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  • Question 1 - A first-year medical student is participating in a bedside teaching session and is...

    Correct

    • A first-year medical student is participating in a bedside teaching session and is instructed to listen to the patient's heart. The student places the stethoscope over the patient's fourth left intercostal space just lateral to the sternum.
      What heart valve's normal sounds would be best detected with the stethoscope positioned as described?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid

      Explanation:

      Auscultation of Heart Valves: Locations and Sounds

      The human heart has four valves that regulate blood flow. These valves can be heard through auscultation, a medical technique that involves listening to the sounds produced by the heart using a stethoscope. Here are the locations and sounds of each valve:

      Tricuspid Valve: This valve is located on the right side of the heart and can be heard at the left sternal border in the fourth intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a low-pitched, rumbling noise.

      Aortic Valve: The aortic valve is located on the left side of the heart and can be heard over the right sternal border at the second intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a high-pitched, clicking noise.

      Pulmonary Valve: This valve is located on the right side of the heart and can be heard over the left sternal border at the second intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a high-pitched, clicking noise.

      Thebesian Valve: The Thebesian valve is located in the coronary sinus and its closure cannot be auscultated.

      Mitral Valve: This valve is located on the left side of the heart and can be heard by listening at the apex, in the left mid-clavicular line in the fifth intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a low-pitched, rumbling noise.

      In summary, auscultation of heart valves is an important diagnostic tool that can help healthcare professionals identify potential heart problems. By knowing the locations and sounds of each valve, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A fourth year medical student on a ward round with your team is...

    Correct

    • A fourth year medical student on a ward round with your team is inquiring about pacemakers.
      Which of the following WOULD BE an indication for permanent pacemaker implantation?

      Your Answer: Third degree AV block (complete heart block)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Indications for Permanent Pacemaker Insertion

      A third degree AV block, also known as complete heart block, occurs when the atria and ventricles contract independently of each other. This can lead to syncope, chest pain, or signs of heart failure. Definitive treatment is the insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Other arrhythmias that may require permanent pacing include type 2 second-degree heart block (Mobitz II), sick sinus syndrome, and symptomatic slow atrial fibrillation. Ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation are not indications for pacing. Type 1 second degree (Mobitz I) AV block is a benign condition that does not require specific treatment. It is important to understand these indications for permanent pacemaker insertion for both exam and clinical purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A man in his early 60s is undergoing treatment for high blood pressure....

    Correct

    • A man in his early 60s is undergoing treatment for high blood pressure. During a dental check-up, his dentist informs him that he has gingival hyperplasia. Which medication is the most probable culprit for this condition?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Drugs Associated with Gingival Hyperplasia

      Gingival hyperplasia is a condition characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to discomfort, difficulty in maintaining oral hygiene, and even tooth loss. There are several drugs that have been associated with this condition, including Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine. These drugs are commonly used to treat various medical conditions, such as epilepsy, organ transplant rejection, and hypertension.

      According to Medscape, drug-induced gingival hyperplasia is a well-known side effect of these medications. The exact mechanism by which these drugs cause gingival hyperplasia is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to their effect on the immune system and the production of collagen in the gums.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential side effect when prescribing these medications, and to monitor patients for any signs of gingival hyperplasia. Patients who are taking these drugs should also be advised to maintain good oral hygiene and to visit their dentist regularly for check-ups and cleanings.

      In summary, Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine are drugs that have been associated with gingival hyperplasia. Healthcare providers should be aware of this potential side effect and monitor patients accordingly, while patients should maintain good oral hygiene and visit their dentist regularly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What condition would make exercise testing completely unsafe? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition would make exercise testing completely unsafe?

      Your Answer: One week following myocardial infarction

      Correct Answer: Severe aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Contraindications for Exercise Testing

      Exercise testing is a common diagnostic tool used to evaluate a patient’s cardiovascular health. However, there are certain conditions that make exercise testing unsafe or inappropriate. These conditions are known as contraindications.

      Absolute contraindications for exercise testing include acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) within the past two days, unstable angina, uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmias, symptomatic severe aortic stenosis, uncontrolled heart failure, acute pulmonary embolism or pulmonary infarction, acute myocarditis or pericarditis, and acute aortic dissection. These conditions are considered absolute contraindications because they pose a significant risk to the patient’s health and safety during exercise testing.

      Relative contraindications for exercise testing include left main coronary stenosis, moderate stenotic valvular heart disease, electrolyte abnormalities, severe arterial hypertension, tachyarrhythmias or bradyarrhythmias, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, mental or physical impairment leading to an inability to exercise adequately, and high-degree atrioventricular (AV) block. These conditions are considered relative contraindications because they may increase the risk of complications during exercise testing, but the benefits of testing may outweigh the risks in certain cases.

      It is important for healthcare providers to carefully evaluate a patient’s medical history and current health status before recommending exercise testing. If contraindications are present, alternative diagnostic tests may be necessary to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a 4-month history of dyspnoea on exertion. She...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a 4-month history of dyspnoea on exertion. She denies a history of cough, wheeze and weight loss but admits to a brief episode of syncope two weeks ago. Her past medical history includes, chronic kidney disease stage IV and stage 2 hypertension. She is currently taking lisinopril, amlodipine and atorvastatin. She is an ex-smoker with a 15-pack year history.
      On examination it is noted that she has a low-volume pulse and an ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal edge. The murmur is noted to radiate to both carotids. Moreover, she has good bilateral air entry, vesicular breath sounds and no added breath sounds on auscultation of the respiratory fields. The patient’s temperature is recorded as 37.2°C, blood pressure is 110/90 mmHg, and a pulse of 68 beats per minute. A chest X-ray is taken which is reported as the following:
      Investigation Result
      Chest radiograph Technically adequate film. Normal cardiothoracic ratio. Prominent right ascending aorta, normal descending aorta. No pleural disease. No bony abnormality.
      Which of the following most likely explains her dyspnoea?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Aortic stenosis is a condition where the aortic valve does not open completely, resulting in dyspnea, chest pain, and syncope. It produces a narrow pulse pressure, a low volume pulse, and an ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. An enlarged right ascending aorta is a common finding in aortic stenosis. Calcification of the valve is diagnostic and can be observed using CT or fluoroscopy. Aortic stenosis is commonly caused by calcification of the aortic valve due to a congenitally bicuspid valve, connective tissue disease, or rheumatic heart disease. Echocardiography confirms the diagnosis, and valve replacement or intervention is indicated with critical stenosis <0.5 cm or when symptomatic. Aortic regurgitation is characterized by a widened pulse pressure, collapsing pulse, and an early diastolic murmur heard loudest in the left lower sternal edge with the patient upright. Patients can be asymptomatic until heart failure manifests. Causes include calcification and previous rheumatic fever. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a congenital or acquired condition characterized by a pansystolic murmur heard loudest at the left sternal edge. Acquired VSD is mainly a result of previous myocardial infarction. VSD can be asymptomatic or cause heart failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension. Mitral regurgitation is characterized by a pansystolic murmur heard best at the apex that radiates towards the axilla. A third heart sound may also be heard. Patients can remain asymptomatic until dilated cardiac failure occurs, upon which dyspnea and peripheral edema are among the most common symptoms. Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic rumble heard best at the apex with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position. Auscultation of the precordium may also reveal an opening snap. Patients are at increased risk of atrial fibrillation due to left atrial enlargement. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is a previous history of rheumatic fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      51
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, hypertension and angina arrives at...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, hypertension and angina arrives at the Emergency Department with severe chest pain that radiates down his left arm. He is sweating heavily and the pain does not subside with rest or sublingual nitroglycerin. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST segment elevation in leads II, III and avF.

