Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer is the most common inherited condition leading to colorectal cancer. It is caused by defects in mismatch repair genes and carries a 70% lifetime risk of developing colorectal cancer.

      Cowden’s disease is another hamartomatous polyposis condition that causes macrocephaly, hamartomatous polypoid disease, and benign skin tumors.

      In summary, understanding these inherited conditions and their associated risks can aid in early detection and prevention of colorectal carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      23.1
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  • Question 24 - In a study of middle-aged patients with hypertension, patients receiving lisinopril (n =...

    Incorrect

    • In a study of middle-aged patients with hypertension, patients receiving lisinopril (n = 5000) had a rate of heart attack of 4.2%, whereas subjects treated with amlodipine (n = 7000) had a heart attack rate of 5.8% over the two year study period (p = 0.003).

      The risk of heart attack in an untreated population with hypertension over this time was 8%.

      What is the significance of the 8% statistic?

      Your Answer: Absolute risk reduction

      Correct Answer: Incidence

      Explanation:

      Stroke Statistics

      When it comes to the incidence of stroke in different populations, there are a few key terms to keep in mind. Incidence refers to the number of new cases of stroke that occur over a specific period of time. Prevalence, on the other hand, refers to the number of people who currently have a stroke at any given time.

      Another important concept is absolute risk reduction, which refers to the reduction in the number of stroke cases that occur as a result of a specific intervention. For example, if a study found that warfarin reduced the risk of stroke by 3.3% over three years compared to aspirin, that would be the absolute risk reduction.

      Finally, there is relative risk reduction, which is calculated by dividing the absolute risk reduction by the incidence rate. In the example above, the relative risk reduction would be 33%.

      these terms can help us better interpret stroke statistics and make informed decisions about prevention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      44.8
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  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the hospital with shortness of breath and lethargy...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the hospital with shortness of breath and lethargy for the past two weeks.
      On clinical examination, there are reduced breath sounds, dullness to percussion and decreased vocal fremitus at the left base.
      Chest X-ray reveals a moderate left-sided pleural effusions. A pleural aspirate is performed on the ward. Analysis is shown:
      Aspirate Serum
      Total protein 18.5 g/l 38 g/l
      Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 1170 u/l 252 u/l
      pH 7.37 7.38
      What is the most likely cause of the pleural effusion?

      Your Answer: Pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pleural Effusions: Causes and Criteria for Exudates

      Pleural effusions, the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space surrounding the lungs, can be classified as exudates or transudates using Light’s criteria. While the traditional cut-off value of >30 g/l of protein to indicate an exudate and <30 g/l for a transudate is no longer recommended, Light's criteria still provide a useful framework for diagnosis. An exudate is indicated when the ratio of pleural fluid protein to serum protein is >0.5, the ratio of pleural fluid LDH to serum LDH is >0.6, or pleural fluid LDH is greater than 2/3 times the upper limit for serum.

      Exudate effusions are typically caused by inflammation and disruption to cell architecture, while transudates are often associated with systematic illnesses that affect oncotic or hydrostatic pressure. In the case of hypothyroidism, an endocrine disorder, an exudative pleural effusion is consistent with overstimulation of the ovaries.

      Other conditions that can cause exudative pleural effusions include pneumonia and pulmonary embolism. Mesothelioma, a type of cancer associated with asbestos exposure, can also cause an exudative pleural effusion, but is less likely in the absence of chest pain, persistent cough, and unexplained weight loss.

      Understanding the causes and criteria for exudative pleural effusions can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      13.5
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  • Question 26 - In a clinical trial of statin therapy for the secondary prevention of ischaemic...

    Correct

    • In a clinical trial of statin therapy for the secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease, it was found that the therapy reduced cardiovascular mortality from 12% to 8% over a period of five years.

      Assuming standard therapy as the baseline, what is the number of patients that need to be treated with statin therapy to prevent one death over five years?

      Your Answer: 25

      Explanation:

      The Effectiveness of a Drug in Reducing Post-Myocardial Infarction Mortality

      The drug has been found to decrease the likelihood of death after a myocardial infarction by 4% over a period of five years. This means that if 100 individuals were treated with the drug, we could expect to prevent four deaths. In other words, for every 25 people treated with the drug, one death could be prevented. This information highlights the potential benefits of this drug in reducing mortality rates in individuals who have experienced a myocardial infarction. It is important to note, however, that this drug may not be suitable for everyone and should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      36.5
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  • Question 27 - As a result of her advanced maternal age, a 43-year-old pregnant woman undergoes...