      What is the leading cause of death within the first hour after the onset of symptoms in this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrhythmia

      Explanation:

      After experiencing an inferior-wall MI, the most common cause of death within the first hour is a lethal arrhythmia, such as ventricular fibrillation. This can be caused by various factors, including ischaemia, toxic metabolites, or autonomic stimulation. If ventricular fibrillation occurs within the first 48 hours, it may be due to transient causes and not affect long-term prognosis. However, if it occurs after 48 hours, it is usually indicative of permanent dysfunction and associated with a worse long-term prognosis. Other complications that may occur after an acute MI include emboli from a left ventricular thrombus, cardiac tamponade, ruptured papillary muscle, and pericarditis. These complications typically occur at different time frames after the acute MI and present with different symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      125.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 76-year-old man with heart failure and depression is discovered to have a...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old man with heart failure and depression is discovered to have a sodium level of 130. He is not experiencing any symptoms, and his heart failure and depression are under control. He has slight pitting pedal oedema. He is currently taking ramipril, bisoprolol, simvastatin and citalopram.
      What is the optimal approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Restrict his fluid input to 1.5 l/day and recheck in 3 days

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyponatraemia: Considerations and Options

      Hyponatraemia, a condition characterized by low serum sodium levels, requires careful management to avoid potential complications. The first step in treating hyponatraemia is to restrict fluid intake to reverse any dilution and address the underlying cause. Administering saline should only be considered if fluid restriction fails, as treating hyponatraemia too quickly can lead to central pontine myelinolysis.

      In cases where hyponatraemia is caused by medication, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), it may be necessary to adjust or discontinue the medication. However, abrupt discontinuation of SSRIs can cause withdrawal symptoms, so patients should be gradually weaned off over several weeks or months.

      It is also important to consider other factors that may contribute to hyponatraemia, such as heart failure or hypokalaemia. However, administering intravenous saline or increasing salt intake may not be appropriate in all cases and could worsen underlying conditions.

      Overall, managing hyponatraemia requires careful consideration of the underlying cause and potential treatment options to avoid complications and promote optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      138.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of experiencing severe...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of experiencing severe dizziness upon standing quickly. He is currently taking atenolol 100 mg OD for hypertension. Upon measuring his blood pressure while lying down and standing up, the readings are 146/88 mmHg and 108/72 mmHg, respectively. What is the main cause of his postural hypotension?

      Your Answer: Impaired baroreceptor reflex

      Explanation:

      Postural Hypotension

      Postural hypotension is a common condition that affects many people, especially the elderly and those with refractory hypertension. When standing up, blood tends to pool in the lower limbs, causing a temporary drop in blood pressure. Baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus detect this change and trigger a sympathetic response, which includes venoconstriction, an increase in heart rate, and an increase in stroke volume. This response helps to restore cardiac output and blood pressure, usually before any awareness of hypotension. However, a delay in this response can cause dizziness and presyncope.

      In some cases, the reflex response is partially impaired by medications such as beta blockers. This means that increased adrenaline release, decreased pH (via chemoreceptors), or pain (via a sympathetic response) can lead to an increase in blood pressure rather than a decrease. postural hypotension and its underlying mechanisms can help individuals manage their symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old patient with hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old patient with hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central chest pain that feels heavy. The pain does not radiate, and there are no other risk factors for atherosclerosis. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are normal, including pulse, temperature, and oxygen saturation. The patient appears sweaty, but cardiovascular and respiratory exams are unremarkable. The patient experiences tenderness over the sternum at the site of the chest pain, and the resting electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient

      Explanation:

      Management of Chest Pain in a Patient with Risk Factors for Cardiac Disease

      Chest pain is a common presenting complaint in primary care and emergency departments. However, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with risk factors for cardiac disease. Here are some management strategies for a patient with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease:

      Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient. A normal troponin assay would make a diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome unlikely, but further investigation may be required to determine if the patient has underlying coronary artery disease.

      Do not discharge the patient with a diagnosis of costochondritis based solely on chest wall tenderness. This should only be used in low-risk patients with tenderness that accurately reproduces the pain they have been feeling on minimal palpation.

      Do not discharge the patient if serial resting ECGs are normal. A normal ECG does not rule out an acute cardiac event.

      Admit the patient to the Coronary Care Unit for monitoring and further assessment only if the 12-h troponin comes back elevated.

      Do not discharge the patient and arrange an outpatient exercise tolerance test until further investigation has been done to rule out an acute cardiac event.

      In summary, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease. Further investigation, such as a 12-h troponin assay, may be required before deciding on appropriate management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      57.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 82-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after experiencing a sudden...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after experiencing a sudden loss of consciousness while grocery shopping. Upon examination, she is fully alert and appears to be in good health.

      Her vital signs are normal, with a CBG of 5.8 mmol/l. However, her cardiovascular system shows an irregular, low volume heart rate of 90-110 beats per minute, and her blood pressure is 145/120 mmHg while lying down and standing up. Her JVP is raised by 5 cm, and her apex beat is displaced to the mid-axillary line, with diffuse heart sounds. A loud pansystolic murmur is heard at the apex, radiating to the axilla and at the lower left sternal edge, along with a mid-diastolic rumble best heard at the apex. There are occasional bibasal crackles in her chest, which clear up with coughing. Additionally, she has mild peripheral edema up to the mid-calf.

      Based on these clinical findings, what is the most likely cause of her collapse?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Correct Answer: Mixed mitral valve disease

      Explanation:

      This patient exhibits features of mixed mitral valve disease, which can be challenging to diagnose due to contradictory signs. She has a mid-diastolic rumble, low-volume pulse, and atrial fibrillation, indicating mitral stenosis. However, she also has a displaced apex beat and a pan-systolic murmur, indicating mitral regurgitation. Mixed aortic valve disease is also common in these patients. Aortic stenosis and mixed aortic valve disease are unlikely diagnoses based on the clinical findings, while mitral stenosis and mitral regurgitation alone do not fully explain the examination results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      58.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A final-year medical student is taking a history from a 63-year-old patient as...

    Correct

    • A final-year medical student is taking a history from a 63-year-old patient as a part of their general practice attachment. The patient informs her that she has a longstanding heart condition, the name of which she cannot remember. The student decides to review an old electrocardiogram (ECG) in her notes, and from it she is able to see that the patient has atrial fibrillation (AF).
      Which of the following ECG findings is typically found in AF?

      Your Answer: Absent P waves

      Explanation:

      Common ECG Findings and Their Significance

      Electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate the electrical activity of the heart. It records the heart’s rhythm and detects any abnormalities. Here are some common ECG findings and their significance:

      1. Absent P waves: Atrial fibrillation causes an irregular pulse and palpitations. ECG findings include absent P waves and irregular QRS complexes.

      2. Long PR interval: A long PR interval indicates heart block. First-degree heart block is a fixed prolonged PR interval.

      3. T wave inversion: T wave inversion can occur in fast atrial fibrillation, indicating cardiac ischaemia.

      4. Bifid P wave (p mitrale): Bifid P waves are caused by left atrial hypertrophy.

      5. ST segment elevation: ST segment elevation typically occurs in myocardial infarction. However, it may also occur in pericarditis and subarachnoid haemorrhage.

      Understanding these ECG findings can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various cardiac conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old, diabetic man, presents to the Emergency Department with central crushing chest...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old, diabetic man, presents to the Emergency Department with central crushing chest pain which radiates to his left arm and jaw. He has experienced several episodes of similar pain, usually on exercise. Increasingly he has found the pain beginning while he is at rest. A diagnosis of angina pectoris is made.
      Which branch of the coronary arteries supplies the left atrium of the heart?

      Your Answer: Circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      Coronary Arteries and their Branches

      The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries. There are two main coronary arteries: the left and right coronary arteries. These arteries branch off into smaller arteries that supply different parts of the heart. Here are some of the main branches and their functions:

      1. Circumflex artery: This artery supplies the left atrium.

      2. Sinoatrial (SA) nodal artery: This artery supplies the SA node, which is responsible for initiating the heartbeat. In most people, it arises from the right coronary artery, but in some, it comes from the left circumflex artery.

      3. Left anterior descending artery: This artery comes from the left coronary artery and supplies the interventricular septum and both ventricles.

      4. Left marginal artery: This artery is a branch of the circumflex artery and supplies the left ventricle.

      5. Posterior interventricular branch: This artery comes from the right coronary artery and supplies both ventricles and the interventricular septum.

      Understanding the different branches of the coronary arteries is important for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      58.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 20-year-old man, who recently immigrated to the United Kingdom from Eastern Europe,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man, who recently immigrated to the United Kingdom from Eastern Europe, presents to his general practitioner with a history of intermittent dizzy spells. He reports having limited exercise capacity since childhood, but this has not been investigated before. Upon examination, the patient appears slight, has a dusky blue discoloration to his lips and tongue, and has finger clubbing. A murmur is also heard. The GP refers him to a cardiologist.

      The results of a cardiac catheter study are as follows:

      Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg)
      End systolic/End diastolic
      Superior vena cava 58 -
      Inferior vena cava 52 -
      Right atrium (mean) 56 10
      Right ventricle 55 105/9
      Pulmonary artery - 16/8
      Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 9
      Left atrium 97 -
      Left ventricle 84 108/10
      Aorta 74 110/80

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Fallot's tetralogy

      Explanation:

      Fallot’s Tetralogy

      Fallot’s tetralogy is a congenital heart defect that consists of four features: ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an over-riding aorta. To diagnose this condition, doctors look for specific indicators. A step-down in oxygen saturation between the left atrium and left ventricle indicates a right to left shunt at the level of the ventricles, which is a sign of ventricular septal defect. Pulmonary stenosis is indicated by a significant gradient of 89 mmHg across the pulmonary valve, which is calculated by subtracting the right ventricular systolic pressure from the pulmonary artery systolic pressure. Right ventricular hypertrophy is diagnosed by high right ventricular pressures and a right to left shunt, as indicated by the oxygen saturations. Finally, an over-riding aorta is identified by a further step-down in oxygen saturation between the left ventricle and aorta. While this could also occur in cases of patent ductus arteriosus with right to left shunting, the presence of the other features of Fallot’s tetralogy makes an over-riding aorta the most likely cause of reduced oxygen saturation due to admixture of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle entering the left heart circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      156.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain and nausea. He reports not...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain and nausea. He reports not having a bowel movement in 3 days, despite normal bowel habits prior to this. The patient has a history of coronary stents placed after a heart attack 10 years ago. He has been asymptomatic since then and takes aspirin for his cardiac condition and NSAIDs for knee arthritis. He has not consumed alcohol in the past 5 years due to a previous episode of acute gastritis.

      On examination, there is mild tenderness over the epigastrium but no guarding. Bowel sounds are normal. An erect CXR and abdominal X-ray are unremarkable. Blood gases and routine blood tests (FBC, U&E, LFTs) are normal, with a normal amylase. Upper GI endoscopy reveals gastric erosions.

      What is the most important differential diagnosis to consider for this patient?

      Your Answer: Acute gastritis

      Correct Answer: Myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Epigastric Pain and History of Cardiac Stents

      Introduction:
      A patient with a history of cardiac stents presents with epigastric pain. The following are possible diagnoses that should be considered.

      Myocardial Infarction:
      Due to the patient’s history of cardiac stents, ruling out a myocardial infarction (MI) is crucial. An electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed early to treat any existing cardiac condition without delay.

      Duodenal Ulcer:
      A duodenal ulcer would have likely been visualized on an oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD). However, a normal erect CXR and absence of peritonitis exclude a perforated duodenal ulcer.

      Acute Gastritis:
      Given the patient’s history of aspirin and NSAID use, as well as the gastric erosions visualized on endoscopy, acute gastritis is the most likely diagnosis. However, it is important to first exclude MI as a cause of the patient’s symptoms due to their history of MI and presentation of epigastric pain.

      Pancreatitis:
      Pancreatitis is unlikely, given the normal amylase. However, on occasion, this can be normal in cases depending on the timing of the blood test or whether the pancreas has had previous chronic inflammation.

      Ischaemic Bowel:
      Ischaemic bowel would present with more generalized abdominal pain and metabolic lactic acidosis on blood gas. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      73.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old man presents with chest pain, 5/10 in intensity, which is aggravated...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents with chest pain, 5/10 in intensity, which is aggravated by breathing deeply and improved by leaning forward. The chest pain is not radiating. He has a mild fever but denies nausea, vomiting, cough or haemoptysis. He has self-medicated for a common cold and sore throat 5 days previously. On the electrocardiogram (ECG), there is diffuse, mild ST segment elevation (on leads II, aVF and V2–V6) and PR depression.
      Which of the following findings is most likely to be observed on physical examination?

      Your Answer: Triphasic systolic and diastolic rub

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and Their Characteristics

      Pericarditis: Triphasic Systolic and Diastolic Rub
      Pericarditis is characterized by pleuritic chest pain that improves by leaning forward. A pericardial friction rub, with a scratchy, rubbing quality, is the classic cardiac auscultatory finding of pericarditis. It is often a high-pitched, triphasic systolic and diastolic murmur due to friction between the pericardial and visceral pericardium during ventricular contraction, ventricular filling, and atrial contraction.

      Mitral Regurgitation: High-Pitched Apical Pan-Systolic Murmur Radiating to the Axilla
      A high-pitched apical pan-systolic murmur radiating to the axilla is heard in mitral regurgitation.

      Coarctation of the Aorta: Continuous Systolic and Diastolic Murmur Obscuring S2 Sound and Radiating to the Back
      A continuous systolic and diastolic murmur obscuring S2 sound and radiating to the back is heard in coarctation of the aorta.

      Mitral Stenosis: Apical Opening Snap and Diastolic Rumble
      An apical diastolic rumble and opening snap are heard in mitral stenosis.