    Incorrect

    • As a result of her advanced maternal age, a 43-year-old pregnant woman undergoes screening for chromosomal abnormalities. If her fetus is diagnosed with trisomy 21 (Down's syndrome), what outcomes would be anticipated?

      Your Answer: High alpha fetoprotein (AFP)

      Correct Answer: Low pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)

      Explanation:

      The ‘triple test’ can be utilized at 16 weeks, but its accuracy is lower than the ‘combined test’. Therefore, it should only be employed when screening for trisomy is conducted after 14 weeks. The test involves conducting blood tests for AFP, -HCG, and oestriol. One should note that the false positive rate may be higher with this test.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.1
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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old man presented to the outpatient clinic with complaints of involuntary muscle...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presented to the outpatient clinic with complaints of involuntary muscle movements of his tongue, fingers and trunk for the past 2 months. He was diagnosed with schizophrenia 20 years ago and has been on haloperidol, with good compliance. On examination, his temperature was 37.7 °C, blood pressure 115/80 mmHg and pulse 92 bpm. Respiratory rate was 14 cycles/min. There was pronounced choreoathetoid movement of his hands and fingers.
      What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Tardive dyskinesia is a condition where patients on long-term anti-dopaminergic medication, such as antipsychotics, may experience involuntary muscle movements in various parts of their body. Akathisia is another symptom associated with antipsychotic use, where patients experience restlessness and an inability to remain still. Serotonin syndrome can occur when patients take an overdose or combination of certain medications, resulting in symptoms such as ataxia, agitation, and tremors. Acute dystonia refers to muscle contractions following the administration of a neuroleptic agent. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition associated with the use of antipsychotic medication, characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, and changes in consciousness. Treatment involves discontinuing the medication and providing supportive care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      30.5
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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old woman undergoes a right hemicolectomy for colon cancer and four days...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman undergoes a right hemicolectomy for colon cancer and four days later presents with vomiting, a distended abdomen, and absent bowel sounds. Her blood results show a CRP of 124 mg/l and a WBC count of 5.2 * 109/l. Nursing notes reveal no bowel movements since surgery. What is the probable cause of her clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Paralytic ileus

      Explanation:

      Simple constipation is unlikely in this patient due to the presence of vomiting and absent bowel sounds, which suggests paralytic ileus, especially so soon after surgery. Additionally, constipation alone would not explain all of the patient’s symptoms and signs. As the patient underwent a right hemicolectomy, the caecum would have been removed, making caecal volvulus an unlikely diagnosis. The raised CRP is a normal response to surgery. While peritonitis is a possibility, it would typically present with severe abdominal pain, tenderness, guarding, and more significantly elevated inflammatory markers and fever. Hirschsprung’s disease, a congenital condition, is highly unlikely to present for the first time in a 67-year-old patient.

      Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by a reduction in bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.

      The management of postoperative ileus typically involves starting with nil-by-mouth and gradually progressing to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemia, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. It is important to monitor the patient closely and adjust the treatment plan as necessary to ensure a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      42.2
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  • Question 30 - A previously healthy 72-year-old man reports experiencing intermittent flashes and a curtain-like loss...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 72-year-old man reports experiencing intermittent flashes and a curtain-like loss of lateral vision in his right eye upon waking up this morning, which has since worsened. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Retinal vein occlusion

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Retinal Detachment

      Retinal detachment is a serious eye emergency that occurs when the retina’s sensory and pigment layers separate. This condition can be caused by various factors such as congenital malformations, metabolic disorders, trauma, vascular disease, high myopia, vitreous disease, and degeneration. It is important to note that retinal detachment is a time-critical condition that requires immediate medical attention.

      Symptoms of retinal detachment include floaters, a grey curtain or veil moving across the field of vision, and sudden decrease of vision. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent permanent vision loss. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms associated with retinal detachment to ensure prompt medical attention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.3
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/3) 33%
Surgery (3/6) 50%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (2/3) 67%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Colorectal (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Passmed