      Aortic Regurgitation: Soft-Blowing Early Diastolic Decrescendo Murmur, Loudest at the Third Left Intercostal Space
      A soft-blowing early diastolic decrescendo murmur, loudest at the second or third left intercostal space, is heard in aortic regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      65.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 49-year-old woman presents to the Cardiology clinic with a heart murmur. During...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to the Cardiology clinic with a heart murmur. During the physical exam, the patient exhibits a collapsing pulse. Upon auscultation, a 2/5 early diastolic murmur is heard at the lower left sternal edge, which is more pronounced during expiration.
      What is the most probable clinical sign that will be observed?

      Your Answer: Corrigan’s sign

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Signs and Their Associated Conditions

      Corrigan’s Sign: This sign is characterized by an abrupt distension and collapse of the carotid arteries, indicating aortic incompetence. It is often seen in patients with a collapsing pulse and an early diastolic murmur, which are suggestive of aortic regurgitation. A wide pulse pressure may also be found.

      Malar Flush: Mitral stenosis is associated with malar flush, a mid-diastolic murmur, loudest at the apex when the patient is in the left lateral position, and a tapping apex. A small-volume pulse is also typical.

      Tapping Apex: A tapping apex is a classical sign of mitral stenosis.

      Pulsatile Hepatomegaly: Severe tricuspid regurgitation can cause reverse blood flow to the liver during systole, resulting in pulsatile hepatomegaly.

      Clubbing: Clubbing is more commonly seen in lung pathology and is unlikely to present in aortic regurgitation. It is seen in congenital cyanotic heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      79.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old woman with ischaemic heart disease presents with sudden onset palpitations. She...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with ischaemic heart disease presents with sudden onset palpitations. She has no other complaints. On examination, a regular tachycardia is present. Her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg. Chest is clear. ECG reveals a regular tachycardia with a QRS width of 80 ms and a rate of 149 beats per min in a sawtooth pattern.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atrial flutter

      Explanation:

      Common Cardiac Arrhythmias: Types and Characteristics

      Cardiac arrhythmias are abnormal heart rhythms that can cause serious health complications. Here are some common types of cardiac arrhythmias and their characteristics:

      1. Atrial Flutter: A type of supraventricular tachycardia that is characterized by a sawtooth pattern on the ECG. It is caused by a premature electrical impulse in the atrium and can degenerate into atrial fibrillation. Treatment involves rate or rhythm control, and electrical cardioversion is more effective than in atrial fibrillation.

      2. Fast Atrial Fibrillation: Another type of supraventricular tachycardia that presents as an irregularly irregular tachycardia.

      3. Ventricular Tachycardia: A common arrhythmia in cardiopaths that is characterized by a wide-complex tachycardia on ECG.

      4. Mobitz Type II: A form of second-degree heart block that is characterized by intermittent non-conducted P waves on ECG without progressive prolongation of the QRS interval.

      5. Brugada Syndrome: A rare electrophysiological condition that causes sudden death in young adults. ECG findings usually show ST elevation in leads V1 to V3 with a right bundle branch block.

      It is important to identify and treat cardiac arrhythmias promptly to prevent serious health complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      52.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea on exertion and palpitations. She has an...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea on exertion and palpitations. She has an irregularly irregular and tachycardic pulse, and a systolic murmur is heard on auscultation. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation and right axis deviation, while an echocardiogram shows an atrial septal defect.
      What is true about the development of the atrial septum?

      Your Answer: The foramen ovale is a physiological defect in the septum primum in the fetus

      Correct Answer: The septum secundum grows down to the right of the septum primum

      Explanation:

      During embryonic development, the septum primum grows down from the roof of the primitive atrium and fuses with the endocardial cushions. It initially has a hole called the ostium primum, which closes as the septum grows downwards. However, a second hole called the ostium secundum develops in the septum primum before fusion can occur. The septum secundum then grows downwards and to the right of the septum primum and ostium secundum. The foramen ovale is a passage through the septum secundum that allows blood to shunt from the right to the left atrium in the fetus, bypassing the pulmonary circulation. This defect closes at birth due to a drop in pressure within the pulmonary circulation after the infant takes a breath. If there is overlap between the foramen ovale and ostium secundum or if the ostium primum fails to close, an atrial septal defect results. This defect does not cause cyanosis because oxygenated blood flows from left to right through the defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 19 - In a 25-year-old woman undergoing a routine physical examination for a new job,...

    Incorrect

    • In a 25-year-old woman undergoing a routine physical examination for a new job, a mid-systolic ejection murmur is discovered in the left upper sternal border. The cardiac examination reveals a significant right ventricular cardiac impulse and wide and fixed splitting of the second heart sound. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a right axis deviation, and a chest X-ray shows enlargement of the right ventricle and atrium. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary valve stenosis

      Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities and their Clinical Findings

      Atrial Septal Defect:
      Atrial septal defect is characterized by a prominent right ventricular cardiac impulse, a systolic ejection murmur heard best in the pulmonic area and along the left sternal border, and fixed splitting of the second heart sound. These findings are due to an abnormal left-to-right shunt through the defect, which creates a volume overload on the right side. Small atrial septal defects are usually asymptomatic.

      Pulmonary Valve Stenosis:
      Pulmonary valve stenosis causes an increased right ventricular pressure which results in right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary artery dilation. A crescendo–decrescendo murmur may be heard if there is a severe stenosis. Right atrial enlargement would not be present.

      Mitral Regurgitation:
      Mitral regurgitation would also present with a systolic murmur; however, left atrial enlargement would be seen before right ventricular enlargement.

      Mitral Stenosis:
      Mitral stenosis would present with an ‘opening snap’ and a diastolic murmur.

      Aortic Stenosis:
      Aortic stenosis is also associated with a systolic ejection murmur. However, the murmur is usually loudest at the right sternal border and radiates upwards to the jugular notch. Aortic stenosis is associated with left ventricular hypertrophy.

      Clinical Findings of Common Cardiac Abnormalities

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED)...

    Incorrect

    • A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with palpitations that have been ongoing for 4 hours. He reports no chest pain, has a National Early Warning Score (NEWS) of 0, and the only physical finding is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms that the patient is experiencing atrial fibrillation. The patient has no notable medical history.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Anticoagulation therapy with warfarin

      Correct Answer: Medical cardioversion (amiodarone or flecainide)

      Explanation:

      Management of Atrial Fibrillation: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt management to prevent complications. The following are the treatment options and considerations for managing AF:

      Investigations for Reversible Causes
      Before initiating any treatment, the patient should be investigated for reversible causes of AF, such as hyperthyroidism and alcohol. Blood tests (TFTs, FBC, U and Es, LFTs, and coagulation screen) and a chest X-ray should be performed.

      Medical Cardioversion
      If no reversible causes are found, medical cardioversion is the most appropriate treatment for haemodynamically stable patients who present within 48 hours of the onset of AF. Amiodarone or flecainide can be used for this purpose.

      DC Cardioversion
      DC cardioversion is indicated for haemodynamically unstable patients, including those with shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. It is also appropriate if medical cardioversion fails.

      Anticoagulation Therapy with Warfarin
      Patients who remain in persistent AF for over 48 hours should have their CHA2DS2 VASc score calculated. If the score is equal to or greater than 1 for men or equal to or greater than 2 for women, anticoagulation therapy with warfarin should be initiated.

      Radiofrequency Ablation
      Radiofrequency ablation is not a suitable treatment for acute AF.

      24-Hour Three Lead ECG Tape
      Sending the patient home with a 24-hour three lead ECG tape and reviewing them in one week is not necessary as the diagnosis of AF has already been established.

      In summary, the management of AF involves investigating for reversible causes, considering medical or DC cardioversion, initiating anticoagulation therapy with warfarin if necessary, and avoiding radiofrequency ablation for acute AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      19.5
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  • Question 21 - A 75-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with chest pain. The man...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with chest pain. The man reports the pain as crushing in nature, exacerbated by exertion, particularly when climbing stairs in his home. The pain is typically relieved by rest, but he has experienced several episodes while watching television in the past two weeks. He has no other medical history and is generally in good health.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to hospital for admission for observation and urgent elective angiogram

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Management for a Patient with Unstable Angina

      Unstable angina is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. In the case of a patient displaying textbook signs of unstable angina, such as crushing chest pain occurring at rest, admission to the hospital is necessary. Sending the patient home with only glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray is not appropriate, as the patient is at high risk of having a myocardial infarction (MI). Instead, the patient should be seen by Cardiology for consideration of an urgent elective angiogram.

      Prescribing ramipril and simvastatin is not indicated unless there is evidence of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, including exercise recommendation, is also not appropriate for a patient with unstable angina. The immediate problem should be addressed first, which is the need for an angiogram.

      It is important to differentiate between unstable and stable angina. Unstable angina presents with symptoms at rest, indicating a significant worsening of the patient’s cardiac disease. On the other hand, stable angina only presents with symptoms on exertion.

      Sending the patient for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is not necessary unless there is evidence of an MI. The pain experienced due to angina will alleviate itself most commonly at rest, unless the angina is unstable. Therefore, an urgent elective angiogram is the appropriate management for a patient with unstable angina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old female with Down's syndrome presents with a systolic murmur on clinical...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female with Down's syndrome presents with a systolic murmur on clinical examination. What is the most prevalent cardiac anomaly observed in individuals with Down's syndrome that could account for this murmur?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Endocardial Cushion Defects

      Endocardial cushion defects, also referred to as atrioventricular (AV) canal or septal defects, are a group of abnormalities that affect the atrial septum, ventricular septum, and one or both of the AV valves. These defects occur during fetal development when the endocardial cushions, which are responsible for separating the heart chambers and forming the valves, fail to develop properly. As a result, there may be holes or gaps in the septum, or the AV valves may not close properly, leading to a mix of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the heart. This can cause a range of symptoms, including shortness of breath, fatigue, poor growth, and heart failure. Treatment for endocardial cushion defects typically involves surgery to repair the defects and improve heart function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      40.5
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  • Question 23 - The cardiologist is examining a 48-year-old man with chest pain and is using...

    Correct

    • The cardiologist is examining a 48-year-old man with chest pain and is using his stethoscope to listen to the heart. Which part of the chest is most likely to correspond to the location of the heart's apex?

      Your Answer: Left fifth intercostal space

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Heart: Intercostal Spaces and Auscultation Positions

      The human heart is a vital organ responsible for pumping blood throughout the body. Understanding its anatomy is crucial for medical professionals to diagnose and treat various heart conditions. In this article, we will discuss the intercostal spaces and auscultation positions related to the heart.

      Left Fifth Intercostal Space: Apex of the Heart
      The apex of the heart is located deep to the left fifth intercostal space, approximately 8-9 cm from the mid-sternal line. This is an important landmark for cardiac examination and procedures.

      Left Fourth Intercostal Space: Left Ventricle
      The left ventricle, one of the four chambers of the heart, is located superior to the apex and can be auscultated in the left fourth intercostal space.

      Right Fourth Intercostal Space: Right Atrium
      The right atrium, another chamber of the heart, is located immediately lateral to the right sternal margin at the right fourth intercostal space.

      Left Second Intercostal Space: Pulmonary Valve
      The pulmonary valve, which regulates blood flow from the right ventricle to the lungs, can be auscultated in the left second intercostal space, immediately lateral to the left sternal margin.

      Right Fifth Intercostal Space: Incorrect Location
      The right fifth intercostal space is an incorrect location for cardiac examination because the apex of the heart is located on the left side.

      In conclusion, understanding the intercostal spaces and auscultation positions related to the heart is essential for medical professionals to accurately diagnose and treat various heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 24 - A 54-year-old man comes to his doctor for a regular check-up after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man comes to his doctor for a regular check-up after experiencing a heart attack 6 weeks ago. During the examination, he appears unwell, sweaty, and clammy, and mentions feeling constantly feverish. His recent blood work reveals an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and anemia. What is the most probable post-heart attack complication that this man is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Dressler’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Complications Following Myocardial Infarction

      One of the complications that can occur 2-6 weeks after a myocardial infarction (MI) is Dressler’s syndrome. This autoimmune reaction happens as the myocardium heals and can present with pyrexia, pleuritic chest pain, and an elevated ESR. Pulmonary embolism is not suggested by this presentation. Another complication is myomalacia cordis, which occurs 3-14 days post-MI and involves the softening of dead muscles leading to rupture and death. Ventricular aneurysm may also form due to weakened myocardium, resulting in persistent ST elevation and left ventricular failure. Anticoagulation is necessary to prevent thrombus formation within the aneurysm and reduce the risk of stroke. Heart failure is unlikely to cause the above presentation and blood test results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      77.9
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  • Question 25 - A 60-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and dizziness. On examination, he...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and dizziness. On examination, he has an irregularly irregular pulse.
      Which of the following conditions in his past medical history might be the cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Common Endocrine Disorders and their Cardiac Manifestations

      Endocrine disorders can have significant effects on the cardiovascular system, including the development of arrhythmias. Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia that can be caused by hyperthyroidism, which should be tested for in patients presenting with this condition. Other signs of thyrotoxicosis include sinus tachycardia, physiological tremor, lid lag, and lid retraction. Graves’ disease, a common cause of hyperthyroidism, can also present with pretibial myxoedema, proptosis, chemosis, and thyroid complex ophthalmoplegia. Mnemonics such as SHIMMERS and ABCD can be used to remember the causes and management of atrial fibrillation.

      Cushing syndrome, hyperparathyroidism, and hypothyroidism can also have cardiac manifestations, although they are not typically associated with arrhythmias. Cushing syndrome is not commonly associated with arrhythmias, while hyperparathyroidism can cause hypercalcemia, leading to non-specific symptoms such as aches and pains, dehydration, fatigue, mood disturbance, constipation, and renal stones. Hypothyroidism, on the other hand, may cause bradycardia and can be caused by various factors such as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, subacute thyroiditis, iodine deficiency, and iatrogenic factors such as post-carbimazole treatment, radio-iodine, thyroidectomy, and certain medications like lithium and amiodarone.

      In summary, endocrine disorders can have significant effects on the cardiovascular system, and it is important to be aware of their potential cardiac manifestations, including arrhythmias. Early detection and management of these conditions can help prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old moderately obese man is brought to the Emergency Department with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old moderately obese man is brought to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe chest pain and shortness of breath. Upon physical examination, a pericardial tamponade is suspected and confirmed by an electrocardiogram (ECG) showing total electrical alternans and an echocardiogram revealing pericardial effusion. Which jugular vein is typically the most reliable indicator of central venous pressure (CVP)?

      Your Answer: Right internal

      Explanation:

      The Best Vein for Measuring Central Venous Pressure

      Pericardial tamponade can lead to compression of the heart by the pericardium, resulting in decreased intracardiac diastolic pressure and reduced blood flow to the right atrium. This can cause distension of the jugular veins, making the right internal jugular vein the best vein for measuring central venous pressure (CVP). Unlike the right external vein, which joins the right internal vein at an oblique angle, the right internal vein has a straight continuation with the right brachiocephalic vein and the superior vena cava, making CVP measurement more accurate. On the other hand, the left internal jugular vein makes an oblique union with the left brachiocephalic vein and the external jugular veins, making it a less reliable indicator of CVP. Similarly, the left external vein also joins the left internal vein at an oblique angle, making CVP reading less reliable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      21.2
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman attends a new patient health check at the General Practice...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman attends a new patient health check at the General Practice surgery she has recently joined. She mentions she occasionally gets episodes of palpitations and light-headedness and has done so for several years. Her pulse is currently regular, with a rate of 70 bpm, and her blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg. A full blood count is sent, which comes back as normal. The general practitioner requests an electrocardiogram (ECG), which shows a widened QRS complex with a slurred upstroke and a shortened PR interval.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Cardiac Conditions and Their ECG Findings

      Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is a condition that affects young people and is characterized by episodes of syncope and palpitations. It is caused by an accessory pathway from the atria to the ventricles that bypasses the normal atrioventricular node. The ECG shows a slurred upstroke to the QRS complex, known as a delta wave, which reflects ventricular pre-excitation. Re-entry circuits can form, leading to tachyarrhythmias and an increased risk of ventricular fibrillation.

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is an inherited condition that presents in young adulthood and is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in the young. Symptoms include syncope, dyspnea, palpitations, and abnormal ECG findings, which may include conduction abnormalities, arrhythmias, left ventricular hypertrophy, and ST or T wave changes.

      First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval and may be caused by medication, electrolyte imbalances, or post-myocardial infarction. It may also be a normal variant in young, healthy individuals.

      Ebstein’s anomaly typically presents in childhood and young adulthood with fatigue, palpitations, cyanosis, and breathlessness on exertion. The ECG shows right bundle branch block and signs of atrial enlargement, such as tall, broad P waves.

      Mobitz type II atrioventricular block is a type of second-degree heart block that is characterized by a stable PR interval with some non-conducted beats. It often progresses to complete heart block. Mobitz type I (Wenckebach) block, on the other hand, is characterized by a progressively lengthening PR interval, followed by a non-conducted beat and a reset of the PR interval back to a shorter value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      77.2
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  • Question 28 - An 82-year-old man has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath, tiredness, intermittent chest...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old man has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath, tiredness, intermittent chest pain and leg swelling for the past 6 months. He recently underwent an echocardiogram as an outpatient which revealed evidence of heart failure. As the FY1 on the Medical Assessment Unit, you have been tasked with taking the patient's medical history. He has a history of hypertension and gout and is currently taking diltiazem (calcium-channel blocker) 60 mg po bd, furosemide (diuretic) 20 mg po od, Spironolactone 25mg od, allopurinol 100 mg po od, paracetamol 1 g po qds prn, and lisinopril 20 mg po od. Considering his likely diagnosis of heart failure, which medication should be discontinued?

      Your Answer: Diltiazem

      Explanation:

      Medications for Heart Failure: Understanding their Effects

      Heart failure is a complex condition that requires careful management, including the use of various medications. In this context, it is important to understand the effects of each drug and how they can impact the patient’s health. Here is a brief overview of some commonly used medications for heart failure and their effects:

      Diltiazem: This calcium-channel blocker can be used to treat angina and hypertension. However, it is advisable to stop calcium-channel blockers in patients with heart disease, as they can reduce the contractility of the heart, exacerbating the condition.

      Spironolactone: This drug can help alleviate leg swelling by reducing water retention. It is also one of the three drugs in heart failure that have been shown to reduce mortality, along with ACE inhibitors and b-blockers.

      Allopurinol: This medication is used in the prevention of gout long term and has no detrimental effect on the heart.

      Paracetamol: This drug does not have an effect on the heart.

      Lisinopril: This ACE inhibitor is used in the treatment of hypertension and the prophylactic treatment of angina. Stopping this medication is likely to worsen heart failure. Like spironolactone and b-blockers, ACE inhibitors have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure, although the mechanisms behind this effect are not fully understood.

      In summary, understanding the effects of medications for heart failure is crucial for optimizing patient care and improving outcomes. Healthcare providers should carefully consider each drug’s benefits and risks and tailor treatment to the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 29 - You are asked to see a 63-year-old man who has been admitted overnight...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 63-year-old man who has been admitted overnight following a road traffic accident. He sustained extensive bruising to his chest from the steering wheel. The nurses are concerned as he has become hypotensive and tachycardic. There is a history of a previous inferior myocardial infarction some 7 years ago, but nil else of note. On examination his BP is 90/50 mmHg, pulse is 95/min and regular. He looks peripherally shut down. There are muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus.
      Investigations – arterial blood gas - reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      pH 7.29 7.35–7.45
      pO2 11.9 kPa 11.2–14.0 kPa
      pCO2 6.1 kPa 4.7–6.0 kPa
      ECG Widespread anterior T wave inversion
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: NSTEMI

      Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypotension, Tachycardia, and Muffled Heart Sounds Following a Road Traffic Accident: Cardiac Tamponade, Myocarditis, NSTEMI, Pericarditis, and STEMI

      A 67-year-old man presents with hypotension, tachycardia, and poor peripheral perfusion following a road traffic accident with a steering wheel injury. On examination, muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus are noted, and an ECG shows widespread anterior T-wave inversion. The patient has a history of inferior wall MI seven years ago. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals respiratory acidosis.

      The differential diagnosis includes cardiac tamponade, myocarditis, NSTEMI, pericarditis, and STEMI. While myocarditis can cause similar symptoms and ECG changes, the presence of muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus suggests fluid in the pericardium and cardiac tamponade. NSTEMI and STEMI can also cause acute onset of symptoms and ECG changes, but the absence of ST elevation and the history of trauma make cardiac tamponade more likely. Pericarditis can cause muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus, but the absence of peripheral hypoperfusion and the presence of non-specific ST-T changes on ECG make it less likely.

      In conclusion, the clinical scenario is most consistent with traumatic cardiac tamponade, which requires urgent echocardiography for confirmation and possible guided pericardiocentesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and is noted to have...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and is noted to have an irregular pulse. He reports intermittent palpitations over the past two months, which come on around four to five times weekly and are troublesome. He has diet-controlled type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms atrial fibrillation (AF) with a rate of 82 bpm. He has no chest pain and is not in overt cardiac failure. He is otherwise well and enjoys hill walking.
      What is the appropriate new pharmacological therapy for the patient’s condition?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol and apixaban

      Explanation:

      Drug combinations for treating atrial fibrillation: A guide

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common heart condition that requires treatment to control heart rate and prevent stroke. Here are some drug combinations that may be used to manage AF:

      Bisoprolol and apixaban: This combination is recommended for patients who need both rate control and anticoagulation. Bisoprolol is a standard ß-blocker used for rate control, while apixaban is an anticoagulant that lowers the risk of stroke.

      Digoxin and warfarin: Digoxin may be used for rate control in elderly patients with non-paroxysmal AF who lead a sedentary lifestyle. However, in this scenario, bisoprolol is a better choice for rate control since the patient enjoys hill walking. Warfarin is appropriate for anticoagulation.

      Bisoprolol and aspirin: Aspirin monotherapy is no longer recommended for stroke prevention in patients with AF. Bisoprolol should be used as first line for rate control.

      Digoxin and aspirin: Similar to the previous combination, aspirin monotherapy is no longer recommended for stroke prevention in patients with AF. Digoxin may be used for rate control in elderly patients with non-paroxysmal AF who lead a sedentary lifestyle. However, in this scenario, bisoprolol is a better choice for rate control since the patient enjoys hill walking.

      Warfarin alone: Even though the patient’s heart rate is currently controlled, he has a history of symptomatic paroxysmal episodes of AF and will need an agent for rate control, as well as warfarin for anticoagulation.

      In summary, the choice of drug combination for managing AF depends on the patient’s individual needs and preferences, as well as their risk factors for stroke. It is important to discuss the options with a healthcare professional to make an informed decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 31 - A 72-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine check-up and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine check-up and is found to have a systolic murmur heard loudest in the aortic region. The murmur increases in intensity with deep inspiration and does not radiate. What is the most probable abnormality in this patient?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Explanation:

      Systolic Valvular Murmurs

      A systolic valvular murmur can be caused by aortic/pulmonary stenosis or mitral/tricuspid regurgitation. It is important to note that the location where the murmur is heard loudest can be misleading. For instance, if it is aortic stenosis, the murmur is expected to radiate to the carotids. However, the significant factor to consider is that the murmur is heard loudest on inspiration. During inspiration, venous return to the heart increases, which exacerbates right-sided murmurs. Conversely, expiration reduces venous return and exacerbates left-sided murmurs. To remember this useful fact, the mnemonic RILE (Right on Inspiration, Left on Expiration) can be used.

      If a systolic murmur is enhanced on inspiration, it must be a right-sided murmur, which could be pulmonary stenosis or tricuspid regurgitation. However, in this case, only pulmonary stenosis is an option. systolic valvular murmurs and their characteristics is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 32 - A patient comes to your general practice with deteriorating shortness of breath and...

    Incorrect

    • A patient comes to your general practice with deteriorating shortness of breath and ankle swelling. You have been treating them for a few years for their congestive cardiac failure, which has been gradually worsening. Currently, the patient is at ease when resting, but standing up and walking a few steps cause their symptoms to appear. According to the New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification, what stage of heart failure are they in?

      Your Answer: II

      Correct Answer: III

      Explanation:

      Understanding NYHA Classification for Heart Failure Patients

      The NYHA classification system is used to assess the severity of heart failure symptoms in patients. Class I indicates no limitation of physical activity, while class IV indicates severe limitations and symptoms even at rest. This patient falls under class III, with marked limitation of physical activity but no symptoms at rest. It is important for healthcare professionals to understand and use this classification system to properly manage and treat heart failure patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 33 - A young marine biologist was snorkelling among giant stingrays when the tail (barb)...

    Correct

    • A young marine biologist was snorkelling among giant stingrays when the tail (barb) of one of the stingrays suddenly pierced his chest. The tip of the barb pierced the right ventricle and the man instinctively removed it in the water. When he was brought onto the boat, there was absence of heart sounds, reduced cardiac output and engorged jugular veins.

      What was the most likely diagnosis for the young marine biologist who was snorkelling among giant stingrays and had the tail (barb) of one of the stingrays pierce his chest, causing the tip of the barb to pierce the right ventricle? Upon being brought onto the boat, the young man exhibited absence of heart sounds, reduced cardiac output and engorged jugular veins.

      Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a patient with chest trauma

      When evaluating a patient with chest trauma, it is important to consider various potential diagnoses based on the clinical presentation and mechanism of injury. Here are some possible explanations for different symptoms:

      – Cardiac tamponade: If a projectile penetrates the fibrous pericardium, blood can accumulate in the pericardial cavity and compress the heart, leading to decreased cardiac output and potential death.
      – Deep vein thrombosis: This condition involves the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, often in the leg. However, it does not typically cause the symptoms described in this case.
      – Stroke: A stroke occurs when blood flow to the brain is disrupted, usually due to a blockage or rupture of an artery. This is not likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
      – Pulmonary embolism: If a clot from a deep vein thrombosis travels to the lungs and obstructs blood flow, it can cause sudden death. However, given the history of trauma, other possibilities should be considered first.
      – Haemothorax: This refers to the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity around a lung. While it can cause respiratory distress and chest pain, it does not typically affect jugular veins or heart sounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 34 - A 56-year-old patient presents for an annual review. He has no significant past...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old patient presents for an annual review. He has no significant past medical history. He is a smoker and has a family history of ischaemic heart disease: body mass index (BMI) 27.4, blood pressure (BP) 178/62 mmHg, fasting serum cholesterol 7.9 mmol/l (normal value < 5.17 mmol/l), triglycerides 2.2 mmol/l (normal value < 1.7 mmol/l), fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/l (normal value 3.9–5.6 mmol/l).
      Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for his cholesterol?

      Your Answer: Start atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease

      The primary prevention of cardiovascular disease (CVD) involves identifying and managing risk factors such as high cholesterol, smoking, hypertension, and family history of heart disease. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of these risk factors.

      Start Atorvastatin: NICE recommends offering atorvastatin 20 mg to people with a 10% or greater 10-year risk of developing CVD. Atorvastatin is preferred over simvastatin due to its superior efficacy and side-effect profile.

      Reassure and Repeat in One Year: NICE advises using the QRISK2 risk assessment tool to assess CVD risk and starting treatment if the risk is >10%.

      Dietary Advice and Repeat in Six Months: Dietary advice should be offered to all patients, including reducing saturated fat intake, increasing mono-unsaturated fat intake, choosing wholegrain varieties of starchy food, reducing sugar intake, eating fruits and vegetables, fish, nuts, seeds, and legumes.

      Start Bezafibrate: NICE advises against routinely offering fibrates for the prevention of CVD to people being treated for primary prevention.

      Start Ezetimibe: Ezetimibe is not a first-line treatment for hyperlipidaemia, but people with primary hypercholesterolaemia should be considered for ezetimibe treatment.

      Overall, a combination of lifestyle changes and medication can effectively manage cardiovascular risk factors and prevent the development of CVD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 35 - A 67-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department by ambulance with chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department by ambulance with chest pain that began 45 minutes ago. An ECG is performed and shows ST elevation in leads V1-V6, with ST depression in leads III and aVF. The closest facility capable of providing primary PCI is a 2 hour transfer time by ambulance. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Administer thrombolysis and transfer for PCI

      Explanation:

      Management of ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction in Remote Locations

      ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment. Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is the gold standard first-line treatment for STEMI, but in remote locations, the patient may need to be taken to the nearest facility for initial assessment prior to transfer for PCI. In such cases, the most appropriate management strategy should be considered to minimize time delays and optimize patient outcomes.

      Administer Thrombolysis and Transfer for PCI

      In cases where the transfer time to the nearest PCI facility is more than 120 minutes, fibrinolysis prior to transfer should be strongly considered. This is particularly important for patients with anterior STEMI, where time is of the essence. Aspirin, clopidogrel, and low-molecular-weight heparin should also be administered, and the patient should be transferred to a PCI-delivering facility as soon as possible.

      Other Treatment Options

      If PCI is not likely to be achievable within 120 minutes of when fibrinolysis could have been given, thrombolysis should be administered prior to transfer. Analgesia alone is not sufficient, and unfractionated heparin is not the optimum treatment for STEMI.

      Conclusion

      In remote locations, the management of STEMI requires careful consideration of the potential time delays involved in transferring the patient to a PCI-delivering facility. Administering thrombolysis prior to transfer can help minimize delays and improve patient outcomes. Aspirin, clopidogrel, and low-molecular-weight heparin should also be administered, and the patient should be transferred to a PCI-delivering facility as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 36 - A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and difficulty breathing. He had been hospitalized four weeks ago for acute coronary syndrome and was discharged on bisoprolol, simvastatin, aspirin, and ramipril. During the examination, a narrow complex tachycardia is observed. What is the absolute contraindication in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil and Beta Blockers: A Dangerous Combination

      Verapamil is a type of medication that blocks calcium channels in the heart, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and a slower heart rate. However, it also has negative effects on the heart’s ability to contract, making it a highly negatively inotropic drug. Additionally, it may impair the conduction of electrical signals between the atria and ventricles of the heart.

      According to the British National Formulary (BNF), verapamil should not be given to patients who are already taking beta blockers. This is because the combination of these two drugs can lead to dangerously low blood pressure and even asystole, a condition where the heart stops beating altogether.

      Therefore, it is important for healthcare professionals to carefully consider a patient’s medication history before prescribing verapamil. If a patient is already taking beta blockers, alternative treatments should be considered to avoid the potentially life-threatening consequences of combining these two drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 37 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that has worsened over the past 2 days. She also reported feeling ‘a little run down’ with a sore throat a week ago. She has history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. She reports diffuse chest pain that feels better when she leans forward. On examination, she has a temperature of 37.94 °C and a blood pressure of 140/84 mmHg. Her heart rate is 76 bpm. A friction rub is heard on cardiac auscultation, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates ST segment elevation in nearly every lead. Her physical examination and blood tests are otherwise within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely aetiology of her chest pain?

      Your Answer: Post-myocardial infarction syndrome (Dressler syndrome)

      Correct Answer: Post-viral complication

      Explanation:

      Pericarditis as a Post-Viral Complication: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardium, can occur as a post-viral complication. Patients typically experience diffuse chest pain that improves when leaning forward, and a friction rub may be heard on cardiac auscultation. Diffuse ST segment elevations on ECG can be mistaken for myocardial infarction. In this case, the patient reported recent viral symptoms and then developed acute pericardial symptoms.

      While systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can cause pericarditis, other symptoms such as rash, myalgia, or joint pain would be expected, along with a positive anti-nuclear antibodies test. Uraemia can also cause pericarditis, but elevated blood urea nitrogen would be present, and this patient has no history of kidney disease. Dressler syndrome, or post-myocardial infarction pericarditis, can cause diffuse ST elevations, but does not represent transmural infarction. Chest radiation can also cause pericarditis, but this patient has no history of radiation exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 38 - A 50-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath on exertion, and reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath on exertion, and reports that she sleeps on three pillows at night to avoid shortness of breath. Past medical history of note includes two recent transient ischaemic attacks which have resulted in transient speech disturbance and minor right arm weakness. Other non-specific symptoms include fever and gradual weight loss over the past few months. On auscultation of the heart you notice a loud first heart sound, and a plopping sound in early diastole. General examination also reveals that she is clubbed.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 6.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Haemoglobin 101 g/dl
      (normochromic normocytic) 115–155 g/l
      Platelets 195 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      White cell count (WCC) 11.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 85 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Chest X-ray Unusual intra-cardiac calcification
      within the left atrium

      Which of the following fits best with the likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Correct Answer: Left atrial myxoma

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Conditions: Differentiating Left Atrial Myxoma from Other Pathologies

      Left atrial myxoma is a cardiac condition characterized by heart sounds, systemic embolization, and intracardiac calcification seen on X-ray. Echocardiography is used to confirm the diagnosis, and surgery is usually curative. However, other cardiac pathologies can present with similar symptoms, including rheumatic heart disease, mitral stenosis, mitral regurgitation, and infective endocarditis. It is important to differentiate between these conditions to provide appropriate treatment. This article discusses the key features of each pathology to aid in diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      74.2
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  • Question 39 - What do T waves represent on an ECG? ...

    Correct

    • What do T waves represent on an ECG?

      Your Answer: Ventricular repolarisation

      Explanation:

      The Electrical Activity of the Heart and the ECG

      The ECG (electrocardiogram) is a medical test that records the electrical activity of the heart. This activity is responsible for different parts of the ECG. The first part is the atrial depolarisation, which is represented by the P wave. This wave conducts down the bundle of His to the ventricles, causing the ventricular depolarisation. This is shown on the ECG as the QRS complex. Finally, the ventricular repolarisation is represented by the T wave.

      It is important to note that atrial repolarisation is not visible on the ECG. This is because it is of lower amplitude compared to the QRS complex. the different parts of the ECG and their corresponding electrical activity can help medical professionals diagnose and treat various heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 40 - A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of hypertension visits his primary care...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of hypertension visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. He mentions experiencing a painful, burning sensation in his legs when he walks long distances and feeling cold in his lower extremities. He has no history of dyslipidaemia. Upon examination, his temperature is 37.1 °C; the blood pressure in his left arm is 174/96 mmHg, heart rate 78 bpm, respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. He has 1+ dorsalis pedis pulses bilaterally, and his lower extremities are cool to the touch. Cardiac auscultation does not reveal any murmurs, rubs, or gallops. His abdominal examination is unremarkable, and no bruits are heard on auscultation. Renal function tests show a creatinine level of 71 μmol/l (50–120 μmol/l), which is his baseline. What is the most likely defect present in this patient?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Coarctation of the Aorta, Patent Ductus Arteriosus, Renal Artery Stenosis, Atrial Septal Defect, and Bilateral Lower Extremity Deep Vein Thrombosis are all cardiovascular conditions that have distinct symptoms and characteristics.

      Coarctation of the Aorta is characterized by hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities. Patients may also experience lower extremity claudication due to low oxygen delivery. Chest X-rays may reveal notching of the ribs. Treatment involves surgical resection of the narrowed lumen.

      Patent Ductus Arteriosus refers to a persistent open lumen in the ductus arteriosus, causing a left-to-right shunt. A constant, machine-like murmur is detected on cardiac auscultation. If left untreated, it can lead to Eisenmenger syndrome and reverse to become a cyanotic right-to-left shunt.

      Renal Artery Stenosis causes decreased blood flow to the kidneys, leading to fluid retention and hypertension. A bruit is typically heard on auscultation of the abdomen, and creatinine levels may be elevated due to decreased renal perfusion.

      Atrial Septal Defect is a congenital abnormality that causes a left-to-right shunt. It can be detected by a fixed, widely split S2 on cardiac auscultation. If left untreated, it can lead to pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure.

      Bilateral Lower Extremity Deep Vein Thrombosis refers to blood clots in the deep veins of the legs, causing lower extremity swelling, warmth, and erythema. It does not cause hypertension, claudication, or cool lower extremities. Lower extremity arterial insufficiency may cause claudication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      25.3
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